Introduction to Philippines criminal system
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) In flagrante delicto rule
B) In flagrante delicto rule
C) Citizen’s arrest rule
D) Probable cause rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right to travel
C) Right to due process
D) Right to privacy
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) Seek mandamus from RTC
B) File a new complaint
C) Appeal to the DOJ
D) File a case with the Ombudsman
E) Appeal to the DOJ
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Right to presumption of innocence
C) Plea bargaining
D) Right to confrontation
E) Right to counsel
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Plea in abeyance
C) Pre-trial agreement
D) Conditional pardon
E) Plea bargaining
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Requisite of written judgment
B) Requisite of written judgment
C) Rule on double jeopardy
D) Doctrine of finality
E) Requirement of promulgation
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Pardon
B) Probation
C) Commutation
D) Correct Answer: C
E) Parole
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Retribution
B) Rehabilitation
C) Rehabilitation
D) Isolation
E) Punishment
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Citizen’s initiative
B) Restorative justice
C) Social control
D) Community policing
E) Community policing
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Reintegration
B) Reconciliation
C) Rehabilitation
D) Reformation
E) Reintegration
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) In flagrante delicto arrest
B) Hot pursuit arrest
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
E) Arbitrary arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right to privacy
C) Due process
D) Right to counsel
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
B) Valid if with barangay clearance
C) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
D) Valid under plain view doctrine
E) Invalid; no warrant
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Admissible if voluntary
B) Admissible if signed
C) Needs corroboration only
D) Inadmissible in evidence
E) Inadmissible in evidence
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Command responsibility
B) Professional integrity
C) Discretionary authority
D) Professional integrity
E) Chain of custody
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Citizen’s arrest
B) Preventive detention
C) Warrantless hot pursuit
D) Warrantless hot pursuit
E) Illegal arrest
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Secure new warrant
B) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
C) Report but leave items
D) Ignore; not in warrant
E) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) Physical injuries
B) Arbitrary detention
C) Violation of RA 9745
D) . Grave coercion
E) Violation of RA 9745
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Officer disciplined only
B) Drugs returned to PDEA
C) Evidence still valid
D) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
E) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Abuse of authority
B) Instinctive reaction
C) Abuse of authority
D) Justified self-defense
E) Lawful arrest procedure
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Admissible after consent
B) Valid; fruits of crime
C) Inadmissible; illegal search
D) Valid if authenticated
E) Inadmissible; illegal search
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Simple irregularity
B) Grounds for demotion only
C) Valid if crime serious
D) Arrest void
E) Arrest void
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Continue filing against original suspect
B) Suppress new evidence
C) Amend complaint accordingly
D) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
E) Amend complaint accordingly
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Community policing
B) Private security
C) Peace negotiation
D) Community policing
E) Civil defense
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Accused acquitted
B) Case dismissed
C) Conviction for homicide still valid
D) Case remanded to DOJ
E) Conviction for homicide still valid
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Professional secrecy
B) Professional secrecy
C) Res judicata
D) Due process
E) Sub judice rule
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Court orders reinvestigation
B) Suspension of arraignment
C) Suspension of arraignment
D) Waiver of objection
E) Dismissal outright
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Professional secrecy
B) Due process
C) Sub judice rule
D) Res judicata
E) Professional secrecy
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Prosecutor must file case anyway
B) Refer to higher DOJ authority
C) Require explanation from police
D) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
E) Require explanation from police
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) Deny for being repetitive
B) Endorse to Ombudsman
C) mAllow reinvestigation
D) File case immediately
E) Allow reinvestigation
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) File administrative case
B) Move for inhibition
C) Move for inhibition
D) Ignore unless proven
E) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Mere hunch of crime
B) Strong suspicion based on evidence
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Strong suspicion based on evidence
E) Absolute proof of guilt
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Return to police and disregard
B) Use it if it proves guilt
C) File case based on it
D) Return to police and disregard
E) Keep it confidential
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) Prosecutor approval
B) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
C) Verbal consent only
D) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
E) None; automatic right
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Rule on multiplicity
B) Double jeopardy
C) Rule on multiplicity
D) Res judicata
E) Forum shopping
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Court’s approval
B) Court’s approval
C) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
D) Police approval
E) Automatic effect
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) File case still
B) Request police correction
C) Ignore since unrelated
D) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) File immediately for delay
B) Send to court for trial
C) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
D) Automatically dismiss
E) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Grave misconduct
B) Dereliction of duty
C) Bribery under RPC
D) Malfeasance
E) Bribery under RPC
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Procedural regularity
B) Prosecution’s ethical standard
C) Prosecution’s ethical standard
D) Burden of proof
E) Judicial courtesy
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
B) That the prosecution agrees
C) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
D) That the victim is absent
E) That the police concur
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Valid judicial discretion
B) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
C) Evidence tampering
D) Valid judicial discretion
E) Improper intervention
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
B) Elevated to DOJ
C) Remanded for reinvestigation
D) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
E) Allowed since the court erred
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Void for lack of basis
B) Effective if promulgated
C) Valid if signed
D) Final after notice
E) Void for lack of basis
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
B) Issue bench warrant for arrest
C) Proceed to trial
D) Acquit for non-appearance
E) Dismiss case for delay
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Convict for homicide
B) Acquittal
C) Dismiss case
D) Order reinvestigation
E) Convict for homicide
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Ignore since confession signed
B) Suspend trial
C) Exclude confession from evidence
D) Admit confession if corroborated
E) Exclude confession from evidence
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Grave misconduct or bias
B) Grave misconduct or bias
C) Judicial transparency
D) Sub judice exception
E) Exercise of discretion
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Modify judgment to include it
B) Nothing; penalty already imposed
C) Modify judgment to include it
D) Ignore unless appealed
E) Refer to prosecutor
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Discretionary
B) Void
C) Valid
D) Valid
E) Suspended
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial impartiality
B) Judicial impartiality
C) Administrative rules
D) Judicial restraint
E) Judicial discipline only
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Continues
B) Automatically dismissed
C) Converted to probation
D) Deferred until recapture
E) Automatically dismissed
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Exclude it from consideration
B) Exclude it from consideration
C) Reopen preliminary investigation
D) Allow if relevant
E) Defer ruling
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Refer to DOJ
B) Deny automatically
C) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
D) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
E) Require police reinvestigation
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Denial of speedy disposition
B) Civil liability
C) Judicial discretion
D) Administrative negligence
E) Denial of speedy disposition
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Only if accused consents
B) Only in civil cases
C) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
D) No, double jeopardy always applies
E) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
B) Valid if court-approved
C) Valid if voluntary
D) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
E) Allowed under RA 9165
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Automatically final
B) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
C) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
D) Valid
E) Discretionary
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Deny for lack of factual basis
B) Deny for lack of factual basis
C) Forward to Supreme Court
D) Automatically inhibit
E) Suspend proceedings
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Bribery or corruption
B) Administrative oversight
C) Bribery or corruption
D) Courtesy
E) Ethical irregularity only
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Parole
B) Parole
C) Probation
D) Commutation
E) Conditional pardon
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Retribution
C) Incapacitation
D) Deterrence
E) Rehabilitation
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
B) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
C) Persons sentenced to death
D) Escapees
E) Habitual delinquents
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
B) Grant commutation
C) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
D) Terminate case
E) Extend parole
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Probation
B) Commutation of sentence
C) Amnesty
D) Parole
E) Commutation of sentence
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Reception and diagnostic process
B) Rehabilitation planning
C) Reception and diagnostic process
D) Penological screening
E) Custodial supervision
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Punitive discipline
B) Restorative rehabilitation
C) Retributive justice
D) Deterrence
E) Restorative rehabilitation
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) PNP Custodial Center
B) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
C) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
D) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
E) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Recommend revocation of probation
B) Ignore for minor lapse
C) Issue bench warrant
D) Recommend revocation of probation
E) Extend reporting period
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
B) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
C) Replace probation
D) Impose harsher penalties
E) Shorten imprisonment for all
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) Board of Pardons and Parole
B) Board of Pardons and Parole
C) BuCor
D) DOJ
E) BJMP
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Dismissed and civil rights restored
B) Dismissed and civil rights restored
C) Refiled for sentencing
D) Suspended for life
E) Converted to parole
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Restorative justice
B) Correctional segregation
C) Restorative justice
D) Equal punishment
E) Juvenile protection
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Deny; sentence too short
B) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
C) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
D) Grant probation automatically
E) Refer to DOJ
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Credit of time served
B) Commutation
C) Clemency
D) Benefit of parole
E) Benefit of parole
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Institutional employment program
B) Administrative segregation
C) Custodial punishment
D) Institutional employment program
E) Voluntary work detail
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10575
B) RA 10592
C) RA 6975
D) RA 9165
E) RA 10592
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Total extinguishment of offense
B) Temporary release
C) Reduction of penalty
D) Conditional pardon
E) Total extinguishment of offense
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
B) Limited recreation
C) Overcrowded facilities
D) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
E) Lack of parole supervision
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Deny automatically
B) Recommend to the court for approval
C) Recommend to the court for approval
D) Approve immediately
E) Request police clearance
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Reintegration
C) Correction
D) Restitution
E) Reintegration
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Participatory security
B) Community policing
C) Community policing
D) Citizen’s watch
E) Social control
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Prosecute offenders
B) Settle disputes amicably
C) Impose imprisonment
D) Settle disputes amicably
E) Collect barangay taxes
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Punishment of the offender
B) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
C) Avoiding accountability
D) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
E) Retribution
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Social reintegration
B) Restorative leadership
C) Community service
D) Social reintegration
E) Civil participation
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Civil defense
B) Volunteer citizen participation
C) Informal policing
D) Auxiliary law enforcement
E) Auxiliary law enforcement
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Crime prevention and reintegration
B) Crime detection
C) Crime prevention and reintegration
D) Imposing penalties
E) Prosecution of cases
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Death penalty
B) Life imprisonment
C) Preventive detention
D) Victim-offender mediation
E) Victim-offender mediation
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Increased clearance rate
B) Effective policing
C) Weak community pillar
D) Strengthened judiciary
E) Weak community pillar
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Corrections
B) Community
C) Prosecution
D) Court
E) Community
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Conflict resolution
B) Crime suppression
C) Social defense
D) Restorative justice
E) Restorative justice
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Frequent arrests
B) Transparency and accountability
C) Transparency and accountability
D) Political campaigns
E) Increased penalties
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Community acceptance and support
B) Prison budget
C) Length of sentence
D) Community acceptance and support
E) Strict surveillance
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Deterrence principle
B) Preventive justice
C) Rehabilitation
D) Preventive justice
E) Social defense theory
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Joining barangay peace councils
B) Withholding evidence
C) Joining barangay peace councils
D) Ignoring crimes
E) Refusing to testify
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Social disorganization
B) Differential association
C) Labeling theory
D) Control theory
E) Labeling theory
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Community policing
B) Restorative intervention
C) Social development approach
D) Inter-agency coordination
E) Restorative intervention
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Restorative sanction
B) Arbitrary detention
C) Social control measure
D) Social control measure
E) Legal punishment
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Increasing penalties for all crimes
B) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
C) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
D) Relying solely on police power
E) Isolating criminals permanently
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Civil dependency
B) Political influence
C) Mutual distrust
D) Partnership in justice
E) Partnership in justice
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