Introduction to Philippines criminal system - Quiz
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) Citizen’s arrest rule
B) Probable cause rule
C) In flagrante delicto rule
D) In flagrante delicto rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to due process
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right to travel
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) Appeal to the DOJ
B) Appeal to the DOJ
C) Seek mandamus from RTC
D) File a new complaint
E) File a case with the Ombudsman
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Plea bargaining
C) Right to presumption of innocence
D) Right to confrontation
E) Right to counsel
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Conditional pardon
C) Pre-trial agreement
D) Plea in abeyance
E) Plea bargaining
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Requisite of written judgment
B) Rule on double jeopardy
C) Requisite of written judgment
D) Doctrine of finality
E) Requirement of promulgation
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Commutation
B) Probation
C) Parole
D) Pardon
E) Correct Answer: C
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Isolation
B) Punishment
C) Rehabilitation
D) Retribution
E) Rehabilitation
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Social control
B) Citizen’s initiative
C) Community policing
D) Community policing
E) Restorative justice
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Reconciliation
C) Reintegration
D) Reintegration
E) Reformation
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) Hot pursuit arrest
B) In flagrante delicto arrest
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) Arbitrary arrest
E) In flagrante delicto arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to counsel
D) Due process
E) Right against unreasonable search
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
B) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
C) Valid under plain view doctrine
D) Invalid; no warrant
E) Valid if with barangay clearance
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Admissible if voluntary
B) Needs corroboration only
C) Inadmissible in evidence
D) Inadmissible in evidence
E) Admissible if signed
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Chain of custody
B) Professional integrity
C) Professional integrity
D) Discretionary authority
E) Command responsibility
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Preventive detention
B) Warrantless hot pursuit
C) Illegal arrest
D) Citizen’s arrest
E) Warrantless hot pursuit
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Ignore; not in warrant
B) Report but leave items
C) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
D) Secure new warrant
E) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) . Grave coercion
B) Arbitrary detention
C) Physical injuries
D) Violation of RA 9745
E) Violation of RA 9745
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
B) Officer disciplined only
C) Evidence still valid
D) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
E) Drugs returned to PDEA
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Lawful arrest procedure
B) Abuse of authority
C) Abuse of authority
D) Instinctive reaction
E) Justified self-defense
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Valid if authenticated
B) Inadmissible; illegal search
C) Admissible after consent
D) Inadmissible; illegal search
E) Valid; fruits of crime
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Arrest void
B) Simple irregularity
C) Grounds for demotion only
D) Arrest void
E) Valid if crime serious
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Continue filing against original suspect
B) Amend complaint accordingly
C) Suppress new evidence
D) Amend complaint accordingly
E) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Private security
B) Community policing
C) Civil defense
D) Peace negotiation
E) Community policing
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Conviction for homicide still valid
B) Case remanded to DOJ
C) Accused acquitted
D) Case dismissed
E) Conviction for homicide still valid
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Professional secrecy
B) Sub judice rule
C) Due process
D) Professional secrecy
E) Res judicata
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Dismissal outright
B) Court orders reinvestigation
C) Waiver of objection
D) Suspension of arraignment
E) Suspension of arraignment
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Due process
B) Professional secrecy
C) Sub judice rule
D) Professional secrecy
E) Res judicata
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
B) Prosecutor must file case anyway
C) Refer to higher DOJ authority
D) Require explanation from police
E) Require explanation from police
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) Endorse to Ombudsman
B) Deny for being repetitive
C) Allow reinvestigation
D) mAllow reinvestigation
E) File case immediately
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
B) Ignore unless proven
C) Move for inhibition
D) Move for inhibition
E) File administrative case
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Strong suspicion based on evidence
B) Absolute proof of guilt
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Mere hunch of crime
E) Strong suspicion based on evidence
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Keep it confidential
B) Use it if it proves guilt
C) Return to police and disregard
D) Return to police and disregard
E) File case based on it
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) None; automatic right
B) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
C) Verbal consent only
D) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
E) Prosecutor approval
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Rule on multiplicity
B) Forum shopping
C) Double jeopardy
D) Rule on multiplicity
E) Res judicata
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Automatic effect
B) Police approval
C) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
D) Court’s approval
E) Court’s approval
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
B) Request police correction
C) Ignore since unrelated
D) File case still
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Automatically dismiss
B) Send to court for trial
C) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
D) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
E) File immediately for delay
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Dereliction of duty
B) Bribery under RPC
C) Grave misconduct
D) Malfeasance
E) Bribery under RPC
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Prosecution’s ethical standard
B) Burden of proof
C) Prosecution’s ethical standard
D) Judicial courtesy
E) Procedural regularity
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the victim is absent
B) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
C) That the prosecution agrees
D) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
E) That the police concur
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Valid judicial discretion
B) Improper intervention
C) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
D) Evidence tampering
E) Valid judicial discretion
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Elevated to DOJ
B) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
C) Remanded for reinvestigation
D) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
E) Allowed since the court erred
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Valid if signed
B) Effective if promulgated
C) Void for lack of basis
D) Final after notice
E) Void for lack of basis
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Acquit for non-appearance
B) Issue bench warrant for arrest
C) Proceed to trial
D) Dismiss case for delay
E) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Acquittal
B) Convict for homicide
C) Convict for homicide
D) Dismiss case
E) Order reinvestigation
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Exclude confession from evidence
B) Ignore since confession signed
C) Suspend trial
D) Exclude confession from evidence
E) Admit confession if corroborated
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Judicial transparency
B) Grave misconduct or bias
C) Grave misconduct or bias
D) Exercise of discretion
E) Sub judice exception
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Refer to prosecutor
B) Nothing; penalty already imposed
C) Modify judgment to include it
D) Ignore unless appealed
E) Modify judgment to include it
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Discretionary
B) Valid
C) Valid
D) Suspended
E) Void
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial impartiality
B) Judicial impartiality
C) Administrative rules
D) Judicial discipline only
E) Judicial restraint
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Continues
B) Automatically dismissed
C) Automatically dismissed
D) Deferred until recapture
E) Converted to probation
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Allow if relevant
B) Reopen preliminary investigation
C) Exclude it from consideration
D) Exclude it from consideration
E) Defer ruling
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
B) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
C) Deny automatically
D) Require police reinvestigation
E) Refer to DOJ
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Denial of speedy disposition
B) Judicial discretion
C) Civil liability
D) Denial of speedy disposition
E) Administrative negligence
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) No, double jeopardy always applies
B) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
C) Only in civil cases
D) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
E) Only if accused consents
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Allowed under RA 9165
B) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
C) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
D) Valid if voluntary
E) Valid if court-approved
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Discretionary
B) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
C) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
D) Valid
E) Automatically final
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Automatically inhibit
B) Deny for lack of factual basis
C) Deny for lack of factual basis
D) Forward to Supreme Court
E) Suspend proceedings
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Bribery or corruption
B) Ethical irregularity only
C) Administrative oversight
D) Bribery or corruption
E) Courtesy
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Parole
B) Probation
C) Parole
D) Conditional pardon
E) Commutation
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Incapacitation
B) Rehabilitation
C) Retribution
D) Deterrence
E) Rehabilitation
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
B) Habitual delinquents
C) Persons sentenced to death
D) Escapees
E) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Terminate case
B) Grant commutation
C) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
D) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
E) Extend parole
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Amnesty
B) Parole
C) Commutation of sentence
D) Commutation of sentence
E) Probation
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Penological screening
B) Rehabilitation planning
C) Reception and diagnostic process
D) Reception and diagnostic process
E) Custodial supervision
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Punitive discipline
B) Restorative rehabilitation
C) Retributive justice
D) Restorative rehabilitation
E) Deterrence
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
B) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
C) PNP Custodial Center
D) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
E) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Recommend revocation of probation
B) Ignore for minor lapse
C) Extend reporting period
D) Recommend revocation of probation
E) Issue bench warrant
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Impose harsher penalties
B) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
C) Replace probation
D) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
E) Shorten imprisonment for all
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) BuCor
B) Board of Pardons and Parole
C) BJMP
D) Board of Pardons and Parole
E) DOJ
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Suspended for life
B) Refiled for sentencing
C) Dismissed and civil rights restored
D) Converted to parole
E) Dismissed and civil rights restored
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Restorative justice
B) Equal punishment
C) Restorative justice
D) Juvenile protection
E) Correctional segregation
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
B) Deny; sentence too short
C) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
D) Grant probation automatically
E) Refer to DOJ
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Clemency
B) Benefit of parole
C) Benefit of parole
D) Commutation
E) Credit of time served
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Custodial punishment
B) Voluntary work detail
C) Institutional employment program
D) Administrative segregation
E) Institutional employment program
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 9165
B) RA 10575
C) RA 10592
D) RA 6975
E) RA 10592
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Conditional pardon
B) Temporary release
C) Total extinguishment of offense
D) Reduction of penalty
E) Total extinguishment of offense
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Limited recreation
B) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
C) Lack of parole supervision
D) Overcrowded facilities
E) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Recommend to the court for approval
B) Approve immediately
C) Recommend to the court for approval
D) Request police clearance
E) Deny automatically
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Correction
C) Reintegration
D) Reintegration
E) Restitution
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Community policing
B) Community policing
C) Social control
D) Citizen’s watch
E) Participatory security
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Settle disputes amicably
B) Prosecute offenders
C) Impose imprisonment
D) Collect barangay taxes
E) Settle disputes amicably
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Punishment of the offender
B) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
C) Avoiding accountability
D) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
E) Retribution
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Community service
B) Social reintegration
C) Social reintegration
D) Civil participation
E) Restorative leadership
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Civil defense
B) Auxiliary law enforcement
C) Informal policing
D) Auxiliary law enforcement
E) Volunteer citizen participation
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Imposing penalties
B) Prosecution of cases
C) Crime prevention and reintegration
D) Crime detection
E) Crime prevention and reintegration
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Life imprisonment
B) Victim-offender mediation
C) Preventive detention
D) Death penalty
E) Victim-offender mediation
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Increased clearance rate
B) Strengthened judiciary
C) Weak community pillar
D) Effective policing
E) Weak community pillar
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Court
B) Prosecution
C) Community
D) Community
E) Corrections
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Conflict resolution
B) Restorative justice
C) Social defense
D) Restorative justice
E) Crime suppression
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Political campaigns
B) Transparency and accountability
C) Increased penalties
D) Frequent arrests
E) Transparency and accountability
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Community acceptance and support
B) Strict surveillance
C) Community acceptance and support
D) Length of sentence
E) Prison budget
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Deterrence principle
B) Rehabilitation
C) Social defense theory
D) Preventive justice
E) Preventive justice
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Refusing to testify
B) Withholding evidence
C) Joining barangay peace councils
D) Ignoring crimes
E) Joining barangay peace councils
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Control theory
B) Social disorganization
C) Differential association
D) Labeling theory
E) Labeling theory
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Restorative intervention
B) Social development approach
C) Community policing
D) Restorative intervention
E) Inter-agency coordination
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Arbitrary detention
B) Social control measure
C) Legal punishment
D) Social control measure
E) Restorative sanction
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
B) Relying solely on police power
C) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
D) Isolating criminals permanently
E) Increasing penalties for all crimes
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Partnership in justice
B) Civil dependency
C) Partnership in justice
D) Mutual distrust
E) Political influence
Created with That Quiz — where a math practice test is always one click away.