ISMANA (Finals) CABS
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Sabotage
C) Espionage
D) Pilferage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Level of Education
B) Number of times they were caught
C) Intent and premeditation in theft
D) Only steals small, easily hidden items
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Self-Assumption
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Issue of weapons
C) Allow free access
D) Body Frisking
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Subversion is done by governments only
B) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
C) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
D) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Spreading
D) Risk Self Assumption
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
C) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
D) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Espionage
B) Vandalism
C) Subversion
D) Pilferage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A security measure in place to protect assets
B) A legal owner of an asset
C) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
D) An environmental condition causing damage
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The frequency of threat attempts
B) The visibility of the asset
C) The financial or survival of losing the assets
D) The number of people using the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Advance Security
B) Ambush attack
C) Mental attitude
D) Driver Rule
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Moving Attack
B) Close in Security
C) Ambush attack
D) Novice Criminal
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Moving Attack
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Ambush attack
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Mental Attitude
B) Ambush attack
C) Close in Security
D) Advance Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Modus Operandi
B) Moving Attack
C) Ambush attack
D) Driver Rule
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Novice Criminal
B) Driver Rule
C) Mental attitude
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Novice Criminal
C) Mental Attitude
D) Advance Security
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Novice Criminals
B) Modus Operandi
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Modus Operandi
B) Novice Criminals
C) Advance Security
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Advance Security
B) Mental attitude
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Moving Attack
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Slang usage
B) Expressiveness
C) Pleasantness
D) Alertness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
B) Speak continuously without pause
C) Use codes for every sentence
D) Wait for confirmation before speaking
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Creation of laws
B) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
C) Establishment if civilization
D) Hunting and gathering
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Speak as fast as possible
B) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
C) Avoid using any code's
D) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People still fail to understand one another
B) There are not enough languages
C) People are talking too much
D) Communication channels are too expensive
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) High-pitched voices
B) Slang and unnatural language
C) Long pauses
D) All codes and acronyms
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Audio hailer
B) Messaging security
C) Telephone
D) Walkie-talkies
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Receiving poorly
C) Location
D) Repeat message
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Symbolic Art
B) Use of Signs
C) Oral language
D) Written language
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A device for broadcasting messages
B) The tone of a person's voice
C) The tool used to write
D) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
B) Determine employee productivity
C) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
D) Review the state of physical security
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Training new recruits
B) Designing building architecture
C) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
D) Boosting sales
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Competitor activity
B) Supplier delays
C) Criminal activity within the organization
D) External cyber attacks
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
B) A list of employee duties
C) A routine fire drill
D) A financial audit of company assets
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Develop alternatives
C) Verify the need
D) Determine how data will be gathered
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It helps save money
B) It guarantees fast results
C) It ensures cooperation and resources
D) It allows skipping certain steps
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
B) Background checks
C) Staff scheduling
D) Legal compliance checks only
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security briefing
B) Fire inspection
C) Emergency drill
D) Security survey
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To monitor employee performance
B) To hire new security staff
C) To evaluate marketing strategies
D) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) They are unrelated processes
B) Survey is done after inspection
C) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
D) Only inspection is required for long term planning
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