A) PDEA B) PNP C) NBI D) BFP
A) PDEA B) NBI C) BJMP D) BFP
A) Defend the accused in criminal cases B) Investigate fire-related incidents C) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities D) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders
A) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court B) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court C) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court D) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court
A) PNP B) BuCor C) BJMP D) NBI
A) Only the rich can access fair trials B) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases C) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures D) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement
A) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge B) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport C) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint D) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence
A) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel B) Right to bail regardless of the offense C) Right to remain at home during investigation D) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning
A) Expressing religious publicly B) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation C) Criticizing government policies peacefully D) Sharing opinions online about political issues
A) Writ of Amparo B) Writ of Mandamus C) Writ of Prohibition D) Writ of Habeas Corpus
A) Extraterritoriality B) Generality C) Territoriality D) Prospectivity
A) The act is done by accident B) The act is performed through negligence C) The act is performed with deliberate intent D) The act is done without consent
A) Frustrated felony B) Complex crime C) Impossible crime D) Continuing crime
A) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime B) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime C) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act D) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it
A) Conspiracy B) Instigation C) Provocation D) Proposal
A) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree B) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony C) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others D) The offender already begins executing does not agree
A) Instigator B) Accomplice C) Principal D) Accessory
A) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced B) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony C) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution D) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts
A) The penalty is fine only B) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro C) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal D) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months
A) Consummated B) Impossible C) Attempted D) Frustrated
A) M(below 15 years old)inority B) Insanity C) Defense of one`s self or rights D) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong
A) Criminally liable as a principal B) Criminally liable as an accomplice C) Exempt from criminal liability D) Liable as an accessory
A) Justifying circumstance B) Alternative circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance D) Aggravating circumstance
A) Justifying circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation C) Aggravating circumstance D) Exempting circumstance
A) Justifying circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance C) Alternative circumstance D) Exempting circumstance
A) Escaped of the accused B) Delay of trial C) Amnesty granted by the government D) Filling of an appeal
A) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability B) It transfers liability to the heirs C) It extinguishes only civil liability D) It suspends the criminal liability
A) It becomes extinguished B) It is transferred to another jurisdiction C) It is suspended until review D) It is reduced but not removed
A) Prescription of crime B) Service of sentence C) Conditional pardon D) Death of the offender
A) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation B) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission C) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment D) The offender took advantage of public position
A) Lack of intent to kill B) Absence of weapon used C) Relationship between the offender and victim D) Treachery or evident premeditation
A) Killing of ones parent B) Killing by means of poison C) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances D) Killing with cruelty
A) Murder B) infanticide C) Homicide D) Parricide
A) Absence of weapon used B) Treachery or evident premeditation C) Lack of intent to kill D) Relationship between the offender and victim
A) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances B) Killing of one's parent C) Killing by means of poison D) Killing with cruelty
A) Homicide B) Infanticide C) Parricide D) Murder
A) Abortion B) Parricide C) Murder D) Infanticide
A) The victim is over 18 and married B) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation C) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse D) There is consent and the woman is of legal age
A) The injury heals immediately B) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days C) The injury requires no medical attention D) The injury causes death
A) Attempted homicide B) Less serious physical injuries C) Slight physical injuries D) Serious physical injuries
A) Reckless imprudence B) Illegal discharge of firearm C) Attempted homicide D) Alarm and scandal
A) Theft is committed only by strangers B) Both involve taking property with intent to gain C) Robbery requires that the property be of high value D) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not
A) Estafa B) Robbery in band C) Brigandage D) Qualified theft
A) Taking property without violence B) Using force to steal from another C) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit D) Damaging property with intent to annoy
A) Malicious Mischief B) Grave Threats C) Estafa D) Robbery
A) Unlawful arrest B) Grave coercion C) Light coercion D) Serious illegal detention
A) Estafa B) Grave threats C) Unlawful arrest D) Grave coercion
A) Detaining a person to secure testimony B) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant C) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds D) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual
A) PD 532 covers only government vessels. B) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. C) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. D) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas.
A) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities B) Illegal search C) Unlawful arrest D) Arbitrary detention
A) Direct bribery B) Infidelity in the custody of documents C) Malversation of funds D) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance
A) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform. B) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results. C) Enter residences only with a valid warrant D) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant.
A) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt. B) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. C) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing. D) An oral statement attacking a person's character.
A) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult. B) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. C) There is no difference; both are oral defamation. D) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech.
A) Intriguing against honor B) Simple slander C) Direct assault D) Slander by deed
A) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can. B) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. C) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. D) Both require consent from the offender's parents.
A) Bigamy B) Concubinage C) Adultery D) Illegal marriage
A) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. B) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases. C) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. D) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame.
A) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution B) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad C) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies D) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit
A) Armed rebellion by military officers B) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government C) Criticizing the government on social media D) Peaceful protest without violence
A) Grave coercion B) Physical injuries only C) Frustrated homicide D) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries
A) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. B) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. C) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street. D) A store owner posts a sale announcement.
A) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act B) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act C) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law D) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act
A) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime B) The accused posting a confession online C) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene D) A witness describing the suspect's face
A) DNA samples gathered from the victim B) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect C) Fingerprints matched in a database D) Weapons recovered during the investigation
A) Eyewitness pointing at the accused B) CCTV footage of the incident C) Signed contract presented in court D) Knife left by the suspect
A) Circumstantial evidence B) Real or physical evidence C) Testimonial evidence D) Demonstrative evidence
A) Obtained from a private source B) Material and competent C) Based on personal beliefs D) Accepted by the witness
A) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect B) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search C) Evidence authenticated by expert witness D) Evidence with proper search warrant
A) Best Evidence Rule B) Exclusionary Rule C) Res Gestae Rule D) Hearsay Rule
A) Materiality B) Best Evidence C) Judicial Notice D) Relevance
A) Documentary evidence B) Circumstantial evidence C) Judicially noticed facts D) Testimonial evidence
A) Parol evidence B) Hearsay rule C) Chain of custody D) Opinion rule
A) Anytime during arraignment B) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified C) Only after the judgment is issued D) Immediately after the pre-trial
A) Ignore it and argue in closing statements B) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds C) File a motion after the case is finished D) Write a letter to the judge later
A) The popularity of the person who wrote it B) Its authenticity and relevance C) That it came from a government agency only D) That it has been posted online
A) Best Evidence Rule B) Exclusionary Rule C) Parol Evidence Rule D) Hearsay Rule
A) Is based entirely on hearsay B) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility C) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed D) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt
A) Mere preponderance of evidence B) Clear and convincing evidence C) Substantial evidence D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
A) Municipal Trial Court (MTC) B) Sandiganbayan C) Regional Trial Court (RTC) D) Court of Appeals
A) Court of Appeals B) Sandiganbayan C) Municipal Trial Court D) Regional Trial Court
A) Regional Trial Court B) Municipal Trial Court C) Sandiganbayan D) Court of Appeals
A) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties. B) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases. C) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. D) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished.
A) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice. B) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties. C) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders. D) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused.
A) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. B) The right to choose the judge who will try his case. C) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. D) The right to set the schedule of hearings.
A) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence. B) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel. C) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. D) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial.
A) Right to preliminary investigation B) Right against double jeopardy C) Right against self-incrimination D) Right to due process of law
A) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime. B) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. C) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause. D) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant.
A) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. B) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. C) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. D) Search incident to a lawful arrest.
A) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses. B) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. C) When the suspect has a prior criminal record. D) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search.
A) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. B) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip. C) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest. D) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith.
A) When the complainant demands it. B) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court. C) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. D) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense.
A) Inquest proceeding B) Trial proper C) Arraignment D) Preliminary investigation
A) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity. B) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua. C) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality. D) A case where one party is a corporation.
A) Certificate of Non-Participation B) Certificate of Compliance C) Certificate of Appearance D) Certification to File Action
A) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. B) The police officer may approve the bail application. C) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong. D) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application.
A) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused. B) Dismiss the case automatically. C) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. D) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty.
A) To record the plea of the accused. B) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. C) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence. D) To allow the prosecution to amend the information.
A) Demurrer to evidence B) Motion for reconsideration C) Motion to quash D) Motion for new trial
A) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. B) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. C) Continue the questioning until the child answers. D) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. |