ISMANA (Finals)
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Pilferage
C) Sabotage
D) Espionage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Level of Education
B) Only steals small, easily hidden items
C) Intent and premeditation in theft
D) Number of times they were caught
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Avoidance
B) Risk Self-Assumption
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Transfer
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Allow free access
B) Identification and Verification of purpose
C) Body Frisking
D) Issue of weapons
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Subversion is done by governments only
B) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
C) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
D) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Spreading
C) Risk Self Assumption
D) Risk Reduction
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
B) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
C) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
D) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Pilferage
B) Espionage
C) Subversion
D) Vandalism
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A security measure in place to protect assets
B) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
C) A legal owner of an asset
D) An environmental condition causing damage
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The financial or survival of losing the assets
B) The visibility of the asset
C) The frequency of threat attempts
D) The number of people using the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Advance Security
B) Driver Rule
C) Ambush attack
D) Mental attitude
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Ambush attack
B) Novice Criminal
C) Moving Attack
D) Close in Security
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Moving Attack
C) Ambush attack
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Ambush attack
B) Close in Security
C) Advance Security
D) Mental Attitude
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Modus Operandi
B) Ambush attack
C) Moving Attack
D) Driver Rule
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Mental attitude
C) Novice Criminal
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Mental Attitude
B) Novice Criminal
C) Module Operandi
D) Advance Security
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Modus Operandi
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Novice Criminals
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Novice Criminals
B) Modus Operandi
C) Advance Security
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Moving Attack
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Advance Security
D) Mental attitude
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Expressiveness
B) Pleasantness
C) Alertness
D) Slang usage
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
B) Wait for confirmation before speaking
C) Use codes for every sentence
D) Speak continuously without pause
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Hunting and gathering
B) Establishment if civilization
C) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
D) Creation of laws
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
B) Avoid using any code's
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People are talking too much
B) Communication channels are too expensive
C) People still fail to understand one another
D) There are not enough languages
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Slang and unnatural language
B) All codes and acronyms
C) Long pauses
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Audio hailer
B) Messaging security
C) Walkie-talkies
D) Telephone
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Radio check
C) Location
D) Receiving poorly
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Oral language
B) Use of Signs
C) Symbolic Art
D) Written language
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tone of a person's voice
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) A device for broadcasting messages
D) The tool used to write
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Review the state of physical security
B) Determine employee productivity
C) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
D) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Training new recruits
B) Designing building architecture
C) Boosting sales
D) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Competitor activity
B) External cyber attacks
C) Supplier delays
D) Criminal activity within the organization
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A list of employee duties
B) A financial audit of company assets
C) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
D) A routine fire drill
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Determine how data will be gathered
B) Prepare Schedule
C) Verify the need
D) Develop alternatives
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It helps save money
B) It allows skipping certain steps
C) It ensures cooperation and resources
D) It guarantees fast results
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Staff scheduling
B) Legal compliance checks only
C) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
D) Background checks
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Emergency drill
B) Security survey
C) Fire inspection
D) Security briefing
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To monitor employee performance
B) To evaluate marketing strategies
C) To hire new security staff
D) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) They are unrelated processes
B) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
C) Only inspection is required for long term planning
D) Survey is done after inspection
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Receiving poorly
C) Location
D) Loud and clear
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Identify yourself/call sign
B) Loud and clear
C) Radio check
D) Location
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Copied message
B) Radio check
C) Loud and clear
D) Location
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Identify yourself/call sign
B) Repeat message
C) Location
D) Copied message
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Radio check
C) Repeat message
D) Copied message
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Location
C) Radio check
D) Loud and clear
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Proceed and locates the witnesses
C) Interview the complainant and witnesses
D) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Relay message
B) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
C) Render obedience and proper conduct
D) Effect the arrest of the offender
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Plaster cast
B) Effort and loyalty
C) Effect the arrest of the offender
D) Effectively uses investigation
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Locates and capture perpetrator
B) Interview the company
C) Locate and protect
D) Locates the identifies the witnesses
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interview the complainant and witnesses
B) Indirect Approach
C) Affect the crime scene
D) Interview and locates the offender
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
B) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
C) Methods of investigation
D) Morse code
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate everyone
B) Interrogate the crime scene
C) Interrogate the people
D) Interrogate the suspect/offender
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note all happen
B) Note all
C) Note all conditions, events and remarks
D) Note the important things
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange of the people
B) Arrange
C) Arrange of the following statements
D) Arrange for the collection of evidence
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Report me
B) Reports everyone
C) Reports the offender
D) Reports the incident fully and accurately
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the following statements
B) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
C) Yields the following individuals
D) Yields the conducting regular inspections
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