A) Evidence-Based Planning B) Centralization C) Unity of Command D) Flexibility
A) Administrative Plan B) Strategic Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Operational Plan
A) Evaluation B) Direction C) Adaptability D) Control
A) Quality Management System B) Balanced Scorecard C) Situational Leadership Model D) Performance Governance System (PGS)
A) Reporting only major crimes B) Following the same route daily C) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback D) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security
A) Operational B) Contingency C) Tactical D) Strategic
A) Political alignment B) Organizational participation C) Command authority D) Efficiency through hierarchy
A) Administrative Plan B) Policy Plan C) Operational Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Through measurable and transparent objectives B) Through centralized command only C) Through strict adherence to hierarchy D) Through punitive measures for non-performance
A) Contingency Plan B) Tactical Plan C) Standing Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Motivation B) Control C) Command D) Coordination
A) Decentralization B) Segregation C) Secrecy D) Coordination
A) Centralized supervision B) Authoritarian leadership C) Participative governance D) Individual performance only
A) Allocate resources for intelligence B) Measure organizational and individual performance C) Record disciplinary actions D) Identify police misconduct
A) Continuous improvement and adaptation B) Operations remain classified C) Only top officers make revisions D) Plans are fixed and unchangeable
A) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions B) Tactical plans focus on national objectives C) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations D) Tactical plans have long-term goals
A) Operational Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Partnership B) Deterrence C) Accountability D) Transformation
A) It measures output and transparency B) It increases bureaucracy C) It focuses only on leadership goals D) It limits officer discretion
A) Procedural authority B) Personnel control C) Policy compliance D) Strategic alignment
A) Statistical modeling B) Thematic mapping C) Spatial regression D) Non-graphical indicator
A) Geographic profiling B) Random patrols C) Social crime mapping D) Predictive policing
A) Trend analysis B) Thematic mapping C) Hotspot analysis D) Spatial regression
A) Graphic regression B) Choropleth C) Thematic D) Topographic
A) Forecasting public celebrations B) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations C) Mapping police jurisdiction borders D) Determining police salaries
A) Strategic redeployment B) Spatial diffusion C) Tactical crime mapping D) Randomized control patrol
A) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions B) It replaces human intelligence C) It allows speculative conclusions D) It focuses solely on statistical data
A) Spatial regression B) Longitudinal monitoring C) Temporal analysis D) Non-graphical evaluation
A) Both measure community satisfaction B) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations C) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only D) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences
A) Predictive simulation B) Non-graphical indicators C) Spatial mapping D) Thematic analysis
A) Spatial regression B) Situational correlation C) Area mapping D) Environmental regression
A) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends B) It eliminates the need for statistics C) It emphasizes minor crimes only D) It only works for rural areas
A) Dynamic time-series map B) Isoline map C) Static hotspot map D) Non-graphical table
A) Identify policy gaps B) Measure administrative efficiency C) Produce non-graphical outputs D) Conduct spatial correlation
A) Reactive patrol B) Routine mapping C) Manual charting D) Predictive analytics
A) Situation analysis B) Resource allocation C) Feedback D) Implementation
A) Patrol Plan B) Tactical Deployment Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Hierarchical supervision B) Inter-agency collaboration C) Intelligence secrecy D) Operational planning
A) NBI B) PNP C) PCG D) BID
A) Implementation B) Risk assessment C) Situation analysis D) Resource control
A) Initial planning B) Coordination C) Evaluation phase D) Prevention
A) Unity of Direction B) Coordination C) Chain of Command D) Unity of Command
A) Tactical B) Contingency C) Strategic D) Operational
A) Intelligence gathering B) Partnership policing C) Reactive operations D) Command centralization
A) Inter-agency synergy B) Jurisdictional independence C) Routine investigation D) Legal enforcement
A) Safety first B) Efficiency C) Security prioritization D) Proportionality
A) Communication B) Command isolation C) Hierarchical control D) Inter-sectoral coordination
A) Implementation B) Revision C) Improvement D) Control
A) Standardized procedure B) Decentralized control C) Adaptive planning D) Narrow coordination
A) Objective formulation B) Tactical programming C) Strategic alignment D) Policy integration
A) Testing B) Implementation C) Control D) Evaluation
A) Reduced intelligence sharing B) Increased jurisdictional conflict C) Duplication of effort D) Unified command and coordination
A) Chain of command B) Task delegation C) Coordination and synchronization D) Specialization
A) To assign blame for failures B) To celebrate success C) To evaluate performance and identify gaps D) To finalize reports only
A) Information gathering B) Coordination plan C) Command instruction D) Crisis management
A) To increase police presence only B) To deter offenders by stricter laws C) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities D) To rely on surveillance alone
A) Target hardening B) Maintenance C) Territorial reinforcement D) Natural surveillance
A) It replaces human patrols B) It records officer attendance C) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime D) It eliminates crime completely
A) Fences and designated entry points B) Dark alleys C) Open public plazas D) Large, unsupervised spaces
A) Natural surveillance B) Formal control C) Target hardening D) Territorial reinforcement
A) Traditional mapping B) Human-based observation C) Data-driven deployment D) Random patrol
A) Static mapping B) Manual plotting C) Predictive GIS analysis D) Reactive mapping
A) Natural surveillance B) Target hardening C) Access control D) Maintenance
A) Increasing police checkpoints B) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces C) Reducing property lines D) Eliminating open areas
A) Ignore minor crimes B) Close all schools temporarily C) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones D) Conduct random arrests
A) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow B) It measures public satisfaction C) It focuses only on offender data D) It eliminates paperwork
A) Reduce government spending B) Expand commercial property C) Limit police activity D) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety
A) Avoid manual investigation B) Replace detectives C) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders D) Reduce manpower
A) Target hardening B) Environmental aesthetics C) Crime prevention through design D) Situational design
A) Officer scheduling B) Administrative filing C) Political decision-making D) Predictive precision
A) Replacing leadership functions B) Eliminating all crimes C) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making D) Reducing community involvement
A) Hidden alleys B) Well-lit open spaces C) Narrow blind streets D) Isolated parking areas
A) Bureaucratic control B) Economic zoning C) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence D) Population balance
A) Statistical sampling B) Demographic analysis C) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting D) Population profiling
A) Randomized response strategy B) Application of data-informed operational planning C) Traditional guesswork D) Manual data analysis
A) Due process B) Double jeopardy C) Probable cause D) Equal protection
A) Right against unreasonable detention B) Right to counsel C) Right to confrontation D) Right to privacy
A) Hot Pursuit Doctrine B) Plain View Doctrine C) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree D) Stop and Frisk
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Doctrine of Implied Consent C) Probable Cause Doctrine D) Plain View Doctrine
A) Rule on Custodial Investigation B) Rule on Evidence C) Writ of Habeas Corpus D) Warrant Clause
A) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) B) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) C) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons) D) RA 6975 (DILG Act)
A) Search of residence B) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement C) The suspect’s immediate interrogation D) Media exposure
A) Right to privacy B) Right to confrontation C) Right to bail D) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination
A) It involves random vehicle searches B) It is done secretly C) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory D) It targets political groups
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Consent Search Doctrine C) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine D) In flagrante delicto
A) Civil liability B) Due process violation C) Non-bailable offense D) Preventive detention
A) The right to free travel B) The right against unlawful search and seizure C) The right to speedy trial D) The right to counsel
A) Right against self-incrimination B) Right to due process C) Right to privacy D) Right to bail
A) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice B) A witness C) The arresting officer’s superior D) A barangay official
A) Due process B) Proportionality C) Separation of powers D) Lawful exercise of police power
A) Quo Warranto B) Habeas Corpus C) Injunction D) Certiorari
A) Republic Act No. 6975 B) Republic Act No. 7438 C) Republic Act No. 9165 D) Republic Act No. 8551
A) Doctrine of hot pursuit B) Probable cause principle C) Reasonable necessity of means employed D) Plain view rule
A) It can be used as circumstantial evidence B) It is valid if the officer signs it C) It is inadmissible due to rights violation D) It is admissible if recorded
A) Right to silence B) Right to travel C) Freedom of speech and expression D) Right to privacy
A) Rules on Criminal Procedure B) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 C) Miranda doctrine D) Exclusionary rule
A) RA 8551 B) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code C) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code D) RA 7438
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy C) Presumption of Regularity D) Hot Pursuit Doctrine
A) Article III, Section 2 B) Article III, Section 12 C) Article VI, Section 11 D) Article II, Section 1
A) Summary publicity for deterrence B) Police media cooperation C) Confidentiality and respect for due process D) Public display for transparency |