- 1. A party or a person who brings a case against another in a court of law.
A) Petitioner
B) Respondent
C) Plaintiff
D) Accuser
- 2. Which of the following statements is false?
A) Unless guilt beyond reasonable doubt is established, the accused need not prove his innocence
B) The conviction of the accused may also result from the weakness of the defense which the accused put up
C) The presumption of innocence prevails over the presumption of regularity in the performance of official duty
D) It is incumbent upon the prosecution to demonstrate culpability of the accused
- 3. The party accusing another of committing a crime has to carry out the obligation or duty to prove his allegation. This refers to:
A) Necessity of proof
B) Burden of evidence
C) Burden of the prosecution
D) Burden of proof
- 4. It refers to the degree of proof which produces conviction to an unprejudiced mind.
A) Convincing evidence
B) Absolute evidence
C) Moral certainty
D) Credible evidence
- 5. When evidence in a criminal case is evenly balanced between guilt and innocence, the constitutional presumption of innocence prevails, resulting in acquittal. This refers to:
A) The proof beyond reasonable doubt rule
B) The equipoise rule
C) Burden of proof rule
D) Moral certainty rule
- 6. It refers to the plaintiff in a criminal case
A) The Prosecution
B) The Republic
C) The Government
D) The People of the Philippines
- 7. When an accused in the Philippines raises justifying circumstances under Article 11 of the Revised Penal Code (RPC), they are admitting to the commission of acts that would otherwise be considered criminal (e.g., causing injury or death) but argue that the act was lawful and thus not punishable. If this is the case, then:
A) The defense needs to prove the exculpatory defense with proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) The burden of proof is shifted to the defense
C) All of these are correct.
D) There is no longer presumption of innocence
- 8. It refers to the initial, in-court questioning of a party's own witness under oath to establish facts supporting their case
A) Presentation of principal evidence
B) Presentation of own evidence
C) Primary evidence presentation
D) Evidence-in-chief
- 9. It means based on the first impression; accepted as correct until proved otherwise
A) Situs criminalis
B) Prima facie
C) Locus criminalis
D) Onus probandi
- 10. It refers to a formal declaration that someone is guilty of a criminal offense, made by the verdict of a jury or the decision of a judge in a court of law
A) Conviction
B) Judgment
C) Verdict
D) Adjudication
- 11. It is a formal legal judgment in a criminal case stating that a defendant is "not guilty" of the charges, resulting in their release. Rendered by a judge or jury, it signifies that the prosecution failed to prove guilt beyond a reasonable doubt
A) Acquittal
B) Judgment
C) Verdict
D) Exoneration
- 12. They are legal defenses where an accused admits to committing an act that would typically be criminal but asserts it was justified by law, resulting in no criminal or civil liability. The burden of proof rests on the accused to prove these circumstances by clear and convincing evidence, such as in self-defense
A) Justifying circumstances
B) Mitigating circumstances
C) Exculpatory defenses
D) Exempting circumstances
- 13. It occurs when an accused admits to killing or injuring another but invokes self-defense or another justifying circumstance. Instead of the prosecution presenting evidence first, the defense presents its evidence first to establish justifying circumstances, shifting the burden of proof to the accused
A) Trial in absentia
B) Reverse trial
C) Speedy trial
D) Summary procedure
- 14. It refers to the act of calling someone before a court to be formally charged and to enter a plea
A) Arraignment
B) Charging
C) Conciliation
D) Trial
- 15. At an arraignment, a defendant or accused responds to charge by making a ______.
A) Plea
B) Counter-affidavit
C) Admission
D) Defense
- 16. He is a lawyer appointed by a court to represent or defend an indigent (destitute) party in a criminal case
A) Counsel de officio
B) Counsel of record
C) Counsel of choice
D) Counsel de parte
- 17. What are the matters for review by the appellate court?
A) The reviewing tribunal can correct errors or even reverse the trial court’s decision on grounds other than those that the parties raise as errors
B) In criminal cases, an appeal throws the whole case wide open for review
C) The appeal throws the whole case for review of all aspects, including those not raised by the parties
D) All of these are correct
- 18. It is a motion filed by a defendant or accused in a criminal case after the plaintiff/prosecution rests, arguing that the evidence presented is insufficient in law to justify a verdict against them. If granted, the case is dismissed; if denied, the defendant may proceed to present their own evidence.
A) Double jeopardy rule
B) Insufficiency of evidence
C) Demurrer to evidence
D) Motion to dismiss
- 19. It is a fundamental legal right ensuring criminal cases are heard without unreasonable or, in the Philippines, oppressive delay. It requires trials to begin within specific, legally mandated timeframes (e.g., 180 days in the Philippines) from arraignment, aimed at protecting the accused from prolonged anxiety and ensuring justice is administered efficiently.
A) Public trial
B) Impartial trial
C) Fair trial
D) Speedy trial
- 20. The right to appeal is
A) Both choices are correct
B) None of the choices is correct
C) Its suppression would be a violation of due process
D) A statutory right
- 21. It is a procedural motion in criminal cases to temporarily halt the formal reading of charges against an accused
A) Suspension of sentence
B) Suspension of judgment
C) Suspension of trial
D) Suspension of arraignment
- 22. The right to compulsory process may be invoked by the accused to
A) Suppress controverting evidence of the opponent
B) Secure the attendance of witnesses and production of evidence in his behalf
C) All of these are correct
D) Examine evidence of the other party
- 23. The accused may move for the court for the issuance of a subpoena ad testificandum or a subpoena duces tecum in connection with his right to
A) Public trial
B) Impartial trial
C) Compulsory process
D) Speedy trial
- 24. In case of unjustified failure of the witness to comply with a sub poena, the court or judge issuing such, upon proof of service of such and failure to attend, may issue a:
A) Order to explain
B) Warrant for his arrest
C) Contempt order
D) Order for detention
- 25. The cross examination of a witness by the opposing party is essential to:
A) Uncover the truth and demonstrate inconsistencies
B) All of these
C) Test his accuracy
D) Expose falsehood or half-truths
- 26. The right to cross-examination is
A) A part of due process
B) A personal right which may be waived
C) A fundamental right
D) All of these
- 27. Where a party has had the opportunity to cross examine a witness but failed to avail himself of it, he necessarily
A) Abandoned the right to cross examination
B) Wasted the right to cross-examination
C) Deferred the right to cross-examination
D) Forfeits the right to cross-examination
- 28. If one is deprived of the opportunity to cross-examination without fault on his part, he may ask
A) All of these
B) That the other party be declared non-suited
C) That the direct examination be stricken from the record
D) That the other party be declared in default
- 29. The accused who testified as a witness in his own behalf is
A) Subject to cross examination in pertinent matters
B) Subject to cross examination on matters covered by the direct examination
C) None of these
D) Subject to cross examination in all matters
- 30. If the accused does not wish to testify in his behalf and chooses to remain silent, his silence shall
A) Be deemed an indication of guilt
B) Not in any manner prejudice him
C) Be deemed a sign of guilt
D) Be considered an admission of guilt
- 31. When may the court allow the accused to defend himself in person?
A) When the accused cannot afford the service of counsel
B) When the accused refuses to secure the services of counsel
C) When it sufficiently appears to the court that he can properly protect his rights without the assistance of counsel
D) When the accused is indigent
- 32. The absence of the accused at the trial without justifiable cause after prior notice may result to
A) None of these
B) Citation for contempt of court
C) Deprivation of due process
D) Inference of waiver of his right to be present at the trial
- 33. If the accused is absent during trial after this arraignment, despite notice and for unjustifiable reason, trial may
A) Be reset to a later date
B) Be postponed until he appears
C) Proceed despite his absence
D) None of these
- 34. The privilege against self-incrimination protects a person from:
A) Being exposed to any inculpatory acts
B) Testimonial compulsion
C) Both choices are correct
D) None of the choices is correct
- 35. X stands charged of a criminal case and in the presentation of the evidence for the defense, the prosecution asked the court that the accused should be made to take the witness stand and testify in the case. The accused refused. Is the refusal of the accused to testify in the case against him justified?
A) Yes, because of the right to compulsory process
B) Yes, because the accused has the right to testify or not in his behalf;
C) No, because the prosecution has the right to require him to testify
D) Yes, because of the presumption of innocence
- 36. If the crime charged is unclear, what motion may be filed before arraignment?
A) Bill of particulars
B) Motion to dismiss
C) Motion to quash
D) Motion for new trial
- 37. An accused who pleads guilty but offers exculpatory evidence will cause an effect of:
A) He is making a conditional plea
B) He shall be treated as guilty and will eventually be convicted
C) A plea of not guilty
D) He will be treated as refusing his plea.
- 38. In the following instances the accused is allowed under the rules to plead guilty, except:
A) After arraignment but before trial
B) During trial
C) At the arraignment
D) Upon entering his plea
- 39. It refers to the answer given by the accused to a charge or indictment.
A) Reply
B) Plea
C) Motion
D) Confession
- 40. Arraignment may be suspended when the accused appears to be of unsound mental condition or the court finds the existence of a _________:
A) Bill of particulars
B) Motion to dismiss
C) Valid prejudicial question
D) Motion to quash
- 41. He is a legal professional who represents individuals or entities accused of criminal activity, aiming to protect their rights, ensure a fair trial, and secure the best possible outcome. They analyze evidence, negotiate plea bargains with prosecutors, and build defense strategies
A) Counsel of record
B) Counsel de officio
C) Counsel of choice
D) Defense lawyer
- 42. The existence of a prejudicial question may cause the suspension of the:
A) Arraignment
B) Judgment
C) Trial
D) Preliminary investigation
- 43. He/ She is the person or entity (natural or juridical) who suffered damage, injury, or disturbance due to a crime and files a complaint against the accused. While they initiate the case, their participation is generally limited to that of a witness, with the State (via the Prosecutor) controlling the prosecution.
A) Private complainant
B) Offended party
C) Plaintiff
D) Aggrieved party
- 44. He/She acts as a law enforcement official responsible for the custody, supervision, safety, and regulation of prisoners, including conducting security checks, managing inmate discipline, and escorting inmates to court.
A) Jail guard
B) Prisoner custodian
C) Prison officer
D) Police officer
- 45. It refers to the lead judicial officer assigned to a specific court branch or case, responsible for conducting trials, hearings, and ensuring the orderly administration of justice. They hold primary authority over case management, motions, and decisions within their assigned court.
A) Presiding judge
B) Public prosecutor
C) Defense attorney
D) Clerk of court
- 46. He or she is an officer appointed by the judiciary to manage the administrative operations of a court, acting as the custodian of legal records, managing case flow, and issuing official legal documents like summons and subpoenas. They work closely with judges, maintain dockets, and assist with courtroom duties.
A) Clerk of court
B) Court docket clerk
C) Court stenographer
D) Court interpreter
- 47. It refers to legal professionals responsible for producing a verbatim, official record of courtroom proceedings, depositions, and hearings using a specialized machine or voice-writing technology. They ensure all spoken words are captured accurately for legal records, appeals, and official transcripts.
A) Stenographers
B) Court sheriffs
C) Clerk of courts
D) Court interpreters
- 48. Identify who normally make the following lines or announcement during court trial. “ALL RISE! The hearing of calendared cases will now begin. SILENCE IS HEREBY ENJOINED!”
A) Sheriff
B) Court stenographer
C) Clerk of Court
D) Presiding judge
- 49. It is an official list of cases (docket) scheduled to be heard by a specific court on a particular date or during a specified term. It includes trials, hearings, motions, and pre-trial conferences. It is managed by the clerk of court and the judge to organize case flow and ensure readiness.
A) Court cases
B) Court case line-up
C) Court pending cases
D) Court calendar
- 50. In court, it is the formal signal, often by a sheriff or bailiff, to initiate proceedings, demanding silence and attention from everyone present. It acts as an official start, bringing attendees to attention, ensuring decorum, and transitioning the courtroom from a casual state into a structured, legal session.
A) Attention order
B) Call to order
C) Formalization of session
D) Arraignment
- 51. It is the first formal court proceeding in a criminal case where the defendant is officially charged, advised of their constitutional rights, and asked to enter a plea (guilty, not guilty)
A) Plea
B) Arraignment
C) Plea bargaining
D) Confrontation
- 52. Which among the following may NOT be filed before the judgment becomes final?
A) Notice of appeal
B) Motion to quash
C) Motion for reconsideration
D) Motion for new trial
- 53. It is a formal request asking a court to render a legal proceeding, document, or order—such as a subpoena, warrant, or indictment—invalid or void. It challenges the legal sufficiency of these documents based on defects like lack of jurisdiction, improper filing, or legal insufficiency.
A) Demurrer to Evidence
B) Motion to Dismiss
C) Motion for Rendition of Judgment
D) Motion to Quash
- 54. It is a single legal filing that combines multiple requests, objections, or arguments into one comprehensive document. Instead of filing separate motions for each issue, it streamlines the legal process by addressing several procedural or substantive points at once.
A) Integrated motion
B) Consolidated motion
C) Multiple motion
D) Omnibus motion
- 55. The following are NOT grounds for motion to quash EXCEPT:
A) Matters of defenses of the accused
B) Absence of probable cause to issue warrant of arrest
C) That the court trying the case has no jurisdiction over the person of the accused
D) Lack of preliminary investigation
- 56. Which of the following grounds which even not asserted in a motion to quash are not deemed waived?
A) That the facts do not constitute an offense
B) That the court trying the case has no jurisdiction
C) That the criminal action or liability has been extinguish and that there is double jeopardy
D) All of these
- 57. What is the remedy for the denial of a motion to quash?
A) Motion for reconsideration
B) Contempt
C) Certiorari
D) Appeal
- 58. When may a motion to quash to be filed?
A) At any time before the accused enters his plea
B) At any time before judgment
C) At any time before trial
D) At any time before pre-trial
- 59. Which of the following may NOT be a ground for motion to quash?
A) That more than one offense is charged in the complaint or information.
B) That the information does not conform substantially to the prescribed form
C) That the court trying the case has no jurisdiction over the case
D) That the complainant already executed an affidavit of desistance
- 60. Which of the following is NOT a ground for a motion to quash?
A) That the officer who filed the information has no authority to do so
B) That there is already double jeopardy
C) Absence of proba ble cause for the issuance of a warrant of arrest
D) That the facts alleged do not constitute an offense
- 61. A move for the annulment of the criminal charge made by an accused is:
A) Motion to quash
B) Bill of Particulars
C) Plea bargaining
D) Motion to dismiss
- 62. X killed Y in self-defense. Thus, a criminal case was filed against X but X filed a Motion to Quash arguing that the fact that he merely acted in self-defense makes the information filed against him subject to quashal. Is the contention of X correct?
A) Yes, because X acted in accordance with law
B) Yes, because such defense will result to the dismissal of the case filed against him.
C) No, because matters of defense are not ground for a motion to quash
D) Yes, because X has no criminal liability as all having merely acted in self-defense
- 63. When a motion to quash is granted, the following may be the result thereof
A) Will result to double jeopardy
B) Will not necessarily result to the dismissal of the complaint or information
C) The case will as a matter of course be dismissed
D) Will be a bar for the filing of another complaint or information
- 64. X was charged of in a complaint which narration of the facts constituting the offense charged actually comprises two offenses. The case was already set for arraignment. Before X would enter his plea, what should he or his counsel do regarding the fact the charge constitutes more than one offense?
A) X should just enter a plea of Not Guilty
B) X or his counsel should move for the quashal of the complaint on the ground of duplicity of the offense charged
C) X should seek for particulars regarding the charge
D) X should file a motion to dismiss
- 65. It is the mode by which an accused assails the validity of a criminal complaint or information filed against him for insufficiency on its face in point of law, or for defects which are apparent in the face of the information
A) Demurrer to evidence
B) Motion to dismiss
C) Motion to strike out
D) Motion to quash
- 66. A person may be released on bail in the following forms, except:
A) Property Bond
B) Corporate Surety
C) Performance bond
D) Recognizance
- 67. If the complaint or information was already filed pursuant to a lawful warrantless arrest, the court shall issue a:
A) Warrant of arrest
B) Mittimus
C) Bench warrant
D) Commitment order
- 68. When may bail be considered as a matter of discretion?
A) In cases punishable by penalties which are not afflictive.
B) In cases involving graft and corrupt practices of government officials.
C) In capital offenses when the evidence of guilt is not strong.
D) In capital offenses.
- 69. In fixing the amount of bail, which among the following is not essential?
A) Probability that the accused will appear in the trial.
B) None of these.
C) Age and health of the accused.
D) Character and reputation of the accused.
- 70. Abdul was approached by Jerry to help him post cash bond for the criminal charge against the latter since the judge already issued a warrant for his arrest. Abdul readily helped Jerry and posted the amount of P38,000 as cash bond for the charge of grave threats. Later Jerry failed to appear in court as required by the court for his arraignment and his bondsman Abdul was required to explain of such absence and why the bond he posted be not forfeited in favor of the government. Abdul searched for Jerry and after finding him, he brought Jerry to the court and asked the court to cancel the bond he posted and return the same to him and asked that Jerry be committed in jail until such time that Jerry is able to post a new bail. Is the action of Abdul correct?
A) Yes, because the right to bail has limitations.
B) Yes, because Jerry violated the law.
C) No, because Jerry's bail cannot be cancelled until the termination of the case.
D) Yes, because Abdul as bondsman is considered the jailer of Jerry.
- 71. Benjeff was charged and convicted of Attempted Homicide in the Municipal Trial Court of Aborlan, Palawan. After his conviction and within fifteen days from promulgation of the decision convicting him, Bejeff filed an appeal to the Regional Trial Court which latter court affirmed the judgment against him. He elevated his appeal to the Court of Appeals which also affirmed the judgment against him. Finally, Benjeff brought up the appeal to the Supreme Court which also affirmed his conviction. After receiving the notice of finality of the judgment of conviction of Benjeff the MTC issued the order for his service of sentence at Iwahig Penal Farm. Such order for service of sentence is known as:
A) Mittimus
B) Commitment Order
C) Incarceration Order
D) Detention Order
- 72. Boy Venz was charged of five counts of grave threats before the Municipal Circuit Trial Court of Cuyo-Agutaya & Magsaysay, Palawan. After posting the required bail bond for his provisional liberty pending the proceedings of his case, Boy Venz was arraigned and he pleaded Not Guilty. The pre-trial conference then proceeded and terminated and the cases were set for trial. However, from the initial trial up to the subsequent settings of the trial for presentation of prosecution evidence, Boy Venz failed to appear in court for any valid reason despite notice. The trial of the case then proceeded in absentia and such is justified because Boy Venz is considered to have:
A) Fled
B) Absconded
C) Jumped bail
D) Eloped
- 73. The security given for the release of a person in custody of the law, furnished by him or a bondsman, to guarantee his appearance before any court as required under the conditions of law.
A) Legal Fee
B) Interest Fee
C) Bail
D) Filing Fee
- 74. The right to bail flows from the presumption of innocence. This is so because accusation is not synonymous with guilt. Is the statement True or False?
A) False
B) Neither True nor False
C) None are correct
D) True
- 75. Generally, The right to bail only accrues when a person is under custody. Court must have jurisdiction over the person of the accused either thru: 1) arrest, with or without warrant, or 2) voluntary surrender.
A) False
B) None are correct
C) True
D) Neither True nor False
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