ISMANA (Finals)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Pilferage
B) Sabotage
C) Subversion
D) Espionage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Level of Education
B) Only steals small, easily hidden items
C) Number of times they were caught
D) Intent and premeditation in theft
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Self-Assumption
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Transfer
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Issue of weapons
B) Allow free access
C) Body Frisking
D) Identification and Verification of purpose
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
B) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
C) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
D) Subversion is done by governments only
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Self Assumption
C) Risk Spreading
D) Risk Transfer
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
C) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
D) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Espionage
B) Pilferage
C) Vandalism
D) Subversion
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) A security measure in place to protect assets
C) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
D) An environmental condition causing damage
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The frequency of threat attempts
B) The number of people using the asset
C) The financial or survival of losing the assets
D) The visibility of the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Ambush attack
B) Driver Rule
C) Mental attitude
D) Advance Security
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Moving Attack
B) Ambush attack
C) Novice Criminal
D) Close in Security
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Ambush attack
D) Moving Attack
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Mental Attitude
B) Ambush attack
C) Advance Security
D) Close in Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Modus Operandi
B) Moving Attack
C) Driver Rule
D) Ambush attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Driver Rule
C) Novice Criminal
D) Mental attitude
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Mental Attitude
C) Novice Criminal
D) Advance Security
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Novice Criminals
B) Modus Operandi
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Modus Operandi
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Novice Criminals
D) Advance Security
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Moving Attack
B) Mental attitude
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Advance Security
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Alertness
B) Slang usage
C) Expressiveness
D) Pleasantness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Wait for confirmation before speaking
B) Use codes for every sentence
C) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
D) Speak continuously without pause
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Establishment if civilization
B) Creation of laws
C) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
D) Hunting and gathering
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Speak as fast as possible
B) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Avoid using any code's
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) Communication channels are too expensive
B) People are talking too much
C) People still fail to understand one another
D) There are not enough languages
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) High-pitched voices
B) Slang and unnatural language
C) Long pauses
D) All codes and acronyms
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Walkie-talkies
B) Messaging security
C) Telephone
D) Audio hailer
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Radio check
C) Location
D) Repeat message
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Written language
B) Symbolic Art
C) Use of Signs
D) Oral language
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tone of a person's voice
B) A device for broadcasting messages
C) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
D) The tool used to write
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
B) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
C) Determine employee productivity
D) Review the state of physical security
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Boosting sales
B) Training new recruits
C) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
D) Designing building architecture
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) External cyber attacks
B) Supplier delays
C) Criminal activity within the organization
D) Competitor activity
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A routine fire drill
B) A financial audit of company assets
C) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
D) A list of employee duties
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Verify the need
C) Develop alternatives
D) Determine how data will be gathered
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It allows skipping certain steps
B) It guarantees fast results
C) It ensures cooperation and resources
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
B) Background checks
C) Staff scheduling
D) Legal compliance checks only
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Fire inspection
B) Security survey
C) Emergency drill
D) Security briefing
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
B) To hire new security staff
C) To evaluate marketing strategies
D) To monitor employee performance
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) They are unrelated processes
B) Only inspection is required for long term planning
C) Survey is done after inspection
D) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Repeat message
C) Receiving poorly
D) Location
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Identify yourself/call sign
C) Loud and clear
D) Radio check
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Loud and clear
B) Radio check
C) Location
D) Copied message
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Location
B) Copied message
C) Identify yourself/call sign
D) Repeat message
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Radio check
C) Repeat message
D) Copied message
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Location
C) Radio check
D) Loud and clear
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
B) Interview the complainant and witnesses
C) Proceed and locates the witnesses
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Relay message
B) Effect the arrest of the offender
C) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
D) Render obedience and proper conduct
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Effect the arrest of the offender
B) Effectively uses investigation
C) Plaster cast
D) Effort and loyalty
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Locate and protect
B) Locates and capture perpetrator
C) Locates the identifies the witnesses
D) Interview the company
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interview the complainant and witnesses
B) Indirect Approach
C) Interview and locates the offender
D) Affect the crime scene
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
B) Methods of investigation
C) Morse code
D) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate the suspect/offender
B) Interrogate the people
C) Interrogate the crime scene
D) Interrogate everyone
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note all conditions, events and remarks
B) Note all happen
C) Note the important things
D) Note all
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange for the collection of evidence
B) Arrange
C) Arrange of the following statements
D) Arrange of the people
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports the incident fully and accurately
B) Report me
C) Reports the offender
D) Reports everyone
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the conducting regular inspections
B) Yields the following individuals
C) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
D) Yields the following statements
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