Cevide 2
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Competent and credible
B) Relevant and competent
C) Material and voluntary
D) Relevant and material
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
B) Confuse the issue
C) Disprove all evidence
D) Support witness credibility only
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Secondary evidence
B) Demonstrative evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Oral evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) The weakest form of proof
D) The highest order of evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Circumstantial demonstration
B) Documentary proof
C) Statements given by witnesses under oath
D) Objects presented to the court
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Hearsay testimony
B) Presentation of the original document
C) Submission of any copy
D) Oral testimony of document contents
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Testimonies only
B) Oral contracts
C) Written contracts
D) Electronic communications
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Witness testimony
B) Objects and materials
C) Oral declarations
D) Written documents presented in court
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Confidential evidence is protected
B) Admissions apply to all
C) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
D) Hearsay statements are valid
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Only verbal admissions are valid
B) Failure to deny implies consent
C) Silence is never an admission
D) Applies only to written statements
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Avoid cross-examination
B) Withhold testimony
C) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
D) Prove innocence by silence
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Mutual understanding
B) Lack of relevance
C) Common interest
D) Confidentiality and public policy
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only if requested by prosecution
B) Only if both spouses testify
C) Only before marriage
D) During or after marriage
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) Before marriage
B) By any relative
C) After marriage
D) Only while the marriage subsists
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) A child from testifying against parents
B) Priests from testifying
C) Parents from testifying against neighbors
D) Teachers from testifying
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
B) Gossip about religious leaders
C) Anonymous statements
D) Public confessions
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Disallow expert witnesses
B) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
C) Protect hospital reputation
D) Prevent medical records in court
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Original document rule
B) Hearsay rule
C) Parol rule
D) Competency rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Emotional
B) Based on speculation
C) Relevant and properly identified
D) Cited by counsel
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
B) Made casually before death
C) Written by another person
D) Made after survival
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Neutral and quiet
B) Unavailable
C) Competent and legally qualified
D) Authorized by both parties
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Can read and write
B) Is related to the accused
C) Is intelligent only
D) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Testimony about another’s guilt
B) Privileged statement
C) Declaration against interest
D) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Admission made in casual conversation
B) Statement made to police
C) Out-of-court statement
D) Admission made in court pleadings
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Statement by a judge
B) Testimony made in trial
C) Confession under oath
D) Admission made out of court
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) No minors as witnesses
B) Only victims to testify
C) Only police officers to testify
D) Any legally qualified person to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They are court employees
B) They have personal knowledge
C) They have special knowledge or skill
D) They are relatives
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Age of samples
B) Court preference
C) Source reliability only
D) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Made under torture
B) Forced
C) Oral or informal
D) Anonymous
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Quantity of witnesses
B) Strength of documents
C) Public opinion
D) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Based on rumor
B) Always admissible
C) Allowed if written
D) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
B) Shorten the trial
C) Support confessions
D) Admit all statements
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Dying declaration
B) Opinion testimony
C) Cross-examination
D) Character evidence
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Privileged declaration
B) Confession
C) Judicial admission
D) Extra-judicial admission
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Acceptable
B) Valid if recorded
C) Inadmissible
D) Considered documentary evidence
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Show motive
B) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
C) Support credibility
D) Indicate intent
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Witness credibility
B) Admissibility of confessions
C) Integrity of physical evidence
D) Speedy trial
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Lies under oath
B) Refuses to testify
C) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
D) Lacks knowledge
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The defense
B) The prosecution
C) The judge
D) The witness
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Preponderance of evidence
B) Substantial evidence
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Probable cause
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Parol Evidence Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Dying Inside to Hold you
B) Confession
C) Admission
D) Dying Declaration
E) Judicial declaration
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Judge
B) Expert
C) Witness
D) Complainant
E) Judge Nono
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Credibility
B) Competency
C) Intelligence
D) Reliability
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta
B) Parol Evidence Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Physician Privilege
B) Priest Privilege
C) Marital Privilege
D) Parental Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Parental Privilege
B) Physician-Patient Privilege
C) Client-Lawyer Privilege
D) Professional Privilege
E) Marital Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Spiritual Privilege
B) Teacher-Student Privilege
C) Doctor-Patient Privilege
D) Priest-Penitent Privilege
E) Spousal Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Exa Sec To
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
E) Best Evidence Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Parol rule evidence
B) Declaration Against Interest
C) Opinion Rule
D) Dying against declaration
E) Admission by Silence
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) No comback
B) Yes comback
C) Depende
D) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
E) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) personal diary
B) A company's internal memo
C) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
D) an email exchange between private citizens
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
B) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
C) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
D) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It is only used to impeach a witness.
B) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
C) It is always inadmissible in court.
D) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
B) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
C) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
D) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are never admissible in court.
B) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
C) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
D) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
B) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
C) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
D) All of the above
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
B) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
C) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
D) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
B) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
C) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
D) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
B) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
C) Internal memos of a private company.
D) Private contracts between individuals
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A catalog of products for sale online.
B) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
C) A list of items sold in a store.
D) A list of businesses registered with the government.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A private diary entry
B) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
C) A grocery list kept in personal records
D) A handwritten letter between two individuals
E) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
B) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
C) Personal letters exchanged between friends
D) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
E) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) Only the document creator
B) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
C) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
D) notary public
E) The court judge
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
B) Notarization of the document by an attorney
C) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
D) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
E) Notarization of the document by an attorney
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was signed in front of a notary public
B) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
C) It was found in a government office
D) It was sent by registered mail
E) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It has been lost for more than 30 years
B) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
C) It has been altered in any way
D) It was signed by an unknown individual
E) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) A government official
B) Only the person whose handwriting it is
C) Any witness who has seen the person write before
D) A certified handwriting analyst
E) Any witness who has seen the person write before
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
B) Seeing the person write only once
C) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
D) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
E) Having read similar documents before
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
B) Inadmissible unless notarized
C) Private evidence needing verification
D) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
E) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
B) Verified by at least two witnesses
C) Notarized within the Philippines
D) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
E) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
B) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
C) None of the above
D) The copy is a public document
E) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
B) Any individual who has access to the document
C)   The head of a department
D) A private individual designated by the parties involved
E) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) When the office is undergoing renovations
B) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
C) Only with permission from the president
D) For personal inspection by the document owner
E) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) An authorized public official
B) Any individual who owns the document
C) A private notary
D) An authorized public official
E) Any court officer
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
B) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
C) To allow easy access to the public
D) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
E) To make it available for historical records
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
B) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
C) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
D) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
E) If the agreement is more than five years old.
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
B) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
C) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
D) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
E) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
B) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
C) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
D) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
E) By prioritizing the first provision.
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The particular provisions should always prevail.
B) The court should disregard both provisions.
C) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
D) The general provisions should always prevail.
E) The particular provisions should always prevail.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
B) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
C) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
D) Without regard to any external factors.
E) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
B) According to their primary and general meaning only.
C) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
D) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
E) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The latter of the two terms.
B) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
C) The term that appears first.
D) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
E) The latter of the two terms
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When both parties request an interpreter.
B) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
C) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
D) When it is written in ordinary language.
E) When it contains legal jargon only.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
B) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
C) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
D) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
E) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
B) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
C) Existence, termination, power, and loss
D) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Investigations, trials, and appeals
B) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
C) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
D) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Documentary evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Real evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By comparing it to other photographs
B) By the photographer's testimony
C) By a witness who can identify the subject
D) By a forensic expert's analysis
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Assessing the credibility of a witness
B) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
C) Determining the admissibility of evidence
D) Evaluating the weight of evidence
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To determine the cause of death
B) To verify the authenticity of evidence
C) To examine the crime scene
D) To identify the accused
Created with That Quiz — the math test generation site with resources for other subject areas.