Introduction to Philippines criminal system
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) In flagrante delicto rule
B) In flagrante delicto rule
C) Probable cause rule
D) Citizen’s arrest rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to due process
D) Right to travel
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) Appeal to the DOJ
B) File a case with the Ombudsman
C) Appeal to the DOJ
D) Seek mandamus from RTC
E) File a new complaint
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Right to presumption of innocence
B) Right to counsel
C) Plea bargaining
D) Plea bargaining
E) Right to confrontation
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Conditional pardon
B) Plea in abeyance
C) Pre-trial agreement
D) Plea bargaining
E) Plea bargaining
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Rule on double jeopardy
B) Requirement of promulgation
C) Requisite of written judgment
D) Doctrine of finality
E) Requisite of written judgment
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Commutation
B) Parole
C) Pardon
D) Probation
E) Correct Answer: C
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Isolation
B) Rehabilitation
C) Retribution
D) Punishment
E) Rehabilitation
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Community policing
B) Restorative justice
C) Community policing
D) Citizen’s initiative
E) Social control
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Reintegration
B) Reconciliation
C) Rehabilitation
D) Reintegration
E) Reformation
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) Hot pursuit arrest
B) In flagrante delicto arrest
C) Arbitrary arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
E) Citizen’s arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Due process
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right against unreasonable search
D) Right to counsel
E) Right to privacy
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Valid under plain view doctrine
B) Invalid; no warrant
C) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
D) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
E) Valid if with barangay clearance
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Inadmissible in evidence
B) Admissible if voluntary
C) Needs corroboration only
D) Inadmissible in evidence
E) Admissible if signed
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Chain of custody
B) Professional integrity
C) Command responsibility
D) Professional integrity
E) Discretionary authority
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Warrantless hot pursuit
B) Illegal arrest
C) Preventive detention
D) Warrantless hot pursuit
E) Citizen’s arrest
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
B) Secure new warrant
C) Ignore; not in warrant
D) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
E) Report but leave items
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) Violation of RA 9745
B) . Grave coercion
C) Physical injuries
D) Violation of RA 9745
E) Arbitrary detention
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
B) Drugs returned to PDEA
C) Evidence still valid
D) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
E) Officer disciplined only
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Lawful arrest procedure
B) Abuse of authority
C) Justified self-defense
D) Abuse of authority
E) Instinctive reaction
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Valid; fruits of crime
B) Admissible after consent
C) Inadmissible; illegal search
D) Valid if authenticated
E) Inadmissible; illegal search
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Valid if crime serious
B) Simple irregularity
C) Grounds for demotion only
D) Arrest void
E) Arrest void
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
B) Continue filing against original suspect
C) Amend complaint accordingly
D) Amend complaint accordingly
E) Suppress new evidence
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Civil defense
B) Peace negotiation
C) Private security
D) Community policing
E) Community policing
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Accused acquitted
B) Case remanded to DOJ
C) Conviction for homicide still valid
D) Conviction for homicide still valid
E) Case dismissed
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Due process
B) Sub judice rule
C) Professional secrecy
D) Res judicata
E) Professional secrecy
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Court orders reinvestigation
B) Suspension of arraignment
C) Suspension of arraignment
D) Dismissal outright
E) Waiver of objection
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Professional secrecy
B) Sub judice rule
C) Res judicata
D) Due process
E) Professional secrecy
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Refer to higher DOJ authority
B) Require explanation from police
C) Prosecutor must file case anyway
D) Require explanation from police
E) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) mAllow reinvestigation
B) Deny for being repetitive
C) File case immediately
D) Allow reinvestigation
E) Endorse to Ombudsman
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) File administrative case
B) Move for inhibition
C) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
D) Move for inhibition
E) Ignore unless proven
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Strong suspicion based on evidence
B) Mere hunch of crime
C) Strong suspicion based on evidence
D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
E) Absolute proof of guilt
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Keep it confidential
B) Return to police and disregard
C) Use it if it proves guilt
D) Return to police and disregard
E) File case based on it
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) Verbal consent only
B) Prosecutor approval
C) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
D) None; automatic right
E) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Double jeopardy
B) Res judicata
C) Rule on multiplicity
D) Forum shopping
E) Rule on multiplicity
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Court’s approval
B) Court’s approval
C) Automatic effect
D) Police approval
E) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Request police correction
B) File case still
C) Ignore since unrelated
D) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
B) Send to court for trial
C) Automatically dismiss
D) File immediately for delay
E) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Grave misconduct
B) Bribery under RPC
C) Dereliction of duty
D) Bribery under RPC
E) Malfeasance
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Burden of proof
B) Judicial courtesy
C) Procedural regularity
D) Prosecution’s ethical standard
E) Prosecution’s ethical standard
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the prosecution agrees
B) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
C) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
D) That the police concur
E) That the victim is absent
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Evidence tampering
B) Improper intervention
C) Valid judicial discretion
D) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
E) Valid judicial discretion
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
B) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
C) Allowed since the court erred
D) Remanded for reinvestigation
E) Elevated to DOJ
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Effective if promulgated
B) Void for lack of basis
C) Void for lack of basis
D) Final after notice
E) Valid if signed
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Proceed to trial
B) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
C) Acquit for non-appearance
D) Issue bench warrant for arrest
E) Dismiss case for delay
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Order reinvestigation
B) Convict for homicide
C) Dismiss case
D) Acquittal
E) Convict for homicide
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Admit confession if corroborated
B) Ignore since confession signed
C) Suspend trial
D) Exclude confession from evidence
E) Exclude confession from evidence
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Grave misconduct or bias
B) Grave misconduct or bias
C) Exercise of discretion
D) Judicial transparency
E) Sub judice exception
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Modify judgment to include it
B) Nothing; penalty already imposed
C) Refer to prosecutor
D) Ignore unless appealed
E) Modify judgment to include it
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Valid
B) Suspended
C) Void
D) Valid
E) Discretionary
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial discipline only
B) Judicial impartiality
C) Judicial impartiality
D) Judicial restraint
E) Administrative rules
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Automatically dismissed
B) Continues
C) Deferred until recapture
D) Converted to probation
E) Automatically dismissed
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Reopen preliminary investigation
B) Allow if relevant
C) Exclude it from consideration
D) Defer ruling
E) Exclude it from consideration
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Deny automatically
B) Require police reinvestigation
C) Refer to DOJ
D) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
E) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Civil liability
B) Denial of speedy disposition
C) Judicial discretion
D) Administrative negligence
E) Denial of speedy disposition
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Only in civil cases
B) No, double jeopardy always applies
C) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
D) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
E) Only if accused consents
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Allowed under RA 9165
B) Valid if voluntary
C) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
D) Valid if court-approved
E) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Discretionary
B) Automatically final
C) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
D) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
E) Valid
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Deny for lack of factual basis
B) Forward to Supreme Court
C) Automatically inhibit
D) Suspend proceedings
E) Deny for lack of factual basis
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Ethical irregularity only
B) Bribery or corruption
C) Bribery or corruption
D) Courtesy
E) Administrative oversight
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Probation
B) Commutation
C) Parole
D) Conditional pardon
E) Parole
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Deterrence
C) Retribution
D) Rehabilitation
E) Incapacitation
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) Persons sentenced to death
B) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
C) Escapees
D) Habitual delinquents
E) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Grant commutation
B) Terminate case
C) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
D) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
E) Extend parole
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Commutation of sentence
B) Commutation of sentence
C) Amnesty
D) Parole
E) Probation
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Reception and diagnostic process
B) Reception and diagnostic process
C) Rehabilitation planning
D) Penological screening
E) Custodial supervision
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Restorative rehabilitation
B) Punitive discipline
C) Restorative rehabilitation
D) Deterrence
E) Retributive justice
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
B) PNP Custodial Center
C) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
D) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
E) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Extend reporting period
B) Recommend revocation of probation
C) Recommend revocation of probation
D) Issue bench warrant
E) Ignore for minor lapse
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Shorten imprisonment for all
B) Impose harsher penalties
C) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
D) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
E) Replace probation
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) Board of Pardons and Parole
B) BJMP
C) BuCor
D) Board of Pardons and Parole
E) DOJ
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Suspended for life
B) Dismissed and civil rights restored
C) Dismissed and civil rights restored
D) Refiled for sentencing
E) Converted to parole
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Correctional segregation
B) Restorative justice
C) Equal punishment
D) Restorative justice
E) Juvenile protection
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
B) Refer to DOJ
C) Grant probation automatically
D) Deny; sentence too short
E) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Benefit of parole
B) Commutation
C) Credit of time served
D) Benefit of parole
E) Clemency
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Voluntary work detail
B) Institutional employment program
C) Custodial punishment
D) Institutional employment program
E) Administrative segregation
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10575
B) RA 6975
C) RA 9165
D) RA 10592
E) RA 10592
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Total extinguishment of offense
B) Total extinguishment of offense
C) Conditional pardon
D) Reduction of penalty
E) Temporary release
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
B) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
C) Overcrowded facilities
D) Lack of parole supervision
E) Limited recreation
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Approve immediately
B) Deny automatically
C) Recommend to the court for approval
D) Request police clearance
E) Recommend to the court for approval
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Reintegration
C) Reintegration
D) Correction
E) Restitution
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Community policing
B) Social control
C) Community policing
D) Citizen’s watch
E) Participatory security
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Impose imprisonment
B) Settle disputes amicably
C) Prosecute offenders
D) Collect barangay taxes
E) Settle disputes amicably
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
B) Punishment of the offender
C) Avoiding accountability
D) Retribution
E) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Civil participation
B) Social reintegration
C) Community service
D) Social reintegration
E) Restorative leadership
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Volunteer citizen participation
B) Civil defense
C) Informal policing
D) Auxiliary law enforcement
E) Auxiliary law enforcement
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Crime prevention and reintegration
B) Imposing penalties
C) Crime prevention and reintegration
D) Crime detection
E) Prosecution of cases
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Victim-offender mediation
B) Life imprisonment
C) Victim-offender mediation
D) Preventive detention
E) Death penalty
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Weak community pillar
B) Strengthened judiciary
C) Effective policing
D) Weak community pillar
E) Increased clearance rate
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Corrections
B) Community
C) Court
D) Community
E) Prosecution
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Conflict resolution
B) Crime suppression
C) Restorative justice
D) Restorative justice
E) Social defense
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Increased penalties
B) Transparency and accountability
C) Frequent arrests
D) Political campaigns
E) Transparency and accountability
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Prison budget
B) Community acceptance and support
C) Length of sentence
D) Strict surveillance
E) Community acceptance and support
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Deterrence principle
C) Social defense theory
D) Preventive justice
E) Preventive justice
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Refusing to testify
B) Joining barangay peace councils
C) Ignoring crimes
D) Joining barangay peace councils
E) Withholding evidence
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Differential association
B) Social disorganization
C) Labeling theory
D) Control theory
E) Labeling theory
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Social development approach
B) Inter-agency coordination
C) Community policing
D) Restorative intervention
E) Restorative intervention
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Social control measure
B) Social control measure
C) Legal punishment
D) Arbitrary detention
E) Restorative sanction
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Increasing penalties for all crimes
B) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
C) Isolating criminals permanently
D) Relying solely on police power
E) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Partnership in justice
B) Civil dependency
C) Mutual distrust
D) Political influence
E) Partnership in justice
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