SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Egoism
B) Deontology
C) Utilitarianism
D) Virtue Ethics
E) Relativism
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Ayoko pang isipin.
B) Oo, sigurado ako!
C) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
D) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
E) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
B) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
C) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
D) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
E) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) Performance
B) Policies
C) Principles
D) Procedures
E) People
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Legal
B) Lucrative
C) Logical
D) Legitimate
E) Limited
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) It was temporary
B) Only experts approved
C) Management agreed
D) Everyone did it
E) It became profitable
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) System requirements
B) Personal integrity and accountability
C) Stakeholder interests
D) Software standards
E) Security protocols
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Just technical requirements
B) Only financial impacts
C) Who is affected and how
D) Limited to management
E) Exclusively legal aspects
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Financial rather than ethical
B) Impact rather than intent
C) Technical rather than social
D) Intent rather than impact
E) Short-term rather than long-term
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) Exclusively competitors
B) End users, developers, clients, and society
C) Only management
D) Just investors
E) Limited to regulators
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
B) Just budget analysis
C) Exclusively timeline planning
D) Limited to profit calculation
E) Only technical evaluation
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) Deadlines are missed
B) A moral dilemma
C) Requirements change
D) Technical problems arise
E) Budget constraints exist
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Proper planning
B) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
C) Resource abundance
D) Clear guidelines
E) Technical limitations
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) Last
B) The severity of the bug
C) Only if profitable
D) After management approval
E) Based on cost
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) Must not be ignored
B) May be acceptable with warnings
C) Should be documented only
D) Can always be patched
E) Can be fixed later
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
B) Code reviews
C) Following standards
D) Proper planning
E) Version control
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What the law allows or prohibits
B) What follows standards
C) What maximizes profits
D) What is technically efficient
E) What meets deadlines
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What the law allows or prohibits
B) What is technically efficient
C) What is morally right or responsible
D) What maximizes profits
E) What meets deadlines
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) Nothing
B) Only financial aspects
C) Everything
D) A system
E) Just technical performance
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Ethical decision frameworks
B) Technical requirements
C) Team preferences
D) Budget constraints
E) Industry trends
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) Just Stakeholder Analysis
B) Only PLUS Model
C) Limited to PLUS Model
D) Exclusively Professional codes
E) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Limited to experts
B) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
C) Abstract and optional
D) Only for large projects
E) Separate from technical work
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
B) Technical problem-solving
C) Social relationships
D) Economic decision-making
E) Legal compliance
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
B) Cultural traditions
C) Scientific theories
D) Mathematical concepts
E) Natural phenomena
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Every aspect of daily life
B) Just business applications
C) Exclusively entertainment
D) Limited areas
E) Only scientific fields
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
B) Focuses solely on efficiency
C) Eliminates moral issues
D) Only affects experts
E) It remains static
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Improved equality
B) Better privacy
C) Job creation
D) Enhanced security
E) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Benefits of technology
B) Technical achievements
C) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
D) Economic gains
E) Social improvements
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Only data storage
B) Limited to data display
C) Just data transmission
D) Who owns data and how it's protected
E) Exclusively data processing
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Job impact and decision fairness
B) Just cost reduction
C) Limited to user experience
D) Exclusively speed improvement
E) Only technical efficiency
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Technology quality differences
B) Device type diversity
C) Internet speed variations
D) Software version changes
E) Unequal access to technology
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Just advertising
B) Content moderation and misinformation spread
C) Limited to user interface
D) Exclusively platform design
E) Only user engagement
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Limited to data storage
B) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
C) Only facial recognition
D) Just speech processing
E) Exclusively image analysis
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Just advertising
B) Only social connections
C) Limited to content sharing
D) Exclusively user engagement
E) Data collection and privacy rights
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Network infrastructure
B) Database design
C) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
D) Hardware manufacturing
E) Software testing
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Consider only individuals
B) Follow strict rules
C) Maximize positive outcomes
D) Develop character
E) Focus on traditions
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Personal happiness
B) Outcome maximization
C) Relationship building
D) Duty and moral rules
E) Character development
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Cost reduction
B) Profit optimization
C) Honesty and integrity
D) Technical efficiency
E) Speed of delivery
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) Financial returns
B) Marginalized communities
C) System performance
D) Development timelines
E) Technical specifications
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Never during development
B) While creating technologies
C) Exclusively in planning
D) Only after deployment
E) Just during testing
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Future society
B) Costs
C) Only current users
D) Innovation
E) Technical progress
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Network security
B) Responsible AI development
C) Database management
D) Software sales
E) Hardware production
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Situation-based theory
B) Character-based theory
C) Culture-based theory
D) Non-consequentialist theory
E) Consequentialist theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Maximizing personal gain
B) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
C) Respecting individual rights
D) Following moral rules
E) Developing virtuous character
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Deontology
B) Utilitarianism
C) Social Contract Theory
D) Virtue Ethics
E) Relativism
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Rules and duties
B) Intentions and motivations
C) Character and virtues
D) Social norms
E) Outcomes or consequences of actions
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) The most happiness for the most people
B) Maximizing personal gain
C) Developing virtuous character
D) Following universal rules
E) Respecting individual rights
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
B) Wealth and status
C) Fame and recognition
D) Power and influence
E) Knowledge and wisdom
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Changes with age
B) Depends on social status
C) Differs by gender
D) Counts equally
E) Varies by wealth
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Virtue ethics
B) Deontological principles
C) Social contract theory
D) Cultural relativism
E) Utilitarian decision-making
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Leaving it to fate
B) Finding another solution
C) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
D) Pulling the lever to save more lives
E) Consulting others
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Respect traditions
B) Consider relationships
C) Follow moral rules
D) Ignore individual rights
E) Develop character
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Predicting and measuring outcomes
B) Respecting traditions
C) Maintaining impartiality
D) Developing character
E) Following clear rules
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) Aristotle
B) Immanuel Kant
C) John Stuart Mill
D) Plato
E) Jeremy Bentham
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Character development
B) Outcome-based calculation
C) Relationship building
D) Set of rules regardless of consequences
E) Cultural norms
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Approved by authorities
B) Developed through practice
C) Universalized without contradiction
D) Accepted by society
E) Maximized for happiness
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Using them for personal benefit
B) Ignoring their needs
C) Controlling their actions
D) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
E) Exploiting their weaknesses
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Economic benefit
B) Personal desire
C) Cultural norm
D) Moral duty
E) Social expectation
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Serve society
B) Contradict each other
C) Follow traditions
D) Develop character
E) Maximize happiness
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Cultural traditions
B) Following moral rules
C) Outcomes of actions
D) Social contracts
E) Character and virtues of the individual
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) Aristotle
B) Plato
C) John Stuart Mill
D) Immanuel Kant
E) Jeremy Bentham
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Maximum happiness
B) Personal gain
C) Social approval
D) Balance between deficiency and excess
E) Strict rule following
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Following rules
B) Maximizing pleasure
C) Avoiding pain
D) Flourishing or human happiness
E) Gaining power
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Technical skills
B) Management abilities
C) Financial acumen
D) Courage, honesty, compassion
E) Marketing expertise
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Marketing strategies
B) Technical specifications
C) Financial requirements
D) Legal contracts
E) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Low costs
B) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
C) Maximum profits
D) Technical excellence
E) Fast delivery
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Better marketing
B) Faster development
C) Technical superiority
D) Lower costs
E) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Minimize time
B) Maximize profits
C) Guide decision making in challenging situations
D) Reduce risks
E) Achieve perfection
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) More profits
B) Guaranteed success
C) No mistakes
D) Fewer challenges
E) Accountability for actions
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Guaranteeing profits
B) Minimizing competition
C) Building credibility
D) Limiting innovation
E) Ensuring superiority
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Budget overruns
B) Legal issues and reputation damage
C) Timeline delays
D) Resource issues
E) Technical problems
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Maximizing profits
B) Truthful and transparent dealings
C) Following procedures
D) Achieving goals
E) Meeting deadlines
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Sharing information
B) Publicizing details
C) Disclosing secrets
D) Ignoring privacy
E) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) According to position
B) Based on education
C) Based on performance
D) Depending on wealth
E) With respect without bias
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Legal and regulatory requirements
B) Team decisions
C) Personal preferences
D) Company policies only
E) Industry norms
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) Actions and outcomes
B) Others' mistakes
C) Market conditions
D) External factors
E) Company failures
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Minimal effort
B) Maximum profits
C) Technical shortcuts
D) Continuous learning and development
E) Quick solutions
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Honest and competent services
B) Technical perfection
C) Fast delivery
D) Low prices
E) Maximum discounts
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) Limited aspects
B) Company secrets
C) Client interests
D) All data
E) Personal information
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Financially focused
B) Technically skilled
C) Marketing oriented
D) Sales driven
E) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Focusing on competition
B) Minimizing collaboration
C) Supporting ethical practices
D) Maximizing performance
E) Avoiding teamwork
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Collaboration and respect
B) Achievement
C) Superiority
D) Financial success
E) Competition
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Supporting ethical practices
B) Limiting cooperation
C) Ignoring needs
D) Maximizing gain
E) Focusing on self
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Maximizing profits
B) Achieving goals
C) Reducing costs
D) Benefiting society and community
E) Meeting deadlines
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Increased trust
B) Financial gains
C) Career advancement
D) Technical improvements
E) Legal ramifications
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Loss of trust
B) Financial success
C) Professional advancement
D) Technical expertise
E) Increased credibility
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Suspension or termination
B) Salary increases
C) Additional duties
D) Bonuses
E) Promotions
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Decreased morale
B) Improved collaboration
C) Better performance
D) Enhanced creativity
E) Increased motivation
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) User convenience
B) Technical performance
C) Organizational goals
D) Financial results
E) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Technical improvements
B) Increased efficiency
C) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
D) Enhanced security
E) Better experience
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
B) Low costs
C) Maximum profits
D) Technical perfection
E) Fast delivery
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Competitive advantage
B) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
C) Financial success
D) Technical superiority
E) Market dominance
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Quality assurance
B) Technical skills
C) Project delivery
D) Financial management
E) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
B) Communication issues
C) Team conflicts
D) Resource limitations
E) Technical challenges
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Maximize profits
B) Design secure systems, conduct testing
C) Reduce costs
D) Increase complexity
E) Minimize time
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Ignore monitoring
B) Minimize bandwidth
C) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
D) Maximize speed
E) Reduce measures
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Fast processing
B) Maximum collection
C) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
D) Unlimited access
E) Low storage
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Secure funding
B) Research integrity, consider impact
C) Publish quickly
D) Maximize publications
E) Gain prestige
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Failure modes, embed security
B) Ignore scalability
C) Minimize costs
D) Reduce complexity
E) Maximize performance
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Maximize performance
B) Minimize storage
C) Increase access
D) Sensitive information, enforce control
E) Reduce backups
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