SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Virtue Ethics
B) Egoism
C) Utilitarianism
D) Relativism
E) Deontology
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
B) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
C) Ayoko pang isipin.
D) Oo, sigurado ako!
E) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
B) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
C) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
D) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
E) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) Policies
B) Performance
C) People
D) Principles
E) Procedures
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Legal
B) Logical
C) Limited
D) Lucrative
E) Legitimate
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) It became profitable
B) Only experts approved
C) Everyone did it
D) Management agreed
E) It was temporary
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) Security protocols
B) Personal integrity and accountability
C) Software standards
D) System requirements
E) Stakeholder interests
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Limited to management
B) Who is affected and how
C) Only financial impacts
D) Just technical requirements
E) Exclusively legal aspects
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Impact rather than intent
B) Intent rather than impact
C) Technical rather than social
D) Financial rather than ethical
E) Short-term rather than long-term
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) End users, developers, clients, and society
B) Just investors
C) Limited to regulators
D) Only management
E) Exclusively competitors
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
B) Exclusively timeline planning
C) Just budget analysis
D) Only technical evaluation
E) Limited to profit calculation
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) Requirements change
B) Technical problems arise
C) Budget constraints exist
D) Deadlines are missed
E) A moral dilemma
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Clear guidelines
B) Resource abundance
C) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
D) Proper planning
E) Technical limitations
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) After management approval
B) Only if profitable
C) Based on cost
D) Last
E) The severity of the bug
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) Can be fixed later
B) Should be documented only
C) Must not be ignored
D) May be acceptable with warnings
E) Can always be patched
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
B) Version control
C) Code reviews
D) Proper planning
E) Following standards
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What the law allows or prohibits
B) What meets deadlines
C) What is technically efficient
D) What maximizes profits
E) What follows standards
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What the law allows or prohibits
B) What is technically efficient
C) What maximizes profits
D) What is morally right or responsible
E) What meets deadlines
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) Only financial aspects
B) Just technical performance
C) Everything
D) A system
E) Nothing
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Ethical decision frameworks
B) Team preferences
C) Technical requirements
D) Industry trends
E) Budget constraints
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) Limited to PLUS Model
B) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
C) Exclusively Professional codes
D) Only PLUS Model
E) Just Stakeholder Analysis
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
B) Separate from technical work
C) Only for large projects
D) Abstract and optional
E) Limited to experts
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) Legal compliance
B) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
C) Technical problem-solving
D) Social relationships
E) Economic decision-making
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Mathematical concepts
B) Scientific theories
C) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
D) Cultural traditions
E) Natural phenomena
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Exclusively entertainment
B) Only scientific fields
C) Every aspect of daily life
D) Limited areas
E) Just business applications
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) Only affects experts
B) Eliminates moral issues
C) Focuses solely on efficiency
D) It remains static
E) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
B) Improved equality
C) Job creation
D) Enhanced security
E) Better privacy
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Economic gains
B) Technical achievements
C) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
D) Social improvements
E) Benefits of technology
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Exclusively data processing
B) Who owns data and how it's protected
C) Only data storage
D) Limited to data display
E) Just data transmission
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Just cost reduction
B) Limited to user experience
C) Only technical efficiency
D) Job impact and decision fairness
E) Exclusively speed improvement
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Software version changes
B) Technology quality differences
C) Internet speed variations
D) Device type diversity
E) Unequal access to technology
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Limited to user interface
B) Only user engagement
C) Just advertising
D) Content moderation and misinformation spread
E) Exclusively platform design
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Only facial recognition
B) Limited to data storage
C) Exclusively image analysis
D) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
E) Just speech processing
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Data collection and privacy rights
B) Limited to content sharing
C) Just advertising
D) Exclusively user engagement
E) Only social connections
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Database design
B) Hardware manufacturing
C) Network infrastructure
D) Software testing
E) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Focus on traditions
B) Consider only individuals
C) Develop character
D) Maximize positive outcomes
E) Follow strict rules
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Character development
B) Personal happiness
C) Relationship building
D) Duty and moral rules
E) Outcome maximization
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Speed of delivery
B) Profit optimization
C) Cost reduction
D) Honesty and integrity
E) Technical efficiency
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) Development timelines
B) System performance
C) Marginalized communities
D) Financial returns
E) Technical specifications
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Never during development
B) Only after deployment
C) Just during testing
D) While creating technologies
E) Exclusively in planning
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Future society
B) Innovation
C) Costs
D) Only current users
E) Technical progress
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Software sales
B) Network security
C) Hardware production
D) Responsible AI development
E) Database management
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Situation-based theory
B) Character-based theory
C) Culture-based theory
D) Consequentialist theory
E) Non-consequentialist theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Respecting individual rights
B) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
C) Following moral rules
D) Maximizing personal gain
E) Developing virtuous character
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Deontology
B) Relativism
C) Social Contract Theory
D) Virtue Ethics
E) Utilitarianism
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Character and virtues
B) Rules and duties
C) Outcomes or consequences of actions
D) Intentions and motivations
E) Social norms
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) Developing virtuous character
B) Respecting individual rights
C) Maximizing personal gain
D) The most happiness for the most people
E) Following universal rules
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Power and influence
B) Knowledge and wisdom
C) Wealth and status
D) Fame and recognition
E) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Varies by wealth
B) Changes with age
C) Depends on social status
D) Counts equally
E) Differs by gender
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Cultural relativism
B) Social contract theory
C) Deontological principles
D) Utilitarian decision-making
E) Virtue ethics
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Consulting others
B) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
C) Leaving it to fate
D) Finding another solution
E) Pulling the lever to save more lives
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Develop character
B) Respect traditions
C) Consider relationships
D) Ignore individual rights
E) Follow moral rules
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Following clear rules
B) Maintaining impartiality
C) Respecting traditions
D) Developing character
E) Predicting and measuring outcomes
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) Jeremy Bentham
B) Plato
C) Immanuel Kant
D) Aristotle
E) John Stuart Mill
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Character development
B) Relationship building
C) Set of rules regardless of consequences
D) Outcome-based calculation
E) Cultural norms
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Universalized without contradiction
B) Maximized for happiness
C) Accepted by society
D) Approved by authorities
E) Developed through practice
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Ignoring their needs
B) Controlling their actions
C) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
D) Exploiting their weaknesses
E) Using them for personal benefit
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Social expectation
B) Personal desire
C) Economic benefit
D) Cultural norm
E) Moral duty
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Serve society
B) Maximize happiness
C) Follow traditions
D) Develop character
E) Contradict each other
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Social contracts
B) Character and virtues of the individual
C) Outcomes of actions
D) Cultural traditions
E) Following moral rules
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) John Stuart Mill
B) Jeremy Bentham
C) Plato
D) Immanuel Kant
E) Aristotle
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Balance between deficiency and excess
B) Maximum happiness
C) Strict rule following
D) Social approval
E) Personal gain
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Gaining power
B) Maximizing pleasure
C) Flourishing or human happiness
D) Following rules
E) Avoiding pain
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Marketing expertise
B) Technical skills
C) Courage, honesty, compassion
D) Financial acumen
E) Management abilities
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
B) Financial requirements
C) Legal contracts
D) Technical specifications
E) Marketing strategies
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Maximum profits
B) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
C) Fast delivery
D) Low costs
E) Technical excellence
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Lower costs
B) Better marketing
C) Technical superiority
D) Faster development
E) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Guide decision making in challenging situations
B) Minimize time
C) Maximize profits
D) Reduce risks
E) Achieve perfection
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) Guaranteed success
B) More profits
C) No mistakes
D) Fewer challenges
E) Accountability for actions
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Minimizing competition
B) Ensuring superiority
C) Guaranteeing profits
D) Building credibility
E) Limiting innovation
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Timeline delays
B) Technical problems
C) Legal issues and reputation damage
D) Resource issues
E) Budget overruns
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Truthful and transparent dealings
B) Following procedures
C) Meeting deadlines
D) Maximizing profits
E) Achieving goals
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Ignoring privacy
B) Disclosing secrets
C) Publicizing details
D) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
E) Sharing information
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) Based on performance
B) According to position
C) With respect without bias
D) Based on education
E) Depending on wealth
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Team decisions
B) Legal and regulatory requirements
C) Personal preferences
D) Industry norms
E) Company policies only
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) Others' mistakes
B) Market conditions
C) Company failures
D) External factors
E) Actions and outcomes
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Maximum profits
B) Continuous learning and development
C) Quick solutions
D) Minimal effort
E) Technical shortcuts
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Fast delivery
B) Maximum discounts
C) Low prices
D) Honest and competent services
E) Technical perfection
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) Limited aspects
B) Personal information
C) Client interests
D) Company secrets
E) All data
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Sales driven
B) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
C) Marketing oriented
D) Financially focused
E) Technically skilled
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Avoiding teamwork
B) Supporting ethical practices
C) Maximizing performance
D) Focusing on competition
E) Minimizing collaboration
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Competition
B) Collaboration and respect
C) Superiority
D) Achievement
E) Financial success
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Ignoring needs
B) Focusing on self
C) Limiting cooperation
D) Maximizing gain
E) Supporting ethical practices
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Achieving goals
B) Meeting deadlines
C) Maximizing profits
D) Reducing costs
E) Benefiting society and community
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Career advancement
B) Legal ramifications
C) Technical improvements
D) Increased trust
E) Financial gains
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Professional advancement
B) Loss of trust
C) Financial success
D) Increased credibility
E) Technical expertise
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Suspension or termination
B) Promotions
C) Salary increases
D) Bonuses
E) Additional duties
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Improved collaboration
B) Increased motivation
C) Enhanced creativity
D) Decreased morale
E) Better performance
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) Technical performance
B) Organizational goals
C) Financial results
D) User convenience
E) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Technical improvements
B) Enhanced security
C) Better experience
D) Increased efficiency
E) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Low costs
B) Technical perfection
C) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
D) Maximum profits
E) Fast delivery
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Financial success
B) Technical superiority
C) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
D) Competitive advantage
E) Market dominance
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Technical skills
B) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
C) Project delivery
D) Quality assurance
E) Financial management
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Resource limitations
B) Team conflicts
C) Technical challenges
D) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
E) Communication issues
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Minimize time
B) Reduce costs
C) Maximize profits
D) Increase complexity
E) Design secure systems, conduct testing
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Minimize bandwidth
B) Ignore monitoring
C) Reduce measures
D) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
E) Maximize speed
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Unlimited access
B) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
C) Fast processing
D) Maximum collection
E) Low storage
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Gain prestige
B) Research integrity, consider impact
C) Maximize publications
D) Secure funding
E) Publish quickly
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Ignore scalability
B) Failure modes, embed security
C) Reduce complexity
D) Maximize performance
E) Minimize costs
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Reduce backups
B) Sensitive information, enforce control
C) Minimize storage
D) Increase access
E) Maximize performance
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