Introduction to Philippines criminal system
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) In flagrante delicto rule
B) In flagrante delicto rule
C) Citizen’s arrest rule
D) Probable cause rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right to travel
C) Right against unreasonable search
D) Right to privacy
E) Right to due process
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) Appeal to the DOJ
B) File a case with the Ombudsman
C) Appeal to the DOJ
D) Seek mandamus from RTC
E) File a new complaint
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Right to confrontation
B) Right to counsel
C) Plea bargaining
D) Right to presumption of innocence
E) Plea bargaining
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Pre-trial agreement
B) Plea bargaining
C) Conditional pardon
D) Plea bargaining
E) Plea in abeyance
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Requirement of promulgation
B) Rule on double jeopardy
C) Requisite of written judgment
D) Requisite of written judgment
E) Doctrine of finality
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Parole
B) Commutation
C) Pardon
D) Probation
E) Correct Answer: C
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Rehabilitation
C) Punishment
D) Retribution
E) Isolation
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Restorative justice
B) Social control
C) Community policing
D) Community policing
E) Citizen’s initiative
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Reformation
C) Reconciliation
D) Reintegration
E) Reintegration
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) Citizen’s arrest
B) Arbitrary arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
E) Hot pursuit arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Right to counsel
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right against unreasonable search
D) Right to privacy
E) Due process
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
B) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
C) Valid if with barangay clearance
D) Invalid; no warrant
E) Valid under plain view doctrine
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Inadmissible in evidence
B) Admissible if signed
C) Inadmissible in evidence
D) Admissible if voluntary
E) Needs corroboration only
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Command responsibility
B) Professional integrity
C) Professional integrity
D) Chain of custody
E) Discretionary authority
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Warrantless hot pursuit
B) Illegal arrest
C) Preventive detention
D) Warrantless hot pursuit
E) Citizen’s arrest
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
B) Secure new warrant
C) Report but leave items
D) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
E) Ignore; not in warrant
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) . Grave coercion
B) Violation of RA 9745
C) Violation of RA 9745
D) Physical injuries
E) Arbitrary detention
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Evidence still valid
B) Drugs returned to PDEA
C) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
D) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
E) Officer disciplined only
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Abuse of authority
B) Lawful arrest procedure
C) Abuse of authority
D) Justified self-defense
E) Instinctive reaction
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Inadmissible; illegal search
B) Valid; fruits of crime
C) Admissible after consent
D) Inadmissible; illegal search
E) Valid if authenticated
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Grounds for demotion only
B) Arrest void
C) Valid if crime serious
D) Arrest void
E) Simple irregularity
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Continue filing against original suspect
B) Amend complaint accordingly
C) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
D) Suppress new evidence
E) Amend complaint accordingly
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Community policing
B) Civil defense
C) Peace negotiation
D) Private security
E) Community policing
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Accused acquitted
B) Case remanded to DOJ
C) Conviction for homicide still valid
D) Case dismissed
E) Conviction for homicide still valid
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Professional secrecy
B) Res judicata
C) Due process
D) Professional secrecy
E) Sub judice rule
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Dismissal outright
B) Suspension of arraignment
C) Court orders reinvestigation
D) Waiver of objection
E) Suspension of arraignment
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Professional secrecy
B) Res judicata
C) Professional secrecy
D) Due process
E) Sub judice rule
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Prosecutor must file case anyway
B) Require explanation from police
C) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
D) Require explanation from police
E) Refer to higher DOJ authority
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) File case immediately
B) Deny for being repetitive
C) mAllow reinvestigation
D) Allow reinvestigation
E) Endorse to Ombudsman
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) Ignore unless proven
B) Move for inhibition
C) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
D) File administrative case
E) Move for inhibition
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Strong suspicion based on evidence
B) Strong suspicion based on evidence
C) Mere hunch of crime
D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
E) Absolute proof of guilt
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Return to police and disregard
B) Keep it confidential
C) File case based on it
D) Return to police and disregard
E) Use it if it proves guilt
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) Prosecutor approval
B) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
C) None; automatic right
D) Verbal consent only
E) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Double jeopardy
B) Rule on multiplicity
C) Rule on multiplicity
D) Forum shopping
E) Res judicata
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Automatic effect
B) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
C) Court’s approval
D) Court’s approval
E) Police approval
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Request police correction
B) File case still
C) Ignore since unrelated
D) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Send to court for trial
B) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
C) Automatically dismiss
D) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
E) File immediately for delay
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Dereliction of duty
B) Malfeasance
C) Bribery under RPC
D) Grave misconduct
E) Bribery under RPC
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Burden of proof
B) Procedural regularity
C) Prosecution’s ethical standard
D) Prosecution’s ethical standard
E) Judicial courtesy
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the prosecution agrees
B) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
C) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
D) That the police concur
E) That the victim is absent
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Improper intervention
B) Evidence tampering
C) Valid judicial discretion
D) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
E) Valid judicial discretion
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Allowed since the court erred
B) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
C) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
D) Elevated to DOJ
E) Remanded for reinvestigation
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Void for lack of basis
B) Valid if signed
C) Effective if promulgated
D) Void for lack of basis
E) Final after notice
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Issue bench warrant for arrest
B) Acquit for non-appearance
C) Dismiss case for delay
D) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
E) Proceed to trial
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Order reinvestigation
B) Dismiss case
C) Convict for homicide
D) Acquittal
E) Convict for homicide
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Exclude confession from evidence
B) Ignore since confession signed
C) Admit confession if corroborated
D) Exclude confession from evidence
E) Suspend trial
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Grave misconduct or bias
B) Exercise of discretion
C) Grave misconduct or bias
D) Sub judice exception
E) Judicial transparency
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Modify judgment to include it
B) Ignore unless appealed
C) Nothing; penalty already imposed
D) Refer to prosecutor
E) Modify judgment to include it
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Void
B) Suspended
C) Discretionary
D) Valid
E) Valid
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial impartiality
B) Administrative rules
C) Judicial restraint
D) Judicial discipline only
E) Judicial impartiality
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Automatically dismissed
B) Automatically dismissed
C) Converted to probation
D) Continues
E) Deferred until recapture
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Defer ruling
B) Exclude it from consideration
C) Reopen preliminary investigation
D) Exclude it from consideration
E) Allow if relevant
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
B) Refer to DOJ
C) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
D) Deny automatically
E) Require police reinvestigation
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Administrative negligence
B) Civil liability
C) Denial of speedy disposition
D) Denial of speedy disposition
E) Judicial discretion
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
B) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
C) Only in civil cases
D) Only if accused consents
E) No, double jeopardy always applies
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
B) Valid if voluntary
C) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
D) Allowed under RA 9165
E) Valid if court-approved
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Discretionary
B) Automatically final
C) Valid
D) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
E) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Suspend proceedings
B) Automatically inhibit
C) Deny for lack of factual basis
D) Deny for lack of factual basis
E) Forward to Supreme Court
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Administrative oversight
B) Ethical irregularity only
C) Bribery or corruption
D) Bribery or corruption
E) Courtesy
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Parole
B) Probation
C) Parole
D) Conditional pardon
E) Commutation
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Incapacitation
B) Rehabilitation
C) Deterrence
D) Rehabilitation
E) Retribution
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) Habitual delinquents
B) Escapees
C) Persons sentenced to death
D) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
E) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Grant commutation
B) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
C) Terminate case
D) Extend parole
E) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Probation
B) Commutation of sentence
C) Commutation of sentence
D) Parole
E) Amnesty
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Reception and diagnostic process
B) Custodial supervision
C) Penological screening
D) Rehabilitation planning
E) Reception and diagnostic process
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Restorative rehabilitation
B) Restorative rehabilitation
C) Punitive discipline
D) Deterrence
E) Retributive justice
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
B) PNP Custodial Center
C) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
D) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
E) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Issue bench warrant
B) Recommend revocation of probation
C) Recommend revocation of probation
D) Extend reporting period
E) Ignore for minor lapse
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
B) Shorten imprisonment for all
C) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
D) Replace probation
E) Impose harsher penalties
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) Board of Pardons and Parole
B) BJMP
C) BuCor
D) DOJ
E) Board of Pardons and Parole
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Converted to parole
B) Suspended for life
C) Refiled for sentencing
D) Dismissed and civil rights restored
E) Dismissed and civil rights restored
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Juvenile protection
B) Equal punishment
C) Correctional segregation
D) Restorative justice
E) Restorative justice
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
B) Deny; sentence too short
C) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
D) Refer to DOJ
E) Grant probation automatically
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Credit of time served
B) Benefit of parole
C) Commutation
D) Clemency
E) Benefit of parole
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Institutional employment program
B) Voluntary work detail
C) Administrative segregation
D) Institutional employment program
E) Custodial punishment
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10575
B) RA 10592
C) RA 10592
D) RA 6975
E) RA 9165
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Temporary release
B) Conditional pardon
C) Total extinguishment of offense
D) Total extinguishment of offense
E) Reduction of penalty
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Limited recreation
B) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
C) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
D) Lack of parole supervision
E) Overcrowded facilities
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Recommend to the court for approval
B) Recommend to the court for approval
C) Request police clearance
D) Deny automatically
E) Approve immediately
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Restitution
B) Reintegration
C) Reintegration
D) Correction
E) Rehabilitation
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Citizen’s watch
B) Community policing
C) Community policing
D) Social control
E) Participatory security
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Settle disputes amicably
B) Impose imprisonment
C) Settle disputes amicably
D) Prosecute offenders
E) Collect barangay taxes
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Avoiding accountability
B) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
C) Retribution
D) Punishment of the offender
E) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Social reintegration
B) Civil participation
C) Community service
D) Social reintegration
E) Restorative leadership
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Informal policing
B) Civil defense
C) Volunteer citizen participation
D) Auxiliary law enforcement
E) Auxiliary law enforcement
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Prosecution of cases
B) Crime detection
C) Crime prevention and reintegration
D) Crime prevention and reintegration
E) Imposing penalties
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Victim-offender mediation
B) Victim-offender mediation
C) Death penalty
D) Life imprisonment
E) Preventive detention
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Increased clearance rate
B) Strengthened judiciary
C) Effective policing
D) Weak community pillar
E) Weak community pillar
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Community
B) Community
C) Prosecution
D) Corrections
E) Court
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Conflict resolution
B) Restorative justice
C) Crime suppression
D) Social defense
E) Restorative justice
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Transparency and accountability
B) Political campaigns
C) Increased penalties
D) Frequent arrests
E) Transparency and accountability
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Prison budget
B) Community acceptance and support
C) Strict surveillance
D) Community acceptance and support
E) Length of sentence
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Preventive justice
B) Rehabilitation
C) Deterrence principle
D) Social defense theory
E) Preventive justice
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Refusing to testify
B) Ignoring crimes
C) Joining barangay peace councils
D) Joining barangay peace councils
E) Withholding evidence
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Labeling theory
B) Control theory
C) Differential association
D) Labeling theory
E) Social disorganization
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Inter-agency coordination
B) Social development approach
C) Restorative intervention
D) Community policing
E) Restorative intervention
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Social control measure
B) Social control measure
C) Legal punishment
D) Restorative sanction
E) Arbitrary detention
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
B) Isolating criminals permanently
C) Increasing penalties for all crimes
D) Relying solely on police power
E) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Partnership in justice
B) Partnership in justice
C) Civil dependency
D) Mutual distrust
E) Political influence
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