ISMANA (Finals) CABS
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Espionage
C) Sabotage
D) Pilferage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Intent and premeditation in theft
B) Number of times they were caught
C) Only steals small, easily hidden items
D) Level of Education
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Self-Assumption
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Reduction
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Allow free access
C) Body Frisking
D) Issue of weapons
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Subversion is done by governments only
B) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
C) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
D) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Spreading
D) Risk Self Assumption
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
B) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
C) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
D) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Subversion
B) Vandalism
C) Pilferage
D) Espionage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) An environmental condition causing damage
B) A legal owner of an asset
C) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
D) A security measure in place to protect assets
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The financial or survival of losing the assets
B) The visibility of the asset
C) The frequency of threat attempts
D) The number of people using the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Driver Rule
B) Ambush attack
C) Advance Security
D) Mental attitude
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Moving Attack
B) Novice Criminal
C) Ambush attack
D) Close in Security
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Ambush attack
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Moving Attack
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Advance Security
B) Close in Security
C) Mental Attitude
D) Ambush attack
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Modus Operandi
B) Moving Attack
C) Driver Rule
D) Ambush attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Mental attitude
C) Novice Criminal
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Novice Criminal
C) Advance Security
D) Mental Attitude
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Novice Criminals
C) Modus Operandi
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Advance Security
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Modus Operandi
D) Novice Criminals
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Advance Security
B) Moving Attack
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Mental attitude
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Pleasantness
B) Slang usage
C) Alertness
D) Expressiveness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Speak continuously without pause
B) Use codes for every sentence
C) Wait for confirmation before speaking
D) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Establishment if civilization
B) Hunting and gathering
C) Creation of laws
D) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Avoid using any code's
B) Speak as fast as possible
C) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
D) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) Communication channels are too expensive
C) People still fail to understand one another
D) People are talking too much
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) High-pitched voices
B) All codes and acronyms
C) Long pauses
D) Slang and unnatural language
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Walkie-talkies
B) Audio hailer
C) Telephone
D) Messaging security
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Radio check
C) Receiving poorly
D) Repeat message
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Symbolic Art
B) Oral language
C) Use of Signs
D) Written language
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A device for broadcasting messages
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) The tool used to write
D) The tone of a person's voice
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Determine employee productivity
B) Review the state of physical security
C) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
D) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Training new recruits
B) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
C) Boosting sales
D) Designing building architecture
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Criminal activity within the organization
B) Competitor activity
C) Supplier delays
D) External cyber attacks
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A financial audit of company assets
B) A list of employee duties
C) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
D) A routine fire drill
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Determine how data will be gathered
B) Prepare Schedule
C) Develop alternatives
D) Verify the need
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It ensures cooperation and resources
B) It guarantees fast results
C) It helps save money
D) It allows skipping certain steps
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Legal compliance checks only
B) Background checks
C) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
D) Staff scheduling
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security briefing
B) Fire inspection
C) Emergency drill
D) Security survey
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To evaluate marketing strategies
B) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
C) To monitor employee performance
D) To hire new security staff
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Survey is done after inspection
B) Only inspection is required for long term planning
C) They are unrelated processes
D) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
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