NICORRfinals
  • 1. Which statement BEST describes the nature of executive clemency?
A) It must be approved by Congress
B) It is subject to approval by the judiciary
C) It is a discretionary power of the Chief Executive
D) It may only be granted before conviction
  • 2. A prisoner who studies, teaches, or mentors while in prison may receive an additional deduction of per month.
A) 10 days
B) 15 days
C) 30 days
D) 20 days
  • 3. GCTA and STAL both serve to:
A) Transfer prisoners to another
B) Cancel criminal liability
C) Increase penalties
D) Reduce the sentence of a prisoner
  • 4. Which of the following best distinguishes amnesty from pardon?
A) Amnesty applies to groups of persons while pardon applies to individuals.
B) Amnesty is granted by courts while pardon is granted by the President.
C) Amnesty reduces penalty while pardon postpones punishment.
D) Amnesty requires judicial approval while pardon does not
  • 5. GCTA mainly affects which of the following?
A) Prisoner's civil rights
B) Length of imprisonment
C) Amount of court fines
D) Criminal liability
  • 6. Ana was convicted but allowed by the court to stay in the community under supervision instead of serving time in prison. What was granted?
A) REPRIEVE
B) PROBATION
C) PAROLE
  • 7. It is the temporary suspension of th sentence.
A) COMMUTATION OF SENTENCE
B) PROBATION
C) REPRIEVE
  • 8. What is the constitutional basis of executive clemency in the Philippines?
A) Article II Section 5 of the 1987 Constitution
B) Article III Section 1 of the 1987 Constitution
C) Article VII Section 19 of the 1987 Constitution
D) Article XI Section 1 of the 1987 Constitution
  • 9. Probation may be granted only:
A) After trial
B) After executive clemency
C) Before the offender begins serving the sentence
D) After the offender serves half of the sentence
  • 10. During a strong earthquake that damaged a provincial jail, several inmates escaped. One inmates inmate decided to remain inside the facility even though he had the opportunity to flee. Later, he requested the grant of Special Time Allowance for Loyalty (STAL).
    Under Republic Act No. 10592, what is the proper legal basis for granting STAL?
A) The inmate voluntarily surrendered after committing another crime.
B) The inmate demonstrated loyalty by not escaping during a calamity.
C) The inmate served more than half of his sentence.
D) The inmate committed no disciplinary offense.
  • 11. During the 3rd to 5th year of imprisonment, the deduction for good conduct is per month.
A) 30 days
B) 25 days
C) 23 days
D) 20 days
  • 12. During the first two (2) years of imprisonment, a prisoner may receive how many days deduction per month for good behavior?
A) 15 days
B) 23 days
C) 30 days
D) 20 days
  • 13. Probation is granted by the President?
A) TRUE
B) May be
C) FALSE
D) Sometimes
  • 14. Special Time Allowance for Loyalty (STAL) is granted when a prisoner:
A) Refuses to escape during a calamity
B) Works inside the prison
C) Serves half of the sentence
D) Finishes rehabilitation programs
  • 15. In cases involving violations of election laws, the President cannot grant pardon without recommendation from:
A) Board of Pardons and Parole
B) Department of Justice
C) Commission on Elections
D) Supreme Court
  • 16. Special ITime Allowance for Loyalty grants how much deduction to a prisoner who escapes during a calamity but voluntarily surrenders within 48 hours?
A) 1/5 of the sentence
B) 1/4 of the sentenc
C) 1/2 of the sentence
D) 1/3 of the sentence
  • 17. It is an act of grace that forgives the offender from punishment.
A) Pardon
B) Court
C) Parole
D) Amnesty
  • 18. Pedro was convicted of rebellion. The government later granted forgiveness to all rebels to restore peace. What form of executive clemency was granted?
A) Pardon
B) Court
C) Amnesty
D) Courtesy
  • 19. The document containing prison records submitted to the Board of Pardons and Parole.
A) Amnesty
B) Carpeta
C) Court
D) Pardon
  • 20. Juan was sentenced to 20 years imprisonment. Juan sentenced to years imprisonment The President reduced his sentence to 10 years What form of executive clemency was granted?
A) Court
B) PARDON
C) COMMUTATION OF SENTENCE
D) PAROLE
  • 21. During the hearing for violation of probation conditions, the probationer has the right to:
A) Replace the trial judge handling the case
B) Demand dismissal without hearing
C) Be informed of the violation charged and present evidence in his favor
D) Refuse to appear before the court
  • 22. If the court finds that a probationer committed a serious violation, what action may the court take?
A) Immediately acquit the probationer
B) Automatically terminate probation
C) Issue a warrant of arrest
D) Refer the case to the barangay
  • 23. During the hearing for violation of probation conditions, the probationer has the right to
    counsel:
A) Of his own choice
B) Only if provided by the prosecutor
C) Only during appeal
D) Only if appointed by the probation officer
  • 24. Which of the following is NOT specifically required as part of the contents of a Violation Report?
A) Recommendation of the barangay captain
B) Place, date, and time of the alleged violation
C) Statements or affidavits of apprehending officers
D) Probationer's sworn explanation before a notary public
  • 25. After the probation period expires and the probationer has complied with all conditions, the court may issue a Final Discharge, which has the effect of:
A) Restoring civil rights lost due to conviction
B) Cancelling civil liability
C) Reopening the criminal case
D) Automatically granting parole
  • 26. The Probation Officer's Final Report (PPA Form #9) should be submitted to the Trial Court:
A) One year after supervision begins
B) After the probationer files a request
C) Immediately after conviction
D) Thirty days before the expiration of the probation period
  • 27. In proceedings involving serious violations of probation conditions, the State shall be
    represented by:
A) Public Attorney
B) Chief Probation Officer
C) Proper prosecuting officer
D) Barangay Justice
  • 28. After completing the fact-finding investigation, the supervising probation officer must prepare a document containing the findings and recommendations regarding the alleged violation. What is this document called?
A) Probation Investigation Report
B) Compliance Assessment Report
C) Revocation Petition
D) Violation Report
  • 29. Which of the following may qualify a probationer for early termination of probation?
A) Serious physical or mental disability
B) Commission of another offense
C) Failure to comply with reporting requirements
D) Refusal to participate in rehabilitation programs
  • 30. Which of the following must be included in a Violation Report submitted to the Trial Court?
A) The probationer's educational background only
B) The nature, character, and designation of the violation
C) Political affiliation of the probationer
D) Personal opinion of the probation officer only
  • 31. A court order modifying probation conditions or revoking probation is generally:
A) Not appealable but may be corrected by certiorari
B) Automatically subject to review by the DOJ
C) Appealable to the Court of Appeals
D) Appealable to the Supreme Court
  • 32. Which of the following is NOT a ground for termination of probation supervision?
A) Early termination of probation
B) Filing of a civil case against the probationer
C) Death of the probationer
D) Successful completion of probation
  • 33. When a reliable informant reports that a probationer violated one of the probation conditions, who is primarily responsible for conducting or requiring the fact-finding investigation to determine the truthfulness of the allegation?
A) Local Police Chief
B) Trial Court Judge
C) SPPO, Sr. PPO, PPO II, PPO I, or the CPPO
D) Prosecutor assianed to the case
  • 34. If the court finds that a serious violation of probation conditions has been established, the court may:
A) Transfer the case to another court
B) Automatically impose a new criminal case
C) Continue probation, modify conditions, or revoke probation
D) Dismiss the original conviction
  • 35. After receiving the court's court's Termination Order discharging the probationer, the Probation Office shall:
A) Send the records to the police department
B) Formally close the probation case and archive the records
C) Transfer supervision to the barangay
D) Destroy the probation records immediately
  • 36. A probationer may be recommended for early termination if he has already served at least:
A) Two-thirds (2/3) of the probation period
B) One-half (1/2) of the probation period
C) One-fourth (1/4) of the probation period
D) One-third (1/3) of the probation period
  • 37. Who prepares the Violation Report containing
    findings and recommendations regarding the alleged violation on Probations condition?
A) Trial Court Judge
B) Prosecutor
C) Supervising Probation Officer
D) Police Investigator
  • 38. If a probationer fails to report for initial supervision within seventy-two (72) hours from receipt of the probation order or within the period required by the trial court, the Parole and Probation Office shall:
A) Report the matter to the trial court for appropriate action
B) Immediately revoke the probation
C) Automatically terminate probation supervision
D) File criminal charges against the probationer
  • 39. A probationer committed an act that may

    constitute a violation of the conditions stated in the probation order. Before reporting the matter to the court, the supervising officer must consider the totality of facts and surrounding circumstances. This concept refers to:
A) Concept of Violation of Probation Condition
B) Probation Supervision Investigation
C) Preliminary Revocation Procedure
D) Conditional Revocation Process
  • 40. The Violation Report must be approved or noted by the:
A) Barangay Captain
B) Prosecutor
C) CPPO
D) Mayor
  • 41. TASTM may be granted to a prisoner:
A) At any time during the period of imprisonment
B) Only during the first year of imprisonment
C) Only after appeal is finished
D) Only during parole
  • 42. Republic Act No. 10592 amended provisions of the Revised Penal Code of the Philippines. Which articles were specifically amended?
A) Articles 50, 60, 70, and 80
B) Articles 29, 94, 97, 98, and 99
C) Articles 10, 15, 20, 25, and 30
D) Articles 100, 101, 102, and 103
  • 43. What is Preventive Imprisonment?
A) A penalty imposed by the President
B) A punishment given after parole violation
C) The detention of a person while the case is being investigated or tried
D) The imprisonment after conviction
  • 44. Preventive imprisonment is counted as part of the sentence when:
A) The accused is deported
B) The accused is released on bail
C) The accused is later convicted
D) The accused escapes
  • 45. Which article of the Revised Penal Code provides the credit for preventive imprisonment?
A) Article 97
B) Article 89
C) Article 99
D) Article 29
  • 46. Under RA 10592, the Good Conduct Time Allowance (GCTA) is granted to prisoners who
    demonstrate:
A) Good discipline and obedience to prison rules
B) Wealth and status
C) Political influence
D) Family connections in government
  • 47. Which article of the Revised Penal Code provides the allowance for good conduct?
A) Article 50
B) Article 75
C) Article 97
D) Article 110
  • 48. The evaluation conducted by the MSEC usually considers which of the following factors?
A) Participation in rehabilitation programs
B) Work performance and discipline
C) All of the above
D) Inmate behavior and compliance with institutional rules
  • 49. In provincial, city, district, or municipal jails, the official who may grant time allowances is the:
A) Court Clerk
B) Prosecutor
C) Trial court
D) Jail Warden
  • 50. Which of the following is NOT part of the responsibilities of the MSEC?
A) Issuing final court judgments on criminal cases
B) Evaluating conduct and participation in correctional programs
C) Screening prisoners for eligibility for time allowances
D) Recommending appropriate credits or benefits to qualified inmates
  • 51. The creation of the MSEC is closely related to the implementation of time allowance provisions under:
A) Republic Act No. 9165
B) Republic Act No. 1125
C) Republic Act No. 6975
D) Republic Act No. 10592
  • 52. Which of the following is NOT one of the benefits granted under RA 10592?
A) Special Time Allowance for Loyalty
B) Immediate presidential pardon
C) Good Conduct Time Allowance
D) Credit for Preventive Imprisonment
  • 53. Which government department supervises the correctional system that implements RA 10592?
A) DOJ
B) DND
C) DILG
D) DOH
  • 54. STAL applies to which of the following prisoners?
A) Only prisoners convicted by final judgment
B) Only prisoners serving life sentences
C) Both detention prisoners and convicted prisoners
D) Only detention prisoners
  • 55. The application of STAL contributes to the correctional goal of:
A) Eliminating prison rules
B) Allowing prisoners to escape freely
C) Removing rehabilitation programs
D) Strengthening prison discipline and rewarding loyalty
  • 56. What does TASTM stand for?
A) Time Allowance for Security and Training Management
B) Time Assessment System for Training Management
C) Training and Academic Support for Teaching Mentors
D) Time Allowance for Study, Teaching and Mentoring
  • 57. How many days may be deducted from a prisoner's sentence for every month of study, teaching, or mentoring service?
A) 20 days
B) 15 days
C) 30 days
D) 10 days
  • 58. A prisoner who escaped during a calamity but surrendered three days later after the official
    announcement is:
A) Not entitled to STAL
B) Automatically pardoned
C) Entitled to half of STAL
D) Entitled to STAL
  • 59. Who are entitled to Credit for Preventive Imprisonment (CPI) under RA 10592?
A) Accused persons detained during trial wholater receive a prison sentence
B) Only parolees
C) Only prisoners serving life imprisonment
D) Only prisoners convicted of heinous crimes
  • 60. Which of the following situations qualifies a prisoner for two-fifths deduction under STAL?
A) The prisoner refuses to follow prison
B) The prisoner stays inside the prison despite danger caused by a calamity
C) The prisoner escapes during a flood
D) The prisoner requests release
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