CDI1-FINVIN - Quiz
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Secure the conviction of the accused
B) Influence the statements of witnesses
C) Ascertain facts to establish truth
D) Collect evidence for intelligence units
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Reporting phase
B) Termination phase
C) Follow-up phase
D) Initial response phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
B) Drafting an intelligence cycle
C) Organizing the prosecution panel
D) Determining the essential information about a crime
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
B) Persons who may testify only
C) Only the perpetrators
D) Individuals present before the incident
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Accuracy
B) Flexibility
C) Secrecy
D) Timeliness
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Interview
B) Validation
C) Examination
D) Interrogation
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Dissemination
B) Collection
C) Planning and direction
D) Processing
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Deployment of operatives
B) Conversion of raw data to usable information
C) Arrest of suspects
D) Documentation of court records
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Observe activities discreetly
B) Create fear among suspects
C) Establish public visibility
D) Replace interrogation
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Court prosecution
B) Follow-up investigation
C) Preliminary investigation
D) Termination
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Accuracy
B) Secrecy
C) Reliability
D) Mobility
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “How”
B) The “When”
C) The “Who”
D) The “Why
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Surveillance
B) Notes
C) Photography
D) Canvassing
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Elicit firsthand observations
B) Prepare defense strategies
C) Pressure them for a confession
D) Influence their recall
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Covert collection
B) Overt information
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Securing perimeter
B) Case linkage and further evidence search
C) Closing case files
D) Arresting without probable cause
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Witness credibility
B) Where
C) Why
D) Who
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Accuracy
B) Timeliness
C) Secrecy
D) Compatibility
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Interview
B) Note-taking
C) Examination
D) Sketch
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Avoid the need for witnesses
B) Confuse the defense counsel
C) Reduce the investigator’s workload
D) Provide foundation for prosecution
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Initial response
B) Prosecution phase
C) Termination phase
D) Reporting phase
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Overt intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Counterintelligence
D) Strategic intelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Replace photography
B) Identify the suspect immediately
C) Provide a scale representation of the area
D) Make a 3D reconstruction
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Unity of direction
B) Accurate reporting
C) Coordination
D) Objectivity
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Arrest timing
B) Source evaluation
C) Case termination
D) Surveillance planning
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
B) Failure of planning
C) Low information value
D) Reactive investigative strategy
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Tactical surveillance data
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Strategic intelligence
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Exclusion
B) Prior isolation
C) Integration
D) Refutation
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Analytical risk assessment
B) Document reproduction
C) Rapid reporting
D) Specialized dissemination
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest in flagrante delicto
B) Arrest by search warrant
C) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
D) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to bail
B) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
C) Right to a speed disposition
D) Right to silence only
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Evidence-centered searching
B) Vertical, overlapping movement
C) Coordinated circular movement
D) Randomized checking pattern
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 9231
B) R.A. 7438
C) R.A. 10022
D) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Outward spiral method
B) Spotlight method
C) Zone search method
D) Wheel search method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Costudial remedy rule
B) Physical evidence doctrine
C) Hot pursuit doctrine
D) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Rough sketching
B) Baseline method
C) Triangulation method
D) Polar coordinates
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) R.A. 7438
B) R.A. 9745
C) Search and seizure procedure
D) Warrantless arrest doctrine
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Direct trailing
B) Visual obstruction tracking
C) Tail–relay method
D) Contact surveillance
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
B) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
C) Replace photography
D) Substitute formal diagrams
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Search for premises
B) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
C) Administrative search
D) Consent search
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) R.A. 7438
B) R.A. 9745
C) Both A and B
D) Only search and seizure rules
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) Random points decided by personnel
B) The central point moving outward
C) The corners of the crime scene
D) The outer boundaries moving inward
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Physical integrity doctrine
B) Harmonization
C) Chain of surveillance
D) Chain of custody
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Necessity of force principle
B) Administrative rule for detention
C) Gender-nuetrality principle
D) Proper search procedure
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The evidence was in closed storage
B) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
C) A perimeter search was conducted
D) The suspect verbally consented
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Consent existed
B) Probable cause was independently established
C) Crime scene was already secured
D) Evidence was already in plain view
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether sketches can be made later
B) Whether visibility is limited
C) Whether multiple teams are available
D) Whether the center is identifiable
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Rely solely on photographs
B) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
C) Present both sketches and let the court decide
D) Discard the rough sketch
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) Whether the confession was spontaneous
B) If the suspect was deceived
C) If the suspect already had a lawyer
D) Whether the officer recorded the moment
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Invalid due to lack of overt act
B) Valid under custodial rule
C) Valid under warrantless arrest
D) Valid under stop-and-frisk
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) The search should be delayed until morning
B) Only photographs should be taken
C) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
D) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Valid if recorded
B) Valid if officer witnesses it
C) Invalid for lack of counsel
D) Valid if voluntary
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether consent was implied
B) Whether suspect resisted
C) Whether officers had a search warrant
D) Whether area searched was within immediate control
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Uncontrolled investigation
B) Witness-led collection
C) Systematic crime scene search
D) Random evidence retrieval
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Discarded information
B) Raw information
C) Finished intelligence
D) Classified information
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Underlying motive
B) Sequence of action
C) Suspect identities
D) Weapon used
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Support decision-making
B) Replace investigators
C) Provide public entertainment
D) Create confidential rumors
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Overreliance on instincts
B) Prioritizing personal judgment
C) Impulsive decision-making
D) Observant and systematic
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Any verbal statement
B) Rumors about the suspect
C) Tangible items related to the crim
D) Hearsay from neighbors
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Strategic
B) Covert
C) Publicly available
D) Overt
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Court presentation
B) Crime scene processing
C) Follow-up phase
D) Dissemination phase
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) Personal belongings of witnesses
B) Every item in the area
C) All destroyed evidence
D) Instruments of the crime
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) The suspect
B) Only investigators
C) Proper decision-makers
D) Any available personnel
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Surveillance
B) Intelligence gathering
C) Neighborhood canvassing
D) Crime scene processing
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Means
B) Motive
C) Opportunity
D) Modus operandi
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Approach the suspect
B) Secure and isolate the scene
C) Collect fingerprints immediately
D) Conduct interrogation
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Structural intelligence
B) Administrative intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Cause of death
B) Date and time of occurrence
C) Evidence collected
D) Weather Conditions
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Create Investigation direction
B) Locates suspect
C) Shows exact appearance
D) Replace testimony
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Identify the guilty party
B) Satisfy public demand
C) Avoid filing cases
D) Produce intelligence reports
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Confidential materials from adversaries
B) Scene integrity
C) Witness credibility
D) Suspect
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Judicial affidavit
B) Interrogation
C) Preliminary hearing
D) Arrest warrant
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Follow-up
B) Termination
C) Processing
D) Case documentation
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Interrogation
B) Sketching
C) Surveillance
D) Interview
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Strategic
B) Overt
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Structural
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Conducting termination
B) Initial response
C) Organizing evidence chronologically
D) Evaluating investigative leads
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Scene sketching
B) Reconstruction
C) Verification
D) Motive analysis
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Coordination
B) Processing
C) Collection
D) Dissemination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Accusation formulation
B) Pattern analysis
C) Case isolation
D) Witness evaluation
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) Note-taking
B) Deductive reasoning
C) The cardinal points
D) Surveillance
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Establishing overt presence
B) Using direct confrontation
C) Maintaining a fixed pace
D) Preserving cover and concealment
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Direction
B) Collection
C) Dissemination
D) Processing
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Strategic penetration
B) Securing informant identity
C) Evidence substitution
D) Randomizing interrogation
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Overt documentation
B) Pattern recognition
C) Interrogation technique
D) Randomized tracking
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Evaluation
B) Dissemination
C) Classification
D) Direction
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Danger informant
B) Accidental source
C) Classified agent
D) Regular informant
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Security labeling
B) Raw sorting
C) Overclassification
D) Encoding
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Contact surveillance
B) Visual obstruction tracking
C) Tail-relay method
D) Direct trailing
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Dissemination
B) Reclassification
C) Planning and direction
D) Analysis
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Tactical manipulation
B) Source validation
C) Premature classification
D) Surveillance support
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Discarding all sources
B) Offensive surveillance
C) Random selection
D) Prioritization of information
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Cover selection
B) Rational shadowing
C) Dual-tracking
D) Forced confrontation
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Strategic
B) Background
C) Operational
D) Administrative
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Controlled overt collection
B) Indirect canvassing
C) Witness retrieval
D) Technical surveillance
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Covert misinformation
B) Proper document disposal
C) Information suppression
D) Interrogation secrecy
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Static intelligence
B) Fragmented tracking
C) Improvised surveillance
D) Combined (team) surveillance
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Document security
B) Dissemination
C) Planning clarity
D) Source reliability
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Whether to change the informant’s identity
B) Operational utility vs. security risk
C) Whether to reassign the team
D) If surveillance should be canceled
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Covert collection
B) Surveillance coordination
C) Compartmentation principle
D) Multi-source evaluation
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Evidence suppression
B) Hypothetical assumption
C) Source cross-validation
D) Immediate confrontation
Created with That Quiz — where a math practice test is always one click away.