SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Utilitarianism
B) Egoism
C) Virtue Ethics
D) Deontology
E) Relativism
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Oo, sigurado ako!
B) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
C) Ayoko pang isipin.
D) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
E) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
B) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
C) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
D) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
E) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) Principles
B) Policies
C) People
D) Procedures
E) Performance
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Lucrative
B) Legitimate
C) Limited
D) Legal
E) Logical
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) It became profitable
B) Everyone did it
C) Management agreed
D) Only experts approved
E) It was temporary
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) Personal integrity and accountability
B) Software standards
C) Stakeholder interests
D) Security protocols
E) System requirements
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Limited to management
B) Exclusively legal aspects
C) Who is affected and how
D) Just technical requirements
E) Only financial impacts
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Impact rather than intent
B) Intent rather than impact
C) Short-term rather than long-term
D) Financial rather than ethical
E) Technical rather than social
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) End users, developers, clients, and society
B) Exclusively competitors
C) Limited to regulators
D) Only management
E) Just investors
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Exclusively timeline planning
B) Limited to profit calculation
C) Just budget analysis
D) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
E) Only technical evaluation
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) Deadlines are missed
B) Requirements change
C) Technical problems arise
D) A moral dilemma
E) Budget constraints exist
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Resource abundance
B) Technical limitations
C) Proper planning
D) Clear guidelines
E) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) After management approval
B) Only if profitable
C) The severity of the bug
D) Last
E) Based on cost
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) Can be fixed later
B) May be acceptable with warnings
C) Must not be ignored
D) Can always be patched
E) Should be documented only
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Following standards
B) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
C) Version control
D) Code reviews
E) Proper planning
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What follows standards
B) What meets deadlines
C) What is technically efficient
D) What maximizes profits
E) What the law allows or prohibits
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What the law allows or prohibits
B) What meets deadlines
C) What is technically efficient
D) What maximizes profits
E) What is morally right or responsible
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) Just technical performance
B) A system
C) Only financial aspects
D) Everything
E) Nothing
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Industry trends
B) Ethical decision frameworks
C) Technical requirements
D) Team preferences
E) Budget constraints
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) Only PLUS Model
B) Just Stakeholder Analysis
C) Exclusively Professional codes
D) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
E) Limited to PLUS Model
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Limited to experts
B) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
C) Separate from technical work
D) Abstract and optional
E) Only for large projects
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) Economic decision-making
B) Technical problem-solving
C) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
D) Social relationships
E) Legal compliance
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
B) Scientific theories
C) Mathematical concepts
D) Natural phenomena
E) Cultural traditions
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Limited areas
B) Just business applications
C) Only scientific fields
D) Exclusively entertainment
E) Every aspect of daily life
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) It remains static
B) Eliminates moral issues
C) Only affects experts
D) Focuses solely on efficiency
E) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Job creation
B) Enhanced security
C) Improved equality
D) Better privacy
E) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Benefits of technology
B) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
C) Economic gains
D) Technical achievements
E) Social improvements
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Exclusively data processing
B) Limited to data display
C) Just data transmission
D) Who owns data and how it's protected
E) Only data storage
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Just cost reduction
B) Limited to user experience
C) Job impact and decision fairness
D) Only technical efficiency
E) Exclusively speed improvement
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Unequal access to technology
B) Software version changes
C) Technology quality differences
D) Device type diversity
E) Internet speed variations
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Exclusively platform design
B) Just advertising
C) Only user engagement
D) Content moderation and misinformation spread
E) Limited to user interface
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Just speech processing
B) Exclusively image analysis
C) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
D) Limited to data storage
E) Only facial recognition
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Only social connections
B) Just advertising
C) Data collection and privacy rights
D) Exclusively user engagement
E) Limited to content sharing
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Hardware manufacturing
B) Database design
C) Network infrastructure
D) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
E) Software testing
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Develop character
B) Maximize positive outcomes
C) Follow strict rules
D) Focus on traditions
E) Consider only individuals
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Duty and moral rules
B) Personal happiness
C) Character development
D) Relationship building
E) Outcome maximization
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Technical efficiency
B) Honesty and integrity
C) Speed of delivery
D) Profit optimization
E) Cost reduction
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) Technical specifications
B) System performance
C) Development timelines
D) Financial returns
E) Marginalized communities
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Just during testing
B) Only after deployment
C) Exclusively in planning
D) Never during development
E) While creating technologies
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Future society
B) Innovation
C) Costs
D) Only current users
E) Technical progress
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Database management
B) Hardware production
C) Software sales
D) Responsible AI development
E) Network security
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Non-consequentialist theory
B) Situation-based theory
C) Character-based theory
D) Culture-based theory
E) Consequentialist theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Respecting individual rights
B) Developing virtuous character
C) Maximizing personal gain
D) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
E) Following moral rules
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Relativism
B) Virtue Ethics
C) Utilitarianism
D) Deontology
E) Social Contract Theory
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Rules and duties
B) Intentions and motivations
C) Social norms
D) Outcomes or consequences of actions
E) Character and virtues
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) Respecting individual rights
B) Developing virtuous character
C) The most happiness for the most people
D) Maximizing personal gain
E) Following universal rules
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
B) Fame and recognition
C) Wealth and status
D) Power and influence
E) Knowledge and wisdom
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Differs by gender
B) Counts equally
C) Varies by wealth
D) Depends on social status
E) Changes with age
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Cultural relativism
B) Virtue ethics
C) Deontological principles
D) Utilitarian decision-making
E) Social contract theory
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
B) Consulting others
C) Finding another solution
D) Leaving it to fate
E) Pulling the lever to save more lives
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Ignore individual rights
B) Develop character
C) Respect traditions
D) Consider relationships
E) Follow moral rules
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Developing character
B) Following clear rules
C) Respecting traditions
D) Predicting and measuring outcomes
E) Maintaining impartiality
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) Jeremy Bentham
B) Plato
C) John Stuart Mill
D) Aristotle
E) Immanuel Kant
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Outcome-based calculation
B) Relationship building
C) Character development
D) Set of rules regardless of consequences
E) Cultural norms
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Developed through practice
B) Accepted by society
C) Universalized without contradiction
D) Maximized for happiness
E) Approved by authorities
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
B) Controlling their actions
C) Exploiting their weaknesses
D) Using them for personal benefit
E) Ignoring their needs
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Social expectation
B) Economic benefit
C) Cultural norm
D) Moral duty
E) Personal desire
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Follow traditions
B) Contradict each other
C) Develop character
D) Maximize happiness
E) Serve society
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Outcomes of actions
B) Following moral rules
C) Cultural traditions
D) Character and virtues of the individual
E) Social contracts
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) Plato
B) Aristotle
C) Immanuel Kant
D) Jeremy Bentham
E) John Stuart Mill
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Social approval
B) Strict rule following
C) Balance between deficiency and excess
D) Personal gain
E) Maximum happiness
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Avoiding pain
B) Following rules
C) Flourishing or human happiness
D) Maximizing pleasure
E) Gaining power
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Courage, honesty, compassion
B) Management abilities
C) Financial acumen
D) Technical skills
E) Marketing expertise
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
B) Technical specifications
C) Marketing strategies
D) Legal contracts
E) Financial requirements
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
B) Technical excellence
C) Maximum profits
D) Low costs
E) Fast delivery
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
B) Better marketing
C) Faster development
D) Lower costs
E) Technical superiority
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Achieve perfection
B) Guide decision making in challenging situations
C) Reduce risks
D) Minimize time
E) Maximize profits
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) Fewer challenges
B) No mistakes
C) More profits
D) Guaranteed success
E) Accountability for actions
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Guaranteeing profits
B) Limiting innovation
C) Building credibility
D) Ensuring superiority
E) Minimizing competition
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Resource issues
B) Timeline delays
C) Technical problems
D) Legal issues and reputation damage
E) Budget overruns
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Achieving goals
B) Maximizing profits
C) Following procedures
D) Meeting deadlines
E) Truthful and transparent dealings
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
B) Ignoring privacy
C) Sharing information
D) Publicizing details
E) Disclosing secrets
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) With respect without bias
B) Based on performance
C) Based on education
D) According to position
E) Depending on wealth
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Team decisions
B) Company policies only
C) Industry norms
D) Personal preferences
E) Legal and regulatory requirements
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) Market conditions
B) Others' mistakes
C) Actions and outcomes
D) External factors
E) Company failures
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Continuous learning and development
B) Maximum profits
C) Technical shortcuts
D) Minimal effort
E) Quick solutions
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Low prices
B) Honest and competent services
C) Fast delivery
D) Maximum discounts
E) Technical perfection
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) Personal information
B) Limited aspects
C) Company secrets
D) All data
E) Client interests
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Technically skilled
B) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
C) Financially focused
D) Marketing oriented
E) Sales driven
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Avoiding teamwork
B) Focusing on competition
C) Maximizing performance
D) Minimizing collaboration
E) Supporting ethical practices
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Collaboration and respect
B) Superiority
C) Financial success
D) Achievement
E) Competition
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Focusing on self
B) Limiting cooperation
C) Ignoring needs
D) Supporting ethical practices
E) Maximizing gain
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Meeting deadlines
B) Benefiting society and community
C) Maximizing profits
D) Achieving goals
E) Reducing costs
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Financial gains
B) Increased trust
C) Technical improvements
D) Legal ramifications
E) Career advancement
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Professional advancement
B) Financial success
C) Technical expertise
D) Loss of trust
E) Increased credibility
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Salary increases
B) Suspension or termination
C) Promotions
D) Additional duties
E) Bonuses
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Decreased morale
B) Increased motivation
C) Improved collaboration
D) Enhanced creativity
E) Better performance
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) Financial results
B) Organizational goals
C) Technical performance
D) User convenience
E) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Better experience
B) Enhanced security
C) Technical improvements
D) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
E) Increased efficiency
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Technical perfection
B) Maximum profits
C) Low costs
D) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
E) Fast delivery
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Technical superiority
B) Competitive advantage
C) Financial success
D) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
E) Market dominance
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Quality assurance
B) Technical skills
C) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
D) Financial management
E) Project delivery
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Communication issues
B) Technical challenges
C) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
D) Resource limitations
E) Team conflicts
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Minimize time
B) Maximize profits
C) Design secure systems, conduct testing
D) Increase complexity
E) Reduce costs
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Maximize speed
B) Reduce measures
C) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
D) Minimize bandwidth
E) Ignore monitoring
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Maximum collection
B) Unlimited access
C) Low storage
D) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
E) Fast processing
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Gain prestige
B) Maximize publications
C) Research integrity, consider impact
D) Secure funding
E) Publish quickly
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Minimize costs
B) Ignore scalability
C) Failure modes, embed security
D) Reduce complexity
E) Maximize performance
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Sensitive information, enforce control
B) Minimize storage
C) Reduce backups
D) Increase access
E) Maximize performance
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