SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Deontology
B) Virtue Ethics
C) Utilitarianism
D) Relativism
E) Egoism
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Oo, sigurado ako!
B) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
C) Ayoko pang isipin.
D) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
E) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
B) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
C) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
D) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
E) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) Principles
B) People
C) Performance
D) Policies
E) Procedures
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Logical
B) Legitimate
C) Legal
D) Lucrative
E) Limited
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) It became profitable
B) It was temporary
C) Only experts approved
D) Everyone did it
E) Management agreed
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) Personal integrity and accountability
B) Stakeholder interests
C) Security protocols
D) Software standards
E) System requirements
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Limited to management
B) Who is affected and how
C) Exclusively legal aspects
D) Only financial impacts
E) Just technical requirements
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Financial rather than ethical
B) Impact rather than intent
C) Technical rather than social
D) Short-term rather than long-term
E) Intent rather than impact
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) Exclusively competitors
B) Limited to regulators
C) Only management
D) Just investors
E) End users, developers, clients, and society
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Limited to profit calculation
B) Exclusively timeline planning
C) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
D) Only technical evaluation
E) Just budget analysis
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) Technical problems arise
B) Budget constraints exist
C) Deadlines are missed
D) A moral dilemma
E) Requirements change
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Technical limitations
B) Resource abundance
C) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
D) Clear guidelines
E) Proper planning
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) Only if profitable
B) After management approval
C) Last
D) The severity of the bug
E) Based on cost
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) Can be fixed later
B) Must not be ignored
C) May be acceptable with warnings
D) Can always be patched
E) Should be documented only
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Code reviews
B) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
C) Following standards
D) Proper planning
E) Version control
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What maximizes profits
B) What the law allows or prohibits
C) What is technically efficient
D) What follows standards
E) What meets deadlines
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What the law allows or prohibits
B) What is technically efficient
C) What meets deadlines
D) What is morally right or responsible
E) What maximizes profits
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) Just technical performance
B) Everything
C) A system
D) Only financial aspects
E) Nothing
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Budget constraints
B) Technical requirements
C) Team preferences
D) Ethical decision frameworks
E) Industry trends
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) Limited to PLUS Model
B) Exclusively Professional codes
C) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
D) Only PLUS Model
E) Just Stakeholder Analysis
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Only for large projects
B) Limited to experts
C) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
D) Abstract and optional
E) Separate from technical work
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) Economic decision-making
B) Technical problem-solving
C) Social relationships
D) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
E) Legal compliance
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Scientific theories
B) Natural phenomena
C) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
D) Mathematical concepts
E) Cultural traditions
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Every aspect of daily life
B) Only scientific fields
C) Exclusively entertainment
D) Just business applications
E) Limited areas
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) It remains static
B) Eliminates moral issues
C) Only affects experts
D) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
E) Focuses solely on efficiency
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
B) Job creation
C) Improved equality
D) Better privacy
E) Enhanced security
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Technical achievements
B) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
C) Social improvements
D) Economic gains
E) Benefits of technology
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Who owns data and how it's protected
B) Just data transmission
C) Only data storage
D) Limited to data display
E) Exclusively data processing
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Job impact and decision fairness
B) Exclusively speed improvement
C) Only technical efficiency
D) Limited to user experience
E) Just cost reduction
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Software version changes
B) Technology quality differences
C) Device type diversity
D) Unequal access to technology
E) Internet speed variations
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Just advertising
B) Content moderation and misinformation spread
C) Only user engagement
D) Limited to user interface
E) Exclusively platform design
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
B) Only facial recognition
C) Exclusively image analysis
D) Limited to data storage
E) Just speech processing
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Exclusively user engagement
B) Data collection and privacy rights
C) Only social connections
D) Just advertising
E) Limited to content sharing
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Database design
B) Software testing
C) Hardware manufacturing
D) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
E) Network infrastructure
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Focus on traditions
B) Maximize positive outcomes
C) Follow strict rules
D) Consider only individuals
E) Develop character
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Relationship building
B) Outcome maximization
C) Duty and moral rules
D) Character development
E) Personal happiness
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Cost reduction
B) Technical efficiency
C) Speed of delivery
D) Honesty and integrity
E) Profit optimization
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) System performance
B) Technical specifications
C) Financial returns
D) Development timelines
E) Marginalized communities
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Just during testing
B) Never during development
C) Exclusively in planning
D) While creating technologies
E) Only after deployment
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Future society
B) Innovation
C) Only current users
D) Technical progress
E) Costs
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Software sales
B) Network security
C) Hardware production
D) Database management
E) Responsible AI development
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Character-based theory
B) Culture-based theory
C) Non-consequentialist theory
D) Consequentialist theory
E) Situation-based theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Following moral rules
B) Developing virtuous character
C) Maximizing personal gain
D) Respecting individual rights
E) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Deontology
B) Social Contract Theory
C) Virtue Ethics
D) Utilitarianism
E) Relativism
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Rules and duties
B) Social norms
C) Outcomes or consequences of actions
D) Character and virtues
E) Intentions and motivations
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) Maximizing personal gain
B) Following universal rules
C) Respecting individual rights
D) The most happiness for the most people
E) Developing virtuous character
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Knowledge and wisdom
B) Wealth and status
C) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
D) Fame and recognition
E) Power and influence
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Changes with age
B) Counts equally
C) Depends on social status
D) Varies by wealth
E) Differs by gender
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Deontological principles
B) Social contract theory
C) Utilitarian decision-making
D) Cultural relativism
E) Virtue ethics
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Pulling the lever to save more lives
B) Leaving it to fate
C) Consulting others
D) Finding another solution
E) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Respect traditions
B) Follow moral rules
C) Develop character
D) Ignore individual rights
E) Consider relationships
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Respecting traditions
B) Developing character
C) Predicting and measuring outcomes
D) Following clear rules
E) Maintaining impartiality
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) Jeremy Bentham
B) Aristotle
C) John Stuart Mill
D) Plato
E) Immanuel Kant
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Relationship building
B) Outcome-based calculation
C) Set of rules regardless of consequences
D) Cultural norms
E) Character development
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Developed through practice
B) Universalized without contradiction
C) Approved by authorities
D) Accepted by society
E) Maximized for happiness
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Using them for personal benefit
B) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
C) Ignoring their needs
D) Controlling their actions
E) Exploiting their weaknesses
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Cultural norm
B) Social expectation
C) Economic benefit
D) Personal desire
E) Moral duty
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Contradict each other
B) Develop character
C) Follow traditions
D) Serve society
E) Maximize happiness
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Outcomes of actions
B) Social contracts
C) Cultural traditions
D) Character and virtues of the individual
E) Following moral rules
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) Plato
B) Jeremy Bentham
C) Aristotle
D) John Stuart Mill
E) Immanuel Kant
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Maximum happiness
B) Balance between deficiency and excess
C) Strict rule following
D) Personal gain
E) Social approval
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Avoiding pain
B) Flourishing or human happiness
C) Maximizing pleasure
D) Following rules
E) Gaining power
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Financial acumen
B) Management abilities
C) Courage, honesty, compassion
D) Technical skills
E) Marketing expertise
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Financial requirements
B) Technical specifications
C) Legal contracts
D) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
E) Marketing strategies
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Low costs
B) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
C) Maximum profits
D) Fast delivery
E) Technical excellence
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Technical superiority
B) Faster development
C) Better marketing
D) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
E) Lower costs
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Reduce risks
B) Maximize profits
C) Achieve perfection
D) Minimize time
E) Guide decision making in challenging situations
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) More profits
B) No mistakes
C) Guaranteed success
D) Fewer challenges
E) Accountability for actions
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Building credibility
B) Guaranteeing profits
C) Minimizing competition
D) Ensuring superiority
E) Limiting innovation
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Legal issues and reputation damage
B) Budget overruns
C) Resource issues
D) Timeline delays
E) Technical problems
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Achieving goals
B) Meeting deadlines
C) Following procedures
D) Maximizing profits
E) Truthful and transparent dealings
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
B) Sharing information
C) Publicizing details
D) Ignoring privacy
E) Disclosing secrets
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) With respect without bias
B) Based on education
C) Depending on wealth
D) Based on performance
E) According to position
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Team decisions
B) Company policies only
C) Personal preferences
D) Legal and regulatory requirements
E) Industry norms
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) Actions and outcomes
B) Others' mistakes
C) Company failures
D) Market conditions
E) External factors
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Technical shortcuts
B) Quick solutions
C) Minimal effort
D) Maximum profits
E) Continuous learning and development
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Technical perfection
B) Maximum discounts
C) Low prices
D) Honest and competent services
E) Fast delivery
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) All data
B) Client interests
C) Personal information
D) Company secrets
E) Limited aspects
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Marketing oriented
B) Technically skilled
C) Financially focused
D) Sales driven
E) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Minimizing collaboration
B) Avoiding teamwork
C) Supporting ethical practices
D) Maximizing performance
E) Focusing on competition
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Achievement
B) Collaboration and respect
C) Financial success
D) Superiority
E) Competition
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Ignoring needs
B) Supporting ethical practices
C) Focusing on self
D) Maximizing gain
E) Limiting cooperation
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Benefiting society and community
B) Meeting deadlines
C) Reducing costs
D) Achieving goals
E) Maximizing profits
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Career advancement
B) Legal ramifications
C) Technical improvements
D) Increased trust
E) Financial gains
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Loss of trust
B) Technical expertise
C) Professional advancement
D) Financial success
E) Increased credibility
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Promotions
B) Bonuses
C) Additional duties
D) Suspension or termination
E) Salary increases
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Decreased morale
B) Improved collaboration
C) Enhanced creativity
D) Better performance
E) Increased motivation
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) User convenience
B) Technical performance
C) Financial results
D) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
E) Organizational goals
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Better experience
B) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
C) Technical improvements
D) Increased efficiency
E) Enhanced security
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Fast delivery
B) Technical perfection
C) Low costs
D) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
E) Maximum profits
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Financial success
B) Market dominance
C) Competitive advantage
D) Technical superiority
E) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Quality assurance
B) Financial management
C) Technical skills
D) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
E) Project delivery
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
B) Resource limitations
C) Technical challenges
D) Team conflicts
E) Communication issues
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Increase complexity
B) Reduce costs
C) Minimize time
D) Design secure systems, conduct testing
E) Maximize profits
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Ignore monitoring
B) Maximize speed
C) Minimize bandwidth
D) Reduce measures
E) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Fast processing
B) Maximum collection
C) Unlimited access
D) Low storage
E) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Maximize publications
B) Research integrity, consider impact
C) Secure funding
D) Publish quickly
E) Gain prestige
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Reduce complexity
B) Ignore scalability
C) Minimize costs
D) Failure modes, embed security
E) Maximize performance
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Maximize performance
B) Reduce backups
C) Increase access
D) Minimize storage
E) Sensitive information, enforce control
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