Introduction to Philippines criminal system
  • 1. 1. While on patrol, a PNP officer witnesses a man breaking into a store at night. Without a warrant, he arrests the suspect. Under which rule is this arrest justified?
A) Citizen’s arrest rule
B) Probable cause rule
C) In flagrante delicto rule
D) In flagrante delicto rule
  • 2. 2. During a checkpoint, police officers open car trunks without probable cause or consent. Which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to due process
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to privacy
D) Right against unreasonable search
E) Right to travel
  • 3. 3.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence. What is the proper legal remedy for the complainant?
A) File a case with the Ombudsman
B) Appeal to the DOJ
C) Appeal to the DOJ
D) File a new complaint
E) Seek mandamus from RTC
  • 4. 4.A respondent claims he was not subpoenaed during preliminary investigation. What due process violation occurred?
A) Right to presumption of innocence
B) Right to counsel
C) Plea bargaining
D) Right to confrontation
E) Plea bargaining
  • 5. 5.An accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense during arraignment. What judicial process allows this negotiation?
A) Plea bargaining
B) Pre-trial agreement
C) Plea bargaining
D) Plea in abeyance
E) Conditional pardon
  • 6. 6. A judge renders a decision finding the accused guilty but fails to state factual basis. What judicial requirement is violated?
A) Rule on double jeopardy
B) Doctrine of finality
C) Requisite of written judgment
D) Requisite of written judgment
E) Requirement of promulgation
  • 7. 7. A prisoner who has shown good conduct is allowed to serve the rest of his sentence outside prison under supervision. This refers to:
A) Parole
B) Probation
C) Correct Answer: C
D) Pardon
E) Commutation
  • 8. 8.Under PD 968, what is the primary purpose of probation?
A) Rehabilitation
B) Isolation
C) Rehabilitation
D) Punishment
E) Retribution
  • 9. 9.A barangay forms a group assisting police in patrolling their area. This reflects which principle of community involvement?
A) Citizen’s initiative
B) Community policing
C) Community policing
D) Social control
E) Restorative justice
  • 10. 10.After serving his sentence, an ex-convict is welcomed by his community and given livelihood assistance. This demonstrates:
A) Reconciliation
B) Reintegration
C) Rehabilitation
D) Reformation
E) Reintegration
  • 11. 11. While on patrol, an officer witnesses a man forcibly opening a parked vehicle. He immediately arrests the suspect without a warrant.
A) Citizen’s arrest
B) Arbitrary arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
E) Hot pursuit arrest
  • 12. 12. a checkpoint, police open all car trunks without probable cause. Which right is violated?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to counsel
D) Due process
E) Right to privacy
  • 13. 13. An officer receives reliable info that a wanted fugitive is inside a house. Without a warrant, he enters and arrests the man.
A) Invalid; no warrant
B) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
C) Valid if with barangay clearance
D) Valid under plain view doctrine
E) Valid as hot-pursuit arrest
  • 14. 14. A police investigator includes a suspect’s confession obtained without counsel. What happens to the confession?
A) Needs corroboration only
B) Admissible if signed
C) Inadmissible in evidence
D) Inadmissible in evidence
E) Admissible if voluntary
  • 15. 15. A robbery suspect offers ₱50 000 to a police officer to drop the case. The officer reports the incident. What principle is shown?
A) Command responsibility
B) Professional integrity
C) Chain of custody
D) Discretionary authority
E) Professional integrity
  • 16. 16. Police see a man fleeing from a store with a bloody knife. They chase and arrest him.
A) Warrantless hot pursuit
B) Citizen’s arrest
C) Illegal arrest
D) Warrantless hot pursuit
E) Preventive detention
  • 17. 17. A patrolman discovers illegal drugs on a table while serving a lawful search warrant for firearms.
A) Ignore; not in warrant
B) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
C) Report but leave items
D) Confiscate under plain-view doctrine
E) Secure new warrant
  • 18. 18. Police use torture to extract a confession. The suspect later files a case. What crime applies?
A) . Grave coercion
B) Arbitrary detention
C) Violation of RA 9745
D) Violation of RA 9745
E) Physical injuries
  • 19. 19. During a buy-bust, officers forget to photograph seized drugs. What may happen?
A) Evidence still valid
B) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
C) Officer disciplined only
D) Drugs returned to PDEA
E) Case dismissed for chain-of-custody defect
  • 20. 20. An officer uses deadly force on an unarmed fleeing suspect in a minor theft. The act is:
A) Justified self-defense
B) Instinctive reaction
C) Abuse of authority
D) Abuse of authority
E) Lawful arrest procedure
  • 21. 21.Evidence was seized by an officer who lacked a search warrant and probable cause. It is:
A) Inadmissible; illegal search
B) Admissible after consent
C) Valid; fruits of crime
D) Inadmissible; illegal search
E) Valid if authenticated
  • 22. 22. A police officer fails to inform a detainee of the reason for arrest. Consequence?
A) Simple irregularity
B) Grounds for demotion only
C) Arrest void
D) Valid if crime serious
E) Arrest void
  • 23. 23. When evidence shows another suspect actually committed the crime, the officer must:
A) Wait for prosecutor’s instruction
B) Amend complaint accordingly
C) Continue filing against original suspect
D) Suppress new evidence
E) Amend complaint accordingly
  • 24. 24. Community members volunteer to patrol with police. This practice is called:
A) Civil defense
B) Private security
C) Community policing
D) Community policing
E) Peace negotiation
  • 25. 25. The prosecutor files a case for murder, but the court later finds the act is homicide. Effect?
A) Case dismissed
B) Conviction for homicide still valid
C) Conviction for homicide still valid
D) Accused acquitted
E) Case remanded to DOJ
  • 26. 26.A prosecutor dismisses a complaint despite strong evidence of homicide. The complainant feels aggrieved. What should they do?
A) Sub judice rule
B) Res judicata
C) Professional secrecy
D) Professional secrecy
E) Due process
  • 27. 27.A complaint was filed directly in court without preliminary investigation. The accused objects. Remedy?
A) Suspension of arraignment
B) Suspension of arraignment
C) Dismissal outright
D) Court orders reinvestigation
E) Waiver of objection
  • 28. 28.A prosecutor leaks confidential evidence to media. This violates:
A) Res judicata
B) Sub judice rule
C) Due process
D) Professional secrecy
E) Professional secrecy
  • 29. 29.An arrest was made without warrant, and the suspect was not delivered to the prosecutor within 36 hours.
A) Prosecutor must file case anyway
B) Dismiss case for arbitrary detention
C) Require explanation from police
D) Require explanation from police
E) Refer to higher DOJ authority
  • 30. 30.A prosecutor finds no probable cause but the complainant has new affidavits.
A) Allow reinvestigation
B) Deny for being repetitive
C) Endorse to Ombudsman
D) File case immediately
E) mAllow reinvestigation
  • 31. 31. The accused claims the investigating fiscal was biased due to family ties with complainant. Remedy?
A) Ignore unless proven
B) Move for inhibition
C) Move for inhibition
D) File administrative case
E) Appeal to Secretary of Justice
  • 32. 32.Probable cause for filing a case means:
A) Strong suspicion based on evidence
B) Absolute proof of guilt
C) Strong suspicion based on evidence
D) Mere hunch of crime
E) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 33. 33.Prosecutor receives evidence obtained through illegal search. What should he do?
A) Return to police and disregard
B) Keep it confidential
C) Return to police and disregard
D) File case based on it
E) Use it if it proves guilt
  • 34. 34. During inquest, the suspect demands preliminary investigation. What is required?
A) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
B) Written waiver of Art. 125 rights
C) Prosecutor approval
D) Verbal consent only
E) None; automatic right
  • 35. 35.The prosecutor files multiple cases for a single act. The accused can invoke:
A) Rule on multiplicity
B) Rule on multiplicity
C) Forum shopping
D) Double jeopardy
E) Res judicata
  • 36. 36. When the prosecutor withdraws an information before arraignment, it requires:
A) Court’s approval
B) Police approval
C) Automatic effect
D) Court’s approval
E) Approval of the Secretary of Justice
  • 37. 37.The complainant files a falsified medical certificate. The prosecutor discovers this. Action?
A) Ignore since unrelated
B) Request police correction
C) File case still
D) Dismiss and refer falsification charge
  • 38. 38. If during reinvestigation the accused presents alibi and affidavits contradicting earlier ones, prosecutor should:
A) Automatically dismiss
B) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
C) Evaluate credibility and resolve conflicts
D) File immediately for delay
E) Send to court for trial
  • 39. 39. A prosecutor is bribed to drop a case. The crime committed is:
A) Bribery under RPC
B) Dereliction of duty
C) Malfeasance
D) Bribery under RPC
E) Grave misconduct
  • 40. 40. Prosecutor insists on prosecuting a clearly innocent accused to gain publicity. This violates:
A) Prosecution’s ethical standard
B) Procedural regularity
C) Judicial courtesy
D) Burden of proof
E) Prosecution’s ethical standard
  • 41. 41. The accused pleads guilty to a lesser offense after plea bargaining. What must the judge ensure before approving the plea?
A) That the police concur
B) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
C) That the prosecution agrees
D) That the victim is absent
E) That the accused has a lawyer and understands the consequences
  • 42. 42. During trial, the judge personally questions a witness extensively to clarify facts. This act is:
A) Valid judicial discretion
B) Usurpation of prosecution’s role
C) Improper intervention
D) Valid judicial discretion
E) Evidence tampering
  • 43. 43. An accused is acquitted but the prosecution appeals, arguing the court erred. The appeal should be:
A) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
B) Remanded for reinvestigation
C) Dismissed due to double jeopardy
D) Elevated to DOJ
E) Allowed since the court erred
  • 44. 44. The court issues a judgment but fails to state factual findings. The judgment is:
A) Final after notice
B) Void for lack of basis
C) Effective if promulgated
D) Void for lack of basis
E) Valid if signed
  • 45. 45. The accused fails to appear at arraignment despite proper notice. The court should:
A) Acquit for non-appearance
B) Dismiss case for delay
C) Proceed to trial
D) lIssue bench warrant for arrest
E) Issue bench warrant for arrest
  • 46. 46. The court finds the evidence insufficient for murder but adequate for homicide. The proper ruling is:
A) Convict for homicide
B) Acquittal
C) Convict for homicide
D) Dismiss case
E) Order reinvestigation
  • 47. 47. During trial, the judge learns the accused was tortured to confess. What should the court do?
A) Ignore since confession signed
B) Exclude confession from evidence
C) Admit confession if corroborated
D) Exclude confession from evidence
E) Suspend trial
  • 48. 48. The judge publicly comments on the guilt of the accused before the decision. This constitutes:
A) Sub judice exception
B) Judicial transparency
C) Grave misconduct or bias
D) Grave misconduct or bias
E) Exercise of discretion
  • 49. 49. The court forgets to include civil liability in a conviction judgment. What should it do?
A) Refer to prosecutor
B) Modify judgment to include it
C) Modify judgment to include it
D) Nothing; penalty already imposed
E) Ignore unless appealed
  • 50. 50. The accused was tried in absentia after escaping custody. The judgment of conviction is:
A) Suspended
B) Void
C) Discretionary
D) Valid
E) Valid
  • 51. 51. A judge refuses to inhibit despite being a close friend of the victim’s family. This violates:
A) Judicial discipline only
B) Judicial restraint
C) Judicial impartiality
D) Judicial impartiality
E) Administrative rules
  • 52. 52. The accused appeals his conviction, but while the appeal is pending, he escapes. Effect on appeal?
A) Converted to probation
B) Deferred until recapture
C) Automatically dismissed
D) Continues
E) Automatically dismissed
  • 53. 53. Evidence presented in trial was obtained illegally. The court should:
A) Exclude it from consideration
B) Defer ruling
C) Exclude it from consideration
D) Allow if relevant
E) Reopen preliminary investigation
  • 54. 54. The defense files a motion for new trial based on newly discovered evidence before judgment becomes final. Court’s proper action:
A) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
B) Require police reinvestigation
C) Refer to DOJ
D) Evaluate materiality and grant if justified
E) Deny automatically
  • 55. 55. Judge delays decision for over one year without valid reason. This is:
A) Denial of speedy disposition
B) Denial of speedy disposition
C) Civil liability
D) Administrative negligence
E) Judicial discretion
  • 56. 56. The Supreme Court reverses an acquittal after finding gross error. Is this valid?
A) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
B) Only in civil cases
C) Only if accused consents
D) No, double jeopardy always applies
E) Yes, if through certiorari for grave abuse of discretion
  • 57. 57. The RTC judge conducts plea bargaining for a drug case without prosecutor consent. Effect?
A) Valid if court-approved
B) Allowed under RA 9165
C) Valid if voluntary
D) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
E) Invalid; needs prosecution approval
  • 58. 58. The court convicts accused based solely on uncorroborated testimony of a hostile witness. The judgment is:
A) Valid
B) Discretionary
C) B. Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
D) Automatically final
E) Voidable; lacks sufficient evidence
  • 59. 59. The accused files a motion to inhibit a judge, alleging bias without proof. Court should:
A) Suspend proceedings
B) Deny for lack of factual basis
C) Forward to Supreme Court
D) Automatically inhibit
E) Deny for lack of factual basis
  • 60. 60. A judge receives gifts from a litigant during the case. This act constitutes:
A) Courtesy
B) Bribery or corruption
C) Ethical irregularity only
D) Administrative oversight
E) Bribery or corruption
  • 61. 61. A convicted offender is released under supervision after serving part of his sentence. This is called:
A) Parole
B) Probation
C) Commutation
D) Conditional pardon
E) Parole
  • 62. 62. What is the main goal of the correctional system?
A) Incapacitation
B) Deterrence
C) Rehabilitation
D) Rehabilitation
E) Retribution
  • 63. 63. Under PD 968, probation is granted to:
    A. First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
A) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
B) First-time offenders who deserve reformation outside prison
C) Persons sentenced to death
D) Habitual delinquents
E) Escapees
  • 64. 64. A parolee violates one of his conditions. The Board of Pardons and Parole may:
A) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
B) Grant commutation
C) Extend parole
D) Revoke parole and order re-arrest
E) Terminate case
  • 65. 65. A prisoner’s sentence is reduced by presidential action without pardon. This is:
A) Parole
B) Amnesty
C) Probation
D) Commutation of sentence
E) Commutation of sentence
  • 66. 66. A newly admitted prisoner is classified based on background and risk. This process is:
A) Penological screening
B) Rehabilitation planning
C) Reception and diagnostic process
D) Custodial supervision
E) Reception and diagnostic process
  • 67. 67. Inmates are taught vocational and livelihood skills. This supports which correctional philosophy?
A) Restorative rehabilitation
B) Deterrence
C) Restorative rehabilitation
D) Retributive justice
E) Punitive discipline
  • 68. 68. The principal agency in charge of national prisoners serving sentences of over three years is:
A) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
B) PNP Custodial Center
C) Bureau of Corrections (BuCor)
D) Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)
E) Bureau of Parole and Probation Administration (BPPA)
  • 69. 69. A probationer fails to report to his probation officer for two months. The officer should:
A) Extend reporting period
B) Issue bench warrant
C) Recommend revocation of probation
D) Ignore for minor lapse
E) Recommend revocation of probation
  • 70. 70. The purpose of the indeterminate sentence law (ISL) is to:
A) Impose harsher penalties
B) Replace probation
C) Shorten imprisonment for all
D) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
E) Encourage rehabilitation through parole
  • 71. 71. A prisoner completes his minimum sentence and shows good conduct. He applies for parole. What agency acts on it?
A) Board of Pardons and Parole
B) Board of Pardons and Parole
C) BJMP
D) DOJ
E) BuCor
  • 72. 72. When a probationer successfully completes probation, his case is:
A) Converted to parole
B) Suspended for life
C) Dismissed and civil rights restored
D) Dismissed and civil rights restored
E) Refiled for sentencing
  • 73. 73. A convicted minor offender is sent to a youth rehabilitation center instead of prison. This shows what principle?
A) Equal punishment
B) Juvenile protection
C) Restorative justice
D) Restorative justice
E) Correctional segregation
  • 74. 74. An offender sentenced to six months imprisonment applies for probation. The court should:
A) Refer to DOJ
B) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
C) Evaluate report of Probation Officer first
D) Deny; sentence too short
E) Grant probation automatically
  • 75. 75. A parolee who committed another offense while under parole loses what privilege?
A) Clemency
B) Credit of time served
C) Commutation
D) Benefit of parole
E) Benefit of parole
  • 76. 76. Inmates assigned to perform kitchen and maintenance work in prison are under:
A) Custodial punishment
B) Institutional employment program
C) Institutional employment program
D) Administrative segregation
E) Voluntary work detail
  • 77. 77. A prisoner granted good conduct time allowance (GCTA) is released early. The basis law is:
A) RA 10592
B) RA 10592
C) RA 10575
D) RA 9165
E) RA 6975
  • 78. 78. A prisoner released through amnesty benefits because his offense was political. Amnesty’s effect is:
A) Temporary release
B) Total extinguishment of offense
C) Reduction of penalty
D) Conditional pardon
E) Total extinguishment of offense
  • 79. 79. Which of the following shows effective correctional administration?
A) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
B) Overcrowded facilities
C) Limited recreation
D) Lack of parole supervision
E) Proper classification and rehabilitation programs
  • 80. 80. A probationer requests to transfer residence to another city. The probation officer must:
A) Approve immediately
B) Deny automatically
C) Request police clearance
D) Recommend to the court for approval
E) Recommend to the court for approval
  • 81. 81. After serving his sentence, a former inmate is welcomed by his barangay and given a livelihood grant. This illustrates:
A) Rehabilitation
B) Reintegration
C) Correction
D) Restitution
E) Reintegration
  • 82. 82. The concept that crime prevention is a shared responsibility between police and citizens is known as:
A) Social control
B) Community policing
C) Community policing
D) Citizen’s watch
E) Participatory security
  • 83. 83. The Barangay Justice System (Katarungang Pambarangay) primarily aims to:
A) Settle disputes amicably
B) Prosecute offenders
C) Collect barangay taxes
D) Settle disputes amicably
E) Impose imprisonment
  • 84. 84. Restorative justice focuses mainly on:
A) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
B) Repairing harm and restoring relationships
C) Retribution
D) Punishment of the offender
E) Avoiding accountability
  • 85. 85. A former offender voluntarily helps mentor youth at risk in his community. This demonstrates:
A) Social reintegration
B) Community service
C) Social reintegration
D) Civil participation
E) Restorative leadership
  • 86. 86. Barangay tanods assist police in maintaining order. This is an example of:
A) Auxiliary law enforcement
B) Volunteer citizen participation
C) Auxiliary law enforcement
D) Civil defense
E) Informal policing
  • 87. 87. The community pillar’s main responsibility in the criminal justice system is:
A) Crime prevention and reintegration
B) Crime prevention and reintegration
C) Prosecution of cases
D) Crime detection
E) Imposing penalties
  • 88. 88. Which of the following is a form of restorative justice program?
A) Life imprisonment
B) Preventive detention
C) Death penalty
D) Victim-offender mediation
E) Victim-offender mediation
  • 89. 89. When the public refuses to cooperate with law enforcement due to distrust, it results in:
A) Increased clearance rate
B) Effective policing
C) Weak community pillar
D) Weak community pillar
E) Strengthened judiciary
  • 90. 90. A local NGO provides counseling and job training for released inmates. This supports which pillar?
A) Community
B) Corrections
C) Prosecution
D) Community
E) Court
  • 91. 91. A community leader initiates dialogue between rival gangs to reduce violence. This reflects:
A) Restorative justice
B) Restorative justice
C) Conflict resolution
D) Social defense
E) Crime suppression
  • 92. 92. Which measures best enhances trust between police and citizens?
A) Frequent arrests
B) Increased penalties
C) Transparency and accountability
D) Political campaigns
E) Transparency and accountability
  • 93. 93. The success of community-based corrections largely depends on:
A) Prison budget
B) Length of sentence
C) Strict surveillance
D) Community acceptance and support
E) Community acceptance and support
  • 94. 94. The principle that prevention is better than cure in criminology refers to:
A) Preventive justice
B) Preventive justice
C) Rehabilitation
D) Deterrence principle
E) Social defense theory
  • 95. 95. Which illustrates active community participation in justice?
A) Refusing to testify
B) Joining barangay peace councils
C) Joining barangay peace councils
D) Withholding evidence
E) Ignoring crimes
  • 96. 96. A released inmate is stigmatized by neighbors, causing him to reoffend. What criminological concept is demonstrated?
A) Differential association
B) Labeling theory
C) Labeling theory
D) Social disorganization
E) Control theory
  • 97. 97. A community-based drug rehabilitation center partners with local police and families. This collaboration exemplifies:
A) Social development approach
B) Community policing
C) Restorative intervention
D) Inter-agency coordination
E) Restorative intervention
  • 98. 98. A barangay sets curfew for minors to prevent juvenile delinquency. This is an example of:
A) Social control measure
B) Legal punishment
C) Restorative sanction
D) Arbitrary detention
E) Social control measure
  • 99. 99. Which reflects the concept of social defense?
A) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
B) Isolating criminals permanently
C) Increasing penalties for all crimes
D) Relying solely on police power
E) Protecting society through prevention and reformation
  • 100. 100. In the criminal justice system, the community’s cooperation with law enforcement symbolizes:
A) Civil dependency
B) Partnership in justice
C) Partnership in justice
D) Political influence
E) Mutual distrust
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