ISMANA (Finals) - Quiz
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Espionage
B) Sabotage
C) Subversion
D) Pilferage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Intent and premeditation in theft
B) Level of Education
C) Only steals small, easily hidden items
D) Number of times they were caught
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Self-Assumption
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Avoidance
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Body Frisking
B) Issue of weapons
C) Identification and Verification of purpose
D) Allow free access
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
B) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
C) Subversion is done by governments only
D) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Spreading
B) Risk Self Assumption
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Reduction
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
B) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
C) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
D) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Pilferage
B) Espionage
C) Vandalism
D) Subversion
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
B) An environmental condition causing damage
C) A legal owner of an asset
D) A security measure in place to protect assets
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The financial or survival of losing the assets
B) The frequency of threat attempts
C) The visibility of the asset
D) The number of people using the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Mental attitude
B) Driver Rule
C) Ambush attack
D) Advance Security
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Novice Criminal
B) Ambush attack
C) Close in Security
D) Moving Attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Moving Attack
D) Ambush attack
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Ambush attack
B) Close in Security
C) Advance Security
D) Mental Attitude
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Ambush attack
B) Driver Rule
C) Moving Attack
D) Modus Operandi
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Novice Criminal
C) Driver Rule
D) Mental attitude
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Novice Criminal
B) Advance Security
C) Module Operandi
D) Mental Attitude
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Modus Operandi
C) Novice Criminals
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Advance Security
C) Modus Operandi
D) Novice Criminals
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Advance Security
D) Moving Attack
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Alertness
B) Slang usage
C) Pleasantness
D) Expressiveness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Use codes for every sentence
B) Speak continuously without pause
C) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
D) Wait for confirmation before speaking
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Creation of laws
B) Establishment if civilization
C) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
D) Hunting and gathering
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Avoid using any code's
B) Speak as fast as possible
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) Communication channels are too expensive
B) People still fail to understand one another
C) There are not enough languages
D) People are talking too much
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Long pauses
B) High-pitched voices
C) Slang and unnatural language
D) All codes and acronyms
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Walkie-talkies
B) Audio hailer
C) Telephone
D) Messaging security
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Receiving poorly
C) Radio check
D) Location
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Oral language
B) Written language
C) Symbolic Art
D) Use of Signs
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tool used to write
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) A device for broadcasting messages
D) The tone of a person's voice
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Determine employee productivity
B) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
C) Review the state of physical security
D) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Designing building architecture
B) Training new recruits
C) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
D) Boosting sales
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) External cyber attacks
B) Supplier delays
C) Competitor activity
D) Criminal activity within the organization
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A list of employee duties
B) A financial audit of company assets
C) A routine fire drill
D) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Develop alternatives
B) Determine how data will be gathered
C) Prepare Schedule
D) Verify the need
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It guarantees fast results
B) It ensures cooperation and resources
C) It helps save money
D) It allows skipping certain steps
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Legal compliance checks only
B) Staff scheduling
C) Background checks
D) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security briefing
B) Security survey
C) Emergency drill
D) Fire inspection
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
B) To evaluate marketing strategies
C) To monitor employee performance
D) To hire new security staff
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Only inspection is required for long term planning
B) Survey is done after inspection
C) They are unrelated processes
D) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Repeat message
C) Loud and clear
D) Receiving poorly
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Loud and clear
C) Identify yourself/call sign
D) Location
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Copied message
B) Location
C) Radio check
D) Loud and clear
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Repeat message
B) Copied message
C) Identify yourself/call sign
D) Location
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Copied message
C) Repeat message
D) Radio check
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Radio check
C) Loud and clear
D) Location
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Interview the complainant and witnesses
C) Proceed and locates the witnesses
D) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Relay message
B) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
C) Render obedience and proper conduct
D) Effect the arrest of the offender
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Effectively uses investigation
B) Effect the arrest of the offender
C) Plaster cast
D) Effort and loyalty
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Locates the identifies the witnesses
B) Locates and capture perpetrator
C) Interview the company
D) Locate and protect
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interview and locates the offender
B) Interview the complainant and witnesses
C) Indirect Approach
D) Affect the crime scene
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Morse code
B) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
C) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
D) Methods of investigation
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate the people
B) Interrogate the suspect/offender
C) Interrogate everyone
D) Interrogate the crime scene
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note all
B) Note all conditions, events and remarks
C) Note the important things
D) Note all happen
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange for the collection of evidence
B) Arrange of the following statements
C) Arrange of the people
D) Arrange
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports the incident fully and accurately
B) Reports the offender
C) Report me
D) Reports everyone
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
B) Yields the following individuals
C) Yields the following statements
D) Yields the conducting regular inspections
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