ISMANA (Finals)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Pilferage
C) Espionage
D) Sabotage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Level of Education
B) Only steals small, easily hidden items
C) Intent and premeditation in theft
D) Number of times they were caught
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Self-Assumption
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Reduction
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Allow free access
B) Issue of weapons
C) Identification and Verification of purpose
D) Body Frisking
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
B) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
C) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
D) Subversion is done by governments only
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Self Assumption
D) Risk Spreading
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
B) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
C) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
D) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Vandalism
B) Subversion
C) Espionage
D) Pilferage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
C) A security measure in place to protect assets
D) An environmental condition causing damage
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The financial or survival of losing the assets
B) The visibility of the asset
C) The frequency of threat attempts
D) The number of people using the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Driver Rule
B) Ambush attack
C) Advance Security
D) Mental attitude
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Moving Attack
B) Close in Security
C) Ambush attack
D) Novice Criminal
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Moving Attack
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Ambush attack
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Close in Security
B) Advance Security
C) Ambush attack
D) Mental Attitude
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Ambush attack
B) Driver Rule
C) Moving Attack
D) Modus Operandi
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Novice Criminal
D) Mental attitude
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Novice Criminal
B) Mental Attitude
C) Advance Security
D) Module Operandi
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Novice Criminals
D) Modus Operandi
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Advance Security
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Novice Criminals
D) Modus Operandi
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Moving Attack
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Mental attitude
D) Advance Security
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Expressiveness
B) Slang usage
C) Pleasantness
D) Alertness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
B) Use codes for every sentence
C) Wait for confirmation before speaking
D) Speak continuously without pause
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Hunting and gathering
B) Creation of laws
C) Establishment if civilization
D) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Avoid using any code's
B) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People still fail to understand one another
B) There are not enough languages
C) Communication channels are too expensive
D) People are talking too much
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Long pauses
B) Slang and unnatural language
C) All codes and acronyms
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Walkie-talkies
B) Messaging security
C) Audio hailer
D) Telephone
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Receiving poorly
C) Location
D) Repeat message
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Use of Signs
B) Symbolic Art
C) Written language
D) Oral language
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tool used to write
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) The tone of a person's voice
D) A device for broadcasting messages
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
B) Determine employee productivity
C) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
D) Review the state of physical security
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Designing building architecture
B) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
C) Boosting sales
D) Training new recruits
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Criminal activity within the organization
B) External cyber attacks
C) Competitor activity
D) Supplier delays
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A list of employee duties
B) A financial audit of company assets
C) A routine fire drill
D) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Verify the need
B) Determine how data will be gathered
C) Prepare Schedule
D) Develop alternatives
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It allows skipping certain steps
B) It ensures cooperation and resources
C) It helps save money
D) It guarantees fast results
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Legal compliance checks only
B) Staff scheduling
C) Background checks
D) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security briefing
B) Fire inspection
C) Emergency drill
D) Security survey
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To evaluate marketing strategies
B) To hire new security staff
C) To monitor employee performance
D) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Only inspection is required for long term planning
B) Survey is done after inspection
C) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
D) They are unrelated processes
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Repeat message
C) Location
D) Receiving poorly
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Radio check
C) Identify yourself/call sign
D) Location
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Copied message
B) Radio check
C) Loud and clear
D) Location
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Repeat message
B) Copied message
C) Location
D) Identify yourself/call sign
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Repeat message
C) Copied message
D) Loud and clear
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Loud and clear
C) Radio check
D) Receiving poorly
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Proceed and locates the witnesses
B) Preliminary investigation
C) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
D) Interview the complainant and witnesses
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Effect the arrest of the offender
B) Relay message
C) Render obedience and proper conduct
D) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Effect the arrest of the offender
B) Plaster cast
C) Effort and loyalty
D) Effectively uses investigation
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Locates the identifies the witnesses
B) Locate and protect
C) Locates and capture perpetrator
D) Interview the company
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Indirect Approach
B) Interview the complainant and witnesses
C) Affect the crime scene
D) Interview and locates the offender
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
B) Morse code
C) Methods of investigation
D) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate the crime scene
B) Interrogate everyone
C) Interrogate the suspect/offender
D) Interrogate the people
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note the important things
B) Note all happen
C) Note all
D) Note all conditions, events and remarks
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange of the following statements
B) Arrange of the people
C) Arrange
D) Arrange for the collection of evidence
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports everyone
B) Reports the offender
C) Reports the incident fully and accurately
D) Report me
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the conducting regular inspections
B) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
C) Yields the following individuals
D) Yields the following statements
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