ISMANA (Finals)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Sabotage
B) Pilferage
C) Subversion
D) Espionage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Number of times they were caught
B) Level of Education
C) Only steals small, easily hidden items
D) Intent and premeditation in theft
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Self-Assumption
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Transfer
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Issue of weapons
C) Allow free access
D) Body Frisking
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
B) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
C) Subversion is done by governments only
D) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Self Assumption
D) Risk Spreading
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
C) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
D) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Pilferage
B) Vandalism
C) Espionage
D) Subversion
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) An environmental condition causing damage
B) A legal owner of an asset
C) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
D) A security measure in place to protect assets
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The visibility of the asset
B) The financial or survival of losing the assets
C) The frequency of threat attempts
D) The number of people using the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Ambush attack
B) Advance Security
C) Driver Rule
D) Mental attitude
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Novice Criminal
B) Moving Attack
C) Close in Security
D) Ambush attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Moving Attack
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Ambush attack
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Advance Security
B) Ambush attack
C) Close in Security
D) Mental Attitude
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Modus Operandi
B) Driver Rule
C) Moving Attack
D) Ambush attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Mental attitude
C) Driver Rule
D) Novice Criminal
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Advance Security
C) Novice Criminal
D) Mental Attitude
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Novice Criminals
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Modus Operandi
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Modus Operandi
C) Advance Security
D) Novice Criminals
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Moving Attack
C) Advance Security
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Slang usage
B) Alertness
C) Pleasantness
D) Expressiveness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Use codes for every sentence
B) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
C) Wait for confirmation before speaking
D) Speak continuously without pause
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Creation of laws
B) Establishment if civilization
C) Hunting and gathering
D) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
B) Avoid using any code's
C) Speak as fast as possible
D) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) People still fail to understand one another
C) People are talking too much
D) Communication channels are too expensive
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) High-pitched voices
B) Slang and unnatural language
C) All codes and acronyms
D) Long pauses
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Telephone
B) Walkie-talkies
C) Audio hailer
D) Messaging security
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Radio check
C) Repeat message
D) Receiving poorly
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Written language
B) Oral language
C) Symbolic Art
D) Use of Signs
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A device for broadcasting messages
B) The tone of a person's voice
C) The tool used to write
D) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
B) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
C) Review the state of physical security
D) Determine employee productivity
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Designing building architecture
B) Training new recruits
C) Boosting sales
D) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) External cyber attacks
B) Supplier delays
C) Criminal activity within the organization
D) Competitor activity
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A routine fire drill
B) A list of employee duties
C) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
D) A financial audit of company assets
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Develop alternatives
C) Verify the need
D) Determine how data will be gathered
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It helps save money
B) It guarantees fast results
C) It ensures cooperation and resources
D) It allows skipping certain steps
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
B) Background checks
C) Legal compliance checks only
D) Staff scheduling
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Fire inspection
B) Security briefing
C) Emergency drill
D) Security survey
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
B) To evaluate marketing strategies
C) To hire new security staff
D) To monitor employee performance
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
B) Only inspection is required for long term planning
C) Survey is done after inspection
D) They are unrelated processes
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Location
C) Repeat message
D) Receiving poorly
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Loud and clear
C) Radio check
D) Identify yourself/call sign
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Radio check
B) Copied message
C) Location
D) Loud and clear
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Copied message
B) Repeat message
C) Identify yourself/call sign
D) Location
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Copied message
C) Radio check
D) Repeat message
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Radio check
C) Loud and clear
D) Location
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Proceed and locates the witnesses
B) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
C) Interview the complainant and witnesses
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Relay message
B) Effect the arrest of the offender
C) Render obedience and proper conduct
D) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Effort and loyalty
B) Effectively uses investigation
C) Plaster cast
D) Effect the arrest of the offender
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Interview the company
B) Locate and protect
C) Locates and capture perpetrator
D) Locates the identifies the witnesses
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interview and locates the offender
B) Indirect Approach
C) Affect the crime scene
D) Interview the complainant and witnesses
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
B) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
C) Methods of investigation
D) Morse code
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate the people
B) Interrogate the suspect/offender
C) Interrogate everyone
D) Interrogate the crime scene
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note all happen
B) Note all conditions, events and remarks
C) Note all
D) Note the important things
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange for the collection of evidence
B) Arrange of the people
C) Arrange of the following statements
D) Arrange
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports the offender
B) Reports everyone
C) Report me
D) Reports the incident fully and accurately
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
B) Yields the conducting regular inspections
C) Yields the following statements
D) Yields the following individuals
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