A) Interrogation B) Cross-examination C) Interview D) Elicitation
A) Both are the same under Philippine law. B) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral C) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest. D) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information.
A) Coercive technique B) Direct approach C) Logical approach D) Emotional appeal
A) Right against unreasonable search B) Right to privacy C) Right against self-incrimination D) Right to bail
A) In writing and in the presence of a police officer B) Before the barangay captain C) Under oath and notarized D) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
A) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine B) Rule on res gestae C) Chain of custody rule D) Miranda Doctrine
A) To shorten the process of interrogation B) To protect the investigator from liability C) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed D) To make the suspect feel guilty
A) Confession B) Dying declaration C) Admission D) Res gestae
A) The declaration was made before a lawyer B) The declarant was under police custody C) The declarant believed death was imminent. D) The statement was in writing.
A) Principle of truthfulness B) Doctrine of dying declaration C) Rule of Res Gestae D) Doctrine of finality
A) Independent relevant statements B) Admissions C) Res gestae D) Confessions
A) A suspect’s confession to police B) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime C) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant D) A doctor’s report describing injuries
A) It was made after prolonged questioning B) It was made in private C) It was written in English D) It was made without counsel
A) Cognitive interview B) Structured interview C) Investigative interview D) Coercive interview
A) Create a timeline B) Guess what happened C) Recall events from different perspectives D) Confess guilt
A) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing B) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present C) Made before a prosecutor without counsel D) Signed before an ordinary witness
A) Conditional B) Partially admissible C) Admissible D) Inadmissible
A) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after. B) They are synonymous in criminal law C) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts. D) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt.
A) The number of witnesses B) The investigator’s experience C) The presence of counsel and voluntariness D) The seriousness of the crime
A) Detain the suspect longer B) Stop the interrogation immediately C) Continue the questioning D) Use persuasion
A) Cross-Examination Approach B) Structured Interview C) Cognitive Interview D) Narrative Method
A) Repetition technique B) Emotional appeal C) Theme development D) Silence technique
A) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly B) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants C) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest D) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory
A) The confession remains admissible B) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible C) The confession may be admitted if written and signed D) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration
A) It must be expressed and categorical B) It must be made with the assistance of counsel C) It must be voluntary D) It must be in writing
A) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible B) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death C) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer D) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
A) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver B) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights C) Admissible because it was later confirmed D) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence
A) Independent relevant statement B) Part of res gestae C) Admission D) Dying declaration
A) Necessity and trustworthiness B) Opportunity and impartiality C) Voluntariness and legality D) Materiality and spontaneity
A) Tacit confession B) Qualified admission C) Judicial admission D) Extrajudicial confession
A) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor B) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances C) Deception invalidates all statements D) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
A) Res gestae statement B) Admission against interest C) Dying declaration D) Confession
A) Voluntary admission B) Coerced confession C) Admissible due to continuous questioning D) Valid under implied waiver doctrine
A) test the validity of gathered evidence B) To elicit truth about participation in a crime C) To obtain a confession D) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
A) Admission B) Confession C) Independent relevant statement D) Hearsay
A) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement B) The declarant must die immediately after the statement C) The declarant must believe death is inevitable D) The declaration must be in written form
A) Admissible because counsel was present B) Valid if re-affirmed later C) Inadmissible for being involuntary D) Admissible only as corroborative evidence
A) Cognitive interviewing B) Narrative reconstruction C) Investigative visualization D) Hypnosis technique
A) Admissible as corroborative evidence B) Admissible in full C) Admissible only in part D) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation
A) Dying declaration B) Inadmissible hearsay C) Admission against interest D) Confession
A) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official B) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning C) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked D) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
A) Preparation phase B) Approach phase C) Termination phase D) Question-and-answer phase
A) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning B) Rapid confessional tactics C) Use of psychological manipulation D) Extracting confession through pressure
A) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession B) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction C) Encouraging voluntary cooperation D) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely
A) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies B) Emotional appeal and sympathy C) Physical pressure D) Deception and bluffing
A) Cross-examination B) Cognitive interrogation C) Investigative debriefing D) Preliminary interview
A) Admissible in evidence B) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses C) Inadmissible for being post-consultation D) Considered res gestae
A) Intimidate the suspect to confess B) Gather information without accusation C) Obtain physical evidence D) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
A) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator B) The declarant must identify the killer C) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death D) The declarant must be under oath
A) Independent relevant statement B) Admission C) Res gestae D) Confession
A) The number of offenders B) The use or threat of violence or intimidation C) The intent to gain D) The value of the property stolen
A) Filing the case immediately B) Conducting a background check on the victim C) Tracing the stolen property D) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
A) Crime scene reconstruction B) Intelligence gathering C) Evidence collection D) Suspect profiling
A) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not B) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings. C) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not. D) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not.
A) CCTV footage B) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction C) Confession of the accused D) Property inventory
A) Qualified theft B) Carnapping C) Estafa D) Robbery
A) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally B) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain C) With violence or intimidation only D) Without violence but with intent to gain
A) Life imprisonment B) Reclusion temporal C) Death by lethal injection D) Reclusion perpetua to death
A) Trace ownership and vehicle identity B) Determine insurance status C) Identify the manufacturer D) Locate the driver
A) Those who physically steal property B) Only those who steal cars C) Those who report stolen property D) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen
A) The absence of intent to gain B) The ownership of the property C) The act of possession rather than the act of taking D) The act of concealing the property
A) Insurance policy B) Sales invoice C) Driver’s license D) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR)
A) The accused buys property from a store B) The accused was seen near the crime scene C) The property is found hidden D) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation
A) Punish the original thief B) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce C) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods D) Reduce robbery incidents
A) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion B) Recruitment for legal overseas work C) Use of minors in employment D) Payment of recruitment fees
A) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability B) Allowing voluntary prostitution C) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment D) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only
A) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction B) Limiting law enforcement authority C) Increasing fines D) Reducing penalties for traffickers
A) Immediate deportation B) Aggressive interrogation C) Protection and rehabilitation of victims D) Media exposure
A) Adoption following legal procedures B) Exploitation of prostitution C) Forced labor D) Debt bondage
A) Placement B) Integration C) Structuring D) Layering
A) Reporting suspicious transactions B) Investing clean money C) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin D) Depositing the proceeds
A) Authorities freeze the assets B) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts C) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses D) The launderer hides the funds abroad
A) Allow anonymous foreign accounts B) Regulate pawnshops C) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds D) Encourage secret banking
A) Non-reporting entities B) Covered persons under AMLA C) Charitable organizations D) Exempt institutions
A) Suspicious transaction B) Covered transaction C) Threshold transaction D) Layered transaction
A) Administrative offense only B) A criminal violation under AMLA C) No liability if unintentional D) Gross negligence
A) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC) B) Department of Justice C) Securities and Exchange Commission D) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
A) Identifying the victim’s negligence B) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain C) Checking bank accounts D) Establishing the suspect’s income
A) Conducting digital forensics B) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence C) Studying the suspect’s financial background D) Recovery of stolen property only
A) Modus operandi and deceit pattern B) The victim’s wealth C) Suspect’s criminal record D) Place of transaction only
A) No consequence B) Presumption of involvement in the crime C) Administrative sanction D) Forfeiture of insurance claims
A) Estafa B) Theft C) Carnapping D) Fencing
A) The account is new B) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual C) The account balance is low D) The depositor is a senior citizen
A) Witness interviews B) News reports C) Paper and digital transaction audit D) Bank advertisements
A) International cooperation and evidence tracing B) Media pressure C) Lack of police equipment D) Political influence
A) Robbery B) Estafa C) Theft D) Carnapping
A) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation B) The monetary value of the property stolen C) Use of deception or false pretenses D) Relationship between victim and offender
A) Vehicle tracing system B) Financial and documentary audit C) Property recovery operation D) Physical evidence collection at the scene
A) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints B) Vehicle registration documents C) Documentary and bank receipts D) Computer logs and online records
A) DNA evidence B) Physical evidence at the crime scene C) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage D) Eyewitness testimony
A) When the vehicle leaves the city or province B) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner C) When the owner reports the loss D) When the vehicle is sold to another person
A) Theft B) Robbery C) Qualified carnapping D) Simple carnapping
A) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen B) Ownership of stolen property by the fence C) Amount of profit derived from the property D) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence
A) Innocent purchase B) Fencing C) Theft by negligence D) Estafa
A) Collection of firearms evidence B) Accounting audit of business operations C) Vehicle tracing through LTO database D) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities
A) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old B) Employment abroad C) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation D) Violation of labor regulations
A) R.A. 10364 B) P.D. 1612 C) R.A. 9208 D) R.A. 10883
A) Immunity of recruiters B) Reclassification of all victims as offenders C) Repatriation without consent D) Non-deportation of foreign victims
A) Concealment B) Placement C) Integration D) Layering
A) Placement B) Layering C) Integration D) Structuring |