AREA 3 SUBJECT 3
  • 1. An investigator interviews a witness in a friendly, non-accusatory manner to gather facts about a crime. This process best exemplifies which technique?
A) Cross-examination
B) Elicitation
C) Interrogation
D) Interview
  • 2. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information.
B) Both are the same under Philippine law.
C) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral
D) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest.
  • 3. When an investigator uses empathy and understanding to encourage a suspect to talk, which method of interrogation is being applied?
A) Emotional appeal
B) Direct approach
C) Logical approach
D) Coercive technique
  • 4. The legal requirement that a confession must be made voluntarily ensures the observance of which constitutional right?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right to bail
C) Right against self-incrimination
D) Right to privacy
  • 5. The admissibility of a confession depends on its being made:
A) Before the barangay captain
B) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
C) In writing and in the presence of a police officer
D) Under oath and notarized
  • 6. A confession made without the presence of counsel is inadmissible because it violates which rule of law?
A) Chain of custody rule
B) Rule on res gestae
C) Miranda Doctrine
D) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
  • 7. What is the primary purpose of the Miranda warning in police interrogation?
A) To shorten the process of interrogation
B) To protect the investigator from liability
C) To make the suspect feel guilty
D) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed
  • 8. A statement made by a dying person regarding the cause of his death is called:
A) Dying declaration
B) Confession
C) Admission
D) Res gestae
  • 9. For a dying declaration to be admissible, it must be shown that:
A) The declarant was under police custody
B) The declaration was made before a lawyer
C) The declarant believed death was imminent.
D) The statement was in writing.
  • 10. The principle that a dying person would not meet death with a lie is known as:
A) Doctrine of dying declaration
B) Rule of Res Gestae
C) Principle of truthfulness
D) Doctrine of finality
  • 11. Statements made immediately after a startling event, without time to fabricate, are known as:
A) Res gestae
B) Independent relevant statements
C) Confessions
D) Admissions
  • 12. Which of the following is an example of an independent relevant statement?
A) A suspect’s confession to police
B) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime
C) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant
D) A doctor’s report describing injuries
  • 13. During interrogation, a suspect breaks down and admits the crime. The confession will be inadmissible if:
A) It was made without counsel
B) It was made in private
C) It was written in English
D) It was made after prolonged questioning
  • 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of interview used in criminal investigation?
A) Investigative interview
B) Structured interview
C) Coercive interview
D) Cognitive interview
  • 15. In the cognitive interview technique, the investigator encourages the witness to:
A) Confess guilt
B) Recall events from different perspectives
C) Guess what happened
D) Create a timeline
  • 16. Which of the following makes a confession valid and admissible?
A) Made before a prosecutor without counsel
B) Signed before an ordinary witness
C) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing
D) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present
  • 17. A suspect confesses under threat of harm from the police. Under the Rules of Evidence, the confession is
A) Inadmissible
B) Admissible
C) Conditional
D) Partially admissible
  • 18. What distinguishes an admission from a confession?
A) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt.
B) They are synonymous in criminal law
C) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after.
D) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts.
  • 19. In evaluating a suspect’s confession, the court will primarily consider:
A) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
B) The seriousness of the crime
C) The number of witnesses
D) The investigator’s experience
  • 20. When the suspect exercises the right to remain silent, the investigator must:
A) Detain the suspect longer
B) Continue the questioning
C) Stop the interrogation immediately
D) Use persuasion
  • 21. During a police interview, the investigator allows the suspect to narrate freely without interruption. Which method of questioning is being applied?
A) Narrative Method
B) Cross-Examination Approach
C) Structured Interview
D) Cognitive Interview
  • 22. In an interrogation, the investigator deliberately pauses after the suspect gives an incomplete answer to encourage further disclosure. This technique is known as:
A) Theme development
B) Silence technique
C) Repetition technique
D) Emotional appeal
  • 23. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest
B) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory
C) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants
D) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly
  • 24. A police investigator fails to inform a suspect of his constitutional rights before taking a confession. Which is the legal consequence?
A) The confession may be admitted if written and signed
B) The confession remains admissible
C) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration
D) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible
  • 25. Which of the following elements is NOT essential for a confession to be admissible?
A) It must be in writing
B) It must be voluntary
C) It must be expressed and categorical
D) It must be made with the assistance of counsel
  • 26. A dying person tells a nurse that “Juan stabbed me because I refused to give him money.” Which statement is legally valid as a dying declaration?
A) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
B) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer
C) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible
D) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death
  • 27. A confession made without counsel but later affirmed in open court with counsel present is:
A) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver
B) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights
C) Admissible because it was later confirmed
D) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence
  • 28. A statement made by a victim who later dies, but who did not believe death was imminent, may be admitted as:
A) Independent relevant statement
B) Dying declaration
C) Admission
D) Part of res gestae
  • 29. Which principle guides the admissibility of a dying declaration under Rule 130 of the Rules on Evidence?
A) Opportunity and impartiality
B) Materiality and spontaneity
C) Voluntariness and legality
D) Necessity and trustworthiness
  • 30. A suspect admits that he “might have hit the victim by accident.” What type of admission is this?
A) Judicial admission
B) Extrajudicial confession
C) Tacit confession
D) Qualified admission
  • 31. During an interrogation, the investigator uses deception to make the suspect believe evidence exists. Which statement is correct?
A) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
B) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor
C) Deception invalidates all statements
D) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances
  • 32. A witness spontaneously blurts out, “He ran that way after shooting the man!” immediately after the crime. This statement is classified as
A) Admission against interest
B) Confession
C) Res gestae statement
D) Dying declaration
  • 33. A police officer questions a suspect for six hours without counsel and without informing him of his rights. The resulting statement is:
A) Valid under implied waiver doctrine
B) Voluntary admission
C) Admissible due to continuous questioning
D) Coerced confession
  • 34. Which of the following is not a proper objective of interrogation?
A) test the validity of gathered evidence
B) To obtain a confession
C) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
D) To elicit truth about participation in a crime
  • 35. When the declarant’s statement is offered only to prove that the statement was made, not for its truth, it falls under:
A) Hearsay
B) Confession
C) Admission
D) Independent relevant statement
  • 36. Which of the following situations best fits the rule on dying declaration?
A) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement
B) The declarant must die immediately after the statement
C) The declaration must be in written form
D) The declarant must believe death is inevitable
  • 37. When a suspect’s statement is taken with counsel but through threat and intimidation, the statement is:
A) Valid if re-affirmed later
B) Inadmissible for being involuntary
C) Admissible only as corroborative evidence
D) Admissible because counsel was present
  • 38. An investigator allows the witness to reconstruct the crime scene mentally to enhance recall. This method refers to
A) Cognitive interviewing
B) Investigative visualization
C) Hypnosis technique
D) Narrative reconstruction
  • 39. A confession obtained during custodial investigation without the presence of counsel but repeated voluntarily in court with counsel is:
A) Admissible only in part
B) Admissible in full
C) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation
D) Admissible as corroborative evidence
  • 40. A victim tells his neighbor before dying, “Tell my mother that Pedro stabbed me.” The victim clearly thought he was dying. This statement is:
A) Inadmissible hearsay
B) Admission against interest
C) Dying declaration
D) Confession
  • 41. A confession made after the suspect was informed of his rights but before counsel arrived is:
A) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked
B) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
C) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning
D) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official
  • 42. During an interrogation, the investigator builds rapport and gradually shifts to direct questioning about the crime. This process is part of which interrogation phase?
A) Termination phase
B) Question-and-answer phase
C) Approach phase
D) Preparation phase
  • 43. The “PEACE” model (Preparation, Engage, Account, Closure, Evaluation) commonly used in investigative interviewing focuses on:
A) Use of psychological manipulation
B) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning
C) Rapid confessional tactics
D) Extracting confession through pressure
  • 44. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of interrogation under Philippine law?
A) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction
B) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely
C) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession
D) Encouraging voluntary cooperation
  • 45. In applying the “logical approach” to interrogation, the investigator primarily relies on:
A) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies
B) Emotional appeal and sympathy
C) Physical pressure
D) Deception and bluffing
  • 46. When a witness’s statement is taken immediately after the incident to preserve accuracy of recollection, it is called:
A) Preliminary interview
B) Cognitive interrogation
C) Cross-examination
D) Investigative debriefing
  • 47. A suspect, after consulting with his lawyer, voluntarily admits his role in the crime without coercion. The confession is
A) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses
B) Admissible in evidence
C) Considered res gestae
D) Inadmissible for being post-consultation
  • 48. The main purpose of conducting an interview before an interrogation is to:
A) Obtain physical evidence
B) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
C) Gather information without accusation
D) Intimidate the suspect to confess
  • 49. Under the Rules on Evidence, which of the following is required for a dying declaration to be valid?
A) The declarant must be under oath
B) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator
C) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death
D) The declarant must identify the killer
  • 50. A statement made by a witness out of court to explain his subsequent actions, not to prove the truth of the statement, is an example of:
A) Confession
B) Independent relevant statement
C) Res gestae
D) Admission
  • 51. The key distinguishing element between theft and robbery under the Revised Penal Code is:
A) The value of the property stolen
B) The intent to gain
C) The use or threat of violence or intimidation
D) The number of offenders
  • 52. Which of the following is a crucial initial step in investigating a robbery incident?
A) Tracing the stolen property
B) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
C) Conducting a background check on the victim
D) Filing the case immediately
  • 53. The modus operandi of the suspect and the means of entry and escape are primarily analyzed during which phase of property crime investigation?
A) Crime scene reconstruction
B) Intelligence gathering
C) Evidence collection
D) Suspect profiling
  • 54. The main difference between estafa and theft is:
A) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings.
B) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not.
C) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not.
D) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not
  • 55. In investigating estafa cases, the most vital documentary evidence is:
A) CCTV footage
B) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction
C) Confession of the accused
D) Property inventory
  • 56. A car is taken without the owner’s consent with intent to gain. This act falls under:
A) Qualified theft
B) Estafa
C) Robbery
D) Carnapping
  • 57. The Anti-Carnapping Law (R.A. 10883) defines carnapping as the taking of a motor vehicle:
A) With violence or intimidation only
B) Without violence but with intent to gain
C) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally
D) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain
  • 58. Under R.A. 10883, when carnapping results in the death of a person, the penalty is:
A) Life imprisonment
B) Reclusion perpetua to death
C) Reclusion temporal
D) Death by lethal injection
  • 59. In the investigation of carnapping cases, the Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) is primarily used to:
A) Trace ownership and vehicle identity
B) Determine insurance status
C) Identify the manufacturer
D) Locate the driver
  • 60. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) penalizes
A) Those who report stolen property
B) Those who physically steal property
C) Only those who steal cars
D) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen
  • 61. The essential element that distinguishes a fencer from a thief is:
A) The act of concealing the property
B) The absence of intent to gain
C) The act of possession rather than the act of taking
D) The ownership of the property
  • 62. Which document serves as the primary reference in proving ownership of a motor vehicle in carnapping cases?
A) Driver’s license
B) Sales invoice
C) Insurance policy
D) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR)
  • 63. The presumption of fencing arises when:
A) The property is found hidden
B) The accused buys property from a store
C) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation
D) The accused was seen near the crime scene
  • 64. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) was enacted primarily to:
A) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods
B) Reduce robbery incidents
C) Punish the original thief
D) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce
  • 65. In human trafficking under R.A. 9208, the core element is:
A) Payment of recruitment fees
B) Recruitment for legal overseas work
C) Use of minors in employment
D) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion
  • 66. R.A. 10364 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking Act) strengthened R.A. 9208 by:
A) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment
B) Allowing voluntary prostitution
C) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only
D) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability
  • 67. The latest amendment, R.A. 11862 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2022), focuses on:
A) Reducing penalties for traffickers
B) Increasing fines
C) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction
D) Limiting law enforcement authority
  • 68. The victim-centered approach in human trafficking investigations emphasizes:
A) Immediate deportation
B) Media exposure
C) Aggressive interrogation
D) Protection and rehabilitation of victims
  • 69. Under R.A. 9208, the following is NOT considered trafficking:
A) Forced labor
B) Debt bondage
C) Exploitation of prostitution
D) Adoption following legal procedures
  • 70. One of the stages of money laundering where illegal money enters the financial system is called:
A) Structuring
B) Placement
C) Integration
D) Layering
  • 71. The layering stage of money laundering involves:
A) Depositing the proceeds
B) Investing clean money
C) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin
D) Reporting suspicious transactions
  • 72. The integration stage occurs when:
A) Authorities freeze the assets
B) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts
C) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses
D) The launderer hides the funds abroad
  • 73. The Anti-Money Laundering Act (R.A. 9160) aims to:
A) Encourage secret banking
B) Regulate pawnshops
C) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds
D) Allow anonymous foreign accounts
  • 74. Under R.A. 10927, casinos are included as:
A) Covered persons under AMLA
B) Exempt institutions
C) Charitable organizations
D) Non-reporting entities
  • 75. Under AMLA, a transaction exceeding ₱500,000 within one banking day must be reported as:
A) Covered transaction
B) Layered transaction
C) Suspicious transaction
D) Threshold transaction
  • 76. Failure of a covered institution to report suspicious transactions constitutes:
A) Gross negligence
B) A criminal violation under AMLA
C) Administrative offense only
D) No liability if unintentional
  • 77. The body primarily responsible for enforcing AMLA is:
A) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)
B) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
C) Department of Justice
D) Securities and Exchange Commission
  • 78. The approach in investigating theft focuses on:
A) Identifying the victim’s negligence
B) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain
C) Establishing the suspect’s income
D) Checking bank accounts
  • 79. The investigative approach in robbery emphasizes:
A) Conducting digital forensics
B) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence
C) Recovery of stolen property only
D) Studying the suspect’s financial background
  • 80. In estafa investigations, one must primarily analyze:
A) Modus operandi and deceit pattern
B) Suspect’s criminal record
C) Place of transaction only
D) The victim’s wealth
  • 81. Under R.A. 10883, the registered owner’s failure to report a stolen vehicle within 24 hours may result in:
A) Administrative sanction
B) Forfeiture of insurance claims
C) No consequence
D) Presumption of involvement in the crime
  • 82. A person who buys a motorcycle at a suspiciously low price without verifying ownership documents may be liable for:
A) Estafa
B) Fencing
C) Theft
D) Carnapping
  • 83. Under AMLA, a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is required when:
A) The depositor is a senior citizen
B) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual
C) The account balance is low
D) The account is new
  • 84. In investigating money laundering, the financial trail is reconstructed mainly through:
A) Paper and digital transaction audit
B) News reports
C) Bank advertisements
D) Witness interviews
  • 85. The common investigative challenge across property, financial, and trafficking crimes is:
A) Political influence
B) Media pressure
C) Lack of police equipment
D) International cooperation and evidence tracing
  • 86. A police investigator observes that a crime scene has no signs of forced entry, yet valuable items are missing. Which crime is most likely being investigated?
A) Estafa
B) Theft
C) Carnapping
D) Robbery
  • 87. In distinguishing theft from robbery, which investigative focus is most critical?
A) The monetary value of the property stolen
B) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation
C) Use of deception or false pretenses
D) Relationship between victim and offender
  • 88. A businessman convinces several investors to give money for a fake project. Which investigative approach should be applied?
A) Physical evidence collection at the scene
B) Vehicle tracing system
C) Financial and documentary audit
D) Property recovery operation
  • 89. In robbery cases, an investigator should prioritize the collection of which type of evidence?
A) Computer logs and online records
B) Documentary and bank receipts
C) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints
D) Vehicle registration documents
  • 90. In a case of estafa, what kind of evidence is most crucial for conviction?
A) DNA evidence
B) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage
C) Eyewitness testimony
D) Physical evidence at the crime scene
  • 91. Under R.A. 10883 (New Anti-Carnapping Law), when is the crime of carnapping considered consummated?
A) When the owner reports the loss
B) When the vehicle leaves the city or province
C) When the vehicle is sold to another person
D) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner
  • 92. A vehicle is stolen and immediately disassembled for sale of parts. Under R.A. 10883, this is classified as:
A) Qualified carnapping
B) Robbery
C) Theft
D) Simple carnapping
  • 93. Under P.D. 1612 (Anti-Fencing Law), which of the following elements must be proven to establish guilt?
A) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen
B) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence
C) Amount of profit derived from the property
D) Ownership of stolen property by the fence
  • 94. A buyer purchased a secondhand motorcycle at a suspiciously low price and failed to verify its origin. Under P.D. 1612, this constitutes:
A) Estafa
B) Theft by negligence
C) Fencing
D) Innocent purchase
  • 95. Which of the following is a distinguishing investigative step in human trafficking cases compared to other crimes against property?
A) Collection of firearms evidence
B) Vehicle tracing through LTO database
C) Accounting audit of business operations
D) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities
  • 96. Under R.A. 9208 (Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act), what element distinguishes trafficking from illegal recruitment?
A) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old
B) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation
C) Employment abroad
D) Violation of labor regulations
  • 97. Which law expanded the coverage of human trafficking to include “online sexual exploitation and cyber trafficking”?
A) R.A. 10883
B) R.A. 10364
C) R.A. 9208
D) P.D. 1612
  • 98. Under R.A. 11862, what new provision strengthened the protection of trafficking victims?
A) Immunity of recruiters
B) Non-deportation of foreign victims
C) Reclassification of all victims as offenders
D) Repatriation without consent
  • 99. In money laundering, which of the following stages involves depositing illegally obtained funds into the financial system?
A) Layering
B) Concealment
C) Integration
D) Placement
  • 100. An investigator detects multiple fund transfers among shell companies to obscure the origin of money. Which stage of money laundering is this?
A) Placement
B) Integration
C) Layering
D) Structuring
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