COEDAD FINAL - Quiz
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
B) Auto timestep
C) Fixed timestep
D) Minimum timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Reading the voltage value at t=0
B) Measuring peak voltage only
C) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
D) Calculating from frequency response
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Build physical electronic circuits
B) Develop new electronic components
C) Program microcontrollers
D) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Smith chart
B) Time domain plot
C) Bode plot
D) Nyquist plot
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) RxC
B) R-C
C) C/R
D) R+C
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 47Ω
B) 1kΩ
C) 100Ω
D) 220Ω
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) Monte Carlo
B) Fourier
C) Transient
D) DC sweep
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 10ms
B) 2ms
C) 5ms
D) 1ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 15ΚΩ
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 5ΚΩ
D) 20kΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 2kHz
B) 500Hz
C) 1kHz
D) 10kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 2MHz
B) 100kHz
C) 1MHz
D) 500kHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LM358
B) LT1001
C) TL082
D) LM741
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >40dB
B) >80dB
C) >60dB
D) >20dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Voltage out / Voltage in
B) Current out / Current in
C) Output power / Input power × 100%
D) Input power / Output power × 100%
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 50kHz
B) 100kHz
C) 1kHz
D) 10kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Identical signals applied to both inputs
B) Grounded input
C) Different signals on each input
D) Single input signal only
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) RC time constant
B) External clock
C) LC resonance
D) Power supply frequency
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Instantaneous voltage
B) RMS calculation
C) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
D) Average voltage
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 0.1Hz
B) 10Hz
C) 100Hz
D) 1Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
B) Transistors with 5% tolerance
C) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
D) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Open loop control
B) Linear regulation
C) Voltage follower
D) PWM feedback control
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 5V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 3.3V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Output voltage settling time
B) Switching noise
C) Average power
D) Input current
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-6
B) gmin = 1e-12
C) gmin = 1e-7
D) gmin = 1e-9
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Series sense resistor with feedback
B) Capacitive coupling
C) Voltage divider
D) Parallel resistor
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Random probing
B) Visual inspection
C) Component count
D) Systematic node voltage checking
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Crystal oscillator
B) Wien bridge oscillator
C) Hartley oscillator
D) Colpitts oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 47kQ
B) 1ΚΩ
C) 100ΚΩ
D) 10ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) Alout/AVout
B) AVout/AVin
C) AVout/Alload
D) AVin/AVout
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) Sallen-Key
B) Twin-T
C) State variable
D) Multiple feedback
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 80dB
B) 100
C) 10
D) 50
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Gain bandwidth
B) Slew rate
C) CMRR
D) Input bias current
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
B) Energy calculation
C) Heat measurement
D) Power = V *1
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) +15V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 5V DC
D) -15V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Boost converter
B) Linear regulator
C) Flyback converter
D) Buck converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 24V
B) 9V
C) 15V
D) 12V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) HTML format
B) Binary format
C) SPICE compatible text format
D) XML format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) Long-term frequency drift measurement
B) Peak amplitude
C) Phase noise
D) RMS voltage
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Colpitts
B) RC phase shift
C) Wien bridge
D) Crystal
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 5
B) 15
C) 10
D) 2
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Multiple schematics
B) Component arrays
C) Symbol creation with subcircuits
D) Linked files
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F1
B) F2
C) F3
D) F4
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) ±12V
B) ±15V
C) +5V only
D) +12V only
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Center-tapped transformer
B) Single diode setup
C) Two diodes in series
D) Bridge configuration with four diodes
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 250kHz
B) 1MHz
C) 100kHz
D) 500kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .dc
B) .ac
C) .tran
D) .op
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) 1V
B) -5V
C) 5V
D) 0V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 100μF
B) 470μF
C) 2200μF
D) 1000μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) vntol = 1e-6
B) itol = 1e-8
C) reltol = 1e-3
D) abstol 1e-12
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .meas
B) .save
C) .print
D) .plot
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Reference manual
B) SPICE directives with comments
C) Verbal description
D) Separate text file
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 15V
B) 10V
C) 5V
D) 12V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 5V
B) 9V
C) 6V
D) 3.3V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Theoretical calculation comparison
B) Visual estimation
C) Assumption
D) Peer review
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 1ns
B) 1μς
C) 10ns
D) 100ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 1mH
B) 100μΗ
C) 220μΗ
D) 47μΗ
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 2V square wave
B) 1V sine wave
C) 3V pulse
D) 0.5V triangle wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Resonant frequency
B) Cutoff frequency at OdB
C) Maximum frequency of input signal
D) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .ac analysis
B) .tran fft
C) .fft V(out)
D) .four
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Zener diode
B) Fixed resistor
C) AGC circuit with thermistor
D) Variable capacitor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Maximum amplitude point
B) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
C) Zero crossing point
D) Quarter power point
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -45 degrees
B) -180 degrees
C) -60 degrees
D) -90 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Default names
B) Random numbers
C) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
D) Sequential only
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Single directory
B) Random storage
C) Separate folders for each analysis type
D) Mixed files
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) Date_Time
B) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
C) Random string
D) Numeric only
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 10MHz
B) 1MHz
C) 100kHz
D) 500kHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 5V DC
B) 24V DC
C) 120V AC
D) 12V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Video demonstration of circuit operation
B) Complete schematic file
C) Comparison with theoretical calculations
D) Simulation results
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Circuit restart
B) Power cycling
C) Error log analysis and stepping
D) Component replacement
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .measure average
B) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
C) .print rms
D) .save rms
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) 20 dB/decade
B) -60 dB/decade
C) -30 dB/decade
D) -40 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) Phase response analysis
B) Monte Carlo analysis
C) AC analysis
D) Transient analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Thermal shutdown
B) Over-current protection
C) Under-voltage lockout
D) Soft-start circuit
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >100dB
B) >40dB
C) >60dB
D) >80dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) .ic command with node voltages
B) External sources
C) Reset circuit
D) Startup switches
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Step function
B) Exponential rise to steady state
C) Linear increase
D) Sinusoidal oscillation
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <1%
B) <10%
C) <0.1%
D) <5%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 3rd order Bessel filter
B) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
C) 4th order Butterworth filter
D) 5th order Elliptic filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Peak output voltage
B) Total output / total input
C) Output voltage / differential input voltage
D) Average of both inputs
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 12V DC
B) 240V AC
C) 120V AC
D) 24V DC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) voltage(1,2)
B) measure(v1-v2)
C) V(node1)-V(node2)
D) diff(V1,V2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.707
B) 0.5
C) 0.1
D) 0.25
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 50
B) 75
C) 100
D) 200
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Efficiency at different loads
B) Output ripple voltage
C) Transient response
D) Input impedance
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Peer feedback
B) Visual inspection
C) Comparison with datasheet specifications
D) Assumption based
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Copy to clipboard
B) Right-click plot, export data as text
C) Print screen
D) Save as image only
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) State variable filter
B) Multiple feedback topology
C) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
D) Twin-T configuration
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 1A
B) 500mA
C) 3A
D) 2A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Voltage ratio only
B) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
C) Power loss calculation
D) Current ratio only
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) Single file override
B) No backup
C) Sequential backup with date stamps
D) Random copies
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Using.subckt definition
B) Modifying existing parts
C) Component wizard
D) Symbol editor only
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Reduce timestep
B) Change solver type
C) Increase maximum iterations
D) Modify gmin stepping
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 5A
B) 2A
C) 1A
D) 500mA
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Immediate full amplitude
B) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
C) Linear amplitude increase
D) Random amplitude variation
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 47μF
B) 220μF
C) 100μF
D) 1000μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Circuit simplification
B) Complete rebuild
C) Progressive component addition
D) Parameter randomization
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <1dB
B) <0.1dB
C) <0.5dB
D) <3dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 100Ω
C) 1KΩ
D) 2ΚΩ
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 75kHz
B) 100kHz
C) 200kHz
D) 50kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 10V peak-to-peak
B) 5V peak-to-peak
C) 3.3V peak-to-peak
D) 1V peak-to-peak
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