SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Virtue Ethics
B) Deontology
C) Relativism
D) Utilitarianism
E) Egoism
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Oo, sigurado ako!
B) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
C) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
D) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
E) Ayoko pang isipin.
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
B) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
C) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
D) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
E) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) Principles
B) Performance
C) Policies
D) People
E) Procedures
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Legitimate
B) Logical
C) Limited
D) Lucrative
E) Legal
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) It became profitable
B) Only experts approved
C) Management agreed
D) Everyone did it
E) It was temporary
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) Personal integrity and accountability
B) System requirements
C) Security protocols
D) Stakeholder interests
E) Software standards
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Limited to management
B) Exclusively legal aspects
C) Only financial impacts
D) Just technical requirements
E) Who is affected and how
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Financial rather than ethical
B) Technical rather than social
C) Impact rather than intent
D) Short-term rather than long-term
E) Intent rather than impact
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) End users, developers, clients, and society
B) Only management
C) Exclusively competitors
D) Just investors
E) Limited to regulators
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Just budget analysis
B) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
C) Only technical evaluation
D) Exclusively timeline planning
E) Limited to profit calculation
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) Deadlines are missed
B) A moral dilemma
C) Budget constraints exist
D) Requirements change
E) Technical problems arise
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Proper planning
B) Resource abundance
C) Clear guidelines
D) Technical limitations
E) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) After management approval
B) Last
C) Based on cost
D) The severity of the bug
E) Only if profitable
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) Should be documented only
B) Can always be patched
C) Can be fixed later
D) May be acceptable with warnings
E) Must not be ignored
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Code reviews
B) Following standards
C) Version control
D) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
E) Proper planning
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What follows standards
B) What maximizes profits
C) What is technically efficient
D) What meets deadlines
E) What the law allows or prohibits
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What is morally right or responsible
B) What maximizes profits
C) What is technically efficient
D) What the law allows or prohibits
E) What meets deadlines
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) Only financial aspects
B) Just technical performance
C) Nothing
D) Everything
E) A system
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Team preferences
B) Technical requirements
C) Ethical decision frameworks
D) Industry trends
E) Budget constraints
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) Limited to PLUS Model
B) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
C) Exclusively Professional codes
D) Just Stakeholder Analysis
E) Only PLUS Model
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
B) Separate from technical work
C) Only for large projects
D) Abstract and optional
E) Limited to experts
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) Technical problem-solving
B) Social relationships
C) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
D) Economic decision-making
E) Legal compliance
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Natural phenomena
B) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
C) Cultural traditions
D) Mathematical concepts
E) Scientific theories
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Limited areas
B) Every aspect of daily life
C) Only scientific fields
D) Exclusively entertainment
E) Just business applications
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) Eliminates moral issues
B) Only affects experts
C) Focuses solely on efficiency
D) It remains static
E) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
B) Better privacy
C) Improved equality
D) Job creation
E) Enhanced security
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
B) Economic gains
C) Technical achievements
D) Social improvements
E) Benefits of technology
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Limited to data display
B) Only data storage
C) Who owns data and how it's protected
D) Exclusively data processing
E) Just data transmission
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Job impact and decision fairness
B) Only technical efficiency
C) Exclusively speed improvement
D) Limited to user experience
E) Just cost reduction
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Technology quality differences
B) Software version changes
C) Internet speed variations
D) Device type diversity
E) Unequal access to technology
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Limited to user interface
B) Just advertising
C) Content moderation and misinformation spread
D) Only user engagement
E) Exclusively platform design
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Exclusively image analysis
B) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
C) Limited to data storage
D) Only facial recognition
E) Just speech processing
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Data collection and privacy rights
B) Limited to content sharing
C) Exclusively user engagement
D) Just advertising
E) Only social connections
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Hardware manufacturing
B) Software testing
C) Network infrastructure
D) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
E) Database design
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Maximize positive outcomes
B) Consider only individuals
C) Follow strict rules
D) Focus on traditions
E) Develop character
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Relationship building
B) Outcome maximization
C) Personal happiness
D) Character development
E) Duty and moral rules
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Profit optimization
B) Cost reduction
C) Speed of delivery
D) Technical efficiency
E) Honesty and integrity
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) Marginalized communities
B) Development timelines
C) System performance
D) Technical specifications
E) Financial returns
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Just during testing
B) Only after deployment
C) While creating technologies
D) Exclusively in planning
E) Never during development
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Costs
B) Future society
C) Technical progress
D) Innovation
E) Only current users
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Responsible AI development
B) Database management
C) Hardware production
D) Network security
E) Software sales
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Situation-based theory
B) Character-based theory
C) Non-consequentialist theory
D) Culture-based theory
E) Consequentialist theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Respecting individual rights
B) Maximizing personal gain
C) Developing virtuous character
D) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
E) Following moral rules
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Deontology
B) Social Contract Theory
C) Utilitarianism
D) Relativism
E) Virtue Ethics
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Rules and duties
B) Outcomes or consequences of actions
C) Character and virtues
D) Social norms
E) Intentions and motivations
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) Respecting individual rights
B) Developing virtuous character
C) Maximizing personal gain
D) Following universal rules
E) The most happiness for the most people
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Fame and recognition
B) Wealth and status
C) Knowledge and wisdom
D) Power and influence
E) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Depends on social status
B) Differs by gender
C) Varies by wealth
D) Counts equally
E) Changes with age
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Virtue ethics
B) Social contract theory
C) Deontological principles
D) Cultural relativism
E) Utilitarian decision-making
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Pulling the lever to save more lives
B) Consulting others
C) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
D) Finding another solution
E) Leaving it to fate
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Ignore individual rights
B) Develop character
C) Respect traditions
D) Follow moral rules
E) Consider relationships
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Following clear rules
B) Predicting and measuring outcomes
C) Respecting traditions
D) Developing character
E) Maintaining impartiality
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) Jeremy Bentham
B) Immanuel Kant
C) Aristotle
D) Plato
E) John Stuart Mill
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Outcome-based calculation
B) Relationship building
C) Set of rules regardless of consequences
D) Cultural norms
E) Character development
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Universalized without contradiction
B) Developed through practice
C) Accepted by society
D) Approved by authorities
E) Maximized for happiness
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Ignoring their needs
B) Using them for personal benefit
C) Controlling their actions
D) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
E) Exploiting their weaknesses
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Economic benefit
B) Social expectation
C) Personal desire
D) Moral duty
E) Cultural norm
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Maximize happiness
B) Develop character
C) Contradict each other
D) Serve society
E) Follow traditions
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Outcomes of actions
B) Cultural traditions
C) Social contracts
D) Character and virtues of the individual
E) Following moral rules
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) Aristotle
B) Jeremy Bentham
C) Plato
D) Immanuel Kant
E) John Stuart Mill
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Personal gain
B) Maximum happiness
C) Strict rule following
D) Balance between deficiency and excess
E) Social approval
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Avoiding pain
B) Flourishing or human happiness
C) Following rules
D) Maximizing pleasure
E) Gaining power
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Management abilities
B) Marketing expertise
C) Technical skills
D) Financial acumen
E) Courage, honesty, compassion
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Financial requirements
B) Marketing strategies
C) Legal contracts
D) Technical specifications
E) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Technical excellence
B) Fast delivery
C) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
D) Low costs
E) Maximum profits
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Lower costs
B) Better marketing
C) Faster development
D) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
E) Technical superiority
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Maximize profits
B) Guide decision making in challenging situations
C) Reduce risks
D) Achieve perfection
E) Minimize time
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) Guaranteed success
B) Accountability for actions
C) Fewer challenges
D) No mistakes
E) More profits
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Minimizing competition
B) Building credibility
C) Ensuring superiority
D) Guaranteeing profits
E) Limiting innovation
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Timeline delays
B) Budget overruns
C) Resource issues
D) Legal issues and reputation damage
E) Technical problems
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Truthful and transparent dealings
B) Maximizing profits
C) Achieving goals
D) Following procedures
E) Meeting deadlines
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Sharing information
B) Ignoring privacy
C) Disclosing secrets
D) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
E) Publicizing details
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) According to position
B) Based on performance
C) Depending on wealth
D) With respect without bias
E) Based on education
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Team decisions
B) Legal and regulatory requirements
C) Industry norms
D) Company policies only
E) Personal preferences
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) External factors
B) Market conditions
C) Company failures
D) Others' mistakes
E) Actions and outcomes
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Continuous learning and development
B) Quick solutions
C) Maximum profits
D) Technical shortcuts
E) Minimal effort
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Low prices
B) Technical perfection
C) Fast delivery
D) Honest and competent services
E) Maximum discounts
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) Personal information
B) Company secrets
C) Limited aspects
D) All data
E) Client interests
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Technically skilled
B) Sales driven
C) Marketing oriented
D) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
E) Financially focused
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Supporting ethical practices
B) Minimizing collaboration
C) Maximizing performance
D) Focusing on competition
E) Avoiding teamwork
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Financial success
B) Competition
C) Achievement
D) Collaboration and respect
E) Superiority
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Limiting cooperation
B) Supporting ethical practices
C) Maximizing gain
D) Ignoring needs
E) Focusing on self
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Achieving goals
B) Maximizing profits
C) Benefiting society and community
D) Reducing costs
E) Meeting deadlines
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Increased trust
B) Career advancement
C) Financial gains
D) Legal ramifications
E) Technical improvements
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Technical expertise
B) Financial success
C) Loss of trust
D) Professional advancement
E) Increased credibility
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Suspension or termination
B) Salary increases
C) Bonuses
D) Additional duties
E) Promotions
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Decreased morale
B) Better performance
C) Enhanced creativity
D) Improved collaboration
E) Increased motivation
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) Technical performance
B) User convenience
C) Organizational goals
D) Financial results
E) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Increased efficiency
B) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
C) Enhanced security
D) Technical improvements
E) Better experience
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Maximum profits
B) Fast delivery
C) Low costs
D) Technical perfection
E) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Financial success
B) Technical superiority
C) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
D) Market dominance
E) Competitive advantage
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
B) Financial management
C) Project delivery
D) Technical skills
E) Quality assurance
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
B) Resource limitations
C) Technical challenges
D) Team conflicts
E) Communication issues
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Design secure systems, conduct testing
B) Increase complexity
C) Reduce costs
D) Maximize profits
E) Minimize time
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
B) Ignore monitoring
C) Reduce measures
D) Maximize speed
E) Minimize bandwidth
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Fast processing
B) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
C) Maximum collection
D) Unlimited access
E) Low storage
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Research integrity, consider impact
B) Gain prestige
C) Secure funding
D) Maximize publications
E) Publish quickly
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Failure modes, embed security
B) Reduce complexity
C) Maximize performance
D) Minimize costs
E) Ignore scalability
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Increase access
B) Sensitive information, enforce control
C) Reduce backups
D) Minimize storage
E) Maximize performance
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