ISMANA (Finals) CABS
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Espionage
B) Pilferage
C) Sabotage
D) Subversion
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Only steals small, easily hidden items
B) Number of times they were caught
C) Level of Education
D) Intent and premeditation in theft
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Self-Assumption
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Reduction
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Issue of weapons
B) Allow free access
C) Body Frisking
D) Identification and Verification of purpose
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
B) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
C) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
D) Subversion is done by governments only
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Self Assumption
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Spreading
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
B) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
C) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
D) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Vandalism
B) Subversion
C) Espionage
D) Pilferage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) An environmental condition causing damage
B) A security measure in place to protect assets
C) A legal owner of an asset
D) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The frequency of threat attempts
B) The number of people using the asset
C) The visibility of the asset
D) The financial or survival of losing the assets
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Mental attitude
B) Advance Security
C) Ambush attack
D) Driver Rule
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Close in Security
B) Novice Criminal
C) Ambush attack
D) Moving Attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Ambush attack
D) Moving Attack
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Close in Security
B) Ambush attack
C) Advance Security
D) Mental Attitude
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Moving Attack
B) Modus Operandi
C) Ambush attack
D) Driver Rule
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Novice Criminal
C) Driver Rule
D) Mental attitude
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Mental Attitude
B) Novice Criminal
C) Advance Security
D) Module Operandi
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Modus Operandi
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Novice Criminals
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Novice Criminals
B) Advance Security
C) Modus Operandi
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Advance Security
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Mental attitude
D) Moving Attack
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Slang usage
B) Alertness
C) Pleasantness
D) Expressiveness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Use codes for every sentence
B) Speak continuously without pause
C) Wait for confirmation before speaking
D) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Creation of laws
B) Establishment if civilization
C) Hunting and gathering
D) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Avoid using any code's
B) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
C) Speak as fast as possible
D) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People still fail to understand one another
B) People are talking too much
C) Communication channels are too expensive
D) There are not enough languages
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Slang and unnatural language
B) All codes and acronyms
C) High-pitched voices
D) Long pauses
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Telephone
B) Messaging security
C) Walkie-talkies
D) Audio hailer
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Radio check
C) Receiving poorly
D) Repeat message
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Written language
B) Symbolic Art
C) Use of Signs
D) Oral language
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tone of a person's voice
B) A device for broadcasting messages
C) The tool used to write
D) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
B) Determine employee productivity
C) Review the state of physical security
D) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Designing building architecture
B) Boosting sales
C) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
D) Training new recruits
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Competitor activity
B) Supplier delays
C) Criminal activity within the organization
D) External cyber attacks
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A routine fire drill
B) A financial audit of company assets
C) A list of employee duties
D) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Verify the need
B) Develop alternatives
C) Determine how data will be gathered
D) Prepare Schedule
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It ensures cooperation and resources
B) It guarantees fast results
C) It allows skipping certain steps
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Staff scheduling
B) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
C) Legal compliance checks only
D) Background checks
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Emergency drill
B) Security briefing
C) Fire inspection
D) Security survey
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
B) To monitor employee performance
C) To hire new security staff
D) To evaluate marketing strategies
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Survey is done after inspection
B) They are unrelated processes
C) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
D) Only inspection is required for long term planning
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