(CLJ 3) CRIMINAL LAW BOOK 1 - Quiz
  • 1. The Revised Penal Code took effect on:
A) January 1, 1933
B) January 1, 1932
C) January 1, 1930
D) July 1, 1932
  • 2. Criminal Law in the Philippines is:
A) Generally prospective but may be retroactive if favorable to the accused
B) Prospective
C) Retrospective
D) Always retroactive
  • 3. The fundamental principle of nullum crimen, nulla poena sine lege means:
A) Every act is punishable
B) There is no crime when there is no law punishing it
C) Law excuses ignorance
D) Criminal law is moral law
  • 4. The purpose of penal laws is primarily:
A) To compensate victims
B) To protect society and maintain order
C) To provide civil remedies
D) To enrich the state
  • 5. A crime that affects the public interest is known as:
A) A moral wrong
B) A public crime
C) A quasi-crime
D) A private crime
  • 6. The Revised Penal Code is mainly based on:
A) French Code Napoleon
B) American Common Law
C) German Criminal Code
D) Spanish Penal Code
  • 7. Acts mala in se are punished because:
A) They are inherently wrong
B) They are civil wrongs
C) They offend administrative rules
D) They are prohibited by law
  • 8. Acts mala prohibita are punished because:
A) They are torts
B) They are crimes against nature
C) They are prohibited by law
D) They are immoral
  • 9. The sources of criminal law include:
A) The Revised Penal Code and special penal laws
B) Local ordinances only
C) Custom
D) Civil Code
  • 10. The principle that penal laws shall be construed strictly against the State is:
A) Doctrine of finality
B) Rule of lenity
C) Rule of conduct
D) Rule of equity
  • 11. Ignorance of the law excuses no one because:
A) It is a privilege
B) Law is optional
C) It is an absolute defense
D) Everyone is presumed to know the law
  • 12. The civil liability arising from crime is known as:
A) Civil contract
B) Civil liability quasi-delicto
C) Restitution only
D) Civil liability ex delicto
  • 13. Territoriality principle means:
A) Only to land territory
B) To all Filipinos abroad
C) Only to foreigners
D) Philippine criminal laws apply within its territory
  • 14. The concept that certain crimes are punishable even if committed abroad is:
A) Extraterritoriality principle
B) Global jurisdiction
C) Universality
D) Nationality
  • 15. When a penal law is favorable to the accused, it shall be given:
A) No effect
B) Prospective effect only
C) Retroactive effect
D) Temporary application
  • 16. The general rule that penal laws are prospective means:
A) They apply to all acts anytime
B) They apply to foreigners only
C) They are always retroactive
D) They apply only to acts committed after their effectivity
  • 17. The main object of punishment is:
A) Compensation
B) Prevention and reformation
C) Intimidation only
D) Revenge
  • 18. Criminal Law is binding on all persons who:
A) Are foreigners only
B) Live or sojourn in Philippine territory
C) Are minors
D) Are Filipinos only
  • 19. The term “felony” refers to:
A) An act or omission punishable under the Revised Penal Code
B) A civil wrong
C) A sin
D) A violation of ordinance
  • 20. Felonies may be committed by:
A) Dolo (intent) or culpa (fault)
B) Agreement
C) Contract
D) Necessity
  • 21. Intentional felonies require:
A) Force, coercion, mistake
B) Freedom, intelligence, intent
C) Negligence
D) Consent
  • 22. Negligent felonies are committed through:
A) Fraud
B) Malice
C) Premeditation
D) Imprudence or negligence
  • 23. The three stages of execution of a felony are:
A) Begun, ended, finished
B) Planning, execution, completion
C) Attempted, frustrated, consummated
D) Partial, full, final
  • 24. When all acts of execution are performed but the crime is not produced by reason independent of the will of the offender, it is:
A) Attempted
B) Impossible
C) Frustrated felony
D) Consummated
  • 25. When the crime is produced by the acts of execution:
A) Attempted
B) Consummated felony
C) Impossible
D) Frustrated
  • 26. Impossible crime is committed when:
A) The result is achieved
B) The act performed would be an offense but for its impossibility of accomplishment
C) The act is lawful
D) The act is accidental
  • 27. An example of an impossible crime:
A) Stealing your own property
B) Shooting a corpse believing it alive
C) Breaking a vase
D) Killing an animal
  • 28. Criminal intent is presumed when:
A) The victim dies
B) The act is proven unlawful
C) The accused is a first offender
D) There is motive
  • 29. Motive is important only when:
A) The identity of the offender is in doubt
B) There is evidence of guilt
C) The act is admitted
D) The crime is heinous
  • 30. When the offender performs acts of execution but does not perform all that would produce the felony:
A) Impossible
B) Attempted felony
C) Frustrated
D) Consummated
  • 31. The result of a negligent act is punishable because:
A) There is intent
B) There is motive
C) The law punishes carelessness resulting in injury
D) It is immoral
  • 32. Aberratio ictus means:
A) Impossible crime
B) Mistake in the blow
C) Accidental harm
D) Mistake in identity
  • 33. Error in personae means:
A) Mistake in the identity of the victim
B) Impossible crime
C) Lack of intent
D) Mistake in blow
  • 34. Praeter intentionem means:
A) Negligence
B) The result is graver than intended
C) The act is lawful
D) No crime committed
  • 35. When a person is forced by irresistible force to commit a crime, he is:
A) Aggravated
B) Liable
C) Mitigated
D) Exempt from criminal liability
  • 36. Uncontrollable fear exempts from liability if:
A) The fear is real and imminent
B) It is lawful fear
C) The fear is imaginary
D) It is voluntary
  • 37. Accident without fault exempts when:
A) The act was lawful and injury was purely accidental
B) There was negligence
C) The act was intentional
D) The act was unlawful
  • 38. Voluntary surrender is a:
A) Exempting
B) Mitigating circumstance
C) Ordinary
D) Aggravating
  • 39. Aggravating circumstance increases:
A) The penalty
B) The motive
C) The damages
D) The liability only
  • 40. Mitigating circumstance decreases:
A) The gravity of crime
B) The number of victims
C) The fine
D) The penalty
  • 41. Self-defense is a/an:
A) Aggravating
B) Exempting
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Mitigating
  • 42. The requisites of self-defense are:
A) Unlawful aggression, reasonable necessity, lack of sufficient provocation
B) Retaliation, anger, revenge
C) Provocation and necessity
D) Unlawful aggression and retaliation only
  • 43. Unlawful aggression means:
A) Use of insulting words
B) Verbal abuse
C) Mere threat
D) Actual or imminent attack giving rise to danger to life or limb
  • 44. Defense of relatives includes defending:
A) Co-workers
B) Spouse, ascendants, descendants, brothers, sisters, relatives by affinity within the same degree
C) Strangers
D) Friends
  • 45. Defense of a stranger is justified if:
A) The aggression is verbal
B) It benefits the accused
C) There is no participation in the aggression and there is a lawful reason to defend
D) The stranger requests
  • 46. Obedience to an order of a superior exempts from liability if:
A) The order is lawful and the subordinate had no duty to refuse
B) The order is unjust
C) The superior is a friend
D) The act is immoral
  • 47. Insanity exempts from liability if:
A) The accused completely lost intelligence at the time of the act
B) He was merely drunk
C) He was partially insane
D) He was emotional
  • 48. Minority exempts from liability when:
A) 18 years old
B) Over 21 years old
C) The offender is under 15 years of age
D) Under 20 years old
  • 49. Drunkenness is mitigating only if:
A) It is not habitual and not subsequent to the plan to commit crime
B) It is voluntary
C) It is habitual
D) It is planned
  • 50. Passion or obfuscation is mitigating when:
A) It is premeditated
B) It is caused by greed
C) It is done for revenge
D) It arises from lawful sentiments
  • 51. Voluntary confession before trial is:
A) Exempting
B) Justifying
C) Mitigating
D) Aggravating
  • 52. Sufficient provocation is:
A) Aggravating
B) Mitigating
C) Exempting
D) Justifying
  • 53. Reiteracion (recidivism) is:
A) Ordinary
B) Mitigating
C) Aggravating circumstance
D) Exempting
  • 54. Evident premeditation is:
A) Special aggravating
B) Mitigating
C) Aggravating circumstance
D) Justifying
  • 55. Nighttime is aggravating when:
A) It is accidental
B) It is daytime
C) It occurs by chance
D) It is purposely sought to facilitate the crime
  • 56. Abuse of superior strength means:
A) Taking advantage of strength to weaken the defense of victim
B) Acting alone
C) Being armed
D) Attacking a stranger
  • 57. Ignominy is:
A) Killing in anger
B) Robbing in group
C) Torturing oneself
D) Adding moral suffering to the victim
  • 58. Treachery requires:
A) Motive of revenge
B) Surprise attack only
C) Means, methods, or forms that insure execution without risk to the offender
D) Abuse of power only
  • 59. When an aggravating circumstance is offset by a mitigating one:
A) The crime is extinguished
B) The penalty increases
C) The penalty remains in its medium period
D) The penalty decreases
  • 60. Alternative circumstances depend on:
A) The result only
B) The motive only
C) The nature and relationship of the parties
D) The method of attack
  • 61. Relationship is mitigating when:
A) The victim is an enemy
B) The offended party is a relative of the offender and the law so provides
C) None of the above
D) They are strangers
  • 62. Relationship is aggravating when:
A) The relationship is friendly
B) The act is accidental
C) The offender abuses the respect due to the offended party
D) The crime is minor
  • 63. Incomplete self-defense is:
A) Ordinary mitigating
B) Exempting
C) A privileged mitigating circumstance
D) Justifying
  • 64. Attempt to commit suicide is:
A) Mitigating
B) Exempting only
C) Punishable
D) Not punishable
  • 65. Conspiracy exists when:
A) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony
B) One suggests but others refuse
C) They merely discuss
D) They argue only
  • 66. Conspiracy makes all conspirators:
A) Accessories
B) Accomplices
C) Witnesses
D) Principals
  • 67. When a person helps in the commission of a crime by cooperation, he is:
A) An instigator
B) A principal
C) An accomplice
D) An accessory
  • 68. When a person participates after the commission of a crime, he is:
A) An accomplice
B) An accessory
C) A conspirator
D) A principal
  • 69. A principal by inducement is one who:
A) Merely assists
B) Aids in concealment
C) Directly induces another to commit the crime
D) Provides information only
  • 70. Accessories are exempt from criminal liability when:
A) They are relatives of the principal (spouse, ascendant, descendant, sibling)
B) They are co-workers
C) They are neighbors
D) They are friends
  • 71. The three classes of principals are:
A) By negligence
B) By attempt only
C) By order only
D) By direct participation, by inducement, by indispensable cooperation
  • 72. The penalty is the punishment:
A) Recommended by police
B) Desired by the victim
C) Optional
D) Imposed by the court upon conviction
  • 73. The penalties under the Revised Penal Code are divided into:
A) Primary and secondary
B) Principal and accessory penalties
C) Major and minor
D) Ordinary and special
  • 74. Reclusion perpetua has a duration of:
A) 20 years and 1 day to 40 years
B) 6 years to 12 years
C) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
D) Life imprisonment
  • 75. Arresto menor has a duration of:
A) 1 day to 30 days
B) 1 month to 6 months
C) 6 months to 1 year
D) 30 days to 2 years
  • 76. Prision correccional is:
A) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
B) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
C) 1 day to 30 days
D) 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
  • 77. Prision mayor is:
A) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
B) 20 years to 40 years
C) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
D) 1 month to 6 years
  • 78. Reclusion temporal is:
A) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
B) 1 year to 10 years
C) 6 months to 6 years
D) 20 years to 40 years
  • 79. Life imprisonment is:
A) Always 30 years
B) Same as reclusion perpetua
C) A penalty under special laws without fixed duration
D) Lighter than arresto mayor
  • 80. The death penalty is:
A) Applied to heinous crimes
B) Abolished under present laws (R.A. 9346)
C) Optional
D) Still enforced
  • 81. Civil interdiction is an:
A) Ordinary penalty
B) Special measure
C) Accessory penalty
D) Principal penalty
  • 82. Confiscation of instruments and proceeds of the crime is:
A) Mitigating
B) Civil liability
C) Accessory penalty
D) Aggravating
  • 83. Subsidiary imprisonment applies when:
A) The convict is foreign
B) The convict cannot pay the fine
C) The convict is acquitted
D) The convict escapes
  • 84. The penalty next lower in degree is applied when:
A) None above
B) There is aggravation
C) There is a privileged mitigating circumstance
D) There is none mitigating
  • 85. Destierro means:
A) Banishment from a place for a specified time
B) Hard labor
C) Suspension
D) Imprisonment
  • 86. Perpetual absolute disqualification means:
A) Civil interdiction only
B) Suspension
C) Loss of public office and right to vote or be voted for
D) Temporary dismissal
  • 87. Penalties are divided into degrees and periods to:
A) Increase punishment
B) Make computation easier
C) Shorten imprisonment
D) Adjust punishment according to circumstances
  • 88. A light felony is punishable by:
A) Prision correccional
B) Reclusion perpetua
C) Life imprisonment
D) Arresto menor or fine not exceeding ₱40,000
  • 89. Grave felonies are those punishable by:
A) Light penalties
B) Simple penalties
C) Fines only
D) Capital punishment or afflictive penalties
  • 90. Less grave felonies are punishable by:
A) Light penalties
B) Correctional penalties
C) Accessory penalties
D) Civil penalties
  • 91. Criminal liability is totally extinguished by:
A) Bail
B) Parole only
C) Probation only
D) Death, service of sentence, amnesty, absolute pardon, prescription, marriage (in cases provided by law)
  • 92. Criminal liability is partially extinguished by:
A) Conditional pardon, commutation, parole, good conduct
B) Prescription
C) Amnesty
D) Death
  • 93. Amnesty is granted by:
A) The Supreme Court
B) The Secretary of Justice
C) The President with concurrence of Congress
D) The Senate only
  • 94. Pardon is an act of:
A) Congress
B) The offended party
C) Executive clemency granted by the President
D) The court
  • 95. Probation is granted by:
A) The offended party
B) The President
C) The court after conviction
D) The prosecutor
  • 96. Prescription of crimes means:
A) Loss of right of the State to prosecute after lapse of time
B) The crime is pardoned
C) The case is closed
D) Loss of evidence
  • 97. Prescription of penalty means:
A) Death of offender
B) Loss of right to enforce sentence after lapse of time
C) Crime no longer punishable
D) Conviction is void
  • 98. Conditional pardon is revoked when:
A) The convict dies
B) The conditions are violated
C) The term ends
D) The convict behaves well
  • 99. Extinction of civil liability does not extinguish:
A) The crime
B) The evidence
C) The punishment
D) Criminal liability
  • 100. Civil liability is extinguished by:
A) Amnesty
B) Pardon
C) Probation
D) Payment, loss of thing, remission, prescription, or merger
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