ISMANA (Finals)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Pilferage
C) Espionage
D) Sabotage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Level of Education
B) Number of times they were caught
C) Only steals small, easily hidden items
D) Intent and premeditation in theft
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Self-Assumption
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Avoidance
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Issue of weapons
C) Body Frisking
D) Allow free access
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
B) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
C) Subversion is done by governments only
D) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Spreading
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Self Assumption
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
C) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
D) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Espionage
B) Pilferage
C) Subversion
D) Vandalism
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) An environmental condition causing damage
B) A security measure in place to protect assets
C) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
D) A legal owner of an asset
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The frequency of threat attempts
B) The number of people using the asset
C) The financial or survival of losing the assets
D) The visibility of the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Mental attitude
B) Advance Security
C) Driver Rule
D) Ambush attack
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Moving Attack
B) Ambush attack
C) Novice Criminal
D) Close in Security
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Moving Attack
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Ambush attack
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Close in Security
B) Advance Security
C) Ambush attack
D) Mental Attitude
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Moving Attack
B) Modus Operandi
C) Driver Rule
D) Ambush attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Novice Criminal
C) Mental attitude
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Mental Attitude
B) Novice Criminal
C) Advance Security
D) Module Operandi
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Modus Operandi
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Novice Criminals
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Advance Security
C) Modus Operandi
D) Novice Criminals
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Moving Attack
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Mental attitude
D) Advance Security
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Expressiveness
B) Slang usage
C) Alertness
D) Pleasantness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Speak continuously without pause
B) Wait for confirmation before speaking
C) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
D) Use codes for every sentence
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Creation of laws
B) Establishment if civilization
C) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
D) Hunting and gathering
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
B) Avoid using any code's
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People still fail to understand one another
B) There are not enough languages
C) Communication channels are too expensive
D) People are talking too much
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Slang and unnatural language
B) Long pauses
C) All codes and acronyms
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Telephone
B) Messaging security
C) Walkie-talkies
D) Audio hailer
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Receiving poorly
C) Radio check
D) Location
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Written language
B) Oral language
C) Use of Signs
D) Symbolic Art
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A device for broadcasting messages
B) The tone of a person's voice
C) The tool used to write
D) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
B) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
C) Review the state of physical security
D) Determine employee productivity
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Training new recruits
B) Boosting sales
C) Designing building architecture
D) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Competitor activity
B) Supplier delays
C) Criminal activity within the organization
D) External cyber attacks
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A financial audit of company assets
B) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
C) A routine fire drill
D) A list of employee duties
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Verify the need
B) Develop alternatives
C) Determine how data will be gathered
D) Prepare Schedule
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It allows skipping certain steps
B) It guarantees fast results
C) It helps save money
D) It ensures cooperation and resources
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
B) Background checks
C) Staff scheduling
D) Legal compliance checks only
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security briefing
B) Fire inspection
C) Emergency drill
D) Security survey
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To hire new security staff
B) To evaluate marketing strategies
C) To monitor employee performance
D) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Only inspection is required for long term planning
B) They are unrelated processes
C) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
D) Survey is done after inspection
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Receiving poorly
C) Loud and clear
D) Location
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Identify yourself/call sign
B) Radio check
C) Location
D) Loud and clear
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Copied message
B) Radio check
C) Loud and clear
D) Location
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Copied message
B) Location
C) Repeat message
D) Identify yourself/call sign
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Copied message
B) Repeat message
C) Loud and clear
D) Radio check
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Loud and clear
C) Location
D) Receiving poorly
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Interview the complainant and witnesses
B) Proceed and locates the witnesses
C) Preliminary investigation
D) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Render obedience and proper conduct
B) Effect the arrest of the offender
C) Relay message
D) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Effect the arrest of the offender
B) Plaster cast
C) Effectively uses investigation
D) Effort and loyalty
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Locates and capture perpetrator
B) Interview the company
C) Locates the identifies the witnesses
D) Locate and protect
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Indirect Approach
B) Interview the complainant and witnesses
C) Interview and locates the offender
D) Affect the crime scene
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Morse code
B) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
C) Methods of investigation
D) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate the people
B) Interrogate the crime scene
C) Interrogate everyone
D) Interrogate the suspect/offender
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note all conditions, events and remarks
B) Note all
C) Note the important things
D) Note all happen
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange of the people
B) Arrange for the collection of evidence
C) Arrange
D) Arrange of the following statements
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports the incident fully and accurately
B) Report me
C) Reports the offender
D) Reports everyone
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the following statements
B) Yields the following individuals
C) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
D) Yields the conducting regular inspections
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