ISMANA (Finals) CABS
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Pilferage
C) Espionage
D) Sabotage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Intent and premeditation in theft
B) Number of times they were caught
C) Level of Education
D) Only steals small, easily hidden items
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Self-Assumption
B) Risk Avoidance
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Transfer
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Body Frisking
B) Allow free access
C) Identification and Verification of purpose
D) Issue of weapons
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Subversion is done by governments only
B) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
C) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
D) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Self Assumption
B) Risk Spreading
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Transfer
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
B) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
C) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
D) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Pilferage
B) Vandalism
C) Subversion
D) Espionage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) A security measure in place to protect assets
C) An environmental condition causing damage
D) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The financial or survival of losing the assets
B) The visibility of the asset
C) The frequency of threat attempts
D) The number of people using the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Driver Rule
B) Advance Security
C) Mental attitude
D) Ambush attack
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Ambush attack
B) Novice Criminal
C) Close in Security
D) Moving Attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Moving Attack
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Ambush attack
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Advance Security
B) Close in Security
C) Ambush attack
D) Mental Attitude
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Driver Rule
B) Ambush attack
C) Modus Operandi
D) Moving Attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Mental attitude
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Driver Rule
D) Novice Criminal
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Mental Attitude
B) Module Operandi
C) Novice Criminal
D) Advance Security
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Modus Operandi
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Novice Criminals
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Novice Criminals
B) Advance Security
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Modus Operandi
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Advance Security
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Mental attitude
D) Moving Attack
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Pleasantness
B) Alertness
C) Slang usage
D) Expressiveness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Wait for confirmation before speaking
B) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
C) Use codes for every sentence
D) Speak continuously without pause
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
B) Establishment if civilization
C) Hunting and gathering
D) Creation of laws
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
B) Avoid using any code's
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People are talking too much
B) Communication channels are too expensive
C) There are not enough languages
D) People still fail to understand one another
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Slang and unnatural language
B) Long pauses
C) High-pitched voices
D) All codes and acronyms
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Walkie-talkies
B) Telephone
C) Audio hailer
D) Messaging security
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Location
C) Radio check
D) Receiving poorly
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Written language
B) Oral language
C) Use of Signs
D) Symbolic Art
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tool used to write
B) A device for broadcasting messages
C) The tone of a person's voice
D) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
B) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
C) Determine employee productivity
D) Review the state of physical security
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Boosting sales
B) Training new recruits
C) Designing building architecture
D) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Supplier delays
B) Criminal activity within the organization
C) Competitor activity
D) External cyber attacks
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A financial audit of company assets
B) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
C) A routine fire drill
D) A list of employee duties
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Determine how data will be gathered
B) Prepare Schedule
C) Develop alternatives
D) Verify the need
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It ensures cooperation and resources
B) It helps save money
C) It guarantees fast results
D) It allows skipping certain steps
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Legal compliance checks only
B) Staff scheduling
C) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
D) Background checks
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Emergency drill
B) Fire inspection
C) Security briefing
D) Security survey
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To hire new security staff
B) To monitor employee performance
C) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
D) To evaluate marketing strategies
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) They are unrelated processes
B) Only inspection is required for long term planning
C) Survey is done after inspection
D) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
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