CDI1-FINVIN
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Influence the statements of witnesses
B) Collect evidence for intelligence units
C) Ascertain facts to establish truth
D) Secure the conviction of the accused
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Reporting phase
B) Initial response phase
C) Follow-up phase
D) Termination phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
B) Organizing the prosecution panel
C) Determining the essential information about a crime
D) Drafting an intelligence cycle
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) Individuals present before the incident
B) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
C) Persons who may testify only
D) Only the perpetrators
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Timeliness
B) Secrecy
C) Flexibility
D) Accuracy
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Validation
B) Interrogation
C) Examination
D) Interview
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Collection
B) Planning and direction
C) Dissemination
D) Processing
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Arrest of suspects
B) Deployment of operatives
C) Documentation of court records
D) Conversion of raw data to usable information
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Replace interrogation
B) Observe activities discreetly
C) Establish public visibility
D) Create fear among suspects
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Termination
B) Follow-up investigation
C) Court prosecution
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Secrecy
B) Accuracy
C) Mobility
D) Reliability
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “Who”
B) The “When”
C) The “How”
D) The “Why
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Canvassing
B) Photography
C) Notes
D) Surveillance
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Prepare defense strategies
B) Elicit firsthand observations
C) Pressure them for a confession
D) Influence their recall
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Covert collection
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Overt information
D) Operational intelligence
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Case linkage and further evidence search
B) Closing case files
C) Securing perimeter
D) Arresting without probable cause
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Witness credibility
B) Why
C) Where
D) Who
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Accuracy
B) Timeliness
C) Compatibility
D) Secrecy
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Examination
B) Interview
C) Sketch
D) Note-taking
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Avoid the need for witnesses
B) Provide foundation for prosecution
C) Confuse the defense counsel
D) Reduce the investigator’s workload
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Reporting phase
B) Termination phase
C) Prosecution phase
D) Initial response
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Strategic intelligence
B) Overt intelligence
C) Operational intelligence
D) Counterintelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Replace photography
B) Identify the suspect immediately
C) Provide a scale representation of the area
D) Make a 3D reconstruction
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Coordination
B) Objectivity
C) Accurate reporting
D) Unity of direction
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Arrest timing
B) Surveillance planning
C) Source evaluation
D) Case termination
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Failure of planning
B) Low information value
C) Reactive investigative strategy
D) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Administrative intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Tactical surveillance data
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Integration
B) Prior isolation
C) Refutation
D) Exclusion
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Rapid reporting
B) Document reproduction
C) Analytical risk assessment
D) Specialized dissemination
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
B) Arrest by search warrant
C) Arrest in flagrante delicto
D) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to silence only
B) Right to a speed disposition
C) Right to bail
D) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Randomized checking pattern
B) Evidence-centered searching
C) Coordinated circular movement
D) Vertical, overlapping movement
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 7438
B) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
C) R.A. 10022
D) R.A. 9231
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Outward spiral method
B) Wheel search method
C) Spotlight method
D) Zone search method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Hot pursuit doctrine
B) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
C) Costudial remedy rule
D) Physical evidence doctrine
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Baseline method
B) Polar coordinates
C) Rough sketching
D) Triangulation method
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) R.A. 9745
B) Warrantless arrest doctrine
C) Search and seizure procedure
D) R.A. 7438
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Contact surveillance
B) Tail–relay method
C) Visual obstruction tracking
D) Direct trailing
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Substitute formal diagrams
B) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
C) Replace photography
D) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Consent search
B) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
C) Administrative search
D) Search for premises
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) Both A and B
B) Only search and seizure rules
C) R.A. 7438
D) R.A. 9745
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) The outer boundaries moving inward
B) The central point moving outward
C) Random points decided by personnel
D) The corners of the crime scene
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Physical integrity doctrine
B) Chain of surveillance
C) Harmonization
D) Chain of custody
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Gender-nuetrality principle
B) Administrative rule for detention
C) Necessity of force principle
D) Proper search procedure
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The suspect verbally consented
B) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
C) The evidence was in closed storage
D) A perimeter search was conducted
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Consent existed
B) Crime scene was already secured
C) Probable cause was independently established
D) Evidence was already in plain view
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether visibility is limited
B) Whether sketches can be made later
C) Whether the center is identifiable
D) Whether multiple teams are available
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
B) Present both sketches and let the court decide
C) Rely solely on photographs
D) Discard the rough sketch
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) If the suspect already had a lawyer
B) Whether the officer recorded the moment
C) If the suspect was deceived
D) Whether the confession was spontaneous
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Valid under stop-and-frisk
B) Invalid due to lack of overt act
C) Valid under warrantless arrest
D) Valid under custodial rule
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
B) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
C) The search should be delayed until morning
D) Only photographs should be taken
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Valid if recorded
B) Valid if officer witnesses it
C) Invalid for lack of counsel
D) Valid if voluntary
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether suspect resisted
B) Whether officers had a search warrant
C) Whether area searched was within immediate control
D) Whether consent was implied
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Random evidence retrieval
B) Uncontrolled investigation
C) Systematic crime scene search
D) Witness-led collection
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Raw information
B) Discarded information
C) Finished intelligence
D) Classified information
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Sequence of action
B) Underlying motive
C) Weapon used
D) Suspect identities
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Provide public entertainment
B) Create confidential rumors
C) Support decision-making
D) Replace investigators
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Impulsive decision-making
B) Overreliance on instincts
C) Prioritizing personal judgment
D) Observant and systematic
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Any verbal statement
B) Tangible items related to the crim
C) Hearsay from neighbors
D) Rumors about the suspect
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Publicly available
B) Overt
C) Covert
D) Strategic
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Follow-up phase
B) Crime scene processing
C) Court presentation
D) Dissemination phase
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) Every item in the area
B) All destroyed evidence
C) Personal belongings of witnesses
D) Instruments of the crime
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) The suspect
B) Proper decision-makers
C) Any available personnel
D) Only investigators
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Intelligence gathering
B) Crime scene processing
C) Neighborhood canvassing
D) Surveillance
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Means
B) Opportunity
C) Modus operandi
D) Motive
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Secure and isolate the scene
B) Conduct interrogation
C) Collect fingerprints immediately
D) Approach the suspect
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Structural intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Administrative intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Weather Conditions
B) Evidence collected
C) Date and time of occurrence
D) Cause of death
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Replace testimony
B) Create Investigation direction
C) Locates suspect
D) Shows exact appearance
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Produce intelligence reports
B) Avoid filing cases
C) Satisfy public demand
D) Identify the guilty party
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Witness credibility
B) Suspect
C) Confidential materials from adversaries
D) Scene integrity
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Arrest warrant
B) Judicial affidavit
C) Preliminary hearing
D) Interrogation
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Follow-up
B) Processing
C) Termination
D) Case documentation
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Surveillance
B) Interview
C) Interrogation
D) Sketching
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Overt
B) Structural
C) Strategic
D) Administrative intelligence
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Organizing evidence chronologically
B) Evaluating investigative leads
C) Initial response
D) Conducting termination
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Reconstruction
B) Verification
C) Motive analysis
D) Scene sketching
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Collection
B) Processing
C) Dissemination
D) Coordination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Accusation formulation
B) Witness evaluation
C) Case isolation
D) Pattern analysis
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) The cardinal points
B) Surveillance
C) Note-taking
D) Deductive reasoning
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Using direct confrontation
B) Maintaining a fixed pace
C) Establishing overt presence
D) Preserving cover and concealment
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Dissemination
B) Processing
C) Direction
D) Collection
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Securing informant identity
B) Randomizing interrogation
C) Strategic penetration
D) Evidence substitution
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Pattern recognition
B) Interrogation technique
C) Overt documentation
D) Randomized tracking
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Classification
B) Dissemination
C) Direction
D) Evaluation
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Danger informant
B) Classified agent
C) Regular informant
D) Accidental source
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Security labeling
B) Raw sorting
C) Encoding
D) Overclassification
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Direct trailing
B) Visual obstruction tracking
C) Contact surveillance
D) Tail-relay method
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Analysis
B) Planning and direction
C) Reclassification
D) Dissemination
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Source validation
B) Surveillance support
C) Premature classification
D) Tactical manipulation
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Prioritization of information
B) Discarding all sources
C) Random selection
D) Offensive surveillance
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Cover selection
B) Forced confrontation
C) Dual-tracking
D) Rational shadowing
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Background
B) Operational
C) Strategic
D) Administrative
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Indirect canvassing
B) Technical surveillance
C) Controlled overt collection
D) Witness retrieval
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Interrogation secrecy
B) Information suppression
C) Covert misinformation
D) Proper document disposal
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Combined (team) surveillance
B) Fragmented tracking
C) Improvised surveillance
D) Static intelligence
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Dissemination
B) Document security
C) Planning clarity
D) Source reliability
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Operational utility vs. security risk
B) Whether to reassign the team
C) Whether to change the informant’s identity
D) If surveillance should be canceled
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Surveillance coordination
B) Compartmentation principle
C) Covert collection
D) Multi-source evaluation
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Immediate confrontation
B) Hypothetical assumption
C) Evidence suppression
D) Source cross-validation
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