ISMANA (Finals)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Pilferage
C) Espionage
D) Sabotage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Number of times they were caught
B) Intent and premeditation in theft
C) Level of Education
D) Only steals small, easily hidden items
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Avoidance
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Self-Assumption
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Issue of weapons
B) Body Frisking
C) Identification and Verification of purpose
D) Allow free access
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
B) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
C) Subversion is done by governments only
D) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Spreading
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Self Assumption
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
C) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
D) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Subversion
B) Espionage
C) Vandalism
D) Pilferage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A security measure in place to protect assets
B) A legal owner of an asset
C) An environmental condition causing damage
D) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The frequency of threat attempts
B) The financial or survival of losing the assets
C) The number of people using the asset
D) The visibility of the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Mental attitude
B) Advance Security
C) Driver Rule
D) Ambush attack
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Ambush attack
B) Novice Criminal
C) Moving Attack
D) Close in Security
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Ambush attack
B) Moving Attack
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Ambush attack
B) Close in Security
C) Advance Security
D) Mental Attitude
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Ambush attack
B) Modus Operandi
C) Driver Rule
D) Moving Attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Novice Criminal
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Mental attitude
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Novice Criminal
B) Mental Attitude
C) Module Operandi
D) Advance Security
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Novice Criminals
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Modus Operandi
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Novice Criminals
B) Modus Operandi
C) Advance Security
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Moving Attack
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Mental attitude
D) Advance Security
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Slang usage
B) Pleasantness
C) Alertness
D) Expressiveness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
B) Speak continuously without pause
C) Wait for confirmation before speaking
D) Use codes for every sentence
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
B) Creation of laws
C) Hunting and gathering
D) Establishment if civilization
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Speak as fast as possible
B) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
C) Avoid using any code's
D) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) People are talking too much
C) Communication channels are too expensive
D) People still fail to understand one another
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Long pauses
B) All codes and acronyms
C) Slang and unnatural language
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Telephone
B) Audio hailer
C) Walkie-talkies
D) Messaging security
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Location
C) Radio check
D) Receiving poorly
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Oral language
B) Symbolic Art
C) Written language
D) Use of Signs
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tool used to write
B) The tone of a person's voice
C) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
D) A device for broadcasting messages
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
B) Determine employee productivity
C) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
D) Review the state of physical security
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Designing building architecture
B) Boosting sales
C) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
D) Training new recruits
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) External cyber attacks
B) Criminal activity within the organization
C) Competitor activity
D) Supplier delays
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
B) A list of employee duties
C) A routine fire drill
D) A financial audit of company assets
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Verify the need
B) Develop alternatives
C) Determine how data will be gathered
D) Prepare Schedule
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It ensures cooperation and resources
B) It helps save money
C) It guarantees fast results
D) It allows skipping certain steps
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Staff scheduling
B) Background checks
C) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
D) Legal compliance checks only
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security survey
B) Security briefing
C) Fire inspection
D) Emergency drill
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To evaluate marketing strategies
B) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
C) To monitor employee performance
D) To hire new security staff
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
B) Only inspection is required for long term planning
C) They are unrelated processes
D) Survey is done after inspection
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Receiving poorly
C) Repeat message
D) Loud and clear
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Radio check
C) Identify yourself/call sign
D) Location
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Radio check
B) Loud and clear
C) Copied message
D) Location
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Location
B) Copied message
C) Identify yourself/call sign
D) Repeat message
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Copied message
C) Repeat message
D) Loud and clear
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Loud and clear
C) Location
D) Radio check
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Interview the complainant and witnesses
B) Preliminary investigation
C) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
D) Proceed and locates the witnesses
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Render obedience and proper conduct
B) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
C) Relay message
D) Effect the arrest of the offender
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Effectively uses investigation
B) Effect the arrest of the offender
C) Plaster cast
D) Effort and loyalty
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Locates and capture perpetrator
B) Interview the company
C) Locates the identifies the witnesses
D) Locate and protect
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Indirect Approach
B) Interview and locates the offender
C) Interview the complainant and witnesses
D) Affect the crime scene
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
B) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
C) Methods of investigation
D) Morse code
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate the suspect/offender
B) Interrogate everyone
C) Interrogate the crime scene
D) Interrogate the people
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note the important things
B) Note all conditions, events and remarks
C) Note all
D) Note all happen
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange for the collection of evidence
B) Arrange of the following statements
C) Arrange of the people
D) Arrange
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Report me
B) Reports everyone
C) Reports the incident fully and accurately
D) Reports the offender
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the following individuals
B) Yields the following statements
C) Yields the conducting regular inspections
D) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
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