ISMANA (Finals) CABS - Quiz
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Pilferage
B) Subversion
C) Sabotage
D) Espionage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Intent and premeditation in theft
B) Level of Education
C) Number of times they were caught
D) Only steals small, easily hidden items
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Self-Assumption
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Transfer
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Issue of weapons
C) Body Frisking
D) Allow free access
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
B) Subversion is done by governments only
C) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
D) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
  • 6. A company decides to decentralize it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Spreading
C) Risk Self Assumption
D) Risk Reduction
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
C) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
D) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Subversion
B) Pilferage
C) Vandalism
D) Espionage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) A security measure in place to protect assets
C) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
D) An environmental condition causing damage
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The frequency of threat attempts
B) The number of people using the asset
C) The visibility of the asset
D) The financial or survival of losing the assets
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Mental attitude
B) Ambush attack
C) Advance Security
D) Driver Rule
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Close in Security
B) Moving Attack
C) Novice Criminal
D) Ambush attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Ambush attack
B) Moving Attack
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 14. Individuals tasked with directly accompanying and protect
A) Mental Attitude
B) Advance Security
C) Close in Security
D) Ambush attack
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Ambush attack
B) Moving Attack
C) Modus Operandi
D) Driver Rule
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Novice Criminal
C) Driver Rule
D) Mental attitude
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Advance Security
C) Novice Criminal
D) Mental Attitude
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Modus Operandi
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Novice Criminals
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Novice Criminals
C) Modus Operandi
D) Advance Security
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Moving Attack
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Advance Security
D) Mental attitude
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Expressiveness
B) Alertness
C) Slang usage
D) Pleasantness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Use codes for every sentence
B) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
C) Speak continuously without pause
D) Wait for confirmation before speaking
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Hunting and gathering
B) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
C) Creation of laws
D) Establishment if civilization
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
B) Avoid using any code's
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People still fail to understand one another
B) People are talking too much
C) There are not enough languages
D) Communication channels are too expensive
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Long pauses
B) All codes and acronyms
C) Slang and unnatural language
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Telephone
B) Audio hailer
C) Walkie-talkies
D) Messaging security
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Receiving poorly
C) Repeat message
D) Radio check
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Written language
B) Symbolic Art
C) Oral language
D) Use of Signs
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tone of a person's voice
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) The tool used to write
D) A device for broadcasting messages
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Review the state of physical security
B) Determine employee productivity
C) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
D) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Boosting sales
B) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
C) Training new recruits
D) Designing building architecture
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) External cyber attacks
B) Competitor activity
C) Supplier delays
D) Criminal activity within the organization
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
B) A list of employee duties
C) A routine fire drill
D) A financial audit of company assets
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Determine how data will be gathered
B) Prepare Schedule
C) Develop alternatives
D) Verify the need
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It guarantees fast results
B) It ensures cooperation and resources
C) It allows skipping certain steps
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Legal compliance checks only
B) Staff scheduling
C) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
D) Background checks
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security briefing
B) Fire inspection
C) Emergency drill
D) Security survey
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
B) To hire new security staff
C) To monitor employee performance
D) To evaluate marketing strategies
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Only inspection is required for long term planning
B) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
C) They are unrelated processes
D) Survey is done after inspection
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