Introduction to Philippines criminal system
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) In flagrante delicto rule
B) Probable cause rule
C) In flagrante delicto rule
D) Citizen’s arrest rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right to travel
C) Right to due process
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) File a case with the Ombudsman
B) Appeal to the DOJ
C) Seek mandamus from RTC
D) File a new complaint
E) Appeal to the DOJ
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Right to counsel
B) Right to presumption of innocence
C) Plea bargaining
D) Right to confrontation
E) Plea bargaining
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Pre-trial agreement
B) Plea bargaining
C) Plea bargaining
D) Plea in abeyance
E) Conditional pardon
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Doctrine of finality
B) Requirement of promulgation
C) Requisite of written judgment
D) Rule on double jeopardy
E) Requisite of written judgment
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Commutation
B) Pardon
C) Probation
D) Correct Answer: C
E) Parole
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Retribution
C) Rehabilitation
D) Isolation
E) Punishment
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Community policing
B) Social control
C) Restorative justice
D) Community policing
E) Citizen’s initiative
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Reintegration
C) Reconciliation
D) Reformation
E) Reintegration
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) In flagrante delicto arrest
B) Arbitrary arrest
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
E) Hot pursuit arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right to counsel
C) Due process
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Invalid; no warrant
B) Valid under plain view doctrine
C) Valid if with barangay clearance
D) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
E) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Admissible if signed
B) Needs corroboration only
C) Inadmissible in evidence
D) Admissible if voluntary
E) Inadmissible in evidence
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Discretionary authority
B) Professional integrity
C) Command responsibility
D) Professional integrity
E) Chain of custody
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Preventive detention
B) Warrantless hot pursuit
C) Warrantless hot pursuit
D) Illegal arrest
E) Citizen’s arrest
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
B) Ignore; not in warrant
C) Secure new warrant
D) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
E) Report but leave items
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) Physical injuries
B) Arbitrary detention
C) Violation of RA 9745
D) . Grave coercion
E) Violation of RA 9745
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
B) Evidence still valid
C) Officer disciplined only
D) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
E) Drugs returned to PDEA
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Lawful arrest procedure
B) Abuse of authority
C) Abuse of authority
D) Justified self-defense
E) Instinctive reaction
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Valid; fruits of crime
B) Admissible after consent
C) Valid if authenticated
D) Inadmissible; illegal search
E) Inadmissible; illegal search
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Valid if crime serious
B) Simple irregularity
C) Grounds for demotion only
D) Arrest void
E) Arrest void
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
B) Continue filing against original suspect
C) Suppress new evidence
D) Amend complaint accordingly
E) Amend complaint accordingly
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Community policing
B) Community policing
C) Peace negotiation
D) Private security
E) Civil defense
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Case dismissed
B) Conviction for homicide still valid
C) Conviction for homicide still valid
D) Accused acquitted
E) Case remanded to DOJ
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Professional secrecy
B) Professional secrecy
C) Due process
D) Sub judice rule
E) Res judicata
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Suspension of arraignment
B) Dismissal outright
C) Court orders reinvestigation
D) Waiver of objection
E) Suspension of arraignment
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Professional secrecy
B) Professional secrecy
C) Res judicata
D) Sub judice rule
E) Due process
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Prosecutor must file case anyway
B) Require explanation from police
C) Refer to higher DOJ authority
D) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
E) Require explanation from police
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) mAllow reinvestigation
B) Endorse to Ombudsman
C) Deny for being repetitive
D) File case immediately
E) Allow reinvestigation
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) Move for inhibition
B) File administrative case
C) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
D) Ignore unless proven
E) Move for inhibition
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Strong suspicion based on evidence
B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Mere hunch of crime
D) Absolute proof of guilt
E) Strong suspicion based on evidence
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Return to police and disregard
B) Use it if it proves guilt
C) Keep it confidential
D) Return to police and disregard
E) File case based on it
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) None; automatic right
B) Prosecutor approval
C) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
D) Verbal consent only
E) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Rule on multiplicity
B) Double jeopardy
C) Res judicata
D) Forum shopping
E) Rule on multiplicity
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Police approval
B) Automatic effect
C) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
D) Court’s approval
E) Court’s approval
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Ignore since unrelated
B) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
C) Request police correction
D) File case still
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Send to court for trial
B) File immediately for delay
C) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
D) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
E) Automatically dismiss
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Bribery under RPC
B) Bribery under RPC
C) Grave misconduct
D) Malfeasance
E) Dereliction of duty
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Prosecution’s ethical standard
B) Judicial courtesy
C) Procedural regularity
D) Burden of proof
E) Prosecution’s ethical standard
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
B) That the police concur
C) That the victim is absent
D) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
E) That the prosecution agrees
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
B) Valid judicial discretion
C) Evidence tampering
D) Valid judicial discretion
E) Improper intervention
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Allowed since the court erred
B) Elevated to DOJ
C) Remanded for reinvestigation
D) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
E) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Effective if promulgated
B) Void for lack of basis
C) Valid if signed
D) Final after notice
E) Void for lack of basis
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Issue bench warrant for arrest
B) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
C) Dismiss case for delay
D) Acquit for non-appearance
E) Proceed to trial
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Dismiss case
B) Order reinvestigation
C) Acquittal
D) Convict for homicide
E) Convict for homicide
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Suspend trial
B) Exclude confession from evidence
C) Admit confession if corroborated
D) Exclude confession from evidence
E) Ignore since confession signed
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Grave misconduct or bias
B) Judicial transparency
C) Sub judice exception
D) Exercise of discretion
E) Grave misconduct or bias
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Refer to prosecutor
B) Ignore unless appealed
C) Modify judgment to include it
D) Nothing; penalty already imposed
E) Modify judgment to include it
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Suspended
B) Discretionary
C) Void
D) Valid
E) Valid
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial impartiality
B) Judicial restraint
C) Judicial discipline only
D) Administrative rules
E) Judicial impartiality
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Converted to probation
B) Automatically dismissed
C) Continues
D) Automatically dismissed
E) Deferred until recapture
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Reopen preliminary investigation
B) Allow if relevant
C) Exclude it from consideration
D) Defer ruling
E) Exclude it from consideration
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
B) Refer to DOJ
C) Deny automatically
D) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
E) Require police reinvestigation
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Judicial discretion
B) Administrative negligence
C) Civil liability
D) Denial of speedy disposition
E) Denial of speedy disposition
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) No, double jeopardy always applies
B) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
C) Only if accused consents
D) Only in civil cases
E) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
B) Allowed under RA 9165
C) Valid if voluntary
D) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
E) Valid if court-approved
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Automatically final
B) Discretionary
C) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
D) Valid
E) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Deny for lack of factual basis
B) Suspend proceedings
C) Automatically inhibit
D) Forward to Supreme Court
E) Deny for lack of factual basis
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Administrative oversight
B) Bribery or corruption
C) Ethical irregularity only
D) Courtesy
E) Bribery or corruption
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Probation
B) Parole
C) Commutation
D) Parole
E) Conditional pardon
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Deterrence
C) Rehabilitation
D) Incapacitation
E) Retribution
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) Habitual delinquents
B) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
C) Escapees
D) Persons sentenced to death
E) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Terminate case
B) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
C) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
D) Extend parole
E) Grant commutation
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Probation
B) Commutation of sentence
C) Commutation of sentence
D) Parole
E) Amnesty
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Reception and diagnostic process
B) Custodial supervision
C) Rehabilitation planning
D) Reception and diagnostic process
E) Penological screening
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Restorative rehabilitation
B) Punitive discipline
C) Retributive justice
D) Restorative rehabilitation
E) Deterrence
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) PNP Custodial Center
B) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
C) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
D) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
E) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Issue bench warrant
B) Recommend revocation of probation
C) Recommend revocation of probation
D) Ignore for minor lapse
E) Extend reporting period
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
B) Impose harsher penalties
C) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
D) Replace probation
E) Shorten imprisonment for all
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) Board of Pardons and Parole
B) DOJ
C) BuCor
D) Board of Pardons and Parole
E) BJMP
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Dismissed and civil rights restored
B) Refiled for sentencing
C) Converted to parole
D) Dismissed and civil rights restored
E) Suspended for life
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Restorative justice
B) Juvenile protection
C) Restorative justice
D) Correctional segregation
E) Equal punishment
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
B) Grant probation automatically
C) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
D) Refer to DOJ
E) Deny; sentence too short
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Benefit of parole
B) Commutation
C) Benefit of parole
D) Credit of time served
E) Clemency
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Institutional employment program
B) Voluntary work detail
C) Institutional employment program
D) Custodial punishment
E) Administrative segregation
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10592
B) RA 10575
C) RA 10592
D) RA 6975
E) RA 9165
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Reduction of penalty
B) Total extinguishment of offense
C) Total extinguishment of offense
D) Conditional pardon
E) Temporary release
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Overcrowded facilities
B) Lack of parole supervision
C) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
D) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
E) Limited recreation
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Recommend to the court for approval
B) Deny automatically
C) Request police clearance
D) Recommend to the court for approval
E) Approve immediately
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Restitution
B) Reintegration
C) Rehabilitation
D) Correction
E) Reintegration
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Participatory security
B) Citizen’s watch
C) Community policing
D) Community policing
E) Social control
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Impose imprisonment
B) Settle disputes amicably
C) Prosecute offenders
D) Collect barangay taxes
E) Settle disputes amicably
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Avoiding accountability
B) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
C) Retribution
D) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
E) Punishment of the offender
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Community service
B) Social reintegration
C) Restorative leadership
D) Social reintegration
E) Civil participation
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Civil defense
B) Volunteer citizen participation
C) Auxiliary law enforcement
D) Auxiliary law enforcement
E) Informal policing
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Prosecution of cases
B) Crime prevention and reintegration
C) Crime detection
D) Crime prevention and reintegration
E) Imposing penalties
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Preventive detention
B) Death penalty
C) Life imprisonment
D) Victim-offender mediation
E) Victim-offender mediation
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Effective policing
B) Weak community pillar
C) Strengthened judiciary
D) Weak community pillar
E) Increased clearance rate
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Community
B) Prosecution
C) Court
D) Corrections
E) Community
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Restorative justice
B) Restorative justice
C) Crime suppression
D) Social defense
E) Conflict resolution
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Political campaigns
B) Transparency and accountability
C) Transparency and accountability
D) Increased penalties
E) Frequent arrests
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Length of sentence
B) Strict surveillance
C) Community acceptance and support
D) Community acceptance and support
E) Prison budget
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Preventive justice
B) Social defense theory
C) Rehabilitation
D) Preventive justice
E) Deterrence principle
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Ignoring crimes
B) Refusing to testify
C) Joining barangay peace councils
D) Withholding evidence
E) Joining barangay peace councils
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Differential association
B) Labeling theory
C) Labeling theory
D) Control theory
E) Social disorganization
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Community policing
B) Social development approach
C) Inter-agency coordination
D) Restorative intervention
E) Restorative intervention
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Social control measure
B) Arbitrary detention
C) Social control measure
D) Legal punishment
E) Restorative sanction
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Isolating criminals permanently
B) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
C) Relying solely on police power
D) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
E) Increasing penalties for all crimes
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Civil dependency
B) Partnership in justice
C) Political influence
D) Mutual distrust
E) Partnership in justice
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