CDI1-FINVIN
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Secure the conviction of the accused
B) Collect evidence for intelligence units
C) Influence the statements of witnesses
D) Ascertain facts to establish truth
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Follow-up phase
B) Termination phase
C) Reporting phase
D) Initial response phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
B) Organizing the prosecution panel
C) Drafting an intelligence cycle
D) Determining the essential information about a crime
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
B) Individuals present before the incident
C) Persons who may testify only
D) Only the perpetrators
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Accuracy
B) Flexibility
C) Secrecy
D) Timeliness
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Examination
B) Interview
C) Validation
D) Interrogation
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Planning and direction
B) Dissemination
C) Collection
D) Processing
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Conversion of raw data to usable information
B) Deployment of operatives
C) Documentation of court records
D) Arrest of suspects
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Observe activities discreetly
B) Create fear among suspects
C) Establish public visibility
D) Replace interrogation
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Follow-up investigation
C) Termination
D) Court prosecution
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Mobility
B) Accuracy
C) Reliability
D) Secrecy
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “How”
B) The “Why
C) The “Who”
D) The “When”
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Photography
B) Surveillance
C) Notes
D) Canvassing
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Pressure them for a confession
B) Prepare defense strategies
C) Elicit firsthand observations
D) Influence their recall
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Overt information
B) Covert collection
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Securing perimeter
B) Closing case files
C) Arresting without probable cause
D) Case linkage and further evidence search
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Why
B) Where
C) Who
D) Witness credibility
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Timeliness
B) Secrecy
C) Compatibility
D) Accuracy
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Sketch
B) Note-taking
C) Examination
D) Interview
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Provide foundation for prosecution
B) Confuse the defense counsel
C) Avoid the need for witnesses
D) Reduce the investigator’s workload
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Termination phase
B) Prosecution phase
C) Reporting phase
D) Initial response
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Counterintelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Operational intelligence
D) Overt intelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Make a 3D reconstruction
B) Provide a scale representation of the area
C) Replace photography
D) Identify the suspect immediately
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Coordination
B) Accurate reporting
C) Unity of direction
D) Objectivity
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Arrest timing
B) Surveillance planning
C) Source evaluation
D) Case termination
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Failure of planning
B) Low information value
C) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
D) Reactive investigative strategy
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Tactical surveillance data
B) Operational intelligence
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Strategic intelligence
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Refutation
B) Prior isolation
C) Exclusion
D) Integration
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Rapid reporting
B) Document reproduction
C) Specialized dissemination
D) Analytical risk assessment
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
B) Arrest in flagrante delicto
C) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
D) Arrest by search warrant
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to bail
B) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
C) Right to a speed disposition
D) Right to silence only
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Randomized checking pattern
B) Vertical, overlapping movement
C) Coordinated circular movement
D) Evidence-centered searching
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 10022
B) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
C) R.A. 9231
D) R.A. 7438
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Spotlight method
B) Outward spiral method
C) Zone search method
D) Wheel search method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Hot pursuit doctrine
B) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
C) Physical evidence doctrine
D) Costudial remedy rule
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Polar coordinates
B) Baseline method
C) Rough sketching
D) Triangulation method
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) Search and seizure procedure
B) R.A. 7438
C) R.A. 9745
D) Warrantless arrest doctrine
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Visual obstruction tracking
B) Direct trailing
C) Contact surveillance
D) Tail–relay method
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
B) Substitute formal diagrams
C) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
D) Replace photography
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Administrative search
B) Search for premises
C) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
D) Consent search
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) Both A and B
B) Only search and seizure rules
C) R.A. 7438
D) R.A. 9745
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) The corners of the crime scene
B) The central point moving outward
C) The outer boundaries moving inward
D) Random points decided by personnel
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Harmonization
B) Chain of surveillance
C) Physical integrity doctrine
D) Chain of custody
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Necessity of force principle
B) Gender-nuetrality principle
C) Administrative rule for detention
D) Proper search procedure
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
B) The evidence was in closed storage
C) The suspect verbally consented
D) A perimeter search was conducted
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Consent existed
B) Crime scene was already secured
C) Probable cause was independently established
D) Evidence was already in plain view
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether the center is identifiable
B) Whether sketches can be made later
C) Whether multiple teams are available
D) Whether visibility is limited
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
B) Present both sketches and let the court decide
C) Discard the rough sketch
D) Rely solely on photographs
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) Whether the confession was spontaneous
B) Whether the officer recorded the moment
C) If the suspect already had a lawyer
D) If the suspect was deceived
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Valid under warrantless arrest
B) Valid under custodial rule
C) Valid under stop-and-frisk
D) Invalid due to lack of overt act
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
B) Only photographs should be taken
C) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
D) The search should be delayed until morning
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Valid if officer witnesses it
B) Invalid for lack of counsel
C) Valid if voluntary
D) Valid if recorded
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether consent was implied
B) Whether suspect resisted
C) Whether officers had a search warrant
D) Whether area searched was within immediate control
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Uncontrolled investigation
B) Witness-led collection
C) Systematic crime scene search
D) Random evidence retrieval
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Classified information
B) Discarded information
C) Raw information
D) Finished intelligence
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Suspect identities
B) Weapon used
C) Underlying motive
D) Sequence of action
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Provide public entertainment
B) Replace investigators
C) Create confidential rumors
D) Support decision-making
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Impulsive decision-making
B) Overreliance on instincts
C) Observant and systematic
D) Prioritizing personal judgment
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Any verbal statement
B) Tangible items related to the crim
C) Rumors about the suspect
D) Hearsay from neighbors
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Strategic
B) Publicly available
C) Covert
D) Overt
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Dissemination phase
B) Follow-up phase
C) Court presentation
D) Crime scene processing
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) All destroyed evidence
B) Instruments of the crime
C) Personal belongings of witnesses
D) Every item in the area
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) Proper decision-makers
B) Only investigators
C) Any available personnel
D) The suspect
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Neighborhood canvassing
B) Intelligence gathering
C) Crime scene processing
D) Surveillance
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Means
B) Opportunity
C) Motive
D) Modus operandi
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Secure and isolate the scene
B) Conduct interrogation
C) Collect fingerprints immediately
D) Approach the suspect
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Structural intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Administrative intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Date and time of occurrence
B) Weather Conditions
C) Evidence collected
D) Cause of death
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Replace testimony
B) Locates suspect
C) Create Investigation direction
D) Shows exact appearance
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Produce intelligence reports
B) Avoid filing cases
C) Identify the guilty party
D) Satisfy public demand
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Confidential materials from adversaries
B) Suspect
C) Scene integrity
D) Witness credibility
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Judicial affidavit
B) Interrogation
C) Preliminary hearing
D) Arrest warrant
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Processing
B) Follow-up
C) Case documentation
D) Termination
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Interview
B) Sketching
C) Interrogation
D) Surveillance
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Administrative intelligence
B) Overt
C) Structural
D) Strategic
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Organizing evidence chronologically
B) Evaluating investigative leads
C) Initial response
D) Conducting termination
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Reconstruction
B) Verification
C) Motive analysis
D) Scene sketching
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Processing
B) Coordination
C) Collection
D) Dissemination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Accusation formulation
B) Pattern analysis
C) Case isolation
D) Witness evaluation
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) Deductive reasoning
B) Surveillance
C) The cardinal points
D) Note-taking
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Using direct confrontation
B) Preserving cover and concealment
C) Establishing overt presence
D) Maintaining a fixed pace
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Collection
B) Dissemination
C) Direction
D) Processing
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Randomizing interrogation
B) Strategic penetration
C) Evidence substitution
D) Securing informant identity
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Interrogation technique
B) Pattern recognition
C) Randomized tracking
D) Overt documentation
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Evaluation
B) Classification
C) Dissemination
D) Direction
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Regular informant
B) Accidental source
C) Classified agent
D) Danger informant
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Security labeling
B) Encoding
C) Raw sorting
D) Overclassification
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Direct trailing
B) Contact surveillance
C) Tail-relay method
D) Visual obstruction tracking
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Reclassification
B) Planning and direction
C) Dissemination
D) Analysis
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Source validation
B) Tactical manipulation
C) Premature classification
D) Surveillance support
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Prioritization of information
B) Random selection
C) Discarding all sources
D) Offensive surveillance
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Dual-tracking
B) Cover selection
C) Rational shadowing
D) Forced confrontation
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Background
B) Administrative
C) Operational
D) Strategic
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Witness retrieval
B) Technical surveillance
C) Indirect canvassing
D) Controlled overt collection
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Proper document disposal
B) Information suppression
C) Covert misinformation
D) Interrogation secrecy
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Combined (team) surveillance
B) Static intelligence
C) Improvised surveillance
D) Fragmented tracking
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Document security
B) Source reliability
C) Planning clarity
D) Dissemination
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Operational utility vs. security risk
B) If surveillance should be canceled
C) Whether to change the informant’s identity
D) Whether to reassign the team
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Compartmentation principle
B) Surveillance coordination
C) Covert collection
D) Multi-source evaluation
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Evidence suppression
B) Immediate confrontation
C) Source cross-validation
D) Hypothetical assumption
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