ISMANA (Finals)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Espionage
B) Pilferage
C) Subversion
D) Sabotage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Only steals small, easily hidden items
B) Intent and premeditation in theft
C) Number of times they were caught
D) Level of Education
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Avoidance
B) Risk Self-Assumption
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Reduction
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Body Frisking
C) Allow free access
D) Issue of weapons
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
B) Subversion is done by governments only
C) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
D) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Self Assumption
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Spreading
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
B) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
C) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
D) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Vandalism
B) Subversion
C) Pilferage
D) Espionage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A security measure in place to protect assets
B) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
C) An environmental condition causing damage
D) A legal owner of an asset
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The number of people using the asset
B) The frequency of threat attempts
C) The visibility of the asset
D) The financial or survival of losing the assets
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Ambush attack
B) Driver Rule
C) Mental attitude
D) Advance Security
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Moving Attack
B) Ambush attack
C) Close in Security
D) Novice Criminal
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Moving Attack
C) Ambush attack
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Ambush attack
B) Mental Attitude
C) Close in Security
D) Advance Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Modus Operandi
B) Ambush attack
C) Moving Attack
D) Driver Rule
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Novice Criminal
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Driver Rule
D) Mental attitude
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Mental Attitude
B) Module Operandi
C) Advance Security
D) Novice Criminal
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Novice Criminals
C) Modus Operandi
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Advance Security
B) Modus Operandi
C) Novice Criminals
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Advance Security
B) Mental attitude
C) Moving Attack
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Slang usage
B) Alertness
C) Pleasantness
D) Expressiveness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
B) Speak continuously without pause
C) Use codes for every sentence
D) Wait for confirmation before speaking
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Hunting and gathering
B) Establishment if civilization
C) Creation of laws
D) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
B) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
C) Avoid using any code's
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People still fail to understand one another
B) Communication channels are too expensive
C) People are talking too much
D) There are not enough languages
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Long pauses
B) Slang and unnatural language
C) High-pitched voices
D) All codes and acronyms
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Walkie-talkies
B) Messaging security
C) Telephone
D) Audio hailer
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Repeat message
C) Location
D) Radio check
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Oral language
B) Symbolic Art
C) Written language
D) Use of Signs
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tone of a person's voice
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) The tool used to write
D) A device for broadcasting messages
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Review the state of physical security
B) Determine employee productivity
C) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
D) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Designing building architecture
B) Training new recruits
C) Boosting sales
D) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) External cyber attacks
B) Criminal activity within the organization
C) Competitor activity
D) Supplier delays
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A list of employee duties
B) A routine fire drill
C) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
D) A financial audit of company assets
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Develop alternatives
B) Verify the need
C) Prepare Schedule
D) Determine how data will be gathered
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It helps save money
B) It guarantees fast results
C) It ensures cooperation and resources
D) It allows skipping certain steps
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Staff scheduling
B) Legal compliance checks only
C) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
D) Background checks
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security survey
B) Security briefing
C) Fire inspection
D) Emergency drill
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To evaluate marketing strategies
B) To hire new security staff
C) To monitor employee performance
D) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Survey is done after inspection
B) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
C) Only inspection is required for long term planning
D) They are unrelated processes
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Repeat message
C) Receiving poorly
D) Location
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Loud and clear
C) Location
D) Identify yourself/call sign
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Copied message
B) Radio check
C) Loud and clear
D) Location
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Repeat message
B) Copied message
C) Location
D) Identify yourself/call sign
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Copied message
C) Loud and clear
D) Repeat message
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Receiving poorly
C) Location
D) Loud and clear
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Proceed and locates the witnesses
B) Interview the complainant and witnesses
C) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Relay message
B) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
C) Render obedience and proper conduct
D) Effect the arrest of the offender
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Plaster cast
B) Effectively uses investigation
C) Effort and loyalty
D) Effect the arrest of the offender
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Interview the company
B) Locates and capture perpetrator
C) Locates the identifies the witnesses
D) Locate and protect
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Affect the crime scene
B) Interview and locates the offender
C) Interview the complainant and witnesses
D) Indirect Approach
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
B) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
C) Morse code
D) Methods of investigation
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate everyone
B) Interrogate the suspect/offender
C) Interrogate the crime scene
D) Interrogate the people
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note the important things
B) Note all conditions, events and remarks
C) Note all happen
D) Note all
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange of the following statements
B) Arrange
C) Arrange of the people
D) Arrange for the collection of evidence
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports everyone
B) Report me
C) Reports the incident fully and accurately
D) Reports the offender
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the following individuals
B) Yields the conducting regular inspections
C) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
D) Yields the following statements
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