CDI1-FINVIN
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Influence the statements of witnesses
B) Ascertain facts to establish truth
C) Collect evidence for intelligence units
D) Secure the conviction of the accused
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Termination phase
B) Reporting phase
C) Follow-up phase
D) Initial response phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Drafting an intelligence cycle
B) Organizing the prosecution panel
C) Determining the essential information about a crime
D) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) Individuals present before the incident
B) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
C) Only the perpetrators
D) Persons who may testify only
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Secrecy
B) Flexibility
C) Timeliness
D) Accuracy
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Examination
B) Interrogation
C) Validation
D) Interview
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Planning and direction
B) Collection
C) Processing
D) Dissemination
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Conversion of raw data to usable information
B) Documentation of court records
C) Deployment of operatives
D) Arrest of suspects
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Replace interrogation
B) Establish public visibility
C) Observe activities discreetly
D) Create fear among suspects
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Court prosecution
B) Preliminary investigation
C) Termination
D) Follow-up investigation
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Accuracy
B) Reliability
C) Mobility
D) Secrecy
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “Why
B) The “How”
C) The “When”
D) The “Who”
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Notes
B) Canvassing
C) Surveillance
D) Photography
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Pressure them for a confession
B) Prepare defense strategies
C) Influence their recall
D) Elicit firsthand observations
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Overt information
B) Operational intelligence
C) Covert collection
D) Strategic intelligence
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Securing perimeter
B) Case linkage and further evidence search
C) Arresting without probable cause
D) Closing case files
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Where
B) Why
C) Who
D) Witness credibility
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Accuracy
B) Secrecy
C) Compatibility
D) Timeliness
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Note-taking
B) Examination
C) Sketch
D) Interview
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Provide foundation for prosecution
B) Reduce the investigator’s workload
C) Avoid the need for witnesses
D) Confuse the defense counsel
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Prosecution phase
B) Termination phase
C) Reporting phase
D) Initial response
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Overt intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Counterintelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Replace photography
B) Provide a scale representation of the area
C) Identify the suspect immediately
D) Make a 3D reconstruction
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Objectivity
B) Accurate reporting
C) Coordination
D) Unity of direction
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Case termination
B) Source evaluation
C) Arrest timing
D) Surveillance planning
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Reactive investigative strategy
B) Failure of planning
C) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
D) Low information value
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Strategic intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Tactical surveillance data
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Exclusion
B) Integration
C) Refutation
D) Prior isolation
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Rapid reporting
B) Analytical risk assessment
C) Document reproduction
D) Specialized dissemination
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest by search warrant
B) Arrest in flagrante delicto
C) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
D) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to bail
B) Right to a speed disposition
C) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
D) Right to silence only
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Evidence-centered searching
B) Coordinated circular movement
C) Vertical, overlapping movement
D) Randomized checking pattern
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 10022
B) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
C) R.A. 9231
D) R.A. 7438
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Wheel search method
B) Outward spiral method
C) Zone search method
D) Spotlight method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
B) Physical evidence doctrine
C) Hot pursuit doctrine
D) Costudial remedy rule
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Rough sketching
B) Triangulation method
C) Polar coordinates
D) Baseline method
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) R.A. 9745
B) Warrantless arrest doctrine
C) Search and seizure procedure
D) R.A. 7438
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Tail–relay method
B) Contact surveillance
C) Visual obstruction tracking
D) Direct trailing
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Replace photography
B) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
C) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
D) Substitute formal diagrams
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Consent search
B) Search for premises
C) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
D) Administrative search
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) Both A and B
B) Only search and seizure rules
C) R.A. 9745
D) R.A. 7438
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) The central point moving outward
B) The corners of the crime scene
C) Random points decided by personnel
D) The outer boundaries moving inward
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Chain of custody
B) Physical integrity doctrine
C) Chain of surveillance
D) Harmonization
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Proper search procedure
B) Administrative rule for detention
C) Necessity of force principle
D) Gender-nuetrality principle
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The suspect verbally consented
B) The evidence was in closed storage
C) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
D) A perimeter search was conducted
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Evidence was already in plain view
B) Crime scene was already secured
C) Consent existed
D) Probable cause was independently established
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether visibility is limited
B) Whether the center is identifiable
C) Whether sketches can be made later
D) Whether multiple teams are available
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
B) Rely solely on photographs
C) Discard the rough sketch
D) Present both sketches and let the court decide
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) If the suspect was deceived
B) If the suspect already had a lawyer
C) Whether the confession was spontaneous
D) Whether the officer recorded the moment
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Invalid due to lack of overt act
B) Valid under warrantless arrest
C) Valid under custodial rule
D) Valid under stop-and-frisk
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) The search should be delayed until morning
B) Only photographs should be taken
C) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
D) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Valid if voluntary
B) Valid if officer witnesses it
C) Invalid for lack of counsel
D) Valid if recorded
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether officers had a search warrant
B) Whether area searched was within immediate control
C) Whether consent was implied
D) Whether suspect resisted
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Witness-led collection
B) Uncontrolled investigation
C) Random evidence retrieval
D) Systematic crime scene search
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Raw information
B) Finished intelligence
C) Classified information
D) Discarded information
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Weapon used
B) Suspect identities
C) Underlying motive
D) Sequence of action
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Support decision-making
B) Provide public entertainment
C) Replace investigators
D) Create confidential rumors
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Impulsive decision-making
B) Observant and systematic
C) Prioritizing personal judgment
D) Overreliance on instincts
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Rumors about the suspect
B) Any verbal statement
C) Tangible items related to the crim
D) Hearsay from neighbors
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Strategic
B) Overt
C) Publicly available
D) Covert
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Dissemination phase
B) Crime scene processing
C) Follow-up phase
D) Court presentation
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) Instruments of the crime
B) Personal belongings of witnesses
C) All destroyed evidence
D) Every item in the area
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) The suspect
B) Proper decision-makers
C) Any available personnel
D) Only investigators
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Crime scene processing
B) Neighborhood canvassing
C) Intelligence gathering
D) Surveillance
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Means
B) Motive
C) Modus operandi
D) Opportunity
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Secure and isolate the scene
B) Collect fingerprints immediately
C) Conduct interrogation
D) Approach the suspect
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Structural intelligence
D) Administrative intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Weather Conditions
B) Date and time of occurrence
C) Evidence collected
D) Cause of death
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Locates suspect
B) Create Investigation direction
C) Shows exact appearance
D) Replace testimony
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Avoid filing cases
B) Identify the guilty party
C) Produce intelligence reports
D) Satisfy public demand
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Scene integrity
B) Suspect
C) Witness credibility
D) Confidential materials from adversaries
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Arrest warrant
B) Interrogation
C) Preliminary hearing
D) Judicial affidavit
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Processing
B) Follow-up
C) Case documentation
D) Termination
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Surveillance
B) Interrogation
C) Interview
D) Sketching
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Strategic
B) Structural
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Overt
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Evaluating investigative leads
B) Conducting termination
C) Initial response
D) Organizing evidence chronologically
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Motive analysis
B) Scene sketching
C) Reconstruction
D) Verification
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Dissemination
B) Processing
C) Collection
D) Coordination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Witness evaluation
B) Case isolation
C) Accusation formulation
D) Pattern analysis
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) Surveillance
B) Note-taking
C) Deductive reasoning
D) The cardinal points
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Using direct confrontation
B) Maintaining a fixed pace
C) Preserving cover and concealment
D) Establishing overt presence
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Processing
B) Dissemination
C) Collection
D) Direction
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Securing informant identity
B) Evidence substitution
C) Strategic penetration
D) Randomizing interrogation
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Overt documentation
B) Pattern recognition
C) Interrogation technique
D) Randomized tracking
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Classification
B) Dissemination
C) Direction
D) Evaluation
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Danger informant
B) Regular informant
C) Accidental source
D) Classified agent
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Security labeling
B) Encoding
C) Overclassification
D) Raw sorting
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Direct trailing
B) Contact surveillance
C) Visual obstruction tracking
D) Tail-relay method
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Planning and direction
B) Dissemination
C) Analysis
D) Reclassification
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Tactical manipulation
B) Source validation
C) Surveillance support
D) Premature classification
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Random selection
B) Discarding all sources
C) Prioritization of information
D) Offensive surveillance
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Rational shadowing
B) Dual-tracking
C) Forced confrontation
D) Cover selection
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Strategic
B) Operational
C) Administrative
D) Background
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Indirect canvassing
B) Technical surveillance
C) Witness retrieval
D) Controlled overt collection
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Proper document disposal
B) Covert misinformation
C) Interrogation secrecy
D) Information suppression
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Improvised surveillance
B) Fragmented tracking
C) Combined (team) surveillance
D) Static intelligence
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Planning clarity
B) Source reliability
C) Document security
D) Dissemination
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Operational utility vs. security risk
B) If surveillance should be canceled
C) Whether to change the informant’s identity
D) Whether to reassign the team
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Compartmentation principle
B) Surveillance coordination
C) Multi-source evaluation
D) Covert collection
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Source cross-validation
B) Immediate confrontation
C) Evidence suppression
D) Hypothetical assumption
Created with That Quiz — where a math practice test is always one click away.