Introduction to Philippines criminal system
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) Citizen’s arrest rule
B) In flagrante delicto rule
C) In flagrante delicto rule
D) Probable cause rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to due process
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right to travel
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) Seek mandamus from RTC
B) Appeal to the DOJ
C) Appeal to the DOJ
D) File a case with the Ombudsman
E) File a new complaint
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Right to counsel
B) Plea bargaining
C) Plea bargaining
D) Right to presumption of innocence
E) Right to confrontation
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Plea bargaining
C) Pre-trial agreement
D) Conditional pardon
E) Plea in abeyance
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Requisite of written judgment
B) Requirement of promulgation
C) Doctrine of finality
D) Requisite of written judgment
E) Rule on double jeopardy
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Commutation
B) Parole
C) Pardon
D) Correct Answer: C
E) Probation
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Retribution
B) Isolation
C) Rehabilitation
D) Rehabilitation
E) Punishment
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Citizen’s initiative
B) Community policing
C) Community policing
D) Social control
E) Restorative justice
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Reformation
B) Rehabilitation
C) Reconciliation
D) Reintegration
E) Reintegration
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) Hot pursuit arrest
B) Citizen’s arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) Arbitrary arrest
E) In flagrante delicto arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Due process
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to privacy
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right to counsel
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Valid under plain view doctrine
B) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
C) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
D) Valid if with barangay clearance
E) Invalid; no warrant
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Needs corroboration only
B) Admissible if signed
C) Admissible if voluntary
D) Inadmissible in evidence
E) Inadmissible in evidence
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Chain of custody
B) Command responsibility
C) Professional integrity
D) Discretionary authority
E) Professional integrity
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Illegal arrest
B) Preventive detention
C) Warrantless hot pursuit
D) Citizen’s arrest
E) Warrantless hot pursuit
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Secure new warrant
B) Ignore; not in warrant
C) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
D) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
E) Report but leave items
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) . Grave coercion
B) Arbitrary detention
C) Violation of RA 9745
D) Physical injuries
E) Violation of RA 9745
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Drugs returned to PDEA
B) Officer disciplined only
C) Evidence still valid
D) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
E) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Abuse of authority
B) Abuse of authority
C) Lawful arrest procedure
D) Instinctive reaction
E) Justified self-defense
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Inadmissible; illegal search
B) Valid if authenticated
C) Inadmissible; illegal search
D) Admissible after consent
E) Valid; fruits of crime
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Simple irregularity
B) Arrest void
C) Valid if crime serious
D) Arrest void
E) Grounds for demotion only
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Suppress new evidence
B) Amend complaint accordingly
C) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
D) Amend complaint accordingly
E) Continue filing against original suspect
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Community policing
B) Private security
C) Community policing
D) Civil defense
E) Peace negotiation
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Conviction for homicide still valid
B) Case remanded to DOJ
C) Conviction for homicide still valid
D) Case dismissed
E) Accused acquitted
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Due process
B) Professional secrecy
C) Sub judice rule
D) Res judicata
E) Professional secrecy
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Dismissal outright
B) Court orders reinvestigation
C) Waiver of objection
D) Suspension of arraignment
E) Suspension of arraignment
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Professional secrecy
B) Res judicata
C) Professional secrecy
D) Due process
E) Sub judice rule
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Prosecutor must file case anyway
B) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
C) Require explanation from police
D) Refer to higher DOJ authority
E) Require explanation from police
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) File case immediately
B) mAllow reinvestigation
C) Allow reinvestigation
D) Endorse to Ombudsman
E) Deny for being repetitive
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) Move for inhibition
B) Move for inhibition
C) Ignore unless proven
D) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
E) File administrative case
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Mere hunch of crime
B) Strong suspicion based on evidence
C) Strong suspicion based on evidence
D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
E) Absolute proof of guilt
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Keep it confidential
B) Return to police and disregard
C) Return to police and disregard
D) Use it if it proves guilt
E) File case based on it
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) Verbal consent only
B) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
C) None; automatic right
D) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
E) Prosecutor approval
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Double jeopardy
B) Rule on multiplicity
C) Forum shopping
D) Res judicata
E) Rule on multiplicity
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
B) Automatic effect
C) Court’s approval
D) Court’s approval
E) Police approval
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Request police correction
B) Ignore since unrelated
C) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
D) File case still
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
B) Automatically dismiss
C) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
D) Send to court for trial
E) File immediately for delay
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Malfeasance
B) Bribery under RPC
C) Grave misconduct
D) Dereliction of duty
E) Bribery under RPC
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Judicial courtesy
B) Burden of proof
C) Prosecution’s ethical standard
D) Procedural regularity
E) Prosecution’s ethical standard
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the victim is absent
B) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
C) That the prosecution agrees
D) That the police concur
E) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Valid judicial discretion
B) Valid judicial discretion
C) Improper intervention
D) Evidence tampering
E) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
B) Allowed since the court erred
C) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
D) Elevated to DOJ
E) Remanded for reinvestigation
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Void for lack of basis
B) Effective if promulgated
C) Final after notice
D) Valid if signed
E) Void for lack of basis
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Proceed to trial
B) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
C) Issue bench warrant for arrest
D) Acquit for non-appearance
E) Dismiss case for delay
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Acquittal
B) Convict for homicide
C) Order reinvestigation
D) Dismiss case
E) Convict for homicide
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Admit confession if corroborated
B) Suspend trial
C) Ignore since confession signed
D) Exclude confession from evidence
E) Exclude confession from evidence
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Sub judice exception
B) Judicial transparency
C) Grave misconduct or bias
D) Exercise of discretion
E) Grave misconduct or bias
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Nothing; penalty already imposed
B) Ignore unless appealed
C) Refer to prosecutor
D) Modify judgment to include it
E) Modify judgment to include it
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Valid
B) Valid
C) Suspended
D) Discretionary
E) Void
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial restraint
B) Judicial impartiality
C) Judicial impartiality
D) Judicial discipline only
E) Administrative rules
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Continues
B) Converted to probation
C) Automatically dismissed
D) Deferred until recapture
E) Automatically dismissed
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Exclude it from consideration
B) Allow if relevant
C) Defer ruling
D) Reopen preliminary investigation
E) Exclude it from consideration
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Refer to DOJ
B) Require police reinvestigation
C) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
D) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
E) Deny automatically
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Administrative negligence
B) Judicial discretion
C) Denial of speedy disposition
D) Civil liability
E) Denial of speedy disposition
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
B) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
C) Only in civil cases
D) No, double jeopardy always applies
E) Only if accused consents
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Valid if voluntary
B) Allowed under RA 9165
C) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
D) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
E) Valid if court-approved
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Automatically final
B) Discretionary
C) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
D) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
E) Valid
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Deny for lack of factual basis
B) Automatically inhibit
C) Forward to Supreme Court
D) Suspend proceedings
E) Deny for lack of factual basis
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Administrative oversight
B) Courtesy
C) Bribery or corruption
D) Bribery or corruption
E) Ethical irregularity only
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Conditional pardon
B) Parole
C) Probation
D) Commutation
E) Parole
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Retribution
C) Deterrence
D) Rehabilitation
E) Incapacitation
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) Habitual delinquents
B) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
C) Escapees
D) Persons sentenced to death
E) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
B) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
C) Grant commutation
D) Terminate case
E) Extend parole
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Probation
B) Amnesty
C) Parole
D) Commutation of sentence
E) Commutation of sentence
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Reception and diagnostic process
B) Rehabilitation planning
C) Penological screening
D) Reception and diagnostic process
E) Custodial supervision
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Deterrence
B) Retributive justice
C) Restorative rehabilitation
D) Punitive discipline
E) Restorative rehabilitation
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
B) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
C) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
D) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
E) PNP Custodial Center
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Issue bench warrant
B) Recommend revocation of probation
C) Ignore for minor lapse
D) Extend reporting period
E) Recommend revocation of probation
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Shorten imprisonment for all
B) Replace probation
C) Impose harsher penalties
D) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
E) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) Board of Pardons and Parole
B) Board of Pardons and Parole
C) BJMP
D) DOJ
E) BuCor
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Dismissed and civil rights restored
B) Converted to parole
C) Suspended for life
D) Refiled for sentencing
E) Dismissed and civil rights restored
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Juvenile protection
B) Equal punishment
C) Restorative justice
D) Correctional segregation
E) Restorative justice
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Grant probation automatically
B) Refer to DOJ
C) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
D) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
E) Deny; sentence too short
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Benefit of parole
B) Benefit of parole
C) Commutation
D) Credit of time served
E) Clemency
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Voluntary work detail
B) Administrative segregation
C) Custodial punishment
D) Institutional employment program
E) Institutional employment program
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10575
B) RA 9165
C) RA 10592
D) RA 6975
E) RA 10592
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Conditional pardon
B) Reduction of penalty
C) Temporary release
D) Total extinguishment of offense
E) Total extinguishment of offense
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Overcrowded facilities
B) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
C) Limited recreation
D) Lack of parole supervision
E) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Approve immediately
B) Recommend to the court for approval
C) Recommend to the court for approval
D) Deny automatically
E) Request police clearance
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Restitution
B) Reintegration
C) Correction
D) Reintegration
E) Rehabilitation
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Community policing
B) Community policing
C) Participatory security
D) Social control
E) Citizen’s watch
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Settle disputes amicably
B) Settle disputes amicably
C) Collect barangay taxes
D) Prosecute offenders
E) Impose imprisonment
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Retribution
B) Avoiding accountability
C) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
D) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
E) Punishment of the offender
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Social reintegration
B) Civil participation
C) Community service
D) Restorative leadership
E) Social reintegration
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Auxiliary law enforcement
B) Auxiliary law enforcement
C) Volunteer citizen participation
D) Civil defense
E) Informal policing
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Crime detection
B) Prosecution of cases
C) Crime prevention and reintegration
D) Imposing penalties
E) Crime prevention and reintegration
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Preventive detention
B) Victim-offender mediation
C) Victim-offender mediation
D) Death penalty
E) Life imprisonment
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Effective policing
B) Weak community pillar
C) Increased clearance rate
D) Strengthened judiciary
E) Weak community pillar
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Corrections
B) Community
C) Community
D) Prosecution
E) Court
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Restorative justice
B) Restorative justice
C) Social defense
D) Crime suppression
E) Conflict resolution
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Frequent arrests
B) Transparency and accountability
C) Increased penalties
D) Transparency and accountability
E) Political campaigns
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Strict surveillance
B) Length of sentence
C) Prison budget
D) Community acceptance and support
E) Community acceptance and support
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Preventive justice
B) Rehabilitation
C) Deterrence principle
D) Social defense theory
E) Preventive justice
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Withholding evidence
B) Ignoring crimes
C) Joining barangay peace councils
D) Refusing to testify
E) Joining barangay peace councils
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Social disorganization
B) Differential association
C) Control theory
D) Labeling theory
E) Labeling theory
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Restorative intervention
B) Restorative intervention
C) Community policing
D) Social development approach
E) Inter-agency coordination
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Social control measure
B) Legal punishment
C) Arbitrary detention
D) Restorative sanction
E) Social control measure
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
B) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
C) Isolating criminals permanently
D) Relying solely on police power
E) Increasing penalties for all crimes
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Partnership in justice
B) Political influence
C) Civil dependency
D) Mutual distrust
E) Partnership in justice
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