ISMANA (Finals) CABS
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Sabotage
B) Subversion
C) Pilferage
D) Espionage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Number of times they were caught
B) Intent and premeditation in theft
C) Only steals small, easily hidden items
D) Level of Education
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Self-Assumption
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Reduction
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Issue of weapons
B) Body Frisking
C) Allow free access
D) Identification and Verification of purpose
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
B) Subversion is done by governments only
C) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
D) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Spreading
B) Risk Self Assumption
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Reduction
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
C) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
D) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Subversion
B) Pilferage
C) Espionage
D) Vandalism
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
B) A security measure in place to protect assets
C) A legal owner of an asset
D) An environmental condition causing damage
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The frequency of threat attempts
B) The number of people using the asset
C) The financial or survival of losing the assets
D) The visibility of the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Ambush attack
B) Advance Security
C) Mental attitude
D) Driver Rule
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Ambush attack
B) Moving Attack
C) Novice Criminal
D) Close in Security
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Moving Attack
C) Ambush attack
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Advance Security
B) Mental Attitude
C) Close in Security
D) Ambush attack
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Modus Operandi
B) Moving Attack
C) Driver Rule
D) Ambush attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Mental attitude
C) Novice Criminal
D) Driver Rule
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Novice Criminal
B) Advance Security
C) Mental Attitude
D) Module Operandi
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Modus Operandi
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Novice Criminals
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Novice Criminals
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Advance Security
D) Modus Operandi
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Advance Security
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Moving Attack
D) Mental attitude
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Expressiveness
B) Slang usage
C) Alertness
D) Pleasantness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Speak continuously without pause
B) Use codes for every sentence
C) Wait for confirmation before speaking
D) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Creation of laws
B) Hunting and gathering
C) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
D) Establishment if civilization
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Speak as fast as possible
B) Avoid using any code's
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People still fail to understand one another
B) Communication channels are too expensive
C) There are not enough languages
D) People are talking too much
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) High-pitched voices
B) Long pauses
C) Slang and unnatural language
D) All codes and acronyms
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Audio hailer
B) Messaging security
C) Walkie-talkies
D) Telephone
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Repeat message
C) Location
D) Radio check
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Use of Signs
B) Written language
C) Oral language
D) Symbolic Art
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tone of a person's voice
B) The tool used to write
C) A device for broadcasting messages
D) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
B) Determine employee productivity
C) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
D) Review the state of physical security
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Training new recruits
B) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
C) Designing building architecture
D) Boosting sales
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Criminal activity within the organization
B) Competitor activity
C) External cyber attacks
D) Supplier delays
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
B) A routine fire drill
C) A financial audit of company assets
D) A list of employee duties
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Determine how data will be gathered
C) Verify the need
D) Develop alternatives
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It helps save money
B) It allows skipping certain steps
C) It ensures cooperation and resources
D) It guarantees fast results
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Legal compliance checks only
B) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
C) Staff scheduling
D) Background checks
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security briefing
B) Security survey
C) Emergency drill
D) Fire inspection
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To hire new security staff
B) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
C) To monitor employee performance
D) To evaluate marketing strategies
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
B) They are unrelated processes
C) Survey is done after inspection
D) Only inspection is required for long term planning
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