Cevide 2 - Quiz
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Competent and credible
B) Material and voluntary
C) Relevant and competent
D) Relevant and material
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Confuse the issue
B) Disprove all evidence
C) Support witness credibility only
D) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Oral evidence
B) Secondary evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Demonstrative evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) The weakest form of proof
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) The highest order of evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Objects presented to the court
B) Documentary proof
C) Circumstantial demonstration
D) Statements given by witnesses under oath
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Oral testimony of document contents
B) Presentation of the original document
C) Hearsay testimony
D) Submission of any copy
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Electronic communications
B) Testimonies only
C) Oral contracts
D) Written contracts
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Witness testimony
B) Written documents presented in court
C) Objects and materials
D) Oral declarations
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Confidential evidence is protected
B) Hearsay statements are valid
C) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
D) Admissions apply to all
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Applies only to written statements
B) Failure to deny implies consent
C) Only verbal admissions are valid
D) Silence is never an admission
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Withhold testimony
B) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
C) Prove innocence by silence
D) Avoid cross-examination
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Confidentiality and public policy
B) Common interest
C) Mutual understanding
D) Lack of relevance
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only before marriage
B) Only if requested by prosecution
C) Only if both spouses testify
D) During or after marriage
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) Before marriage
B) After marriage
C) By any relative
D) Only while the marriage subsists
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) A child from testifying against parents
B) Teachers from testifying
C) Priests from testifying
D) Parents from testifying against neighbors
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
B) Gossip about religious leaders
C) Public confessions
D) Anonymous statements
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Protect hospital reputation
B) Disallow expert witnesses
C) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
D) Prevent medical records in court
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Parol rule
B) Competency rule
C) Hearsay rule
D) Original document rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Based on speculation
B) Relevant and properly identified
C) Cited by counsel
D) Emotional
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
B) Made casually before death
C) Made after survival
D) Written by another person
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Authorized by both parties
B) Competent and legally qualified
C) Neutral and quiet
D) Unavailable
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Can read and write
B) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
C) Is related to the accused
D) Is intelligent only
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Privileged statement
B) Testimony about another’s guilt
C) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
D) Declaration against interest
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Statement made to police
B) Admission made in court pleadings
C) Admission made in casual conversation
D) Out-of-court statement
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Testimony made in trial
B) Confession under oath
C) Admission made out of court
D) Statement by a judge
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Only victims to testify
B) Only police officers to testify
C) Any legally qualified person to testify
D) No minors as witnesses
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They have personal knowledge
B) They are relatives
C) They have special knowledge or skill
D) They are court employees
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Source reliability only
B) Age of samples
C) Court preference
D) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Anonymous
B) Forced
C) Oral or informal
D) Made under torture
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
B) Public opinion
C) Strength of documents
D) Quantity of witnesses
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Allowed if written
B) Based on rumor
C) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
D) Always admissible
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
B) Support confessions
C) Admit all statements
D) Shorten the trial
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Opinion testimony
B) Dying declaration
C) Character evidence
D) Cross-examination
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Judicial admission
B) Confession
C) Extra-judicial admission
D) Privileged declaration
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Acceptable
B) Considered documentary evidence
C) Valid if recorded
D) Inadmissible
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Indicate intent
B) Show motive
C) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
D) Support credibility
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Speedy trial
B) Witness credibility
C) Integrity of physical evidence
D) Admissibility of confessions
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Refuses to testify
B) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
C) Lies under oath
D) Lacks knowledge
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The witness
B) The judge
C) The defense
D) The prosecution
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Substantial evidence
C) Preponderance of evidence
D) Probable cause
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Dying Declaration
B) Judicial declaration
C) Admission
D) Confession
E) Dying Inside to Hold you
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Complainant
B) Judge
C) Expert
D) Witness
E) Judge Nono
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Reliability
B) Intelligence
C) Competency
D) Credibility
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Physician Privilege
B) Marital Privilege
C) Parental Privilege
D) Priest Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Physician-Patient Privilege
B) Marital Privilege
C) Professional Privilege
D) Client-Lawyer Privilege
E) Parental Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Spousal Privilege
B) Spiritual Privilege
C) Teacher-Student Privilege
D) Doctor-Patient Privilege
E) Priest-Penitent Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Exa Sec To
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
E) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Parol rule evidence
B) Declaration Against Interest
C) Opinion Rule
D) Admission by Silence
E) Dying against declaration
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
B) Depende
C) Yes comback
D) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
E) No comback
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) A company's internal memo
B) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
C) personal diary
D) an email exchange between private citizens
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
B) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
C) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
D) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It is always inadmissible in court.
B) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
C) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
D) It is only used to impeach a witness.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
B) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
C) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
D) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
B) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
C) They are never admissible in court.
D) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) All of the above
B) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
C) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
D) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
B) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
C) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
D) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
B) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
C) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
D) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
B) Internal memos of a private company.
C) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
D) Private contracts between individuals
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A catalog of products for sale online.
B) A list of businesses registered with the government.
C) A list of items sold in a store.
D) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A grocery list kept in personal records
B) A handwritten letter between two individuals
C) A private diary entry
D) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
E) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
B) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
C) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
D) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
E) Personal letters exchanged between friends
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) Only the document creator
B) notary public
C) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
D) The court judge
E) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
B) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
C) Notarization of the document by an attorney
D) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
E) Notarization of the document by an attorney
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was found in a government office
B) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
C) It was sent by registered mail
D) It was signed in front of a notary public
E) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It was signed by an unknown individual
B) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
C) It has been lost for more than 30 years
D) It has been altered in any way
E) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) Only the person whose handwriting it is
B) Any witness who has seen the person write before
C) A certified handwriting analyst
D) A government official
E) Any witness who has seen the person write before
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
B) Having read similar documents before
C) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
D) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
E) Seeing the person write only once
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Inadmissible unless notarized
B) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
C) Private evidence needing verification
D) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
E) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Notarized within the Philippines
B) Verified by at least two witnesses
C) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
D) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
E) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) None of the above
B) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
C) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
D) The copy is a public document
E) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) Any individual who has access to the document
B) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
C) A private individual designated by the parties involved
D)   The head of a department
E) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) Only with permission from the president
B) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
C) When the office is undergoing renovations
D) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
E) For personal inspection by the document owner
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) Any court officer
B) An authorized public official
C) Any individual who owns the document
D) An authorized public official
E) A private notary
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To make it available for historical records
B) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
C) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
D) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
E) To allow easy access to the public
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
B) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
C) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
D) If the agreement is more than five years old.
E) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
B) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
C) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
D) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
E) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
B) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
C) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
D) By prioritizing the first provision.
E) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The particular provisions should always prevail.
B) The court should disregard both provisions.
C) The general provisions should always prevail.
D) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
E) The particular provisions should always prevail.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
B) Without regard to any external factors.
C) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
D) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
E) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
B) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
C) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
D) According to their primary and general meaning only.
E) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The term that appears first.
B) The latter of the two terms.
C) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
D) The latter of the two terms
E) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it is written in ordinary language.
B) When both parties request an interpreter.
C) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
D) When it contains legal jargon only.
E) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
B) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
C) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
D) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
E) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
B) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
C) Existence, termination, power, and loss
D) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
B) Investigations, trials, and appeals
C) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
D) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Documentary evidence
B) Real evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By comparing it to other photographs
B) By a witness who can identify the subject
C) By the photographer's testimony
D) By a forensic expert's analysis
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
B) Assessing the credibility of a witness
C) Determining the admissibility of evidence
D) Evaluating the weight of evidence
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To identify the accused
B) To determine the cause of death
C) To verify the authenticity of evidence
D) To examine the crime scene
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