ISMANA (Finals) CABS
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Sabotage
C) Pilferage
D) Espionage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Intent and premeditation in theft
B) Level of Education
C) Only steals small, easily hidden items
D) Number of times they were caught
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Avoidance
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Self-Assumption
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Allow free access
C) Body Frisking
D) Issue of weapons
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
B) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
C) Subversion is done by governments only
D) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Self Assumption
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Spreading
D) Risk Transfer
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
B) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
C) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
D) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Espionage
B) Vandalism
C) Subversion
D) Pilferage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) A security measure in place to protect assets
C) An environmental condition causing damage
D) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The frequency of threat attempts
B) The financial or survival of losing the assets
C) The number of people using the asset
D) The visibility of the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Mental attitude
B) Advance Security
C) Driver Rule
D) Ambush attack
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Moving Attack
B) Close in Security
C) Ambush attack
D) Novice Criminal
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Ambush attack
B) Moving Attack
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Ambush attack
B) Close in Security
C) Advance Security
D) Mental Attitude
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Ambush attack
B) Modus Operandi
C) Driver Rule
D) Moving Attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Novice Criminal
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Mental attitude
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Advance Security
B) Module Operandi
C) Novice Criminal
D) Mental Attitude
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Novice Criminals
D) Modus Operandi
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Modus Operandi
B) Novice Criminals
C) Advance Security
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Advance Security
C) Mental attitude
D) Moving Attack
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Alertness
B) Slang usage
C) Pleasantness
D) Expressiveness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
B) Wait for confirmation before speaking
C) Use codes for every sentence
D) Speak continuously without pause
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Hunting and gathering
B) Creation of laws
C) Establishment if civilization
D) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
B) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
C) Avoid using any code's
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People are talking too much
B) Communication channels are too expensive
C) There are not enough languages
D) People still fail to understand one another
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Slang and unnatural language
B) All codes and acronyms
C) Long pauses
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Walkie-talkies
B) Telephone
C) Messaging security
D) Audio hailer
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Radio check
C) Repeat message
D) Receiving poorly
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Written language
B) Oral language
C) Use of Signs
D) Symbolic Art
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
B) A device for broadcasting messages
C) The tool used to write
D) The tone of a person's voice
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
B) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
C) Review the state of physical security
D) Determine employee productivity
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Designing building architecture
B) Training new recruits
C) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
D) Boosting sales
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) External cyber attacks
B) Competitor activity
C) Criminal activity within the organization
D) Supplier delays
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A financial audit of company assets
B) A list of employee duties
C) A routine fire drill
D) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Develop alternatives
C) Determine how data will be gathered
D) Verify the need
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It helps save money
B) It allows skipping certain steps
C) It ensures cooperation and resources
D) It guarantees fast results
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Background checks
B) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
C) Staff scheduling
D) Legal compliance checks only
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security briefing
B) Emergency drill
C) Fire inspection
D) Security survey
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To evaluate marketing strategies
B) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
C) To hire new security staff
D) To monitor employee performance
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Survey is done after inspection
B) They are unrelated processes
C) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
D) Only inspection is required for long term planning
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