ThatQuiz
|
Test Library
|
Take this test now
NCM 118 Semi Finals BSN-C
  • 1. 1.
    A 58-year-old male presents with hematemesis and melena. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg, and pulse is 120 bpm. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A) Insert a nasogastric tube
B) Administer proton pump inhibitor
C) Start IV fluid resuscitation
D) Prepare for endoscopy
  • 2. 2.
    The nurse is caring for a patient with an upper GI bleed. The nasogastric tube returns bright red blood. What does this finding indicate?
A) Bleeding has stopped
B) Ongoing active bleeding
C) Bleeding from lower GI
D) Normal NG output
  • 3. 3.
    After endoscopy for bleeding ulcers, the patient reports black tarry stools. What is the nurse’s interpretation?
A) Upper GI bleeding is resolving
B) Normal finding post-endoscopy
C) New onset of lower GI bleed
D) Rebleeding from ulcer site
  • 4. 4.
    A patient with GI bleeding is scheduled for blood transfusion. Which assessment finding requires immediate attention?
A) Crackles in lungs after transfusion
B) BP 110/70 mmHg
C) Pulse 88 bpm
D) Temperature 37°C
  • 5. 5.
    During octreotide infusion for variceal bleeding, the nurse observes bradycardia. What is the best nursing action?
A) Continue infusion
B) Give atropine
C) Decrease IV fluids
D) Stop infusion and notify physician
  • 6. 6.
    A trauma patient with massive fluid resuscitation has tense abdomen and decreased urine output. What is the nurse’s priority?
A) Provide pain relief
B) Administer diuretics
C) Elevate the head of the bed
D) Measure bladder pressure
  • 7. 7.
    What parameter best reflects intra-abdominal pressure?
A) Gastric residual volume
B) Mean arterial pressure
C) Central venous pressure
D) Bladder pressure
  • 8. 8.
    A patient with intra-abdominal hypertension has decreased cardiac output. What is the underlying cause?
A) Vasodilation
B) Increased intrathoracic pressure
C) Increased venous return
D) Compression of inferior vena cava
  • 9. 9.
    What is the initial management of mild intra-abdominal hypertension?
A) Start vasopressors
B) insert chest tube
C) Immediate surgical decompression
D) Optimize fluid balance and positioning
  • 10. 10.
    In abdominal compartment syndrome, which nursing assessment finding is most alarming?
A) Respiratory rate 18/min
B) Urine output 15 mL/hr
C) Soft abdomen
D) Heart rate 90 bpm
  • 11. 11.
    A patient with liver failure has confusion and flapping tremor (asterixis). What should the nurse suspect?
A) Hypocalcemia
B) Hepatic encephalopathy
C) Hypokalemia
D) Hypoglycemia
  • 12. 12.
    Which lab result is consistent with liver failure?
A) Decreased ammonia
B) Elevated ALT and AST
C) Decreased bilirubin
D) Increased albumin
  • 13. 13.
    A patient with liver failure has ascites. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A) Encourage deep breathing
B) Position in high Fowler’s
C) Encourage high-sodium diet
D) Restrict fluids
  • 14. 14.
    After paracentesis, what is the most important nursing action?
A) Check bowel sounds
B) Document color of fluid
C) Monitor blood pressure
D) Record urine output
  • 15. 15.
    The nurse should withhold lactulose if the patient exhibits which symptom?
A) Two soft stools per day
B) Mild abdominal pain
C) Severe diarrhea
D) Drowsiness
  • 16. 16.
    A patient with severe epigastric pain radiating to the back is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which finding indicates a serious complication?
A) Nausea
B) Vomiting
C) Grey-Turner’s sign
D) Fever
  • 17. 17.
    Which lab result supports the diagnosis of acute pancreatitis?
A) Low WBC count
B) Decreased lipase
C) Elevated amylase and lipase
D) Low bilirubin
  • 18. 18.
    What is the priority nursing intervention in acute pancreatitis?
A) Administer insulin
B) Provide low-fat diet
C) Encourage oral fluids
D) Maintain NPO status
  • 19. 19.
    Which electrolyte imbalance is common in pancreatitis?
A) Hypernatremia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypomagnesemia
D) Hypocalcemia
  • 20. 20.
    Which position best relieves pain in acute pancreatitis?
A) Trendelenburg
B) Supine
C) Prone
D) Left side-lying with knees flexed
  • 21. 21.
    A diabetic patient arrives with fruity odor breath and Kussmaul respirations. What is the priority action?
A) Start insulin drip
B) Begin IV fluids
C) Prepare for dialysis
D) Administer bicarbonate
  • 22. 22.
    Which lab result confirms DKA?
A) Serum ketones positive
B) pH 7.45
C) Blood glucose 180 mg/dL
D) HCO₃ 24 mEq/L
  • 23. 23.
    Which electrolyte must be monitored closely during insulin therapy in DKA?
A) Calcium
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Magnesium
  • 24. 24.
    Which sign indicates effective management of DKA?
A) Fruity odor persists
B) Increased urine output
C) Decreasing ketones and glucose
D) Dry mucous membranes
  • 25. 25.
    The nurse should administer insulin infusion until:
A) C. pH returns to normal
B) B. Glucose < 200 mg/dL and patient can eat
C) A. Ketones disappear
D) D. IV fluids completed
  • 26. 26.
    An elderly type 2 diabetic is admitted with dehydration and glucose of 700 mg/dL, no ketones. What is the likely diagnosis?
A) D. SIADH
B) C. Hypoglycemia
C) A. DKA
D) B. HHNK
  • 27. 27.
    What is the primary cause of HHNK?
A) C. Excess carbohydrate intake
B) A. Infection or dehydration
C) B. Insulin overdose
D) D. Hypokalemia
  • 28. 28.
    Which intervention is most important in initial management of HHNK?
A) C. Start antibiotics
B) A. Administer IV insulin bolus
C) B. Rehydrate with IV fluids
D) D. Provide potassium supplements
  • 29. 29.
    What differentiates HHNK from DKA?
A) D. All of the above
B) A. Presence of ketones
C) B. Level of glucose
D) C. pH value
  • 30. 30.
    A nurse identifies decreased skin turgor and dry mucous membranes in a HHNK patient. What should the nurse expect?
A) B. Fluid overload
B) D. Acidosis
C) C. Hypoglycemia
D) A. Fluid volume deficit
  • 31. 31.
    A patient with acute renal failure has urine output of 200 mL/24 hrs. What phase is this?
A) A. Diuretic
B) C. Recovery
C) D. Initial
D) B. Oliguric
  • 32. 32.
    Which lab finding indicates renal failure?
A) D. High GFR
B) B. Increased BUN and creatinine
C) A. Decreased creatinine
D) C. Low potassium
  • 33. 33.
    In chronic renal failure, which diet is most appropriate?
A) B. Low potassium and phosphorus
B) A. High protein
C) D. High fluid intake
D) C. High sodium
  • 34. 34.
    The nurse monitors which ECG change for hyperkalemia in renal failure?
A) D. Flat P waves
B) A. ST depression
C) B. Peaked T waves
D) C. U waves
  • 35. 35.
    Which medication helps remove potassium in renal failure?
A) A. Kayexalate
B) C. Spironolactone
C) D. Mannitol
D) B. Lasix
  • 36. 36.
    A trauma patient presents with BP 80/50 mmHg, pulse 130 bpm, cool clammy skin. What type of shock is this?
A) A. Cardiogenic
B) D. Anaphylactic
C) C. Neurogenic
D) B. Hypovolemic
  • 37. 37.
    What is the first nursing action in hypovolemic shock?
A) D. Draw labs
B) C. Give oxygen
C) B. Start IV fluids
D) A. Administer vasopressors
  • 38. 38.
    In septic shock, which finding indicates early stage?
A) B. Bounding pulse
B) A. Cold clammy skin
C) C. Bradycardia
D) D. Hypothermia
  • 39. 39.
    Which lab test confirms septic shock?
A) A. Blood culture positive
B) B. Increased sodium
C) D. Elevated calcium
D) C. Decreased BUN
  • 40. 40.
    The most reliable indicator of adequate tissue perfusion in shock is:
A) B. Urine output
B) C. Blood pressure
C) D. Capillary refill
D) A. Skin color
  • 41. 41.
    Which of the following meets SIRS criteria?
A) D. BP 120/80
B) A. Temp 38.5°C, HR 100, WBC 15,000
C) C. RR 14, WBC 5,000
D) B. Temp 36°C, HR 70
  • 42. 42.
    What is the primary trigger for SIRS?
A) C. Hypoglycemia
B) B. Dehydration
C) D. Hypertension
D) A. Infection or tissue injury
  • 43. 43.
    MODS is characterized by:
A) A. Dysfunction of two or more organ systems
B) D. Local inflammation only
C) B. Single organ failure
D) C. Mild infection
  • 44. 44.
    A patient with MODS develops jaundice, oliguria, and confusion. What does this indicate?
A) B. Multisystem involvement
B) D. Stable condition
C) C. Dehydration
D) A. Improvement
  • 45. 45.
    Nursing priority in SIRS management is:
A) A. Early identification and treatment of infection
B) B. Fluid restriction
C) C. Oxygen removal
D) D. High-protein diet
  • 46. 46.
    In MODS, which intervention prevents further organ injury?
A) C. Stop antibiotics
B) D. Withhold nutrition
C) A. Maintain oxygenation and perfusion
D) B. Limit IV fluids
  • 47. 47.
    Which assessment finding indicates progression from SIRS to MODS?
A) D. Mild fever
B) B. Decreasing LOC and urine output
C) C. Warm, dry skin
D) A. Stable BP and urine output
  • 48. 48.
    Which laboratory marker is typically elevated in SIRS/MODS?
A) D. Glucose
B) B. Hematocrit
C) A. C-reactive protein (CRP)
D) C. Sodium
  • 49. 49.
    The nurse monitors for which complication in MODS?
A) A. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
B) D. Hypoglycemia
C) C. Dehydration
D) B. Hyperthyroidism
  • 50. 50.
    What is the ultimate goal in managing SIRS and MODS?
A) B. Restrict fluids
B) D. Lower WBC count
C) C. Decrease urine output
D) A. Prevent sepsis and maintain organ perfusion
Created with That Quiz — where a math practice test is always one click away.