Introduction to Philippines criminal system
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) In flagrante delicto rule
B) Probable cause rule
C) In flagrante delicto rule
D) Citizen’s arrest rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right to travel
C) Right against unreasonable search
D) Right to due process
E) Right to privacy
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) File a case with the Ombudsman
B) Seek mandamus from RTC
C) File a new complaint
D) Appeal to the DOJ
E) Appeal to the DOJ
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Right to confrontation
B) Plea bargaining
C) Right to counsel
D) Right to presumption of innocence
E) Plea bargaining
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Plea bargaining
C) Plea in abeyance
D) Conditional pardon
E) Pre-trial agreement
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Requisite of written judgment
B) Requirement of promulgation
C) Rule on double jeopardy
D) Doctrine of finality
E) Requisite of written judgment
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Probation
B) Commutation
C) Correct Answer: C
D) Pardon
E) Parole
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Retribution
B) Rehabilitation
C) Punishment
D) Isolation
E) Rehabilitation
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Community policing
B) Citizen’s initiative
C) Social control
D) Community policing
E) Restorative justice
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Reintegration
B) Reformation
C) Reintegration
D) Reconciliation
E) Rehabilitation
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) Hot pursuit arrest
B) In flagrante delicto arrest
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) Arbitrary arrest
E) In flagrante delicto arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to privacy
D) Due process
E) Right to counsel
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Invalid; no warrant
B) Valid under plain view doctrine
C) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
D) Valid if with barangay clearance
E) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Admissible if voluntary
B) Inadmissible in evidence
C) Needs corroboration only
D) Inadmissible in evidence
E) Admissible if signed
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Chain of custody
B) Professional integrity
C) Command responsibility
D) Professional integrity
E) Discretionary authority
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Warrantless hot pursuit
B) Preventive detention
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) Illegal arrest
E) Warrantless hot pursuit
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
B) Report but leave items
C) Secure new warrant
D) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
E) Ignore; not in warrant
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) Physical injuries
B) . Grave coercion
C) Arbitrary detention
D) Violation of RA 9745
E) Violation of RA 9745
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
B) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
C) Drugs returned to PDEA
D) Officer disciplined only
E) Evidence still valid
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Abuse of authority
B) Abuse of authority
C) Lawful arrest procedure
D) Instinctive reaction
E) Justified self-defense
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Inadmissible; illegal search
B) Valid if authenticated
C) Admissible after consent
D) Inadmissible; illegal search
E) Valid; fruits of crime
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Simple irregularity
B) Arrest void
C) Arrest void
D) Valid if crime serious
E) Grounds for demotion only
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Amend complaint accordingly
B) Suppress new evidence
C) Continue filing against original suspect
D) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
E) Amend complaint accordingly
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Community policing
B) Community policing
C) Civil defense
D) Private security
E) Peace negotiation
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Case dismissed
B) Conviction for homicide still valid
C) Accused acquitted
D) Case remanded to DOJ
E) Conviction for homicide still valid
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Due process
B) Professional secrecy
C) Professional secrecy
D) Res judicata
E) Sub judice rule
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Court orders reinvestigation
B) Suspension of arraignment
C) Dismissal outright
D) Waiver of objection
E) Suspension of arraignment
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Sub judice rule
B) Res judicata
C) Professional secrecy
D) Professional secrecy
E) Due process
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Require explanation from police
B) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
C) Prosecutor must file case anyway
D) Require explanation from police
E) Refer to higher DOJ authority
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) File case immediately
B) mAllow reinvestigation
C) Endorse to Ombudsman
D) Deny for being repetitive
E) Allow reinvestigation
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) Move for inhibition
B) Move for inhibition
C) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
D) Ignore unless proven
E) File administrative case
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Mere hunch of crime
B) Absolute proof of guilt
C) Strong suspicion based on evidence
D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
E) Strong suspicion based on evidence
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Return to police and disregard
B) Use it if it proves guilt
C) Return to police and disregard
D) Keep it confidential
E) File case based on it
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) Prosecutor approval
B) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
C) None; automatic right
D) Verbal consent only
E) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Forum shopping
B) Rule on multiplicity
C) Res judicata
D) Double jeopardy
E) Rule on multiplicity
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Court’s approval
B) Police approval
C) Court’s approval
D) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
E) Automatic effect
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Request police correction
B) Ignore since unrelated
C) File case still
D) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Send to court for trial
B) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
C) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
D) Automatically dismiss
E) File immediately for delay
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Malfeasance
B) Grave misconduct
C) Bribery under RPC
D) Bribery under RPC
E) Dereliction of duty
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Prosecution’s ethical standard
B) Burden of proof
C) Judicial courtesy
D) Prosecution’s ethical standard
E) Procedural regularity
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
B) That the police concur
C) That the prosecution agrees
D) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
E) That the victim is absent
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Valid judicial discretion
B) Valid judicial discretion
C) Improper intervention
D) Evidence tampering
E) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Elevated to DOJ
B) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
C) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
D) Allowed since the court erred
E) Remanded for reinvestigation
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Final after notice
B) Void for lack of basis
C) Effective if promulgated
D) Void for lack of basis
E) Valid if signed
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Issue bench warrant for arrest
B) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
C) Dismiss case for delay
D) Acquit for non-appearance
E) Proceed to trial
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Acquittal
B) Dismiss case
C) Convict for homicide
D) Convict for homicide
E) Order reinvestigation
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Admit confession if corroborated
B) Suspend trial
C) Exclude confession from evidence
D) Ignore since confession signed
E) Exclude confession from evidence
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Grave misconduct or bias
B) Exercise of discretion
C) Sub judice exception
D) Grave misconduct or bias
E) Judicial transparency
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Refer to prosecutor
B) Modify judgment to include it
C) Nothing; penalty already imposed
D) Modify judgment to include it
E) Ignore unless appealed
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Suspended
B) Valid
C) Valid
D) Discretionary
E) Void
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial impartiality
B) Judicial impartiality
C) Administrative rules
D) Judicial restraint
E) Judicial discipline only
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Deferred until recapture
B) Automatically dismissed
C) Converted to probation
D) Automatically dismissed
E) Continues
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Reopen preliminary investigation
B) Exclude it from consideration
C) Allow if relevant
D) Defer ruling
E) Exclude it from consideration
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Deny automatically
B) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
C) Require police reinvestigation
D) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
E) Refer to DOJ
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Denial of speedy disposition
B) Judicial discretion
C) Administrative negligence
D) Denial of speedy disposition
E) Civil liability
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
B) Only if accused consents
C) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
D) Only in civil cases
E) No, double jeopardy always applies
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Valid if voluntary
B) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
C) Valid if court-approved
D) Allowed under RA 9165
E) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Discretionary
B) Automatically final
C) Valid
D) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
E) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Suspend proceedings
B) Automatically inhibit
C) Forward to Supreme Court
D) Deny for lack of factual basis
E) Deny for lack of factual basis
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Bribery or corruption
B) Ethical irregularity only
C) Courtesy
D) Administrative oversight
E) Bribery or corruption
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Probation
B) Commutation
C) Parole
D) Parole
E) Conditional pardon
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Incapacitation
B) Deterrence
C) Rehabilitation
D) Retribution
E) Rehabilitation
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) Habitual delinquents
B) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
C) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
D) Persons sentenced to death
E) Escapees
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Extend parole
B) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
C) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
D) Grant commutation
E) Terminate case
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Commutation of sentence
B) Parole
C) Amnesty
D) Probation
E) Commutation of sentence
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Custodial supervision
B) Penological screening
C) Reception and diagnostic process
D) Rehabilitation planning
E) Reception and diagnostic process
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Punitive discipline
B) Retributive justice
C) Restorative rehabilitation
D) Deterrence
E) Restorative rehabilitation
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
B) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
C) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
D) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
E) PNP Custodial Center
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Recommend revocation of probation
B) Issue bench warrant
C) Extend reporting period
D) Ignore for minor lapse
E) Recommend revocation of probation
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Shorten imprisonment for all
B) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
C) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
D) Impose harsher penalties
E) Replace probation
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) Board of Pardons and Parole
B) BuCor
C) BJMP
D) DOJ
E) Board of Pardons and Parole
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Suspended for life
B) Dismissed and civil rights restored
C) Converted to parole
D) Refiled for sentencing
E) Dismissed and civil rights restored
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Correctional segregation
B) Restorative justice
C) Equal punishment
D) Juvenile protection
E) Restorative justice
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Grant probation automatically
B) Deny; sentence too short
C) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
D) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
E) Refer to DOJ
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Benefit of parole
B) Commutation
C) Benefit of parole
D) Clemency
E) Credit of time served
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Administrative segregation
B) Institutional employment program
C) Institutional employment program
D) Voluntary work detail
E) Custodial punishment
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10592
B) RA 10575
C) RA 9165
D) RA 6975
E) RA 10592
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Temporary release
B) Total extinguishment of offense
C) Total extinguishment of offense
D) Conditional pardon
E) Reduction of penalty
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Overcrowded facilities
B) Limited recreation
C) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
D) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
E) Lack of parole supervision
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Request police clearance
B) Deny automatically
C) Recommend to the court for approval
D) Recommend to the court for approval
E) Approve immediately
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Reintegration
C) Reintegration
D) Correction
E) Restitution
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Social control
B) Community policing
C) Citizen’s watch
D) Community policing
E) Participatory security
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Collect barangay taxes
B) Settle disputes amicably
C) Settle disputes amicably
D) Impose imprisonment
E) Prosecute offenders
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Retribution
B) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
C) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
D) Punishment of the offender
E) Avoiding accountability
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Social reintegration
B) Restorative leadership
C) Community service
D) Civil participation
E) Social reintegration
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Auxiliary law enforcement
B) Auxiliary law enforcement
C) Volunteer citizen participation
D) Informal policing
E) Civil defense
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Imposing penalties
B) Crime prevention and reintegration
C) Crime prevention and reintegration
D) Prosecution of cases
E) Crime detection
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Death penalty
B) Victim-offender mediation
C) Preventive detention
D) Life imprisonment
E) Victim-offender mediation
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Weak community pillar
B) Effective policing
C) Strengthened judiciary
D) Weak community pillar
E) Increased clearance rate
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Community
B) Corrections
C) Prosecution
D) Community
E) Court
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Conflict resolution
B) Crime suppression
C) Restorative justice
D) Restorative justice
E) Social defense
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Political campaigns
B) Transparency and accountability
C) Transparency and accountability
D) Increased penalties
E) Frequent arrests
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Community acceptance and support
B) Community acceptance and support
C) Strict surveillance
D) Prison budget
E) Length of sentence
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Social defense theory
B) Preventive justice
C) Rehabilitation
D) Preventive justice
E) Deterrence principle
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Joining barangay peace councils
B) Refusing to testify
C) Joining barangay peace councils
D) Withholding evidence
E) Ignoring crimes
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Social disorganization
B) Differential association
C) Labeling theory
D) Control theory
E) Labeling theory
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Community policing
B) Social development approach
C) Restorative intervention
D) Inter-agency coordination
E) Restorative intervention
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Social control measure
B) Legal punishment
C) Restorative sanction
D) Arbitrary detention
E) Social control measure
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Relying solely on police power
B) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
C) Isolating criminals permanently
D) Increasing penalties for all crimes
E) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Partnership in justice
B) Civil dependency
C) Mutual distrust
D) Political influence
E) Partnership in justice
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