A) BFP B) NBI C) PNP D) PDEA
A) BFP B) NBI C) PDEA D) BJMP
A) Investigate fire-related incidents B) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities C) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders D) Defend the accused in criminal cases
A) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court B) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court C) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court D) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court
A) NBI B) BuCor C) BJMP D) PNP
A) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures B) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement C) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases D) Only the rich can access fair trials
A) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint B) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport C) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence D) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge
A) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning B) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel C) Right to bail regardless of the offense D) Right to remain at home during investigation
A) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation B) Expressing religious publicly C) Criticizing government policies peacefully D) Sharing opinions online about political issues
A) Writ of Prohibition B) Writ of Habeas Corpus C) Writ of Mandamus D) Writ of Amparo
A) Extraterritoriality B) Territoriality C) Generality D) Prospectivity
A) The act is performed with deliberate intent B) The act is performed through negligence C) The act is done by accident D) The act is done without consent
A) Impossible crime B) Frustrated felony C) Continuing crime D) Complex crime
A) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime B) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime C) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act D) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it
A) Provocation B) Conspiracy C) Instigation D) Proposal
A) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree B) The offender already begins executing does not agree C) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others D) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony
A) Instigator B) Principal C) Accessory D) Accomplice
A) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony B) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts C) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced D) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution
A) The penalty is fine only B) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro C) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal D) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months
A) Consummated B) Frustrated C) Attempted D) Impossible
A) M(below 15 years old)inority B) Defense of one`s self or rights C) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong D) Insanity
A) Criminally liable as a principal B) Criminally liable as an accomplice C) Exempt from criminal liability D) Liable as an accessory
A) Alternative circumstance B) Aggravating circumstance C) Justifying circumstance D) Mitigating circumstance
A) Justifying circumstance B) Aggravating circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation D) Exempting circumstance
A) Alternative circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance C) Exempting circumstance D) Justifying circumstance
A) Amnesty granted by the government B) Delay of trial C) Escaped of the accused D) Filling of an appeal
A) It transfers liability to the heirs B) It extinguishes only civil liability C) It suspends the criminal liability D) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability
A) It becomes extinguished B) It is suspended until review C) It is transferred to another jurisdiction D) It is reduced but not removed
A) Death of the offender B) Prescription of crime C) Conditional pardon D) Service of sentence
A) The offender took advantage of public position B) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment C) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission D) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation
A) Absence of weapon used B) Treachery or evident premeditation C) Relationship between the offender and victim D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing of ones parent C) Killing with cruelty D) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances
A) Homicide B) Murder C) infanticide D) Parricide
A) Treachery or evident premeditation B) Absence of weapon used C) Lack of intent to kill D) Relationship between the offender and victim
A) Killing with cruelty B) Killing of one's parent C) Killing by means of poison D) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances
A) Parricide B) Homicide C) Infanticide D) Murder
A) Abortion B) Murder C) Parricide D) Infanticide
A) There is consent and the woman is of legal age B) The victim is over 18 and married C) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation D) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse
A) The injury requires no medical attention B) The injury causes death C) The injury heals immediately D) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days
A) Serious physical injuries B) Slight physical injuries C) Less serious physical injuries D) Attempted homicide
A) Attempted homicide B) Alarm and scandal C) Reckless imprudence D) Illegal discharge of firearm
A) Theft is committed only by strangers B) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not C) Both involve taking property with intent to gain D) Robbery requires that the property be of high value
A) Robbery in band B) Estafa C) Brigandage D) Qualified theft
A) Taking property without violence B) Damaging property with intent to annoy C) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit D) Using force to steal from another
A) Malicious Mischief B) Grave Threats C) Estafa D) Robbery
A) Grave coercion B) Light coercion C) Unlawful arrest D) Serious illegal detention
A) Unlawful arrest B) Grave coercion C) Grave threats D) Estafa
A) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds B) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant C) Detaining a person to secure testimony D) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual
A) PD 532 covers only government vessels. B) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. C) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. D) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas.
A) Unlawful arrest B) Arbitrary detention C) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities D) Illegal search
A) Infidelity in the custody of documents B) Direct bribery C) Malversation of funds D) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance
A) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. B) Enter residences only with a valid warrant C) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform. D) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results.
A) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing. B) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt. C) An oral statement attacking a person's character. D) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame.
A) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. B) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult. C) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. D) There is no difference; both are oral defamation.
A) Direct assault B) Slander by deed C) Simple slander D) Intriguing against honor
A) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. B) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can. C) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. D) Both require consent from the offender's parents.
A) Adultery B) Concubinage C) Illegal marriage D) Bigamy
A) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. B) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. C) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. D) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases.
A) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies B) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit C) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution D) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad
A) Criticizing the government on social media B) Armed rebellion by military officers C) Peaceful protest without violence D) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government
A) Frustrated homicide B) Physical injuries only C) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries D) Grave coercion
A) A store owner posts a sale announcement. B) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. C) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street. D) A police officer directs traffic in a public area.
A) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law B) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act C) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act D) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act
A) The accused posting a confession online B) A witness describing the suspect's face C) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime D) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene
A) Fingerprints matched in a database B) DNA samples gathered from the victim C) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect D) Weapons recovered during the investigation
A) Knife left by the suspect B) CCTV footage of the incident C) Signed contract presented in court D) Eyewitness pointing at the accused
A) Circumstantial evidence B) Demonstrative evidence C) Real or physical evidence D) Testimonial evidence
A) Accepted by the witness B) Based on personal beliefs C) Obtained from a private source D) Material and competent
A) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search B) Evidence with proper search warrant C) Evidence authenticated by expert witness D) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Best Evidence Rule C) Hearsay Rule D) Res Gestae Rule
A) Materiality B) Judicial Notice C) Relevance D) Best Evidence
A) Judicially noticed facts B) Testimonial evidence C) Circumstantial evidence D) Documentary evidence
A) Parol evidence B) Hearsay rule C) Chain of custody D) Opinion rule
A) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified B) Immediately after the pre-trial C) Anytime during arraignment D) Only after the judgment is issued
A) Ignore it and argue in closing statements B) Write a letter to the judge later C) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds D) File a motion after the case is finished
A) Its authenticity and relevance B) That it came from a government agency only C) That it has been posted online D) The popularity of the person who wrote it
A) Parol Evidence Rule B) Hearsay Rule C) Best Evidence Rule D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Is based entirely on hearsay B) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt C) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed D) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility
A) Substantial evidence B) Mere preponderance of evidence C) Clear and convincing evidence D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
A) Court of Appeals B) Municipal Trial Court (MTC) C) Regional Trial Court (RTC) D) Sandiganbayan
A) Court of Appeals B) Regional Trial Court C) Municipal Trial Court D) Sandiganbayan
A) Municipal Trial Court B) Sandiganbayan C) Court of Appeals D) Regional Trial Court
A) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. B) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished. C) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties. D) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases.
A) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties. B) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice. C) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders. D) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused.
A) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. B) The right to choose the judge who will try his case. C) The right to set the schedule of hearings. D) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel.
A) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial. B) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. C) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence. D) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel.
A) Right to preliminary investigation B) Right against self-incrimination C) Right to due process of law D) Right against double jeopardy
A) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime. B) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause. C) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant. D) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description.
A) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. B) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. C) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. D) Search incident to a lawful arrest.
A) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses. B) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. C) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search. D) When the suspect has a prior criminal record.
A) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith. B) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip. C) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. D) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest.
A) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. B) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court. C) When the complainant demands it. D) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense.
A) Arraignment B) Preliminary investigation C) Inquest proceeding D) Trial proper
A) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua. B) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality. C) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity. D) A case where one party is a corporation.
A) Certificate of Non-Participation B) Certificate of Appearance C) Certificate of Compliance D) Certification to File Action
A) The police officer may approve the bail application. B) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong. C) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. D) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application.
A) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused. B) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. C) Dismiss the case automatically. D) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty.
A) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. B) To allow the prosecution to amend the information. C) To record the plea of the accused. D) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence.
A) Motion for reconsideration B) Motion to quash C) Demurrer to evidence D) Motion for new trial
A) Continue the questioning until the child answers. B) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. C) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. D) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. |