AREA 3 SUBJECT 3 - Quiz
  • 1. An investigator interviews a witness in a friendly, non-accusatory manner to gather facts about a crime. This process best exemplifies which technique?
A) Interview
B) Elicitation
C) Interrogation
D) Cross-examination
  • 2. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information.
B) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral
C) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest.
D) Both are the same under Philippine law.
  • 3. When an investigator uses empathy and understanding to encourage a suspect to talk, which method of interrogation is being applied?
A) Direct approach
B) Logical approach
C) Coercive technique
D) Emotional appeal
  • 4. The legal requirement that a confession must be made voluntarily ensures the observance of which constitutional right?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to bail
D) Right against self-incrimination
  • 5. The admissibility of a confession depends on its being made:
A) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
B) Under oath and notarized
C) Before the barangay captain
D) In writing and in the presence of a police officer
  • 6. A confession made without the presence of counsel is inadmissible because it violates which rule of law?
A) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
B) Chain of custody rule
C) Rule on res gestae
D) Miranda Doctrine
  • 7. What is the primary purpose of the Miranda warning in police interrogation?
A) To make the suspect feel guilty
B) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed
C) To shorten the process of interrogation
D) To protect the investigator from liability
  • 8. A statement made by a dying person regarding the cause of his death is called:
A) Res gestae
B) Dying declaration
C) Admission
D) Confession
  • 9. For a dying declaration to be admissible, it must be shown that:
A) The statement was in writing.
B) The declaration was made before a lawyer
C) The declarant believed death was imminent.
D) The declarant was under police custody
  • 10. The principle that a dying person would not meet death with a lie is known as:
A) Doctrine of dying declaration
B) Principle of truthfulness
C) Doctrine of finality
D) Rule of Res Gestae
  • 11. Statements made immediately after a startling event, without time to fabricate, are known as:
A) Admissions
B) Res gestae
C) Independent relevant statements
D) Confessions
  • 12. Which of the following is an example of an independent relevant statement?
A) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant
B) A suspect’s confession to police
C) A doctor’s report describing injuries
D) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime
  • 13. During interrogation, a suspect breaks down and admits the crime. The confession will be inadmissible if:
A) It was written in English
B) It was made without counsel
C) It was made in private
D) It was made after prolonged questioning
  • 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of interview used in criminal investigation?
A) Structured interview
B) Cognitive interview
C) Coercive interview
D) Investigative interview
  • 15. In the cognitive interview technique, the investigator encourages the witness to:
A) Create a timeline
B) Guess what happened
C) Recall events from different perspectives
D) Confess guilt
  • 16. Which of the following makes a confession valid and admissible?
A) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing
B) Signed before an ordinary witness
C) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present
D) Made before a prosecutor without counsel
  • 17. A suspect confesses under threat of harm from the police. Under the Rules of Evidence, the confession is
A) Conditional
B) Admissible
C) Partially admissible
D) Inadmissible
  • 18. What distinguishes an admission from a confession?
A) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts.
B) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after.
C) They are synonymous in criminal law
D) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt.
  • 19. In evaluating a suspect’s confession, the court will primarily consider:
A) The number of witnesses
B) The investigator’s experience
C) The seriousness of the crime
D) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
  • 20. When the suspect exercises the right to remain silent, the investigator must:
A) Detain the suspect longer
B) Continue the questioning
C) Stop the interrogation immediately
D) Use persuasion
  • 21. During a police interview, the investigator allows the suspect to narrate freely without interruption. Which method of questioning is being applied?
A) Structured Interview
B) Narrative Method
C) Cognitive Interview
D) Cross-Examination Approach
  • 22. In an interrogation, the investigator deliberately pauses after the suspect gives an incomplete answer to encourage further disclosure. This technique is known as:
A) Emotional appeal
B) Theme development
C) Repetition technique
D) Silence technique
  • 23. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory
B) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly
C) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants
D) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest
  • 24. A police investigator fails to inform a suspect of his constitutional rights before taking a confession. Which is the legal consequence?
A) The confession remains admissible
B) The confession may be admitted if written and signed
C) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration
D) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible
  • 25. Which of the following elements is NOT essential for a confession to be admissible?
A) It must be voluntary
B) It must be made with the assistance of counsel
C) It must be expressed and categorical
D) It must be in writing
  • 26. A dying person tells a nurse that “Juan stabbed me because I refused to give him money.” Which statement is legally valid as a dying declaration?
A) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
B) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death
C) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible
D) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer
  • 27. A confession made without counsel but later affirmed in open court with counsel present is:
A) Admissible because it was later confirmed
B) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence
C) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights
D) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver
  • 28. A statement made by a victim who later dies, but who did not believe death was imminent, may be admitted as:
A) Admission
B) Independent relevant statement
C) Part of res gestae
D) Dying declaration
  • 29. Which principle guides the admissibility of a dying declaration under Rule 130 of the Rules on Evidence?
A) Materiality and spontaneity
B) Necessity and trustworthiness
C) Opportunity and impartiality
D) Voluntariness and legality
  • 30. A suspect admits that he “might have hit the victim by accident.” What type of admission is this?
A) Qualified admission
B) Extrajudicial confession
C) Judicial admission
D) Tacit confession
  • 31. During an interrogation, the investigator uses deception to make the suspect believe evidence exists. Which statement is correct?
A) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
B) Deception invalidates all statements
C) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor
D) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances
  • 32. A witness spontaneously blurts out, “He ran that way after shooting the man!” immediately after the crime. This statement is classified as
A) Res gestae statement
B) Confession
C) Admission against interest
D) Dying declaration
  • 33. A police officer questions a suspect for six hours without counsel and without informing him of his rights. The resulting statement is:
A) Voluntary admission
B) Valid under implied waiver doctrine
C) Admissible due to continuous questioning
D) Coerced confession
  • 34. Which of the following is not a proper objective of interrogation?
A) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
B) To obtain a confession
C) test the validity of gathered evidence
D) To elicit truth about participation in a crime
  • 35. When the declarant’s statement is offered only to prove that the statement was made, not for its truth, it falls under:
A) Admission
B) Confession
C) Hearsay
D) Independent relevant statement
  • 36. Which of the following situations best fits the rule on dying declaration?
A) The declarant must die immediately after the statement
B) The declaration must be in written form
C) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement
D) The declarant must believe death is inevitable
  • 37. When a suspect’s statement is taken with counsel but through threat and intimidation, the statement is:
A) Inadmissible for being involuntary
B) Admissible only as corroborative evidence
C) Valid if re-affirmed later
D) Admissible because counsel was present
  • 38. An investigator allows the witness to reconstruct the crime scene mentally to enhance recall. This method refers to
A) Cognitive interviewing
B) Narrative reconstruction
C) Investigative visualization
D) Hypnosis technique
  • 39. A confession obtained during custodial investigation without the presence of counsel but repeated voluntarily in court with counsel is:
A) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation
B) Admissible only in part
C) Admissible as corroborative evidence
D) Admissible in full
  • 40. A victim tells his neighbor before dying, “Tell my mother that Pedro stabbed me.” The victim clearly thought he was dying. This statement is:
A) Inadmissible hearsay
B) Dying declaration
C) Admission against interest
D) Confession
  • 41. A confession made after the suspect was informed of his rights but before counsel arrived is:
A) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning
B) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official
C) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked
D) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
  • 42. During an interrogation, the investigator builds rapport and gradually shifts to direct questioning about the crime. This process is part of which interrogation phase?
A) Question-and-answer phase
B) Approach phase
C) Termination phase
D) Preparation phase
  • 43. The “PEACE” model (Preparation, Engage, Account, Closure, Evaluation) commonly used in investigative interviewing focuses on:
A) Use of psychological manipulation
B) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning
C) Rapid confessional tactics
D) Extracting confession through pressure
  • 44. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of interrogation under Philippine law?
A) Encouraging voluntary cooperation
B) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession
C) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely
D) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction
  • 45. In applying the “logical approach” to interrogation, the investigator primarily relies on:
A) Emotional appeal and sympathy
B) Deception and bluffing
C) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies
D) Physical pressure
  • 46. When a witness’s statement is taken immediately after the incident to preserve accuracy of recollection, it is called:
A) Investigative debriefing
B) Preliminary interview
C) Cognitive interrogation
D) Cross-examination
  • 47. A suspect, after consulting with his lawyer, voluntarily admits his role in the crime without coercion. The confession is
A) Admissible in evidence
B) Considered res gestae
C) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses
D) Inadmissible for being post-consultation
  • 48. The main purpose of conducting an interview before an interrogation is to:
A) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
B) Gather information without accusation
C) Obtain physical evidence
D) Intimidate the suspect to confess
  • 49. Under the Rules on Evidence, which of the following is required for a dying declaration to be valid?
A) The declarant must be under oath
B) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death
C) The declarant must identify the killer
D) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator
  • 50. A statement made by a witness out of court to explain his subsequent actions, not to prove the truth of the statement, is an example of:
A) Admission
B) Confession
C) Independent relevant statement
D) Res gestae
  • 51. The key distinguishing element between theft and robbery under the Revised Penal Code is:
A) The use or threat of violence or intimidation
B) The intent to gain
C) The value of the property stolen
D) The number of offenders
  • 52. Which of the following is a crucial initial step in investigating a robbery incident?
A) Filing the case immediately
B) Conducting a background check on the victim
C) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
D) Tracing the stolen property
  • 53. The modus operandi of the suspect and the means of entry and escape are primarily analyzed during which phase of property crime investigation?
A) Evidence collection
B) Suspect profiling
C) Intelligence gathering
D) Crime scene reconstruction
  • 54. The main difference between estafa and theft is:
A) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not.
B) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not
C) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not.
D) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings.
  • 55. In investigating estafa cases, the most vital documentary evidence is:
A) Confession of the accused
B) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction
C) Property inventory
D) CCTV footage
  • 56. A car is taken without the owner’s consent with intent to gain. This act falls under:
A) Robbery
B) Carnapping
C) Estafa
D) Qualified theft
  • 57. The Anti-Carnapping Law (R.A. 10883) defines carnapping as the taking of a motor vehicle:
A) With violence or intimidation only
B) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain
C) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally
D) Without violence but with intent to gain
  • 58. Under R.A. 10883, when carnapping results in the death of a person, the penalty is:
A) Reclusion temporal
B) Life imprisonment
C) Death by lethal injection
D) Reclusion perpetua to death
  • 59. In the investigation of carnapping cases, the Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) is primarily used to:
A) Identify the manufacturer
B) Determine insurance status
C) Trace ownership and vehicle identity
D) Locate the driver
  • 60. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) penalizes
A) Only those who steal cars
B) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen
C) Those who physically steal property
D) Those who report stolen property
  • 61. The essential element that distinguishes a fencer from a thief is:
A) The act of concealing the property
B) The act of possession rather than the act of taking
C) The absence of intent to gain
D) The ownership of the property
  • 62. Which document serves as the primary reference in proving ownership of a motor vehicle in carnapping cases?
A) Sales invoice
B) Insurance policy
C) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR)
D) Driver’s license
  • 63. The presumption of fencing arises when:
A) The accused buys property from a store
B) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation
C) The property is found hidden
D) The accused was seen near the crime scene
  • 64. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) was enacted primarily to:
A) Punish the original thief
B) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods
C) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce
D) Reduce robbery incidents
  • 65. In human trafficking under R.A. 9208, the core element is:
A) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion
B) Recruitment for legal overseas work
C) Use of minors in employment
D) Payment of recruitment fees
  • 66. R.A. 10364 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking Act) strengthened R.A. 9208 by:
A) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment
B) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only
C) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability
D) Allowing voluntary prostitution
  • 67. The latest amendment, R.A. 11862 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2022), focuses on:
A) Reducing penalties for traffickers
B) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction
C) Limiting law enforcement authority
D) Increasing fines
  • 68. The victim-centered approach in human trafficking investigations emphasizes:
A) Media exposure
B) Protection and rehabilitation of victims
C) Aggressive interrogation
D) Immediate deportation
  • 69. Under R.A. 9208, the following is NOT considered trafficking:
A) Adoption following legal procedures
B) Exploitation of prostitution
C) Debt bondage
D) Forced labor
  • 70. One of the stages of money laundering where illegal money enters the financial system is called:
A) Integration
B) Placement
C) Structuring
D) Layering
  • 71. The layering stage of money laundering involves:
A) Investing clean money
B) Depositing the proceeds
C) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin
D) Reporting suspicious transactions
  • 72. The integration stage occurs when:
A) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses
B) Authorities freeze the assets
C) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts
D) The launderer hides the funds abroad
  • 73. The Anti-Money Laundering Act (R.A. 9160) aims to:
A) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds
B) Encourage secret banking
C) Regulate pawnshops
D) Allow anonymous foreign accounts
  • 74. Under R.A. 10927, casinos are included as:
A) Non-reporting entities
B) Covered persons under AMLA
C) Exempt institutions
D) Charitable organizations
  • 75. Under AMLA, a transaction exceeding ₱500,000 within one banking day must be reported as:
A) Threshold transaction
B) Suspicious transaction
C) Layered transaction
D) Covered transaction
  • 76. Failure of a covered institution to report suspicious transactions constitutes:
A) Administrative offense only
B) A criminal violation under AMLA
C) No liability if unintentional
D) Gross negligence
  • 77. The body primarily responsible for enforcing AMLA is:
A) Department of Justice
B) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
C) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)
D) Securities and Exchange Commission
  • 78. The approach in investigating theft focuses on:
A) Establishing the suspect’s income
B) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain
C) Identifying the victim’s negligence
D) Checking bank accounts
  • 79. The investigative approach in robbery emphasizes:
A) Studying the suspect’s financial background
B) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence
C) Recovery of stolen property only
D) Conducting digital forensics
  • 80. In estafa investigations, one must primarily analyze:
A) Place of transaction only
B) Modus operandi and deceit pattern
C) The victim’s wealth
D) Suspect’s criminal record
  • 81. Under R.A. 10883, the registered owner’s failure to report a stolen vehicle within 24 hours may result in:
A) No consequence
B) Forfeiture of insurance claims
C) Presumption of involvement in the crime
D) Administrative sanction
  • 82. A person who buys a motorcycle at a suspiciously low price without verifying ownership documents may be liable for:
A) Estafa
B) Carnapping
C) Theft
D) Fencing
  • 83. Under AMLA, a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is required when:
A) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual
B) The account is new
C) The account balance is low
D) The depositor is a senior citizen
  • 84. In investigating money laundering, the financial trail is reconstructed mainly through:
A) Bank advertisements
B) Witness interviews
C) News reports
D) Paper and digital transaction audit
  • 85. The common investigative challenge across property, financial, and trafficking crimes is:
A) Lack of police equipment
B) International cooperation and evidence tracing
C) Media pressure
D) Political influence
  • 86. A police investigator observes that a crime scene has no signs of forced entry, yet valuable items are missing. Which crime is most likely being investigated?
A) Robbery
B) Estafa
C) Theft
D) Carnapping
  • 87. In distinguishing theft from robbery, which investigative focus is most critical?
A) Relationship between victim and offender
B) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation
C) The monetary value of the property stolen
D) Use of deception or false pretenses
  • 88. A businessman convinces several investors to give money for a fake project. Which investigative approach should be applied?
A) Property recovery operation
B) Financial and documentary audit
C) Vehicle tracing system
D) Physical evidence collection at the scene
  • 89. In robbery cases, an investigator should prioritize the collection of which type of evidence?
A) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints
B) Documentary and bank receipts
C) Computer logs and online records
D) Vehicle registration documents
  • 90. In a case of estafa, what kind of evidence is most crucial for conviction?
A) DNA evidence
B) Eyewitness testimony
C) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage
D) Physical evidence at the crime scene
  • 91. Under R.A. 10883 (New Anti-Carnapping Law), when is the crime of carnapping considered consummated?
A) When the owner reports the loss
B) When the vehicle leaves the city or province
C) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner
D) When the vehicle is sold to another person
  • 92. A vehicle is stolen and immediately disassembled for sale of parts. Under R.A. 10883, this is classified as:
A) Theft
B) Qualified carnapping
C) Simple carnapping
D) Robbery
  • 93. Under P.D. 1612 (Anti-Fencing Law), which of the following elements must be proven to establish guilt?
A) Amount of profit derived from the property
B) Ownership of stolen property by the fence
C) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen
D) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence
  • 94. A buyer purchased a secondhand motorcycle at a suspiciously low price and failed to verify its origin. Under P.D. 1612, this constitutes:
A) Innocent purchase
B) Estafa
C) Fencing
D) Theft by negligence
  • 95. Which of the following is a distinguishing investigative step in human trafficking cases compared to other crimes against property?
A) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities
B) Accounting audit of business operations
C) Collection of firearms evidence
D) Vehicle tracing through LTO database
  • 96. Under R.A. 9208 (Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act), what element distinguishes trafficking from illegal recruitment?
A) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old
B) Employment abroad
C) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation
D) Violation of labor regulations
  • 97. Which law expanded the coverage of human trafficking to include “online sexual exploitation and cyber trafficking”?
A) R.A. 10364
B) R.A. 9208
C) R.A. 10883
D) P.D. 1612
  • 98. Under R.A. 11862, what new provision strengthened the protection of trafficking victims?
A) Non-deportation of foreign victims
B) Repatriation without consent
C) Reclassification of all victims as offenders
D) Immunity of recruiters
  • 99. In money laundering, which of the following stages involves depositing illegally obtained funds into the financial system?
A) Integration
B) Layering
C) Placement
D) Concealment
  • 100. An investigator detects multiple fund transfers among shell companies to obscure the origin of money. Which stage of money laundering is this?
A) Integration
B) Layering
C) Structuring
D) Placement
Created with That Quiz — the math test generation site with resources for other subject areas.