CDI1-FINVIN
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Ascertain facts to establish truth
B) Secure the conviction of the accused
C) Collect evidence for intelligence units
D) Influence the statements of witnesses
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Termination phase
B) Initial response phase
C) Follow-up phase
D) Reporting phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
B) Drafting an intelligence cycle
C) Organizing the prosecution panel
D) Determining the essential information about a crime
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
B) Only the perpetrators
C) Persons who may testify only
D) Individuals present before the incident
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Timeliness
B) Flexibility
C) Secrecy
D) Accuracy
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Interrogation
B) Validation
C) Examination
D) Interview
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Planning and direction
B) Processing
C) Collection
D) Dissemination
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Documentation of court records
B) Conversion of raw data to usable information
C) Deployment of operatives
D) Arrest of suspects
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Replace interrogation
B) Observe activities discreetly
C) Establish public visibility
D) Create fear among suspects
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Court prosecution
B) Termination
C) Preliminary investigation
D) Follow-up investigation
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Accuracy
B) Reliability
C) Secrecy
D) Mobility
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “Who”
B) The “Why
C) The “How”
D) The “When”
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Notes
B) Surveillance
C) Canvassing
D) Photography
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Pressure them for a confession
B) Influence their recall
C) Prepare defense strategies
D) Elicit firsthand observations
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Covert collection
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Overt information
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Arresting without probable cause
B) Securing perimeter
C) Closing case files
D) Case linkage and further evidence search
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Who
B) Where
C) Witness credibility
D) Why
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Compatibility
B) Timeliness
C) Accuracy
D) Secrecy
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Examination
B) Note-taking
C) Interview
D) Sketch
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Reduce the investigator’s workload
B) Avoid the need for witnesses
C) Provide foundation for prosecution
D) Confuse the defense counsel
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Initial response
B) Reporting phase
C) Prosecution phase
D) Termination phase
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Counterintelligence
B) Overt intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Provide a scale representation of the area
B) Make a 3D reconstruction
C) Identify the suspect immediately
D) Replace photography
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Accurate reporting
B) Objectivity
C) Coordination
D) Unity of direction
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Case termination
B) Source evaluation
C) Surveillance planning
D) Arrest timing
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Failure of planning
B) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
C) Reactive investigative strategy
D) Low information value
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Tactical surveillance data
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Prior isolation
B) Exclusion
C) Refutation
D) Integration
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Document reproduction
B) Specialized dissemination
C) Analytical risk assessment
D) Rapid reporting
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
B) Arrest in flagrante delicto
C) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
D) Arrest by search warrant
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to a speed disposition
B) Right to silence only
C) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
D) Right to bail
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Coordinated circular movement
B) Evidence-centered searching
C) Vertical, overlapping movement
D) Randomized checking pattern
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 10022
B) R.A. 7438
C) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
D) R.A. 9231
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Zone search method
B) Wheel search method
C) Spotlight method
D) Outward spiral method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Hot pursuit doctrine
B) Costudial remedy rule
C) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
D) Physical evidence doctrine
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Triangulation method
B) Rough sketching
C) Polar coordinates
D) Baseline method
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) R.A. 9745
B) Search and seizure procedure
C) Warrantless arrest doctrine
D) R.A. 7438
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Contact surveillance
B) Direct trailing
C) Tail–relay method
D) Visual obstruction tracking
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Substitute formal diagrams
B) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
C) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
D) Replace photography
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Consent search
B) Administrative search
C) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
D) Search for premises
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) Both A and B
B) Only search and seizure rules
C) R.A. 7438
D) R.A. 9745
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) The central point moving outward
B) The outer boundaries moving inward
C) Random points decided by personnel
D) The corners of the crime scene
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Chain of surveillance
B) Physical integrity doctrine
C) Harmonization
D) Chain of custody
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Necessity of force principle
B) Proper search procedure
C) Administrative rule for detention
D) Gender-nuetrality principle
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The suspect verbally consented
B) The evidence was in closed storage
C) A perimeter search was conducted
D) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Crime scene was already secured
B) Consent existed
C) Evidence was already in plain view
D) Probable cause was independently established
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether sketches can be made later
B) Whether the center is identifiable
C) Whether multiple teams are available
D) Whether visibility is limited
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
B) Rely solely on photographs
C) Present both sketches and let the court decide
D) Discard the rough sketch
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) Whether the confession was spontaneous
B) If the suspect already had a lawyer
C) If the suspect was deceived
D) Whether the officer recorded the moment
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Valid under custodial rule
B) Valid under warrantless arrest
C) Valid under stop-and-frisk
D) Invalid due to lack of overt act
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) The search should be delayed until morning
B) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
C) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
D) Only photographs should be taken
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Valid if recorded
B) Valid if officer witnesses it
C) Invalid for lack of counsel
D) Valid if voluntary
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether area searched was within immediate control
B) Whether suspect resisted
C) Whether officers had a search warrant
D) Whether consent was implied
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Witness-led collection
B) Uncontrolled investigation
C) Random evidence retrieval
D) Systematic crime scene search
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Finished intelligence
B) Discarded information
C) Classified information
D) Raw information
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Suspect identities
B) Sequence of action
C) Weapon used
D) Underlying motive
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Support decision-making
B) Create confidential rumors
C) Replace investigators
D) Provide public entertainment
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Overreliance on instincts
B) Prioritizing personal judgment
C) Impulsive decision-making
D) Observant and systematic
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Tangible items related to the crim
B) Any verbal statement
C) Hearsay from neighbors
D) Rumors about the suspect
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Publicly available
B) Overt
C) Strategic
D) Covert
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Crime scene processing
B) Follow-up phase
C) Court presentation
D) Dissemination phase
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) All destroyed evidence
B) Instruments of the crime
C) Every item in the area
D) Personal belongings of witnesses
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) Only investigators
B) Proper decision-makers
C) Any available personnel
D) The suspect
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Crime scene processing
B) Surveillance
C) Intelligence gathering
D) Neighborhood canvassing
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Opportunity
B) Modus operandi
C) Means
D) Motive
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Conduct interrogation
B) Secure and isolate the scene
C) Collect fingerprints immediately
D) Approach the suspect
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Administrative intelligence
B) Structural intelligence
C) Operational intelligence
D) Strategic intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Date and time of occurrence
B) Weather Conditions
C) Evidence collected
D) Cause of death
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Replace testimony
B) Locates suspect
C) Create Investigation direction
D) Shows exact appearance
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Satisfy public demand
B) Produce intelligence reports
C) Identify the guilty party
D) Avoid filing cases
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Suspect
B) Confidential materials from adversaries
C) Witness credibility
D) Scene integrity
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Judicial affidavit
B) Arrest warrant
C) Interrogation
D) Preliminary hearing
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Case documentation
B) Processing
C) Termination
D) Follow-up
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Interrogation
B) Interview
C) Surveillance
D) Sketching
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Administrative intelligence
B) Overt
C) Strategic
D) Structural
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Evaluating investigative leads
B) Organizing evidence chronologically
C) Conducting termination
D) Initial response
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Scene sketching
B) Reconstruction
C) Motive analysis
D) Verification
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Processing
B) Collection
C) Dissemination
D) Coordination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Case isolation
B) Witness evaluation
C) Accusation formulation
D) Pattern analysis
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) Surveillance
B) Deductive reasoning
C) Note-taking
D) The cardinal points
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Establishing overt presence
B) Using direct confrontation
C) Preserving cover and concealment
D) Maintaining a fixed pace
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Processing
B) Collection
C) Dissemination
D) Direction
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Randomizing interrogation
B) Evidence substitution
C) Strategic penetration
D) Securing informant identity
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Randomized tracking
B) Pattern recognition
C) Overt documentation
D) Interrogation technique
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Dissemination
B) Classification
C) Direction
D) Evaluation
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Classified agent
B) Danger informant
C) Accidental source
D) Regular informant
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Encoding
B) Raw sorting
C) Overclassification
D) Security labeling
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Visual obstruction tracking
B) Contact surveillance
C) Direct trailing
D) Tail-relay method
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Planning and direction
B) Reclassification
C) Analysis
D) Dissemination
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Surveillance support
B) Premature classification
C) Tactical manipulation
D) Source validation
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Prioritization of information
B) Random selection
C) Discarding all sources
D) Offensive surveillance
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Rational shadowing
B) Cover selection
C) Dual-tracking
D) Forced confrontation
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Administrative
B) Operational
C) Background
D) Strategic
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Witness retrieval
B) Indirect canvassing
C) Controlled overt collection
D) Technical surveillance
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Interrogation secrecy
B) Covert misinformation
C) Proper document disposal
D) Information suppression
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Static intelligence
B) Fragmented tracking
C) Combined (team) surveillance
D) Improvised surveillance
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Source reliability
B) Dissemination
C) Planning clarity
D) Document security
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Operational utility vs. security risk
B) Whether to change the informant’s identity
C) Whether to reassign the team
D) If surveillance should be canceled
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Surveillance coordination
B) Multi-source evaluation
C) Covert collection
D) Compartmentation principle
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Evidence suppression
B) Source cross-validation
C) Immediate confrontation
D) Hypothetical assumption
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