AREA 3 SUBJECT 3
  • 1. An investigator interviews a witness in a friendly, non-accusatory manner to gather facts about a crime. This process best exemplifies which technique?
A) Interrogation
B) Interview
C) Cross-examination
D) Elicitation
  • 2. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest.
B) Both are the same under Philippine law.
C) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information.
D) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral
  • 3. When an investigator uses empathy and understanding to encourage a suspect to talk, which method of interrogation is being applied?
A) Coercive technique
B) Direct approach
C) Logical approach
D) Emotional appeal
  • 4. The legal requirement that a confession must be made voluntarily ensures the observance of which constitutional right?
A) Right to bail
B) Right to privacy
C) Right against unreasonable search
D) Right against self-incrimination
  • 5. The admissibility of a confession depends on its being made:
A) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
B) Before the barangay captain
C) In writing and in the presence of a police officer
D) Under oath and notarized
  • 6. A confession made without the presence of counsel is inadmissible because it violates which rule of law?
A) Chain of custody rule
B) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
C) Miranda Doctrine
D) Rule on res gestae
  • 7. What is the primary purpose of the Miranda warning in police interrogation?
A) To protect the investigator from liability
B) To shorten the process of interrogation
C) To make the suspect feel guilty
D) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed
  • 8. A statement made by a dying person regarding the cause of his death is called:
A) Admission
B) Res gestae
C) Dying declaration
D) Confession
  • 9. For a dying declaration to be admissible, it must be shown that:
A) The declaration was made before a lawyer
B) The statement was in writing.
C) The declarant was under police custody
D) The declarant believed death was imminent.
  • 10. The principle that a dying person would not meet death with a lie is known as:
A) Doctrine of finality
B) Rule of Res Gestae
C) Principle of truthfulness
D) Doctrine of dying declaration
  • 11. Statements made immediately after a startling event, without time to fabricate, are known as:
A) Res gestae
B) Confessions
C) Independent relevant statements
D) Admissions
  • 12. Which of the following is an example of an independent relevant statement?
A) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime
B) A suspect’s confession to police
C) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant
D) A doctor’s report describing injuries
  • 13. During interrogation, a suspect breaks down and admits the crime. The confession will be inadmissible if:
A) It was made without counsel
B) It was made in private
C) It was written in English
D) It was made after prolonged questioning
  • 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of interview used in criminal investigation?
A) Investigative interview
B) Cognitive interview
C) Structured interview
D) Coercive interview
  • 15. In the cognitive interview technique, the investigator encourages the witness to:
A) Confess guilt
B) Guess what happened
C) Recall events from different perspectives
D) Create a timeline
  • 16. Which of the following makes a confession valid and admissible?
A) Signed before an ordinary witness
B) Made before a prosecutor without counsel
C) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present
D) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing
  • 17. A suspect confesses under threat of harm from the police. Under the Rules of Evidence, the confession is
A) Inadmissible
B) Conditional
C) Admissible
D) Partially admissible
  • 18. What distinguishes an admission from a confession?
A) They are synonymous in criminal law
B) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts.
C) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt.
D) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after.
  • 19. In evaluating a suspect’s confession, the court will primarily consider:
A) The investigator’s experience
B) The number of witnesses
C) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
D) The seriousness of the crime
  • 20. When the suspect exercises the right to remain silent, the investigator must:
A) Detain the suspect longer
B) Continue the questioning
C) Use persuasion
D) Stop the interrogation immediately
  • 21. During a police interview, the investigator allows the suspect to narrate freely without interruption. Which method of questioning is being applied?
A) Cognitive Interview
B) Cross-Examination Approach
C) Structured Interview
D) Narrative Method
  • 22. In an interrogation, the investigator deliberately pauses after the suspect gives an incomplete answer to encourage further disclosure. This technique is known as:
A) Repetition technique
B) Emotional appeal
C) Silence technique
D) Theme development
  • 23. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly
B) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory
C) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants
D) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest
  • 24. A police investigator fails to inform a suspect of his constitutional rights before taking a confession. Which is the legal consequence?
A) The confession may be admitted if written and signed
B) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration
C) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible
D) The confession remains admissible
  • 25. Which of the following elements is NOT essential for a confession to be admissible?
A) It must be made with the assistance of counsel
B) It must be voluntary
C) It must be in writing
D) It must be expressed and categorical
  • 26. A dying person tells a nurse that “Juan stabbed me because I refused to give him money.” Which statement is legally valid as a dying declaration?
A) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible
B) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
C) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death
D) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer
  • 27. A confession made without counsel but later affirmed in open court with counsel present is:
A) Admissible because it was later confirmed
B) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver
C) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights
D) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence
  • 28. A statement made by a victim who later dies, but who did not believe death was imminent, may be admitted as:
A) Part of res gestae
B) Independent relevant statement
C) Dying declaration
D) Admission
  • 29. Which principle guides the admissibility of a dying declaration under Rule 130 of the Rules on Evidence?
A) Necessity and trustworthiness
B) Voluntariness and legality
C) Materiality and spontaneity
D) Opportunity and impartiality
  • 30. A suspect admits that he “might have hit the victim by accident.” What type of admission is this?
A) Judicial admission
B) Qualified admission
C) Tacit confession
D) Extrajudicial confession
  • 31. During an interrogation, the investigator uses deception to make the suspect believe evidence exists. Which statement is correct?
A) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
B) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances
C) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor
D) Deception invalidates all statements
  • 32. A witness spontaneously blurts out, “He ran that way after shooting the man!” immediately after the crime. This statement is classified as
A) Res gestae statement
B) Admission against interest
C) Confession
D) Dying declaration
  • 33. A police officer questions a suspect for six hours without counsel and without informing him of his rights. The resulting statement is:
A) Voluntary admission
B) Valid under implied waiver doctrine
C) Admissible due to continuous questioning
D) Coerced confession
  • 34. Which of the following is not a proper objective of interrogation?
A) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
B) test the validity of gathered evidence
C) To obtain a confession
D) To elicit truth about participation in a crime
  • 35. When the declarant’s statement is offered only to prove that the statement was made, not for its truth, it falls under:
A) Hearsay
B) Admission
C) Confession
D) Independent relevant statement
  • 36. Which of the following situations best fits the rule on dying declaration?
A) The declaration must be in written form
B) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement
C) The declarant must die immediately after the statement
D) The declarant must believe death is inevitable
  • 37. When a suspect’s statement is taken with counsel but through threat and intimidation, the statement is:
A) Admissible only as corroborative evidence
B) Admissible because counsel was present
C) Inadmissible for being involuntary
D) Valid if re-affirmed later
  • 38. An investigator allows the witness to reconstruct the crime scene mentally to enhance recall. This method refers to
A) Cognitive interviewing
B) Investigative visualization
C) Hypnosis technique
D) Narrative reconstruction
  • 39. A confession obtained during custodial investigation without the presence of counsel but repeated voluntarily in court with counsel is:
A) Admissible in full
B) Admissible only in part
C) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation
D) Admissible as corroborative evidence
  • 40. A victim tells his neighbor before dying, “Tell my mother that Pedro stabbed me.” The victim clearly thought he was dying. This statement is:
A) Dying declaration
B) Inadmissible hearsay
C) Admission against interest
D) Confession
  • 41. A confession made after the suspect was informed of his rights but before counsel arrived is:
A) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official
B) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
C) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning
D) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked
  • 42. During an interrogation, the investigator builds rapport and gradually shifts to direct questioning about the crime. This process is part of which interrogation phase?
A) Approach phase
B) Preparation phase
C) Question-and-answer phase
D) Termination phase
  • 43. The “PEACE” model (Preparation, Engage, Account, Closure, Evaluation) commonly used in investigative interviewing focuses on:
A) Rapid confessional tactics
B) Use of psychological manipulation
C) Extracting confession through pressure
D) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning
  • 44. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of interrogation under Philippine law?
A) Encouraging voluntary cooperation
B) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession
C) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction
D) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely
  • 45. In applying the “logical approach” to interrogation, the investigator primarily relies on:
A) Deception and bluffing
B) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies
C) Physical pressure
D) Emotional appeal and sympathy
  • 46. When a witness’s statement is taken immediately after the incident to preserve accuracy of recollection, it is called:
A) Investigative debriefing
B) Cross-examination
C) Preliminary interview
D) Cognitive interrogation
  • 47. A suspect, after consulting with his lawyer, voluntarily admits his role in the crime without coercion. The confession is
A) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses
B) Considered res gestae
C) Inadmissible for being post-consultation
D) Admissible in evidence
  • 48. The main purpose of conducting an interview before an interrogation is to:
A) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
B) Intimidate the suspect to confess
C) Obtain physical evidence
D) Gather information without accusation
  • 49. Under the Rules on Evidence, which of the following is required for a dying declaration to be valid?
A) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death
B) The declarant must identify the killer
C) The declarant must be under oath
D) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator
  • 50. A statement made by a witness out of court to explain his subsequent actions, not to prove the truth of the statement, is an example of:
A) Confession
B) Independent relevant statement
C) Res gestae
D) Admission
  • 51. The key distinguishing element between theft and robbery under the Revised Penal Code is:
A) The use or threat of violence or intimidation
B) The intent to gain
C) The number of offenders
D) The value of the property stolen
  • 52. Which of the following is a crucial initial step in investigating a robbery incident?
A) Filing the case immediately
B) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
C) Conducting a background check on the victim
D) Tracing the stolen property
  • 53. The modus operandi of the suspect and the means of entry and escape are primarily analyzed during which phase of property crime investigation?
A) Crime scene reconstruction
B) Intelligence gathering
C) Suspect profiling
D) Evidence collection
  • 54. The main difference between estafa and theft is:
A) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings.
B) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not.
C) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not.
D) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not
  • 55. In investigating estafa cases, the most vital documentary evidence is:
A) Confession of the accused
B) CCTV footage
C) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction
D) Property inventory
  • 56. A car is taken without the owner’s consent with intent to gain. This act falls under:
A) Qualified theft
B) Estafa
C) Robbery
D) Carnapping
  • 57. The Anti-Carnapping Law (R.A. 10883) defines carnapping as the taking of a motor vehicle:
A) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally
B) Without violence but with intent to gain
C) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain
D) With violence or intimidation only
  • 58. Under R.A. 10883, when carnapping results in the death of a person, the penalty is:
A) Reclusion temporal
B) Life imprisonment
C) Death by lethal injection
D) Reclusion perpetua to death
  • 59. In the investigation of carnapping cases, the Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) is primarily used to:
A) Trace ownership and vehicle identity
B) Locate the driver
C) Determine insurance status
D) Identify the manufacturer
  • 60. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) penalizes
A) Only those who steal cars
B) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen
C) Those who report stolen property
D) Those who physically steal property
  • 61. The essential element that distinguishes a fencer from a thief is:
A) The ownership of the property
B) The absence of intent to gain
C) The act of concealing the property
D) The act of possession rather than the act of taking
  • 62. Which document serves as the primary reference in proving ownership of a motor vehicle in carnapping cases?
A) Insurance policy
B) Sales invoice
C) Driver’s license
D) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR)
  • 63. The presumption of fencing arises when:
A) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation
B) The accused buys property from a store
C) The accused was seen near the crime scene
D) The property is found hidden
  • 64. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) was enacted primarily to:
A) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce
B) Reduce robbery incidents
C) Punish the original thief
D) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods
  • 65. In human trafficking under R.A. 9208, the core element is:
A) Payment of recruitment fees
B) Use of minors in employment
C) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion
D) Recruitment for legal overseas work
  • 66. R.A. 10364 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking Act) strengthened R.A. 9208 by:
A) Allowing voluntary prostitution
B) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability
C) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only
D) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment
  • 67. The latest amendment, R.A. 11862 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2022), focuses on:
A) Limiting law enforcement authority
B) Reducing penalties for traffickers
C) Increasing fines
D) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction
  • 68. The victim-centered approach in human trafficking investigations emphasizes:
A) Aggressive interrogation
B) Protection and rehabilitation of victims
C) Media exposure
D) Immediate deportation
  • 69. Under R.A. 9208, the following is NOT considered trafficking:
A) Debt bondage
B) Forced labor
C) Adoption following legal procedures
D) Exploitation of prostitution
  • 70. One of the stages of money laundering where illegal money enters the financial system is called:
A) Integration
B) Placement
C) Structuring
D) Layering
  • 71. The layering stage of money laundering involves:
A) Investing clean money
B) Reporting suspicious transactions
C) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin
D) Depositing the proceeds
  • 72. The integration stage occurs when:
A) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses
B) Authorities freeze the assets
C) The launderer hides the funds abroad
D) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts
  • 73. The Anti-Money Laundering Act (R.A. 9160) aims to:
A) Encourage secret banking
B) Allow anonymous foreign accounts
C) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds
D) Regulate pawnshops
  • 74. Under R.A. 10927, casinos are included as:
A) Covered persons under AMLA
B) Exempt institutions
C) Non-reporting entities
D) Charitable organizations
  • 75. Under AMLA, a transaction exceeding ₱500,000 within one banking day must be reported as:
A) Covered transaction
B) Threshold transaction
C) Suspicious transaction
D) Layered transaction
  • 76. Failure of a covered institution to report suspicious transactions constitutes:
A) Administrative offense only
B) Gross negligence
C) No liability if unintentional
D) A criminal violation under AMLA
  • 77. The body primarily responsible for enforcing AMLA is:
A) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
B) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)
C) Department of Justice
D) Securities and Exchange Commission
  • 78. The approach in investigating theft focuses on:
A) Establishing the suspect’s income
B) Identifying the victim’s negligence
C) Checking bank accounts
D) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain
  • 79. The investigative approach in robbery emphasizes:
A) Recovery of stolen property only
B) Conducting digital forensics
C) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence
D) Studying the suspect’s financial background
  • 80. In estafa investigations, one must primarily analyze:
A) The victim’s wealth
B) Place of transaction only
C) Suspect’s criminal record
D) Modus operandi and deceit pattern
  • 81. Under R.A. 10883, the registered owner’s failure to report a stolen vehicle within 24 hours may result in:
A) Presumption of involvement in the crime
B) Administrative sanction
C) No consequence
D) Forfeiture of insurance claims
  • 82. A person who buys a motorcycle at a suspiciously low price without verifying ownership documents may be liable for:
A) Carnapping
B) Estafa
C) Fencing
D) Theft
  • 83. Under AMLA, a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is required when:
A) The account is new
B) The depositor is a senior citizen
C) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual
D) The account balance is low
  • 84. In investigating money laundering, the financial trail is reconstructed mainly through:
A) Bank advertisements
B) Witness interviews
C) Paper and digital transaction audit
D) News reports
  • 85. The common investigative challenge across property, financial, and trafficking crimes is:
A) International cooperation and evidence tracing
B) Media pressure
C) Political influence
D) Lack of police equipment
  • 86. A police investigator observes that a crime scene has no signs of forced entry, yet valuable items are missing. Which crime is most likely being investigated?
A) Estafa
B) Carnapping
C) Theft
D) Robbery
  • 87. In distinguishing theft from robbery, which investigative focus is most critical?
A) Use of deception or false pretenses
B) Relationship between victim and offender
C) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation
D) The monetary value of the property stolen
  • 88. A businessman convinces several investors to give money for a fake project. Which investigative approach should be applied?
A) Vehicle tracing system
B) Physical evidence collection at the scene
C) Financial and documentary audit
D) Property recovery operation
  • 89. In robbery cases, an investigator should prioritize the collection of which type of evidence?
A) Documentary and bank receipts
B) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints
C) Computer logs and online records
D) Vehicle registration documents
  • 90. In a case of estafa, what kind of evidence is most crucial for conviction?
A) Eyewitness testimony
B) Physical evidence at the crime scene
C) DNA evidence
D) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage
  • 91. Under R.A. 10883 (New Anti-Carnapping Law), when is the crime of carnapping considered consummated?
A) When the vehicle leaves the city or province
B) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner
C) When the vehicle is sold to another person
D) When the owner reports the loss
  • 92. A vehicle is stolen and immediately disassembled for sale of parts. Under R.A. 10883, this is classified as:
A) Qualified carnapping
B) Simple carnapping
C) Theft
D) Robbery
  • 93. Under P.D. 1612 (Anti-Fencing Law), which of the following elements must be proven to establish guilt?
A) Ownership of stolen property by the fence
B) Amount of profit derived from the property
C) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence
D) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen
  • 94. A buyer purchased a secondhand motorcycle at a suspiciously low price and failed to verify its origin. Under P.D. 1612, this constitutes:
A) Estafa
B) Innocent purchase
C) Theft by negligence
D) Fencing
  • 95. Which of the following is a distinguishing investigative step in human trafficking cases compared to other crimes against property?
A) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities
B) Collection of firearms evidence
C) Vehicle tracing through LTO database
D) Accounting audit of business operations
  • 96. Under R.A. 9208 (Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act), what element distinguishes trafficking from illegal recruitment?
A) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation
B) Violation of labor regulations
C) Employment abroad
D) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old
  • 97. Which law expanded the coverage of human trafficking to include “online sexual exploitation and cyber trafficking”?
A) R.A. 10364
B) R.A. 10883
C) R.A. 9208
D) P.D. 1612
  • 98. Under R.A. 11862, what new provision strengthened the protection of trafficking victims?
A) Immunity of recruiters
B) Repatriation without consent
C) Reclassification of all victims as offenders
D) Non-deportation of foreign victims
  • 99. In money laundering, which of the following stages involves depositing illegally obtained funds into the financial system?
A) Integration
B) Layering
C) Placement
D) Concealment
  • 100. An investigator detects multiple fund transfers among shell companies to obscure the origin of money. Which stage of money laundering is this?
A) Integration
B) Structuring
C) Layering
D) Placement
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