CDI1-FINVIN
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Influence the statements of witnesses
B) Ascertain facts to establish truth
C) Collect evidence for intelligence units
D) Secure the conviction of the accused
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Reporting phase
B) Initial response phase
C) Follow-up phase
D) Termination phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Organizing the prosecution panel
B) Determining the essential information about a crime
C) Drafting an intelligence cycle
D) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) Only the perpetrators
B) Persons who may testify only
C) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
D) Individuals present before the incident
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Flexibility
B) Timeliness
C) Accuracy
D) Secrecy
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Examination
B) Interview
C) Interrogation
D) Validation
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Planning and direction
B) Collection
C) Dissemination
D) Processing
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Conversion of raw data to usable information
B) Deployment of operatives
C) Documentation of court records
D) Arrest of suspects
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Observe activities discreetly
B) Establish public visibility
C) Create fear among suspects
D) Replace interrogation
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Follow-up investigation
B) Court prosecution
C) Termination
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Mobility
B) Secrecy
C) Accuracy
D) Reliability
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “How”
B) The “When”
C) The “Why
D) The “Who”
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Canvassing
B) Notes
C) Surveillance
D) Photography
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Elicit firsthand observations
B) Prepare defense strategies
C) Pressure them for a confession
D) Influence their recall
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Overt information
D) Covert collection
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Closing case files
B) Case linkage and further evidence search
C) Securing perimeter
D) Arresting without probable cause
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Who
B) Where
C) Witness credibility
D) Why
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Timeliness
B) Accuracy
C) Secrecy
D) Compatibility
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Note-taking
B) Sketch
C) Examination
D) Interview
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Avoid the need for witnesses
B) Confuse the defense counsel
C) Reduce the investigator’s workload
D) Provide foundation for prosecution
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Termination phase
B) Initial response
C) Prosecution phase
D) Reporting phase
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Counterintelligence
C) Overt intelligence
D) Strategic intelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Make a 3D reconstruction
B) Replace photography
C) Identify the suspect immediately
D) Provide a scale representation of the area
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Unity of direction
B) Coordination
C) Objectivity
D) Accurate reporting
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Case termination
B) Surveillance planning
C) Source evaluation
D) Arrest timing
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Failure of planning
B) Reactive investigative strategy
C) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
D) Low information value
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Administrative intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Tactical surveillance data
D) Strategic intelligence
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Refutation
B) Prior isolation
C) Integration
D) Exclusion
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Rapid reporting
B) Analytical risk assessment
C) Specialized dissemination
D) Document reproduction
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
B) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
C) Arrest in flagrante delicto
D) Arrest by search warrant
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to a speed disposition
B) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
C) Right to silence only
D) Right to bail
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Coordinated circular movement
B) Vertical, overlapping movement
C) Randomized checking pattern
D) Evidence-centered searching
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 10022
B) R.A. 7438
C) R.A. 9231
D) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Zone search method
B) Wheel search method
C) Outward spiral method
D) Spotlight method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
B) Physical evidence doctrine
C) Hot pursuit doctrine
D) Costudial remedy rule
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Polar coordinates
B) Triangulation method
C) Baseline method
D) Rough sketching
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) R.A. 7438
B) R.A. 9745
C) Search and seizure procedure
D) Warrantless arrest doctrine
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Visual obstruction tracking
B) Contact surveillance
C) Direct trailing
D) Tail–relay method
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
B) Replace photography
C) Substitute formal diagrams
D) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
B) Administrative search
C) Consent search
D) Search for premises
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) R.A. 9745
B) Both A and B
C) R.A. 7438
D) Only search and seizure rules
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) Random points decided by personnel
B) The outer boundaries moving inward
C) The central point moving outward
D) The corners of the crime scene
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Chain of surveillance
B) Chain of custody
C) Harmonization
D) Physical integrity doctrine
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Administrative rule for detention
B) Proper search procedure
C) Necessity of force principle
D) Gender-nuetrality principle
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The evidence was in closed storage
B) The suspect verbally consented
C) A perimeter search was conducted
D) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Evidence was already in plain view
B) Crime scene was already secured
C) Probable cause was independently established
D) Consent existed
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether visibility is limited
B) Whether multiple teams are available
C) Whether the center is identifiable
D) Whether sketches can be made later
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Discard the rough sketch
B) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
C) Present both sketches and let the court decide
D) Rely solely on photographs
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) Whether the officer recorded the moment
B) Whether the confession was spontaneous
C) If the suspect already had a lawyer
D) If the suspect was deceived
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Valid under custodial rule
B) Invalid due to lack of overt act
C) Valid under stop-and-frisk
D) Valid under warrantless arrest
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
B) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
C) The search should be delayed until morning
D) Only photographs should be taken
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Valid if recorded
B) Valid if voluntary
C) Invalid for lack of counsel
D) Valid if officer witnesses it
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether area searched was within immediate control
B) Whether consent was implied
C) Whether officers had a search warrant
D) Whether suspect resisted
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Uncontrolled investigation
B) Random evidence retrieval
C) Systematic crime scene search
D) Witness-led collection
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Finished intelligence
B) Raw information
C) Discarded information
D) Classified information
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Suspect identities
B) Underlying motive
C) Sequence of action
D) Weapon used
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Support decision-making
B) Provide public entertainment
C) Create confidential rumors
D) Replace investigators
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Impulsive decision-making
B) Observant and systematic
C) Prioritizing personal judgment
D) Overreliance on instincts
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Hearsay from neighbors
B) Tangible items related to the crim
C) Any verbal statement
D) Rumors about the suspect
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Publicly available
B) Strategic
C) Overt
D) Covert
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Crime scene processing
B) Dissemination phase
C) Follow-up phase
D) Court presentation
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) Every item in the area
B) All destroyed evidence
C) Personal belongings of witnesses
D) Instruments of the crime
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) Any available personnel
B) Only investigators
C) Proper decision-makers
D) The suspect
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Crime scene processing
B) Intelligence gathering
C) Surveillance
D) Neighborhood canvassing
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Means
B) Modus operandi
C) Motive
D) Opportunity
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Approach the suspect
B) Conduct interrogation
C) Secure and isolate the scene
D) Collect fingerprints immediately
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Strategic intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Structural intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Weather Conditions
B) Evidence collected
C) Date and time of occurrence
D) Cause of death
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Locates suspect
B) Shows exact appearance
C) Create Investigation direction
D) Replace testimony
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Produce intelligence reports
B) Satisfy public demand
C) Avoid filing cases
D) Identify the guilty party
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Confidential materials from adversaries
B) Witness credibility
C) Suspect
D) Scene integrity
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Preliminary hearing
B) Interrogation
C) Judicial affidavit
D) Arrest warrant
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Processing
B) Termination
C) Case documentation
D) Follow-up
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Interview
B) Interrogation
C) Sketching
D) Surveillance
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Strategic
B) Administrative intelligence
C) Overt
D) Structural
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Conducting termination
B) Organizing evidence chronologically
C) Initial response
D) Evaluating investigative leads
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Motive analysis
B) Reconstruction
C) Verification
D) Scene sketching
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Collection
B) Coordination
C) Processing
D) Dissemination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Pattern analysis
B) Witness evaluation
C) Case isolation
D) Accusation formulation
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) Note-taking
B) Deductive reasoning
C) Surveillance
D) The cardinal points
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Maintaining a fixed pace
B) Preserving cover and concealment
C) Using direct confrontation
D) Establishing overt presence
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Processing
B) Dissemination
C) Direction
D) Collection
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Randomizing interrogation
B) Strategic penetration
C) Securing informant identity
D) Evidence substitution
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Interrogation technique
B) Randomized tracking
C) Pattern recognition
D) Overt documentation
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Direction
B) Classification
C) Dissemination
D) Evaluation
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Accidental source
B) Regular informant
C) Classified agent
D) Danger informant
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Security labeling
B) Encoding
C) Overclassification
D) Raw sorting
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Direct trailing
B) Tail-relay method
C) Visual obstruction tracking
D) Contact surveillance
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Analysis
B) Planning and direction
C) Reclassification
D) Dissemination
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Tactical manipulation
B) Source validation
C) Surveillance support
D) Premature classification
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Prioritization of information
B) Offensive surveillance
C) Random selection
D) Discarding all sources
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Cover selection
B) Forced confrontation
C) Dual-tracking
D) Rational shadowing
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Background
B) Administrative
C) Strategic
D) Operational
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Technical surveillance
B) Indirect canvassing
C) Controlled overt collection
D) Witness retrieval
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Covert misinformation
B) Interrogation secrecy
C) Information suppression
D) Proper document disposal
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Fragmented tracking
B) Static intelligence
C) Improvised surveillance
D) Combined (team) surveillance
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Planning clarity
B) Document security
C) Source reliability
D) Dissemination
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Whether to reassign the team
B) Operational utility vs. security risk
C) Whether to change the informant’s identity
D) If surveillance should be canceled
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Multi-source evaluation
B) Surveillance coordination
C) Covert collection
D) Compartmentation principle
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Evidence suppression
B) Immediate confrontation
C) Source cross-validation
D) Hypothetical assumption
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