A) Elicitation B) Interrogation C) Cross-examination D) Interview
A) Both are the same under Philippine law. B) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information. C) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest. D) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral
A) Coercive technique B) Emotional appeal C) Logical approach D) Direct approach
A) Right to privacy B) Right against unreasonable search C) Right against self-incrimination D) Right to bail
A) Before the barangay captain B) Under oath and notarized C) In writing and in the presence of a police officer D) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
A) Chain of custody rule B) Miranda Doctrine C) Rule on res gestae D) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
A) To make the suspect feel guilty B) To shorten the process of interrogation C) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed D) To protect the investigator from liability
A) Confession B) Dying declaration C) Res gestae D) Admission
A) The declaration was made before a lawyer B) The declarant believed death was imminent. C) The declarant was under police custody D) The statement was in writing.
A) Rule of Res Gestae B) Doctrine of dying declaration C) Principle of truthfulness D) Doctrine of finality
A) Res gestae B) Admissions C) Independent relevant statements D) Confessions
A) A doctor’s report describing injuries B) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant C) A suspect’s confession to police D) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime
A) It was made in private B) It was made after prolonged questioning C) It was made without counsel D) It was written in English
A) Investigative interview B) Structured interview C) Cognitive interview D) Coercive interview
A) Recall events from different perspectives B) Confess guilt C) Guess what happened D) Create a timeline
A) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing B) Signed before an ordinary witness C) Made before a prosecutor without counsel D) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present
A) Partially admissible B) Conditional C) Admissible D) Inadmissible
A) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt. B) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts. C) They are synonymous in criminal law D) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after.
A) The investigator’s experience B) The seriousness of the crime C) The number of witnesses D) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
A) Detain the suspect longer B) Continue the questioning C) Use persuasion D) Stop the interrogation immediately
A) Cross-Examination Approach B) Cognitive Interview C) Narrative Method D) Structured Interview
A) Silence technique B) Emotional appeal C) Repetition technique D) Theme development
A) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory B) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly C) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest D) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants
A) The confession remains admissible B) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration C) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible D) The confession may be admitted if written and signed
A) It must be made with the assistance of counsel B) It must be voluntary C) It must be in writing D) It must be expressed and categorical
A) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer B) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible C) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death D) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
A) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver B) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence C) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights D) Admissible because it was later confirmed
A) Dying declaration B) Part of res gestae C) Independent relevant statement D) Admission
A) Opportunity and impartiality B) Voluntariness and legality C) Materiality and spontaneity D) Necessity and trustworthiness
A) Tacit confession B) Qualified admission C) Extrajudicial confession D) Judicial admission
A) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor B) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances C) Deception invalidates all statements D) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
A) Res gestae statement B) Admission against interest C) Dying declaration D) Confession
A) Valid under implied waiver doctrine B) Admissible due to continuous questioning C) Voluntary admission D) Coerced confession
A) test the validity of gathered evidence B) To obtain a confession C) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating D) To elicit truth about participation in a crime
A) Hearsay B) Independent relevant statement C) Admission D) Confession
A) The declarant must die immediately after the statement B) The declaration must be in written form C) The declarant must believe death is inevitable D) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement
A) Admissible because counsel was present B) Inadmissible for being involuntary C) Admissible only as corroborative evidence D) Valid if re-affirmed later
A) Narrative reconstruction B) Cognitive interviewing C) Investigative visualization D) Hypnosis technique
A) Admissible as corroborative evidence B) Admissible in full C) Admissible only in part D) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation
A) Confession B) Admission against interest C) Inadmissible hearsay D) Dying declaration
A) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official B) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked C) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning D) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
A) Approach phase B) Termination phase C) Preparation phase D) Question-and-answer phase
A) Extracting confession through pressure B) Use of psychological manipulation C) Rapid confessional tactics D) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning
A) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession B) Encouraging voluntary cooperation C) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction D) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely
A) Deception and bluffing B) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies C) Emotional appeal and sympathy D) Physical pressure
A) Investigative debriefing B) Cognitive interrogation C) Cross-examination D) Preliminary interview
A) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses B) Considered res gestae C) Admissible in evidence D) Inadmissible for being post-consultation
A) Gather information without accusation B) Intimidate the suspect to confess C) Obtain physical evidence D) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
A) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death B) The declarant must identify the killer C) The declarant must be under oath D) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator
A) Res gestae B) Independent relevant statement C) Confession D) Admission
A) The number of offenders B) The value of the property stolen C) The use or threat of violence or intimidation D) The intent to gain
A) Conducting a background check on the victim B) Tracing the stolen property C) Filing the case immediately D) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
A) Suspect profiling B) Evidence collection C) Intelligence gathering D) Crime scene reconstruction
A) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not. B) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not. C) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings. D) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not
A) Property inventory B) CCTV footage C) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction D) Confession of the accused
A) Carnapping B) Estafa C) Qualified theft D) Robbery
A) Without violence but with intent to gain B) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally C) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain D) With violence or intimidation only
A) Life imprisonment B) Reclusion perpetua to death C) Reclusion temporal D) Death by lethal injection
A) Determine insurance status B) Locate the driver C) Identify the manufacturer D) Trace ownership and vehicle identity
A) Those who report stolen property B) Only those who steal cars C) Those who physically steal property D) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen
A) The ownership of the property B) The absence of intent to gain C) The act of possession rather than the act of taking D) The act of concealing the property
A) Insurance policy B) Driver’s license C) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR) D) Sales invoice
A) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation B) The accused buys property from a store C) The property is found hidden D) The accused was seen near the crime scene
A) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce B) Reduce robbery incidents C) Punish the original thief D) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods
A) Payment of recruitment fees B) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion C) Use of minors in employment D) Recruitment for legal overseas work
A) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only B) Allowing voluntary prostitution C) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment D) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability
A) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction B) Reducing penalties for traffickers C) Increasing fines D) Limiting law enforcement authority
A) Media exposure B) Protection and rehabilitation of victims C) Immediate deportation D) Aggressive interrogation
A) Forced labor B) Debt bondage C) Exploitation of prostitution D) Adoption following legal procedures
A) Integration B) Layering C) Structuring D) Placement
A) Depositing the proceeds B) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin C) Reporting suspicious transactions D) Investing clean money
A) The launderer hides the funds abroad B) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts C) Authorities freeze the assets D) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses
A) Encourage secret banking B) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds C) Regulate pawnshops D) Allow anonymous foreign accounts
A) Charitable organizations B) Non-reporting entities C) Covered persons under AMLA D) Exempt institutions
A) Threshold transaction B) Covered transaction C) Suspicious transaction D) Layered transaction
A) Gross negligence B) Administrative offense only C) A criminal violation under AMLA D) No liability if unintentional
A) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC) B) Securities and Exchange Commission C) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas D) Department of Justice
A) Establishing the suspect’s income B) Checking bank accounts C) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain D) Identifying the victim’s negligence
A) Conducting digital forensics B) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence C) Studying the suspect’s financial background D) Recovery of stolen property only
A) Suspect’s criminal record B) Place of transaction only C) Modus operandi and deceit pattern D) The victim’s wealth
A) Administrative sanction B) Presumption of involvement in the crime C) Forfeiture of insurance claims D) No consequence
A) Theft B) Estafa C) Fencing D) Carnapping
A) The depositor is a senior citizen B) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual C) The account balance is low D) The account is new
A) News reports B) Witness interviews C) Bank advertisements D) Paper and digital transaction audit
A) Media pressure B) Political influence C) International cooperation and evidence tracing D) Lack of police equipment
A) Estafa B) Robbery C) Theft D) Carnapping
A) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation B) Relationship between victim and offender C) The monetary value of the property stolen D) Use of deception or false pretenses
A) Physical evidence collection at the scene B) Vehicle tracing system C) Property recovery operation D) Financial and documentary audit
A) Documentary and bank receipts B) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints C) Vehicle registration documents D) Computer logs and online records
A) Physical evidence at the crime scene B) DNA evidence C) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage D) Eyewitness testimony
A) When the vehicle is sold to another person B) When the vehicle leaves the city or province C) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner D) When the owner reports the loss
A) Theft B) Simple carnapping C) Robbery D) Qualified carnapping
A) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen B) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence C) Ownership of stolen property by the fence D) Amount of profit derived from the property
A) Fencing B) Innocent purchase C) Theft by negligence D) Estafa
A) Vehicle tracing through LTO database B) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities C) Collection of firearms evidence D) Accounting audit of business operations
A) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation B) Violation of labor regulations C) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old D) Employment abroad
A) R.A. 9208 B) R.A. 10883 C) R.A. 10364 D) P.D. 1612
A) Non-deportation of foreign victims B) Immunity of recruiters C) Reclassification of all victims as offenders D) Repatriation without consent
A) Placement B) Layering C) Concealment D) Integration
A) Structuring B) Placement C) Layering D) Integration |