SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Deontology
B) Utilitarianism
C) Egoism
D) Relativism
E) Virtue Ethics
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Ayoko pang isipin.
B) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
C) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
D) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
E) Oo, sigurado ako!
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
B) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
C) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
D) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
E) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) Principles
B) People
C) Policies
D) Performance
E) Procedures
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Lucrative
B) Legitimate
C) Logical
D) Limited
E) Legal
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) It became profitable
B) Management agreed
C) It was temporary
D) Only experts approved
E) Everyone did it
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) System requirements
B) Personal integrity and accountability
C) Software standards
D) Stakeholder interests
E) Security protocols
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Just technical requirements
B) Only financial impacts
C) Limited to management
D) Exclusively legal aspects
E) Who is affected and how
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Impact rather than intent
B) Technical rather than social
C) Intent rather than impact
D) Financial rather than ethical
E) Short-term rather than long-term
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) End users, developers, clients, and society
B) Limited to regulators
C) Exclusively competitors
D) Only management
E) Just investors
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Exclusively timeline planning
B) Just budget analysis
C) Limited to profit calculation
D) Only technical evaluation
E) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) Budget constraints exist
B) Deadlines are missed
C) A moral dilemma
D) Technical problems arise
E) Requirements change
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Technical limitations
B) Proper planning
C) Resource abundance
D) Clear guidelines
E) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) After management approval
B) Last
C) Only if profitable
D) The severity of the bug
E) Based on cost
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) Can be fixed later
B) Can always be patched
C) Should be documented only
D) May be acceptable with warnings
E) Must not be ignored
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Proper planning
B) Following standards
C) Version control
D) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
E) Code reviews
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What the law allows or prohibits
B) What maximizes profits
C) What follows standards
D) What meets deadlines
E) What is technically efficient
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What is morally right or responsible
B) What meets deadlines
C) What the law allows or prohibits
D) What maximizes profits
E) What is technically efficient
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) Just technical performance
B) Only financial aspects
C) Nothing
D) Everything
E) A system
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Technical requirements
B) Team preferences
C) Industry trends
D) Budget constraints
E) Ethical decision frameworks
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) Only PLUS Model
B) Exclusively Professional codes
C) Limited to PLUS Model
D) Just Stakeholder Analysis
E) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Only for large projects
B) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
C) Limited to experts
D) Separate from technical work
E) Abstract and optional
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
B) Legal compliance
C) Social relationships
D) Technical problem-solving
E) Economic decision-making
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Mathematical concepts
B) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
C) Cultural traditions
D) Natural phenomena
E) Scientific theories
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Exclusively entertainment
B) Every aspect of daily life
C) Only scientific fields
D) Limited areas
E) Just business applications
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) Eliminates moral issues
B) Focuses solely on efficiency
C) It remains static
D) Only affects experts
E) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Improved equality
B) Job creation
C) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
D) Enhanced security
E) Better privacy
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Economic gains
B) Technical achievements
C) Benefits of technology
D) Social improvements
E) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Limited to data display
B) Exclusively data processing
C) Just data transmission
D) Who owns data and how it's protected
E) Only data storage
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Limited to user experience
B) Only technical efficiency
C) Job impact and decision fairness
D) Exclusively speed improvement
E) Just cost reduction
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Internet speed variations
B) Unequal access to technology
C) Software version changes
D) Device type diversity
E) Technology quality differences
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Only user engagement
B) Content moderation and misinformation spread
C) Exclusively platform design
D) Just advertising
E) Limited to user interface
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
B) Just speech processing
C) Limited to data storage
D) Exclusively image analysis
E) Only facial recognition
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Exclusively user engagement
B) Limited to content sharing
C) Just advertising
D) Only social connections
E) Data collection and privacy rights
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Network infrastructure
B) Hardware manufacturing
C) Database design
D) Software testing
E) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Maximize positive outcomes
B) Consider only individuals
C) Focus on traditions
D) Follow strict rules
E) Develop character
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Personal happiness
B) Outcome maximization
C) Duty and moral rules
D) Character development
E) Relationship building
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Cost reduction
B) Profit optimization
C) Speed of delivery
D) Technical efficiency
E) Honesty and integrity
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) Marginalized communities
B) Technical specifications
C) Financial returns
D) Development timelines
E) System performance
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Never during development
B) Just during testing
C) Only after deployment
D) Exclusively in planning
E) While creating technologies
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Costs
B) Only current users
C) Innovation
D) Technical progress
E) Future society
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Software sales
B) Database management
C) Responsible AI development
D) Hardware production
E) Network security
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Consequentialist theory
B) Character-based theory
C) Non-consequentialist theory
D) Culture-based theory
E) Situation-based theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Developing virtuous character
B) Following moral rules
C) Respecting individual rights
D) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
E) Maximizing personal gain
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Virtue Ethics
B) Utilitarianism
C) Deontology
D) Social Contract Theory
E) Relativism
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Rules and duties
B) Outcomes or consequences of actions
C) Intentions and motivations
D) Character and virtues
E) Social norms
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) Developing virtuous character
B) Maximizing personal gain
C) Following universal rules
D) Respecting individual rights
E) The most happiness for the most people
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
B) Wealth and status
C) Knowledge and wisdom
D) Power and influence
E) Fame and recognition
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Changes with age
B) Differs by gender
C) Depends on social status
D) Varies by wealth
E) Counts equally
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Virtue ethics
B) Social contract theory
C) Utilitarian decision-making
D) Deontological principles
E) Cultural relativism
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Consulting others
B) Leaving it to fate
C) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
D) Pulling the lever to save more lives
E) Finding another solution
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Develop character
B) Follow moral rules
C) Respect traditions
D) Consider relationships
E) Ignore individual rights
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Developing character
B) Predicting and measuring outcomes
C) Maintaining impartiality
D) Respecting traditions
E) Following clear rules
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) John Stuart Mill
B) Aristotle
C) Jeremy Bentham
D) Immanuel Kant
E) Plato
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Relationship building
B) Outcome-based calculation
C) Set of rules regardless of consequences
D) Cultural norms
E) Character development
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Universalized without contradiction
B) Accepted by society
C) Maximized for happiness
D) Approved by authorities
E) Developed through practice
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Controlling their actions
B) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
C) Exploiting their weaknesses
D) Using them for personal benefit
E) Ignoring their needs
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Moral duty
B) Cultural norm
C) Personal desire
D) Economic benefit
E) Social expectation
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Serve society
B) Contradict each other
C) Develop character
D) Follow traditions
E) Maximize happiness
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Outcomes of actions
B) Following moral rules
C) Cultural traditions
D) Social contracts
E) Character and virtues of the individual
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) Plato
B) John Stuart Mill
C) Immanuel Kant
D) Jeremy Bentham
E) Aristotle
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Personal gain
B) Balance between deficiency and excess
C) Strict rule following
D) Social approval
E) Maximum happiness
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Maximizing pleasure
B) Flourishing or human happiness
C) Following rules
D) Avoiding pain
E) Gaining power
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Management abilities
B) Courage, honesty, compassion
C) Marketing expertise
D) Technical skills
E) Financial acumen
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Financial requirements
B) Legal contracts
C) Marketing strategies
D) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
E) Technical specifications
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Maximum profits
B) Fast delivery
C) Technical excellence
D) Low costs
E) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
B) Lower costs
C) Technical superiority
D) Better marketing
E) Faster development
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Maximize profits
B) Minimize time
C) Achieve perfection
D) Guide decision making in challenging situations
E) Reduce risks
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) More profits
B) No mistakes
C) Guaranteed success
D) Accountability for actions
E) Fewer challenges
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Building credibility
B) Minimizing competition
C) Limiting innovation
D) Ensuring superiority
E) Guaranteeing profits
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Timeline delays
B) Resource issues
C) Budget overruns
D) Legal issues and reputation damage
E) Technical problems
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Following procedures
B) Meeting deadlines
C) Truthful and transparent dealings
D) Maximizing profits
E) Achieving goals
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Disclosing secrets
B) Ignoring privacy
C) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
D) Sharing information
E) Publicizing details
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) With respect without bias
B) Based on performance
C) Depending on wealth
D) According to position
E) Based on education
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Company policies only
B) Industry norms
C) Team decisions
D) Legal and regulatory requirements
E) Personal preferences
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) Market conditions
B) Actions and outcomes
C) Company failures
D) External factors
E) Others' mistakes
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Quick solutions
B) Technical shortcuts
C) Continuous learning and development
D) Maximum profits
E) Minimal effort
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Fast delivery
B) Technical perfection
C) Honest and competent services
D) Maximum discounts
E) Low prices
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) Company secrets
B) Client interests
C) Limited aspects
D) All data
E) Personal information
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
B) Marketing oriented
C) Sales driven
D) Financially focused
E) Technically skilled
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Minimizing collaboration
B) Supporting ethical practices
C) Avoiding teamwork
D) Maximizing performance
E) Focusing on competition
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Achievement
B) Financial success
C) Competition
D) Collaboration and respect
E) Superiority
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Limiting cooperation
B) Focusing on self
C) Supporting ethical practices
D) Ignoring needs
E) Maximizing gain
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Reducing costs
B) Meeting deadlines
C) Achieving goals
D) Maximizing profits
E) Benefiting society and community
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Legal ramifications
B) Technical improvements
C) Financial gains
D) Increased trust
E) Career advancement
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Professional advancement
B) Loss of trust
C) Financial success
D) Technical expertise
E) Increased credibility
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Additional duties
B) Promotions
C) Suspension or termination
D) Salary increases
E) Bonuses
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Enhanced creativity
B) Decreased morale
C) Improved collaboration
D) Better performance
E) Increased motivation
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) Financial results
B) Technical performance
C) User convenience
D) Organizational goals
E) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Increased efficiency
B) Technical improvements
C) Enhanced security
D) Better experience
E) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Technical perfection
B) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
C) Maximum profits
D) Low costs
E) Fast delivery
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Financial success
B) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
C) Market dominance
D) Technical superiority
E) Competitive advantage
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Project delivery
B) Financial management
C) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
D) Technical skills
E) Quality assurance
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Team conflicts
B) Communication issues
C) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
D) Resource limitations
E) Technical challenges
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Increase complexity
B) Maximize profits
C) Reduce costs
D) Design secure systems, conduct testing
E) Minimize time
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Maximize speed
B) Minimize bandwidth
C) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
D) Ignore monitoring
E) Reduce measures
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Fast processing
B) Unlimited access
C) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
D) Maximum collection
E) Low storage
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Research integrity, consider impact
B) Maximize publications
C) Secure funding
D) Gain prestige
E) Publish quickly
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Failure modes, embed security
B) Ignore scalability
C) Minimize costs
D) Maximize performance
E) Reduce complexity
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Maximize performance
B) Minimize storage
C) Increase access
D) Reduce backups
E) Sensitive information, enforce control
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