AREA 3 SUBJECT 3 - Quiz
  • 1. An investigator interviews a witness in a friendly, non-accusatory manner to gather facts about a crime. This process best exemplifies which technique?
A) Elicitation
B) Interview
C) Cross-examination
D) Interrogation
  • 2. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information.
B) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral
C) Both are the same under Philippine law.
D) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest.
  • 3. When an investigator uses empathy and understanding to encourage a suspect to talk, which method of interrogation is being applied?
A) Logical approach
B) Direct approach
C) Coercive technique
D) Emotional appeal
  • 4. The legal requirement that a confession must be made voluntarily ensures the observance of which constitutional right?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right to bail
C) Right against self-incrimination
D) Right to privacy
  • 5. The admissibility of a confession depends on its being made:
A) Before the barangay captain
B) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
C) Under oath and notarized
D) In writing and in the presence of a police officer
  • 6. A confession made without the presence of counsel is inadmissible because it violates which rule of law?
A) Miranda Doctrine
B) Rule on res gestae
C) Chain of custody rule
D) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
  • 7. What is the primary purpose of the Miranda warning in police interrogation?
A) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed
B) To protect the investigator from liability
C) To make the suspect feel guilty
D) To shorten the process of interrogation
  • 8. A statement made by a dying person regarding the cause of his death is called:
A) Admission
B) Dying declaration
C) Res gestae
D) Confession
  • 9. For a dying declaration to be admissible, it must be shown that:
A) The declarant was under police custody
B) The declarant believed death was imminent.
C) The declaration was made before a lawyer
D) The statement was in writing.
  • 10. The principle that a dying person would not meet death with a lie is known as:
A) Doctrine of dying declaration
B) Rule of Res Gestae
C) Doctrine of finality
D) Principle of truthfulness
  • 11. Statements made immediately after a startling event, without time to fabricate, are known as:
A) Independent relevant statements
B) Confessions
C) Admissions
D) Res gestae
  • 12. Which of the following is an example of an independent relevant statement?
A) A doctor’s report describing injuries
B) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime
C) A suspect’s confession to police
D) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant
  • 13. During interrogation, a suspect breaks down and admits the crime. The confession will be inadmissible if:
A) It was made in private
B) It was made after prolonged questioning
C) It was written in English
D) It was made without counsel
  • 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of interview used in criminal investigation?
A) Coercive interview
B) Investigative interview
C) Cognitive interview
D) Structured interview
  • 15. In the cognitive interview technique, the investigator encourages the witness to:
A) Confess guilt
B) Guess what happened
C) Recall events from different perspectives
D) Create a timeline
  • 16. Which of the following makes a confession valid and admissible?
A) Made before a prosecutor without counsel
B) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing
C) Signed before an ordinary witness
D) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present
  • 17. A suspect confesses under threat of harm from the police. Under the Rules of Evidence, the confession is
A) Conditional
B) Inadmissible
C) Admissible
D) Partially admissible
  • 18. What distinguishes an admission from a confession?
A) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt.
B) They are synonymous in criminal law
C) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after.
D) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts.
  • 19. In evaluating a suspect’s confession, the court will primarily consider:
A) The number of witnesses
B) The investigator’s experience
C) The seriousness of the crime
D) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
  • 20. When the suspect exercises the right to remain silent, the investigator must:
A) Detain the suspect longer
B) Continue the questioning
C) Stop the interrogation immediately
D) Use persuasion
  • 21. During a police interview, the investigator allows the suspect to narrate freely without interruption. Which method of questioning is being applied?
A) Structured Interview
B) Narrative Method
C) Cognitive Interview
D) Cross-Examination Approach
  • 22. In an interrogation, the investigator deliberately pauses after the suspect gives an incomplete answer to encourage further disclosure. This technique is known as:
A) Silence technique
B) Repetition technique
C) Theme development
D) Emotional appeal
  • 23. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly
B) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest
C) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants
D) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory
  • 24. A police investigator fails to inform a suspect of his constitutional rights before taking a confession. Which is the legal consequence?
A) The confession remains admissible
B) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible
C) The confession may be admitted if written and signed
D) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration
  • 25. Which of the following elements is NOT essential for a confession to be admissible?
A) It must be voluntary
B) It must be in writing
C) It must be expressed and categorical
D) It must be made with the assistance of counsel
  • 26. A dying person tells a nurse that “Juan stabbed me because I refused to give him money.” Which statement is legally valid as a dying declaration?
A) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer
B) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
C) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death
D) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible
  • 27. A confession made without counsel but later affirmed in open court with counsel present is:
A) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence
B) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver
C) Admissible because it was later confirmed
D) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights
  • 28. A statement made by a victim who later dies, but who did not believe death was imminent, may be admitted as:
A) Part of res gestae
B) Independent relevant statement
C) Dying declaration
D) Admission
  • 29. Which principle guides the admissibility of a dying declaration under Rule 130 of the Rules on Evidence?
A) Necessity and trustworthiness
B) Materiality and spontaneity
C) Voluntariness and legality
D) Opportunity and impartiality
  • 30. A suspect admits that he “might have hit the victim by accident.” What type of admission is this?
A) Judicial admission
B) Extrajudicial confession
C) Tacit confession
D) Qualified admission
  • 31. During an interrogation, the investigator uses deception to make the suspect believe evidence exists. Which statement is correct?
A) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor
B) Deception invalidates all statements
C) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances
D) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
  • 32. A witness spontaneously blurts out, “He ran that way after shooting the man!” immediately after the crime. This statement is classified as
A) Dying declaration
B) Res gestae statement
C) Confession
D) Admission against interest
  • 33. A police officer questions a suspect for six hours without counsel and without informing him of his rights. The resulting statement is:
A) Admissible due to continuous questioning
B) Coerced confession
C) Voluntary admission
D) Valid under implied waiver doctrine
  • 34. Which of the following is not a proper objective of interrogation?
A) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
B) test the validity of gathered evidence
C) To obtain a confession
D) To elicit truth about participation in a crime
  • 35. When the declarant’s statement is offered only to prove that the statement was made, not for its truth, it falls under:
A) Admission
B) Confession
C) Independent relevant statement
D) Hearsay
  • 36. Which of the following situations best fits the rule on dying declaration?
A) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement
B) The declaration must be in written form
C) The declarant must believe death is inevitable
D) The declarant must die immediately after the statement
  • 37. When a suspect’s statement is taken with counsel but through threat and intimidation, the statement is:
A) Admissible because counsel was present
B) Inadmissible for being involuntary
C) Valid if re-affirmed later
D) Admissible only as corroborative evidence
  • 38. An investigator allows the witness to reconstruct the crime scene mentally to enhance recall. This method refers to
A) Narrative reconstruction
B) Hypnosis technique
C) Investigative visualization
D) Cognitive interviewing
  • 39. A confession obtained during custodial investigation without the presence of counsel but repeated voluntarily in court with counsel is:
A) Admissible in full
B) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation
C) Admissible as corroborative evidence
D) Admissible only in part
  • 40. A victim tells his neighbor before dying, “Tell my mother that Pedro stabbed me.” The victim clearly thought he was dying. This statement is:
A) Dying declaration
B) Inadmissible hearsay
C) Admission against interest
D) Confession
  • 41. A confession made after the suspect was informed of his rights but before counsel arrived is:
A) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning
B) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
C) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official
D) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked
  • 42. During an interrogation, the investigator builds rapport and gradually shifts to direct questioning about the crime. This process is part of which interrogation phase?
A) Termination phase
B) Question-and-answer phase
C) Approach phase
D) Preparation phase
  • 43. The “PEACE” model (Preparation, Engage, Account, Closure, Evaluation) commonly used in investigative interviewing focuses on:
A) Use of psychological manipulation
B) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning
C) Extracting confession through pressure
D) Rapid confessional tactics
  • 44. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of interrogation under Philippine law?
A) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction
B) Encouraging voluntary cooperation
C) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession
D) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely
  • 45. In applying the “logical approach” to interrogation, the investigator primarily relies on:
A) Deception and bluffing
B) Emotional appeal and sympathy
C) Physical pressure
D) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies
  • 46. When a witness’s statement is taken immediately after the incident to preserve accuracy of recollection, it is called:
A) Preliminary interview
B) Investigative debriefing
C) Cognitive interrogation
D) Cross-examination
  • 47. A suspect, after consulting with his lawyer, voluntarily admits his role in the crime without coercion. The confession is
A) Inadmissible for being post-consultation
B) Admissible in evidence
C) Considered res gestae
D) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses
  • 48. The main purpose of conducting an interview before an interrogation is to:
A) Obtain physical evidence
B) Gather information without accusation
C) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Intimidate the suspect to confess
  • 49. Under the Rules on Evidence, which of the following is required for a dying declaration to be valid?
A) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator
B) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death
C) The declarant must identify the killer
D) The declarant must be under oath
  • 50. A statement made by a witness out of court to explain his subsequent actions, not to prove the truth of the statement, is an example of:
A) Independent relevant statement
B) Res gestae
C) Admission
D) Confession
  • 51. The key distinguishing element between theft and robbery under the Revised Penal Code is:
A) The intent to gain
B) The use or threat of violence or intimidation
C) The value of the property stolen
D) The number of offenders
  • 52. Which of the following is a crucial initial step in investigating a robbery incident?
A) Tracing the stolen property
B) Conducting a background check on the victim
C) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
D) Filing the case immediately
  • 53. The modus operandi of the suspect and the means of entry and escape are primarily analyzed during which phase of property crime investigation?
A) Evidence collection
B) Intelligence gathering
C) Suspect profiling
D) Crime scene reconstruction
  • 54. The main difference between estafa and theft is:
A) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings.
B) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not
C) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not.
D) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not.
  • 55. In investigating estafa cases, the most vital documentary evidence is:
A) Confession of the accused
B) CCTV footage
C) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction
D) Property inventory
  • 56. A car is taken without the owner’s consent with intent to gain. This act falls under:
A) Robbery
B) Qualified theft
C) Estafa
D) Carnapping
  • 57. The Anti-Carnapping Law (R.A. 10883) defines carnapping as the taking of a motor vehicle:
A) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain
B) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally
C) With violence or intimidation only
D) Without violence but with intent to gain
  • 58. Under R.A. 10883, when carnapping results in the death of a person, the penalty is:
A) Life imprisonment
B) Reclusion perpetua to death
C) Death by lethal injection
D) Reclusion temporal
  • 59. In the investigation of carnapping cases, the Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) is primarily used to:
A) Trace ownership and vehicle identity
B) Identify the manufacturer
C) Determine insurance status
D) Locate the driver
  • 60. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) penalizes
A) Those who report stolen property
B) Those who physically steal property
C) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen
D) Only those who steal cars
  • 61. The essential element that distinguishes a fencer from a thief is:
A) The ownership of the property
B) The absence of intent to gain
C) The act of concealing the property
D) The act of possession rather than the act of taking
  • 62. Which document serves as the primary reference in proving ownership of a motor vehicle in carnapping cases?
A) Driver’s license
B) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR)
C) Insurance policy
D) Sales invoice
  • 63. The presumption of fencing arises when:
A) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation
B) The property is found hidden
C) The accused buys property from a store
D) The accused was seen near the crime scene
  • 64. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) was enacted primarily to:
A) Reduce robbery incidents
B) Punish the original thief
C) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods
D) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce
  • 65. In human trafficking under R.A. 9208, the core element is:
A) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion
B) Payment of recruitment fees
C) Recruitment for legal overseas work
D) Use of minors in employment
  • 66. R.A. 10364 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking Act) strengthened R.A. 9208 by:
A) Allowing voluntary prostitution
B) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability
C) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only
D) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment
  • 67. The latest amendment, R.A. 11862 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2022), focuses on:
A) Increasing fines
B) Reducing penalties for traffickers
C) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction
D) Limiting law enforcement authority
  • 68. The victim-centered approach in human trafficking investigations emphasizes:
A) Media exposure
B) Immediate deportation
C) Aggressive interrogation
D) Protection and rehabilitation of victims
  • 69. Under R.A. 9208, the following is NOT considered trafficking:
A) Adoption following legal procedures
B) Forced labor
C) Debt bondage
D) Exploitation of prostitution
  • 70. One of the stages of money laundering where illegal money enters the financial system is called:
A) Structuring
B) Placement
C) Integration
D) Layering
  • 71. The layering stage of money laundering involves:
A) Depositing the proceeds
B) Investing clean money
C) Reporting suspicious transactions
D) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin
  • 72. The integration stage occurs when:
A) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts
B) The launderer hides the funds abroad
C) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses
D) Authorities freeze the assets
  • 73. The Anti-Money Laundering Act (R.A. 9160) aims to:
A) Allow anonymous foreign accounts
B) Encourage secret banking
C) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds
D) Regulate pawnshops
  • 74. Under R.A. 10927, casinos are included as:
A) Charitable organizations
B) Non-reporting entities
C) Exempt institutions
D) Covered persons under AMLA
  • 75. Under AMLA, a transaction exceeding ₱500,000 within one banking day must be reported as:
A) Suspicious transaction
B) Covered transaction
C) Threshold transaction
D) Layered transaction
  • 76. Failure of a covered institution to report suspicious transactions constitutes:
A) Administrative offense only
B) A criminal violation under AMLA
C) No liability if unintentional
D) Gross negligence
  • 77. The body primarily responsible for enforcing AMLA is:
A) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)
B) Securities and Exchange Commission
C) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
D) Department of Justice
  • 78. The approach in investigating theft focuses on:
A) Identifying the victim’s negligence
B) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain
C) Checking bank accounts
D) Establishing the suspect’s income
  • 79. The investigative approach in robbery emphasizes:
A) Studying the suspect’s financial background
B) Recovery of stolen property only
C) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence
D) Conducting digital forensics
  • 80. In estafa investigations, one must primarily analyze:
A) Suspect’s criminal record
B) Place of transaction only
C) Modus operandi and deceit pattern
D) The victim’s wealth
  • 81. Under R.A. 10883, the registered owner’s failure to report a stolen vehicle within 24 hours may result in:
A) Presumption of involvement in the crime
B) No consequence
C) Forfeiture of insurance claims
D) Administrative sanction
  • 82. A person who buys a motorcycle at a suspiciously low price without verifying ownership documents may be liable for:
A) Estafa
B) Theft
C) Fencing
D) Carnapping
  • 83. Under AMLA, a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is required when:
A) The depositor is a senior citizen
B) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual
C) The account balance is low
D) The account is new
  • 84. In investigating money laundering, the financial trail is reconstructed mainly through:
A) Paper and digital transaction audit
B) Bank advertisements
C) News reports
D) Witness interviews
  • 85. The common investigative challenge across property, financial, and trafficking crimes is:
A) International cooperation and evidence tracing
B) Media pressure
C) Lack of police equipment
D) Political influence
  • 86. A police investigator observes that a crime scene has no signs of forced entry, yet valuable items are missing. Which crime is most likely being investigated?
A) Robbery
B) Theft
C) Estafa
D) Carnapping
  • 87. In distinguishing theft from robbery, which investigative focus is most critical?
A) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation
B) Relationship between victim and offender
C) The monetary value of the property stolen
D) Use of deception or false pretenses
  • 88. A businessman convinces several investors to give money for a fake project. Which investigative approach should be applied?
A) Financial and documentary audit
B) Vehicle tracing system
C) Property recovery operation
D) Physical evidence collection at the scene
  • 89. In robbery cases, an investigator should prioritize the collection of which type of evidence?
A) Documentary and bank receipts
B) Computer logs and online records
C) Vehicle registration documents
D) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints
  • 90. In a case of estafa, what kind of evidence is most crucial for conviction?
A) DNA evidence
B) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage
C) Eyewitness testimony
D) Physical evidence at the crime scene
  • 91. Under R.A. 10883 (New Anti-Carnapping Law), when is the crime of carnapping considered consummated?
A) When the vehicle is sold to another person
B) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner
C) When the owner reports the loss
D) When the vehicle leaves the city or province
  • 92. A vehicle is stolen and immediately disassembled for sale of parts. Under R.A. 10883, this is classified as:
A) Robbery
B) Qualified carnapping
C) Simple carnapping
D) Theft
  • 93. Under P.D. 1612 (Anti-Fencing Law), which of the following elements must be proven to establish guilt?
A) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence
B) Amount of profit derived from the property
C) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen
D) Ownership of stolen property by the fence
  • 94. A buyer purchased a secondhand motorcycle at a suspiciously low price and failed to verify its origin. Under P.D. 1612, this constitutes:
A) Fencing
B) Theft by negligence
C) Innocent purchase
D) Estafa
  • 95. Which of the following is a distinguishing investigative step in human trafficking cases compared to other crimes against property?
A) Accounting audit of business operations
B) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities
C) Collection of firearms evidence
D) Vehicle tracing through LTO database
  • 96. Under R.A. 9208 (Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act), what element distinguishes trafficking from illegal recruitment?
A) Violation of labor regulations
B) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation
C) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old
D) Employment abroad
  • 97. Which law expanded the coverage of human trafficking to include “online sexual exploitation and cyber trafficking”?
A) R.A. 10883
B) R.A. 10364
C) P.D. 1612
D) R.A. 9208
  • 98. Under R.A. 11862, what new provision strengthened the protection of trafficking victims?
A) Non-deportation of foreign victims
B) Repatriation without consent
C) Immunity of recruiters
D) Reclassification of all victims as offenders
  • 99. In money laundering, which of the following stages involves depositing illegally obtained funds into the financial system?
A) Integration
B) Layering
C) Concealment
D) Placement
  • 100. An investigator detects multiple fund transfers among shell companies to obscure the origin of money. Which stage of money laundering is this?
A) Placement
B) Structuring
C) Layering
D) Integration
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