AREA 3 SUBJECT 3
  • 1. An investigator interviews a witness in a friendly, non-accusatory manner to gather facts about a crime. This process best exemplifies which technique?
A) Interrogation
B) Elicitation
C) Cross-examination
D) Interview
  • 2. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Both are the same under Philippine law.
B) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest.
C) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information.
D) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral
  • 3. When an investigator uses empathy and understanding to encourage a suspect to talk, which method of interrogation is being applied?
A) Logical approach
B) Coercive technique
C) Direct approach
D) Emotional appeal
  • 4. The legal requirement that a confession must be made voluntarily ensures the observance of which constitutional right?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right to bail
C) Right to privacy
D) Right against self-incrimination
  • 5. The admissibility of a confession depends on its being made:
A) Before the barangay captain
B) Under oath and notarized
C) In writing and in the presence of a police officer
D) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
  • 6. A confession made without the presence of counsel is inadmissible because it violates which rule of law?
A) Miranda Doctrine
B) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
C) Rule on res gestae
D) Chain of custody rule
  • 7. What is the primary purpose of the Miranda warning in police interrogation?
A) To shorten the process of interrogation
B) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed
C) To protect the investigator from liability
D) To make the suspect feel guilty
  • 8. A statement made by a dying person regarding the cause of his death is called:
A) Admission
B) Confession
C) Dying declaration
D) Res gestae
  • 9. For a dying declaration to be admissible, it must be shown that:
A) The statement was in writing.
B) The declarant was under police custody
C) The declarant believed death was imminent.
D) The declaration was made before a lawyer
  • 10. The principle that a dying person would not meet death with a lie is known as:
A) Doctrine of dying declaration
B) Doctrine of finality
C) Rule of Res Gestae
D) Principle of truthfulness
  • 11. Statements made immediately after a startling event, without time to fabricate, are known as:
A) Admissions
B) Independent relevant statements
C) Confessions
D) Res gestae
  • 12. Which of the following is an example of an independent relevant statement?
A) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime
B) A doctor’s report describing injuries
C) A suspect’s confession to police
D) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant
  • 13. During interrogation, a suspect breaks down and admits the crime. The confession will be inadmissible if:
A) It was made without counsel
B) It was made after prolonged questioning
C) It was made in private
D) It was written in English
  • 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of interview used in criminal investigation?
A) Cognitive interview
B) Coercive interview
C) Investigative interview
D) Structured interview
  • 15. In the cognitive interview technique, the investigator encourages the witness to:
A) Create a timeline
B) Recall events from different perspectives
C) Confess guilt
D) Guess what happened
  • 16. Which of the following makes a confession valid and admissible?
A) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present
B) Signed before an ordinary witness
C) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing
D) Made before a prosecutor without counsel
  • 17. A suspect confesses under threat of harm from the police. Under the Rules of Evidence, the confession is
A) Inadmissible
B) Conditional
C) Partially admissible
D) Admissible
  • 18. What distinguishes an admission from a confession?
A) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts.
B) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt.
C) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after.
D) They are synonymous in criminal law
  • 19. In evaluating a suspect’s confession, the court will primarily consider:
A) The number of witnesses
B) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
C) The seriousness of the crime
D) The investigator’s experience
  • 20. When the suspect exercises the right to remain silent, the investigator must:
A) Continue the questioning
B) Stop the interrogation immediately
C) Use persuasion
D) Detain the suspect longer
  • 21. During a police interview, the investigator allows the suspect to narrate freely without interruption. Which method of questioning is being applied?
A) Cross-Examination Approach
B) Structured Interview
C) Narrative Method
D) Cognitive Interview
  • 22. In an interrogation, the investigator deliberately pauses after the suspect gives an incomplete answer to encourage further disclosure. This technique is known as:
A) Silence technique
B) Theme development
C) Repetition technique
D) Emotional appeal
  • 23. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory
B) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants
C) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest
D) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly
  • 24. A police investigator fails to inform a suspect of his constitutional rights before taking a confession. Which is the legal consequence?
A) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible
B) The confession may be admitted if written and signed
C) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration
D) The confession remains admissible
  • 25. Which of the following elements is NOT essential for a confession to be admissible?
A) It must be in writing
B) It must be made with the assistance of counsel
C) It must be expressed and categorical
D) It must be voluntary
  • 26. A dying person tells a nurse that “Juan stabbed me because I refused to give him money.” Which statement is legally valid as a dying declaration?
A) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible
B) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death
C) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer
D) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
  • 27. A confession made without counsel but later affirmed in open court with counsel present is:
A) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence
B) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights
C) Admissible because it was later confirmed
D) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver
  • 28. A statement made by a victim who later dies, but who did not believe death was imminent, may be admitted as:
A) Part of res gestae
B) Dying declaration
C) Independent relevant statement
D) Admission
  • 29. Which principle guides the admissibility of a dying declaration under Rule 130 of the Rules on Evidence?
A) Voluntariness and legality
B) Materiality and spontaneity
C) Necessity and trustworthiness
D) Opportunity and impartiality
  • 30. A suspect admits that he “might have hit the victim by accident.” What type of admission is this?
A) Qualified admission
B) Tacit confession
C) Judicial admission
D) Extrajudicial confession
  • 31. During an interrogation, the investigator uses deception to make the suspect believe evidence exists. Which statement is correct?
A) Deception invalidates all statements
B) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
C) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances
D) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor
  • 32. A witness spontaneously blurts out, “He ran that way after shooting the man!” immediately after the crime. This statement is classified as
A) Dying declaration
B) Admission against interest
C) Confession
D) Res gestae statement
  • 33. A police officer questions a suspect for six hours without counsel and without informing him of his rights. The resulting statement is:
A) Voluntary admission
B) Valid under implied waiver doctrine
C) Coerced confession
D) Admissible due to continuous questioning
  • 34. Which of the following is not a proper objective of interrogation?
A) To obtain a confession
B) test the validity of gathered evidence
C) To elicit truth about participation in a crime
D) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
  • 35. When the declarant’s statement is offered only to prove that the statement was made, not for its truth, it falls under:
A) Hearsay
B) Admission
C) Confession
D) Independent relevant statement
  • 36. Which of the following situations best fits the rule on dying declaration?
A) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement
B) The declaration must be in written form
C) The declarant must believe death is inevitable
D) The declarant must die immediately after the statement
  • 37. When a suspect’s statement is taken with counsel but through threat and intimidation, the statement is:
A) Admissible only as corroborative evidence
B) Valid if re-affirmed later
C) Inadmissible for being involuntary
D) Admissible because counsel was present
  • 38. An investigator allows the witness to reconstruct the crime scene mentally to enhance recall. This method refers to
A) Investigative visualization
B) Hypnosis technique
C) Cognitive interviewing
D) Narrative reconstruction
  • 39. A confession obtained during custodial investigation without the presence of counsel but repeated voluntarily in court with counsel is:
A) Admissible in full
B) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation
C) Admissible as corroborative evidence
D) Admissible only in part
  • 40. A victim tells his neighbor before dying, “Tell my mother that Pedro stabbed me.” The victim clearly thought he was dying. This statement is:
A) Inadmissible hearsay
B) Confession
C) Admission against interest
D) Dying declaration
  • 41. A confession made after the suspect was informed of his rights but before counsel arrived is:
A) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked
B) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
C) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning
D) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official
  • 42. During an interrogation, the investigator builds rapport and gradually shifts to direct questioning about the crime. This process is part of which interrogation phase?
A) Question-and-answer phase
B) Termination phase
C) Preparation phase
D) Approach phase
  • 43. The “PEACE” model (Preparation, Engage, Account, Closure, Evaluation) commonly used in investigative interviewing focuses on:
A) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning
B) Extracting confession through pressure
C) Use of psychological manipulation
D) Rapid confessional tactics
  • 44. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of interrogation under Philippine law?
A) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction
B) Encouraging voluntary cooperation
C) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession
D) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely
  • 45. In applying the “logical approach” to interrogation, the investigator primarily relies on:
A) Physical pressure
B) Deception and bluffing
C) Emotional appeal and sympathy
D) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies
  • 46. When a witness’s statement is taken immediately after the incident to preserve accuracy of recollection, it is called:
A) Cognitive interrogation
B) Preliminary interview
C) Cross-examination
D) Investigative debriefing
  • 47. A suspect, after consulting with his lawyer, voluntarily admits his role in the crime without coercion. The confession is
A) Admissible in evidence
B) Inadmissible for being post-consultation
C) Considered res gestae
D) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses
  • 48. The main purpose of conducting an interview before an interrogation is to:
A) Intimidate the suspect to confess
B) Gather information without accusation
C) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Obtain physical evidence
  • 49. Under the Rules on Evidence, which of the following is required for a dying declaration to be valid?
A) The declarant must be under oath
B) The declarant must identify the killer
C) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator
D) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death
  • 50. A statement made by a witness out of court to explain his subsequent actions, not to prove the truth of the statement, is an example of:
A) Admission
B) Confession
C) Res gestae
D) Independent relevant statement
  • 51. The key distinguishing element between theft and robbery under the Revised Penal Code is:
A) The use or threat of violence or intimidation
B) The intent to gain
C) The number of offenders
D) The value of the property stolen
  • 52. Which of the following is a crucial initial step in investigating a robbery incident?
A) Tracing the stolen property
B) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
C) Conducting a background check on the victim
D) Filing the case immediately
  • 53. The modus operandi of the suspect and the means of entry and escape are primarily analyzed during which phase of property crime investigation?
A) Evidence collection
B) Suspect profiling
C) Crime scene reconstruction
D) Intelligence gathering
  • 54. The main difference between estafa and theft is:
A) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not.
B) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings.
C) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not
D) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not.
  • 55. In investigating estafa cases, the most vital documentary evidence is:
A) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction
B) Property inventory
C) CCTV footage
D) Confession of the accused
  • 56. A car is taken without the owner’s consent with intent to gain. This act falls under:
A) Carnapping
B) Robbery
C) Estafa
D) Qualified theft
  • 57. The Anti-Carnapping Law (R.A. 10883) defines carnapping as the taking of a motor vehicle:
A) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally
B) With violence or intimidation only
C) Without violence but with intent to gain
D) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain
  • 58. Under R.A. 10883, when carnapping results in the death of a person, the penalty is:
A) Reclusion perpetua to death
B) Death by lethal injection
C) Life imprisonment
D) Reclusion temporal
  • 59. In the investigation of carnapping cases, the Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) is primarily used to:
A) Trace ownership and vehicle identity
B) Identify the manufacturer
C) Locate the driver
D) Determine insurance status
  • 60. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) penalizes
A) Only those who steal cars
B) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen
C) Those who report stolen property
D) Those who physically steal property
  • 61. The essential element that distinguishes a fencer from a thief is:
A) The ownership of the property
B) The absence of intent to gain
C) The act of concealing the property
D) The act of possession rather than the act of taking
  • 62. Which document serves as the primary reference in proving ownership of a motor vehicle in carnapping cases?
A) Sales invoice
B) Insurance policy
C) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR)
D) Driver’s license
  • 63. The presumption of fencing arises when:
A) The accused buys property from a store
B) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation
C) The accused was seen near the crime scene
D) The property is found hidden
  • 64. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) was enacted primarily to:
A) Punish the original thief
B) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce
C) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods
D) Reduce robbery incidents
  • 65. In human trafficking under R.A. 9208, the core element is:
A) Payment of recruitment fees
B) Use of minors in employment
C) Recruitment for legal overseas work
D) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion
  • 66. R.A. 10364 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking Act) strengthened R.A. 9208 by:
A) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment
B) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only
C) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability
D) Allowing voluntary prostitution
  • 67. The latest amendment, R.A. 11862 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2022), focuses on:
A) Increasing fines
B) Reducing penalties for traffickers
C) Limiting law enforcement authority
D) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction
  • 68. The victim-centered approach in human trafficking investigations emphasizes:
A) Media exposure
B) Aggressive interrogation
C) Protection and rehabilitation of victims
D) Immediate deportation
  • 69. Under R.A. 9208, the following is NOT considered trafficking:
A) Forced labor
B) Adoption following legal procedures
C) Debt bondage
D) Exploitation of prostitution
  • 70. One of the stages of money laundering where illegal money enters the financial system is called:
A) Structuring
B) Layering
C) Integration
D) Placement
  • 71. The layering stage of money laundering involves:
A) Investing clean money
B) Depositing the proceeds
C) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin
D) Reporting suspicious transactions
  • 72. The integration stage occurs when:
A) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts
B) Authorities freeze the assets
C) The launderer hides the funds abroad
D) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses
  • 73. The Anti-Money Laundering Act (R.A. 9160) aims to:
A) Encourage secret banking
B) Allow anonymous foreign accounts
C) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds
D) Regulate pawnshops
  • 74. Under R.A. 10927, casinos are included as:
A) Charitable organizations
B) Non-reporting entities
C) Covered persons under AMLA
D) Exempt institutions
  • 75. Under AMLA, a transaction exceeding ₱500,000 within one banking day must be reported as:
A) Suspicious transaction
B) Covered transaction
C) Layered transaction
D) Threshold transaction
  • 76. Failure of a covered institution to report suspicious transactions constitutes:
A) Administrative offense only
B) No liability if unintentional
C) A criminal violation under AMLA
D) Gross negligence
  • 77. The body primarily responsible for enforcing AMLA is:
A) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)
B) Department of Justice
C) Securities and Exchange Commission
D) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
  • 78. The approach in investigating theft focuses on:
A) Identifying the victim’s negligence
B) Checking bank accounts
C) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain
D) Establishing the suspect’s income
  • 79. The investigative approach in robbery emphasizes:
A) Conducting digital forensics
B) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence
C) Studying the suspect’s financial background
D) Recovery of stolen property only
  • 80. In estafa investigations, one must primarily analyze:
A) Suspect’s criminal record
B) Modus operandi and deceit pattern
C) The victim’s wealth
D) Place of transaction only
  • 81. Under R.A. 10883, the registered owner’s failure to report a stolen vehicle within 24 hours may result in:
A) Administrative sanction
B) Presumption of involvement in the crime
C) No consequence
D) Forfeiture of insurance claims
  • 82. A person who buys a motorcycle at a suspiciously low price without verifying ownership documents may be liable for:
A) Estafa
B) Carnapping
C) Theft
D) Fencing
  • 83. Under AMLA, a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is required when:
A) The account is new
B) The depositor is a senior citizen
C) The account balance is low
D) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual
  • 84. In investigating money laundering, the financial trail is reconstructed mainly through:
A) News reports
B) Witness interviews
C) Bank advertisements
D) Paper and digital transaction audit
  • 85. The common investigative challenge across property, financial, and trafficking crimes is:
A) Political influence
B) Lack of police equipment
C) International cooperation and evidence tracing
D) Media pressure
  • 86. A police investigator observes that a crime scene has no signs of forced entry, yet valuable items are missing. Which crime is most likely being investigated?
A) Robbery
B) Carnapping
C) Estafa
D) Theft
  • 87. In distinguishing theft from robbery, which investigative focus is most critical?
A) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation
B) The monetary value of the property stolen
C) Relationship between victim and offender
D) Use of deception or false pretenses
  • 88. A businessman convinces several investors to give money for a fake project. Which investigative approach should be applied?
A) Vehicle tracing system
B) Physical evidence collection at the scene
C) Financial and documentary audit
D) Property recovery operation
  • 89. In robbery cases, an investigator should prioritize the collection of which type of evidence?
A) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints
B) Computer logs and online records
C) Vehicle registration documents
D) Documentary and bank receipts
  • 90. In a case of estafa, what kind of evidence is most crucial for conviction?
A) Eyewitness testimony
B) DNA evidence
C) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage
D) Physical evidence at the crime scene
  • 91. Under R.A. 10883 (New Anti-Carnapping Law), when is the crime of carnapping considered consummated?
A) When the owner reports the loss
B) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner
C) When the vehicle is sold to another person
D) When the vehicle leaves the city or province
  • 92. A vehicle is stolen and immediately disassembled for sale of parts. Under R.A. 10883, this is classified as:
A) Simple carnapping
B) Qualified carnapping
C) Robbery
D) Theft
  • 93. Under P.D. 1612 (Anti-Fencing Law), which of the following elements must be proven to establish guilt?
A) Amount of profit derived from the property
B) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence
C) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen
D) Ownership of stolen property by the fence
  • 94. A buyer purchased a secondhand motorcycle at a suspiciously low price and failed to verify its origin. Under P.D. 1612, this constitutes:
A) Estafa
B) Fencing
C) Innocent purchase
D) Theft by negligence
  • 95. Which of the following is a distinguishing investigative step in human trafficking cases compared to other crimes against property?
A) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities
B) Collection of firearms evidence
C) Accounting audit of business operations
D) Vehicle tracing through LTO database
  • 96. Under R.A. 9208 (Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act), what element distinguishes trafficking from illegal recruitment?
A) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old
B) Employment abroad
C) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation
D) Violation of labor regulations
  • 97. Which law expanded the coverage of human trafficking to include “online sexual exploitation and cyber trafficking”?
A) R.A. 10364
B) R.A. 10883
C) P.D. 1612
D) R.A. 9208
  • 98. Under R.A. 11862, what new provision strengthened the protection of trafficking victims?
A) Reclassification of all victims as offenders
B) Non-deportation of foreign victims
C) Immunity of recruiters
D) Repatriation without consent
  • 99. In money laundering, which of the following stages involves depositing illegally obtained funds into the financial system?
A) Concealment
B) Placement
C) Integration
D) Layering
  • 100. An investigator detects multiple fund transfers among shell companies to obscure the origin of money. Which stage of money laundering is this?
A) Placement
B) Layering
C) Integration
D) Structuring
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