SOCPRO REVIEWER PRELIM: QUESTIONABLY REFINED EDITION ¯\_(ツ)_/¯ - Quiz
  • 1. The trolley problem is a classic example used to illustrate which ethical theory?
A) Utilitarianism
B) Egoism
C) Deontology
D) Virtue Ethics
E) Relativism
  • 2. Ano ang tingin mo, papasa ka ba sa exam na ito tungkol sa software ethics?
A) Siguro, depende sa swerte.
B) Baka, kung mag-aaral pa ako.
C) Oo, sigurado ako!
D) Hindi, kinakabahan ako.
E) Ayoko pang isipin.
  • 3. What does 'PLUS' stand for in the ethical decision-making model?
A) Principles, Laws, Unity, Systems
B) Policies, Legal, Universal, Self
C) People, Logic, Understanding, Standards
D) Planning, Logic, Understanding, Solutions
E) Performance, Leadership, Unity, Success
  • 4. What does the 'P' in PLUS stand for?
A) People
B) Policies
C) Performance
D) Principles
E) Procedures
  • 5. What does the 'L' in PLUS evaluate whether an action is?
A) Logical
B) Legal
C) Limited
D) Legitimate
E) Lucrative
  • 6. What does the 'U' in PLUS ask if an action would be acceptable if?
A) It became profitable
B) Only experts approved
C) It was temporary
D) Management agreed
E) Everyone did it
  • 7. What does the 'S' in PLUS involve?
A) Stakeholder interests
B) Security protocols
C) Personal integrity and accountability
D) Software standards
E) System requirements
  • 8. What does stakeholder analysis examine?
A) Exclusively legal aspects
B) Only financial impacts
C) Who is affected and how
D) Limited to management
E) Just technical requirements
  • 9. What does stakeholder analysis focus on?
A) Financial rather than ethical
B) Intent rather than impact
C) Impact rather than intent
D) Technical rather than social
E) Short-term rather than long-term
  • 10. Who are typical stakeholders in software projects?
A) Limited to regulators
B) Only management
C) Exclusively competitors
D) Just investors
E) End users, developers, clients, and society
  • 11. What is the process of stakeholder analysis?
A) Just budget analysis
B) Only technical evaluation
C) Identify stakeholders, assess benefits/risks, evaluate fairness
D) Limited to profit calculation
E) Exclusively timeline planning
  • 12. What occurs when two or more ethical principles conflict?
A) Requirements change
B) Budget constraints exist
C) Technical problems arise
D) Deadlines are missed
E) A moral dilemma
  • 13. What are common causes of moral dilemmas?
A) Technical limitations
B) Proper planning
C) Clear guidelines
D) Resource abundance
E) Time pressure, budget constraints, management demands
  • 14. What should be evaluated first when considering software release with known bugs?
A) The severity of the bug
B) After management approval
C) Only if profitable
D) Based on cost
E) Last
  • 15. What must critical bugs affecting safety or security be?
A) Must not be ignored
B) Should be documented only
C) May be acceptable with warnings
D) Can always be patched
E) Can be fixed later
  • 16. What are common shortcuts in development?
A) Code reviews
B) Following standards
C) Skipping testing, ignoring documentation, copying unlicensed code
D) Version control
E) Proper planning
  • 17. What do legal requirements focus on?
A) What the law allows or prohibits
B) What maximizes profits
C) What is technically efficient
D) What follows standards
E) What meets deadlines
  • 18. What do ethical considerations focus on?
A) What is technically efficient
B) What meets deadlines
C) What maximizes profits
D) What is morally right or responsible
E) What the law allows or prohibits
  • 19. What can be legal and technically correct but ethically questionable?
A) Only financial aspects
B) Everything
C) Just technical performance
D) A system
E) Nothing
  • 20. What helps avoid decisions based on personal bias, authority pressure, and convenience?
A) Team preferences
B) Technical requirements
C) Industry trends
D) Budget constraints
E) Ethical decision frameworks
  • 21. What are common ethical decision frameworks?
A) Just Stakeholder Analysis
B) Exclusively Professional codes
C) Limited to PLUS Model
D) Only PLUS Model
E) PLUS Model, Stakeholder Analysis, Professional codes
  • 22. How is ethics described as a professional skill?
A) Abstract and optional
B) Limited to experts
C) Separate from technical work
D) Only for large projects
E) Not abstract, not optional, not separate from technical work
  • 23. What is ethics defined as?
A) Legal compliance
B) Technical problem-solving
C) Economic decision-making
D) Social relationships
E) A branch of philosophy dealing with morality, right and wrong
  • 24. What is technology described as?
A) Cultural traditions
B) Natural phenomena
C) Mathematical concepts
D) Tools, systems, and devices created by humans to solve problems
E) Scientific theories
  • 25. What has technology become embedded in?
A) Just business applications
B) Only scientific fields
C) Limited areas
D) Every aspect of daily life
E) Exclusively entertainment
  • 26. Why does technology create new ethical challenges?
A) It evolves rapidly and affects privacy, security, equality
B) Focuses solely on efficiency
C) It remains static
D) Only affects experts
E) Eliminates moral issues
  • 27. What can unethical technological practices lead to?
A) Improved equality
B) Job creation
C) Enhanced security
D) Discrimination, loss of privacy, job displacement
E) Better privacy
  • 28. What are examples of potential consequences of unethical technology?
A) Data breaches, AI bias, autonomous weapons, digital addiction
B) Technical achievements
C) Economic gains
D) Social improvements
E) Benefits of technology
  • 29. What do privacy and data security concerns focus on?
A) Only data storage
B) Who owns data and how it's protected
C) Just data transmission
D) Exclusively data processing
E) Limited to data display
  • 30. What do AI and automation raise ethical issues about?
A) Limited to user experience
B) Job impact and decision fairness
C) Just cost reduction
D) Only technical efficiency
E) Exclusively speed improvement
  • 31. What does the digital divide refer to?
A) Technology quality differences
B) Software version changes
C) Internet speed variations
D) Device type diversity
E) Unequal access to technology
  • 32. What do social media raise ethical concerns about?
A) Only user engagement
B) Just advertising
C) Limited to user interface
D) Content moderation and misinformation spread
E) Exclusively platform design
  • 33. In what can AI bias disadvantage minority groups?
A) Exclusively image analysis
B) Only facial recognition
C) Limited to data storage
D) Predictive policing and hiring algorithms
E) Just speech processing
  • 34. What did the Cambridge Analytica scandal highlight issues with?
A) Just advertising
B) Exclusively user engagement
C) Only social connections
D) Data collection and privacy rights
E) Limited to content sharing
  • 35. What is crucial in AI development?
A) Database design
B) Network infrastructure
C) Hardware manufacturing
D) Software testing
E) Ensuring fairness, transparency, and accountability
  • 36. What does utilitarianism in technology aim to?
A) Focus on traditions
B) Follow strict rules
C) Maximize positive outcomes
D) Develop character
E) Consider only individuals
  • 37. What does deontological ethics emphasize?
A) Duty and moral rules
B) Outcome maximization
C) Personal happiness
D) Relationship building
E) Character development
  • 38. What does virtue ethics promote?
A) Speed of delivery
B) Cost reduction
C) Profit optimization
D) Honesty and integrity
E) Technical efficiency
  • 39. What does care ethics consider the impact on?
A) System performance
B) Development timelines
C) Technical specifications
D) Marginalized communities
E) Financial returns
  • 40. When must technologists be aware of ethical implications?
A) Just during testing
B) While creating technologies
C) Exclusively in planning
D) Only after deployment
E) Never during development
  • 41. What do the decisions made during technology development shape?
A) Innovation
B) Technical progress
C) Costs
D) Future society
E) Only current users
  • 42. What do Google's AI Principles guide?
A) Responsible AI development
B) Network security
C) Database management
D) Hardware production
E) Software sales
  • 43. Utilitarianism is classified as a:
A) Culture-based theory
B) Consequentialist theory
C) Situation-based theory
D) Non-consequentialist theory
E) Character-based theory
  • 44. Utilitarianism suggests actions are right if they promote:
A) Following moral rules
B) Respecting individual rights
C) The greatest happiness for the greatest number
D) Developing virtuous character
E) Maximizing personal gain
  • 45. Jeremy Bentham and John Stuart Mill are associated with:
A) Utilitarianism
B) Deontology
C) Social Contract Theory
D) Virtue Ethics
E) Relativism
  • 46. Utilitarianism focuses on the:
A) Character and virtues
B) Social norms
C) Intentions and motivations
D) Outcomes or consequences of actions
E) Rules and duties
  • 47. The greatest happiness principle states actions are morally right if they result in:
A) Following universal rules
B) Maximizing personal gain
C) Respecting individual rights
D) The most happiness for the most people
E) Developing virtuous character
  • 48. Hedonism in utilitarianism refers to the pursuit of:
A) Pleasure and avoidance of pain
B) Power and influence
C) Knowledge and wisdom
D) Wealth and status
E) Fame and recognition
  • 49. According to utilitarianism, everyone's happiness:
A) Changes with age
B) Varies by wealth
C) Depends on social status
D) Differs by gender
E) Counts equally
  • 50. The trolley problem illustrates:
A) Cultural relativism
B) Utilitarian decision-making
C) Deontological principles
D) Social contract theory
E) Virtue ethics
  • 51. In the trolley problem, utilitarianism recommends:
A) Consulting others
B) Leaving it to fate
C) Finding another solution
D) Not pulling to avoid responsibility
E) Pulling the lever to save more lives
  • 52. Utilitarianism can justify actions that maximize happiness but:
A) Develop character
B) Respect traditions
C) Follow moral rules
D) Consider relationships
E) Ignore individual rights
  • 53. Utilitarianism is difficult to apply because of challenges in:
A) Following clear rules
B) Predicting and measuring outcomes
C) Maintaining impartiality
D) Respecting traditions
E) Developing character
  • 54. Deontology is founded by:
A) Jeremy Bentham
B) John Stuart Mill
C) Plato
D) Aristotle
E) Immanuel Kant
  • 55. Deontology argues actions are morally right if they follow a:
A) Outcome-based calculation
B) Relationship building
C) Cultural norms
D) Character development
E) Set of rules regardless of consequences
  • 56. The categorical imperative requires acting according to maxims that can be:
A) Approved by authorities
B) Universalized without contradiction
C) Accepted by society
D) Maximized for happiness
E) Developed through practice
  • 57. In deontology, treating others as ends in themselves means:
A) Using them for personal benefit
B) Exploiting their weaknesses
C) Controlling their actions
D) Ignoring their needs
E) Respecting their dignity and autonomy
  • 58. Deontology emphasizes that moral actions are obligatory if they fulfill a:
A) Social expectation
B) Cultural norm
C) Moral duty
D) Personal desire
E) Economic benefit
  • 59. Deontology creates conflicts when duties:
A) Serve society
B) Follow traditions
C) Contradict each other
D) Maximize happiness
E) Develop character
  • 60. Virtue ethics focuses on the:
A) Character and virtues of the individual
B) Following moral rules
C) Cultural traditions
D) Outcomes of actions
E) Social contracts
  • 61. Virtue ethics was developed primarily by:
A) Plato
B) Aristotle
C) Jeremy Bentham
D) John Stuart Mill
E) Immanuel Kant
  • 62. The mean in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Social approval
B) Personal gain
C) Strict rule following
D) Balance between deficiency and excess
E) Maximum happiness
  • 63. Eudaimonia in virtue ethics refers to:
A) Flourishing or human happiness
B) Maximizing pleasure
C) Following rules
D) Avoiding pain
E) Gaining power
  • 64. Virtue ethics emphasizes cultivating virtues like:
A) Marketing expertise
B) Technical skills
C) Financial acumen
D) Management abilities
E) Courage, honesty, compassion
  • 65. A professional code of conduct is a set of:
A) Guidelines and principles governing professional behavior
B) Marketing strategies
C) Financial requirements
D) Legal contracts
E) Technical specifications
  • 66. Professional codes of conduct ensure:
A) Fast delivery
B) Ethical practices, integrity, and accountability
C) Technical excellence
D) Low costs
E) Maximum profits
  • 67. Professional codes help establish:
A) Faster development
B) Better marketing
C) Technical superiority
D) Trust with clients, colleagues, and the public
E) Lower costs
  • 68. The primary purpose of professional codes is to:
A) Achieve perfection
B) Maximize profits
C) Guide decision making in challenging situations
D) Minimize time
E) Reduce risks
  • 69. Professional codes ensure:
A) Fewer challenges
B) Accountability for actions
C) No mistakes
D) Guaranteed success
E) More profits
  • 70. Professional codes promote trust and respect by:
A) Minimizing competition
B) Guaranteeing profits
C) Ensuring superiority
D) Building credibility
E) Limiting innovation
  • 71. Professional codes help organizations avoid:
A) Technical problems
B) Legal issues and reputation damage
C) Budget overruns
D) Resource issues
E) Timeline delays
  • 72. Integrity and honesty in codes means:
A) Meeting deadlines
B) Truthful and transparent dealings
C) Maximizing profits
D) Achieving goals
E) Following procedures
  • 73. Confidentiality requires:
A) Publicizing details
B) Disclosing secrets
C) Ignoring privacy
D) Respecting privacy and safeguarding information
E) Sharing information
  • 74. Fairness and equality means treating individuals:
A) Based on education
B) With respect without bias
C) Depending on wealth
D) According to position
E) Based on performance
  • 75. Compliance with laws requires adherence to:
A) Personal preferences
B) Team decisions
C) Company policies only
D) Legal and regulatory requirements
E) Industry norms
  • 76. Accountability means taking responsibility for:
A) External factors
B) Market conditions
C) Company failures
D) Actions and outcomes
E) Others' mistakes
  • 77. Professional competence requires:
A) Maximum profits
B) Technical shortcuts
C) Quick solutions
D) Minimal effort
E) Continuous learning and development
  • 78. Obligations to clients include:
A) Honest and competent services
B) Low prices
C) Maximum discounts
D) Fast delivery
E) Technical perfection
  • 79. Maintaining confidentiality protects:
A) Personal information
B) All data
C) Client interests
D) Company secrets
E) Limited aspects
  • 80. Obligations to employers include being:
A) Financially focused
B) Marketing oriented
C) Punctual, reliable, dedicated
D) Sales driven
E) Technically skilled
  • 81. Contributing to workplace culture means:
A) Minimizing collaboration
B) Maximizing performance
C) Supporting ethical practices
D) Focusing on competition
E) Avoiding teamwork
  • 82. Obligations to colleagues include:
A) Achievement
B) Superiority
C) Competition
D) Financial success
E) Collaboration and respect
  • 83. Avoiding conflicts of interest means:
A) Supporting ethical practices
B) Focusing on self
C) Maximizing gain
D) Limiting cooperation
E) Ignoring needs
  • 84. Obligations to society require:
A) Achieving goals
B) Benefiting society and community
C) Reducing costs
D) Maximizing profits
E) Meeting deadlines
  • 85. Violating codes can lead to:
A) Technical improvements
B) Career advancement
C) Increased trust
D) Financial gains
E) Legal ramifications
  • 86. Damage to reputation results in:
A) Loss of trust
B) Technical expertise
C) Increased credibility
D) Professional advancement
E) Financial success
  • 87. Disciplinary action may include:
A) Salary increases
B) Additional duties
C) Suspension or termination
D) Bonuses
E) Promotions
  • 88. Internal issues from violations include:
A) Enhanced creativity
B) Improved collaboration
C) Increased motivation
D) Decreased morale
E) Better performance
  • 89. IT/CS professionals design systems affecting:
A) User convenience
B) Financial results
C) Organizational goals
D) Technical performance
E) Privacy, security, safety, economic outcomes
  • 90. Ethical failures in IT/CS can lead to:
A) Data breaches, financial loss, public harm
B) Enhanced security
C) Better experience
D) Technical improvements
E) Increased efficiency
  • 91. ACM code focuses on:
A) Technical perfection
B) Fast delivery
C) Maximum profits
D) Avoiding harm, honesty, fairness, privacy
E) Low costs
  • 92. IEEE code emphasizes:
A) Financial success
B) Market dominance
C) Public safety, honest claims, accountability
D) Technical superiority
E) Competitive advantage
  • 93. Core ethical themes across roles include:
A) Technical skills
B) Project delivery
C) Quality assurance
D) Financial management
E) Public welfare, honesty, transparency, accountability
  • 94. Ethical risks in IT/CS roles include:
A) Resource limitations
B) Technical challenges
C) Communication issues
D) Team conflicts
E) Management pressure, deadlines, incentives
  • 95. Software developers have primary responsibility to:
A) Reduce costs
B) Maximize profits
C) Design secure systems, conduct testing
D) Minimize time
E) Increase complexity
  • 96. Network administrators must:
A) Apply patches, protect logs, avoid abuse
B) Minimize bandwidth
C) Reduce measures
D) Ignore monitoring
E) Maximize speed
  • 97. Data analysts ensure:
A) Fast processing
B) Accuracy, avoid bias, protect information
C) Low storage
D) Maximum collection
E) Unlimited access
  • 98. Computer scientists maintain:
A) Research integrity, consider impact
B) Publish quickly
C) Secure funding
D) Gain prestige
E) Maximize publications
  • 99. Systems architects anticipate:
A) Maximize performance
B) Ignore scalability
C) Reduce complexity
D) Failure modes, embed security
E) Minimize costs
  • 100. Database specialists protect:
A) Maximize performance
B) Increase access
C) Minimize storage
D) Reduce backups
E) Sensitive information, enforce control
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