CLJ set A
  • 1. Which agency is primarily mandated to enforce laws on illegal drugs in the
    Philippines?
A) Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)
B) Philippine National Police (PNP)
C) Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)
D) National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
  • 2. Which agency serves as the investigative arm of the Department of Justice for
    highprofile and complex crimes?
A) PNP
B) BFP
C) BJMP
D) NBI
  • 3. During inquest proceedings, what is the primary duty of the prosecutor?
A) Determine validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
B) Decide the proper penalty
C) Conduct trial
D) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
  • 4. Which court has jurisdiction over criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment
    exceeding six years?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Municipal Trial Court
C) Court of Appeals
  • 5. A convict sentenced to eight years imprisonment will generally serve sentence in
    which institution
A) PNP detention cell
B) Bureau of Corrections facility
C) Prosecutor’s Office
D) BJMP jail
  • 6. Which constitutional principle guarantees fairness in the administration of justice?
A) Double jeopardy
B) Eminent domain
C) Due process
D) Police power
  • 7. A suspect under custodial investigation must be informed of his:
A) Political rights only
B) Property rights
C) Voting rights
D) Miranda rights
  • 8. Which requirement is essential before a judge may issue a search warrant?
A) Conviction
B) Written confession
C) Probable cause
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 9. Which right protects a person from being compelled to testify against himself?
A) Right against self-incrimination
B) Right to suffrage
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to travel
  • 10. Which writ protects a person against unlawful detention?
A) Writ of Certiorari
B) Writ of Habeas Corpus
C) Writ of Execution
D) Writ of Amparo
  • 11. Felonies committed with deliberate intent are known as:
A) Mala prohibita
B) Quasi-offenses
C) Dolo
D) Culpa
  • 12. Criminal laws are generally binding on all persons who live or sojourn in Philippine
    territory under the principle of:
A) Retroactivity
B) Generality
C) Territoriality
D) Prospectivity
  • 13. Felonies committed through negligence are called:
A) Consummated felonies
B) Intentional felonies
C) Impossible crimes
D) Culpable felonies
  • 14. When two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony, there is:
A) Recidivism
B) Conspiracy
C) Treachery
D) Proposal
  • 15. A person who cooperates in the execution of the offense by previous or
    simultaneous acts is:
A) Accomplice
B) Witness
C) Accessory
D) Principal
  • 16. A person who profits from the effects of the crime after its commission is generally
    liable as:
A) Accomplice
B) Principal
C) Co-conspirator
D) Accessory
  • 17. Which of the following best describes conspiracy?
A) Concealing evidence after the crime
B) Presence at the crime scene
C) Mere knowledge of the crime
D) Unity of purpose and intention in committing the crime
  • 18. The offender performed all acts of execution but the felony was not produced due to
    causes independent of his will. The felony is:
A) Impossible
B) Attempted
C) Consummated
D) Frustrated
  • 19. The offender commences the commission of a felony directly by overt acts but does
    not perform all acts of execution. The felony is:
A) Attempted
B) Consummated
C) Impossible
D) Frustrated
  • 20. Which is an indivisible penalty?
A) Prision correccional
B) Destierro
C) Reclusion perpetua
D) Arresto menor
  • 21. Which circumstance exempts a person from criminal liability?
A) Recidivism
B) Insanity
C) Treachery
D) Voluntary surrender
  • 22. Voluntary surrender is a:
A) Exempting circumstance
B) Mitigating circumstance
C) Aggravating circumstance
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 23. Which aggravating circumstance exists when the offender employs mean tending
    directly to insure execution without risk to himself?
A) Cruelty
B) Dwelling
C) Habituality
D) Treachery
  • 24. Self-defense requires unlawful aggression, reasonable necessity of the means
    employed, and:
A) Lack of sufficient provocation
B) Relationship
C) Revenge
D) Intent to kill
  • 25. Recidivism exists when the offender:
A) Escapes during trial
B) Repeats the same crime before conviction
C) Uses a deadly weapon
D) Commits another crime after final conviction
  • 26. Passion and obfuscation are classified as a:
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Qualifying circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Aggravating circumstance
  • 27. Criminal liability is totally extinguished by:
A) Death of the convict
B) Escape from prison
C) Concealment
D) Recidivism
  • 28. Service of sentence extinguishes:
A) Subsidiary liability only
B) Damages only
C) Criminal liability
D) Civil liability only
  • 29. Marriage between the offender and offended party in certain crimes against chastity
    may extinguish:
A) Administrative liability
B) Political rights
C) Criminal liability
D) Civil liability only
  • 30. Amnesty extinguishes:
A) Criminal liability and penalty
B) Evidence
C) Property rights
D) Civil liability only
  • 31. A person who kills another without any qualifying circumstance commits:
A) Infanticide
B) Murder
C) Parricide
D) Homicide
  • 32. Killing attended by treachery is:
A) Parricide
B) Homicide
C) Murder
D) Infanticide
  • 33. The killing of a child less than three days old is:
A) Murder
B) Infanticide
C) Parricide
D) Homicide
  • 34. Which crime is committed when physical injuries incapacitate the victim for labor for
    more than 30 days?
A) Grave coercion
B) Serious physical injuries
C) Slight physical injuries
D) Grave threats
  • 35. Illegal discharge of firearm is committed when:
A) Firearm is used in robbery
B) A firearm is discharged against another person without intent to kill
C) Firearm is displayed publicly
D) Firearm is possessed illegally
  • 36. Which crime against persons requires a qualifying circumstance for its existence?
A) Physical injuries
B) Duel
C) Homicide
D) Murder
  • 37. Which crime is committed when a person kills another under exceptional
    circumstances provided by law?
A) Homicide
B) Murder
C) Parricide
D) Death under exceptional circumstances
  • 38. Taking personal property without violence and with intent to gain is:
A) Theft
B) Estafa
C) Malicious mischief
D) Robbery
  • 39. Robbery differs from theft because robbery involves:
A) Public officer participation
B) Violence or intimidation
C) Abuse of confidence
D) Forgery
  • 40. Which crime is committed by defrauding another through abuse of confidence or
    deceit?
A) Malversation
B) Theft
C) Robbery
D) Estafa
  • 41. Deliberately damaging another person’s property is:
A) Arson
B) Estafa
C) Malicious mischief
D) Robbery
  • 42. Kidnapping is a crime against:
A) Chastity
B) Public order
C) Liberty
D) Honor
  • 43. Arbitrary detention is committed by:
A) Judge issuing warrant
B) Prosecutor conducting inquest
C) Public officer detaining a person without legal grounds
D) Any private person
  • 44. Grave threats are committed by:
A) Defaming another person
B) Threatening another with infliction of wrong
C) Taking property
D) Concealing a crime
  • 45. Grave coercion involves:
A) Falsification
B) Public scandal
C) Compelling another by violence or intimidation to do something against his will
D) Taking property through deceit
  • 46. Arbitrary detention is classified as a crime against:
A) Public order
B) Chastity
C) Fundamental law of the State
D) Persons
  • 47. Violation of domicile is committed by:
A) Trespasser entering property
B) A tenant refusing to vacate
C) Public officer entering a dwelling against the owner’s will without judicial order
D) Private individual entering a house
  • 48. Alarm and scandal are committed by:
A) Defaming another person
B) Falsifying documents
C) Taking property
D) Causing disturbance in public places
  • 49. Direct bribery is committed when a public officer:
A) Falsifies testimony
B) Accepts consideration in connection with official duties
C) Escapes detention
D) Commits homicide
  • 50. Libel is committed through:
A) Writing or similar means
B) Spoken words only
C) Physical assault
D) Mere gestures
  • 51. Oral defamation is also known as:
A) Libel
B) Slander
C) Perjury
D) Estafa
  • 52. Concubinage is committed by:
A) Married man cohabiting with another woman under scandalous circumstances
B) Public officer abusing authority
C) Single man seducing a minor
D) Married woman having intercourse with another man
  • 53. Adultery is committed by:
A) Single woman only
B) Married man alone
C) Widow remarrying early
D) Married woman having sexual intercourse with another man
  • 54. Bigamy is committed by:
A) Living together without marriage
B) Seducing a minor
C) Contracting another marriage before dissolution of the first valid marriage
D) Cohabiting scandalously
  • 55. Intriguing against honor is committed by:
A) Publishing defamatory articles
B) Making intrigue intended to blemish another’s honor
C) Threatening another
D) Swearing falsely
  • 56. Human trafficking is punishable under:
A) Revised Penal Code only
B) Cybercrime Law
C) Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act
D) Dangerous Drugs Act
  • 57. Which law penalizes acts of terrorism in the Philippines?
A) Safe Spaces Act
B) Anti-Terrorism Act
C) Local Government Code
D) Juvenile Justice Act
  • 58. The Safe Spaces Act penalizes:
A) Gender-based sexual harassment
B) Human trafficking
C) Drug trafficking
D) Illegal detention
  • 59. Illegal recruitment committed by syndicates may constitute:
A) Libel
B) Arbitrary detention
C) Robbery
D) Human trafficking
  • 60. The amount of evidence required in criminal cases is proof beyond:
A) Suspicion
B) Reasonable doubt
C) Doubt
D) Probability
  • 61. Which quantum of evidence is required in civil cases?
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Substantial evidence
C) Prima facie evidence
D) Preponderance of evidence
  • 62. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Written contracts
B) Physical objects
C) Oral statements made by witnesses in court
D) Fingerprints
  • 63. Documentary evidence consists of:
A) Written instruments and documents
B) Demonstrations
C) Oral testimony
D) Tangible objects
  • 64. Evidence which directly proves a fact without inference is:
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 65. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction when:
A) The circumstances form an unbroken chain leading to guilt
B) There is only one circumstance
C) The accused confesses
D) There is no eyewitness
  • 66. Evidence is admissible when it is:
A) Relevant and competent
B) Material only
C) Competent only
D) Relevant only
  • 67. Evidence obtained in violation of constitutional rights is generally:
A) Inadmissible
B) Preferred
C) Admissible
D) Conclusive
  • 68. The doctrine that excludes illegally obtained evidence is known as:
A) Res gestae doctrine
B) Plain view doctrine
C) Equipoise doctrine
D) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
  • 69. Which rule requires the original document when its contents are the subject of
    inquiry?
A) Character evidence rule
B) Hearsay rule
C) Opinion rule
D) Best evidence rule
  • 70. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Admissible
B) Conclusive
C) Mandatory
D) Inadmissible
  • 71. A dying declaration is an exception to the:
A) Hearsay rule
B) Best evidence rule
C) Opinion rule
D) Character evidence rule
  • 72. Evidence not formally offered cannot generally be:
A) Copied
B) Marked
C) Attached to records
D) Appreciated by the court
  • 73. Which party may object to inadmissible evidence during trial?
A) Prosecutor only
B) Judge only
C) Witness only
D) Adverse party
  • 74. Public documents are generally admissible without:
A) Certification
B) Identification
C) Authentication
D) Marking
  • 75. An affidavit is:
A) A subpoena
B) A sworn written statement
C) A judicial notice
D) A search warrant
  • 76. Positive identification generally prevails over:
A) Denial and alibi
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 77. The prosecution must rely on the strength of:
A) Police report alone
B) Its own evidence
C) Public opinion
D) Defense evidence
  • 78. Which court generally tries criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment exceeding
    six years?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) MTC
C) Court of Appeals
D) RTC
  • 79. Appeals from decisions of the Municipal Trial Court in criminal cases are generally
    brought to the:
A) Supreme Court
B) DOJ
C) Court of Appeals
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 80. The Sandiganbayan primarily has jurisdiction over:
A) Drug cases
B) Cases involving public officers and graft-related offenses
C) Election offenses
D) Family cases
  • 81. Criminal actions are instituted by filing a:
A) Appeal only
B) Memorandum only
C) Complaint or Information
D) Petition only
  • 82. Preliminary investigation is required for offenses punishable by at least:
A) 6 months
B) 10 years
C) 1 year
D) 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
  • 83. The accused is presumed:
A) Innocent until proven guilty
B) Dangerous
C) Guilty
D) Liable
  • 84. The right to speedy trial protects the accused against:
A) Double jeopardy
B) Illegal search
C) Delay in proceedings
D) Excessive bail
  • 85. Which right guarantees that an accused understands the accusation against him?
A) Right to travel
B) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
C) Right to bail
D) Right to property
  • 86. A warrant of arrest may be issued only upon finding of:
A) Probable cause
B) Conviction
C) Suspicion
D) Rumor
  • 87. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Citizen’s arrest
B) Hot pursuit arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) Escapee arrest
  • 88. A valid search warrant must particularly describe:
A) The witnesses
B) The penalty
C) The place to be searched and things to be seized
D) The prosecutor
  • 89. Search incidental to lawful arrest is:
A) Invalid always
B) An exception to the warrant requirement
C) Allowed only with prosecutor approval
D) Allowed only in drug cases
  • 90. The purpose of preliminary investigation is to determine:
A) Probable cause
B) Exact penalty
C) Damages
D) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
  • 91. In inquest proceedings, the prosecutor first determines:
A) Civil liability
B) Validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
C) Penalty to be imposed
D) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
  • 92. Which official files the Information in court?
A) Judge
B) Police officer
C) Prosecutor
D) Barangay captain
  • 93. The primary purpose of bail is to:
A) Acquit the accused
B) Terminate the case
C) Reduce penalty
D) Ensure appearance of the accused in court
  • 94. Arraignment consists of:
A) Bail hearing
B) Reading the Information in open court and asking the accused to plead
C) Cross-examination
D) Issuance of warrant
  • 95. Double jeopardy attaches after:
A) Valid arraignment and plea
B) Sentencing only
C) Arrest only
D) Filing of complaint only
  • 96. Trial in absentia may proceed if the accused:
A) Has not been arraigned
B) Escapes after arraignment and due notice
C) Refuses to hire counsel
D) Is a minor
  • 97. Direct examination is conducted by:
A) The clerk of court
B) Adverse counsel
C) The judge only
D) The party presenting the witness
  • 98. Cross-examination is intended to:
A) Test credibility and truthfulness of the witness
B) Dismiss the case
C) Introduce judgment
D) Repeat testimony
  • 99. A child witness may testify if the child:
A) Is related to the victim
B) Is at least 18 years old
C) Has written testimony
D) Can perceive and truthfully communicate facts
  • 100. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Hot pursuit arrest
B) Escapee arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) Citizen’s arrest
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