CDI1-FINVIN
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Influence the statements of witnesses
B) Secure the conviction of the accused
C) Collect evidence for intelligence units
D) Ascertain facts to establish truth
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Termination phase
B) Initial response phase
C) Reporting phase
D) Follow-up phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Organizing the prosecution panel
B) Drafting an intelligence cycle
C) Determining the essential information about a crime
D) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
B) Individuals present before the incident
C) Only the perpetrators
D) Persons who may testify only
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Flexibility
B) Accuracy
C) Secrecy
D) Timeliness
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Interview
B) Examination
C) Validation
D) Interrogation
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Collection
B) Planning and direction
C) Dissemination
D) Processing
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Conversion of raw data to usable information
B) Deployment of operatives
C) Arrest of suspects
D) Documentation of court records
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Establish public visibility
B) Create fear among suspects
C) Observe activities discreetly
D) Replace interrogation
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Follow-up investigation
B) Court prosecution
C) Termination
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Secrecy
B) Accuracy
C) Mobility
D) Reliability
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “When”
B) The “Why
C) The “How”
D) The “Who”
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Surveillance
B) Photography
C) Notes
D) Canvassing
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Pressure them for a confession
B) Elicit firsthand observations
C) Prepare defense strategies
D) Influence their recall
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Overt information
B) Covert collection
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Closing case files
B) Securing perimeter
C) Arresting without probable cause
D) Case linkage and further evidence search
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Who
B) Why
C) Witness credibility
D) Where
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Timeliness
B) Compatibility
C) Accuracy
D) Secrecy
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Note-taking
B) Sketch
C) Interview
D) Examination
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Reduce the investigator’s workload
B) Avoid the need for witnesses
C) Confuse the defense counsel
D) Provide foundation for prosecution
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Initial response
B) Termination phase
C) Prosecution phase
D) Reporting phase
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Strategic intelligence
B) Counterintelligence
C) Operational intelligence
D) Overt intelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Replace photography
B) Provide a scale representation of the area
C) Make a 3D reconstruction
D) Identify the suspect immediately
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Coordination
B) Objectivity
C) Accurate reporting
D) Unity of direction
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Surveillance planning
B) Arrest timing
C) Source evaluation
D) Case termination
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Failure of planning
B) Low information value
C) Reactive investigative strategy
D) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Administrative intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Tactical surveillance data
D) Operational intelligence
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Exclusion
B) Refutation
C) Integration
D) Prior isolation
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Analytical risk assessment
B) Rapid reporting
C) Specialized dissemination
D) Document reproduction
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
B) Arrest by search warrant
C) Arrest in flagrante delicto
D) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
B) Right to a speed disposition
C) Right to silence only
D) Right to bail
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Evidence-centered searching
B) Coordinated circular movement
C) Vertical, overlapping movement
D) Randomized checking pattern
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 7438
B) R.A. 10022
C) R.A. 9231
D) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Outward spiral method
B) Zone search method
C) Spotlight method
D) Wheel search method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Costudial remedy rule
B) Physical evidence doctrine
C) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
D) Hot pursuit doctrine
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Triangulation method
B) Rough sketching
C) Baseline method
D) Polar coordinates
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) Warrantless arrest doctrine
B) R.A. 7438
C) Search and seizure procedure
D) R.A. 9745
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Direct trailing
B) Tail–relay method
C) Visual obstruction tracking
D) Contact surveillance
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
B) Substitute formal diagrams
C) Replace photography
D) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
B) Search for premises
C) Administrative search
D) Consent search
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) R.A. 9745
B) Both A and B
C) R.A. 7438
D) Only search and seizure rules
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) Random points decided by personnel
B) The corners of the crime scene
C) The central point moving outward
D) The outer boundaries moving inward
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Physical integrity doctrine
B) Chain of surveillance
C) Harmonization
D) Chain of custody
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Necessity of force principle
B) Administrative rule for detention
C) Gender-nuetrality principle
D) Proper search procedure
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The evidence was in closed storage
B) The suspect verbally consented
C) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
D) A perimeter search was conducted
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Consent existed
B) Crime scene was already secured
C) Evidence was already in plain view
D) Probable cause was independently established
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether sketches can be made later
B) Whether the center is identifiable
C) Whether multiple teams are available
D) Whether visibility is limited
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
B) Present both sketches and let the court decide
C) Discard the rough sketch
D) Rely solely on photographs
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) If the suspect already had a lawyer
B) If the suspect was deceived
C) Whether the confession was spontaneous
D) Whether the officer recorded the moment
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Valid under warrantless arrest
B) Valid under stop-and-frisk
C) Invalid due to lack of overt act
D) Valid under custodial rule
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) Only photographs should be taken
B) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
C) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
D) The search should be delayed until morning
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Invalid for lack of counsel
B) Valid if officer witnesses it
C) Valid if voluntary
D) Valid if recorded
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether consent was implied
B) Whether area searched was within immediate control
C) Whether suspect resisted
D) Whether officers had a search warrant
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Systematic crime scene search
B) Random evidence retrieval
C) Witness-led collection
D) Uncontrolled investigation
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Discarded information
B) Finished intelligence
C) Classified information
D) Raw information
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Weapon used
B) Suspect identities
C) Sequence of action
D) Underlying motive
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Provide public entertainment
B) Create confidential rumors
C) Replace investigators
D) Support decision-making
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Prioritizing personal judgment
B) Overreliance on instincts
C) Observant and systematic
D) Impulsive decision-making
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Any verbal statement
B) Tangible items related to the crim
C) Hearsay from neighbors
D) Rumors about the suspect
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Publicly available
B) Strategic
C) Covert
D) Overt
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Follow-up phase
B) Crime scene processing
C) Dissemination phase
D) Court presentation
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) Personal belongings of witnesses
B) Instruments of the crime
C) All destroyed evidence
D) Every item in the area
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) The suspect
B) Any available personnel
C) Proper decision-makers
D) Only investigators
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Surveillance
B) Crime scene processing
C) Neighborhood canvassing
D) Intelligence gathering
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Motive
B) Opportunity
C) Modus operandi
D) Means
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Collect fingerprints immediately
B) Secure and isolate the scene
C) Approach the suspect
D) Conduct interrogation
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Strategic intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Administrative intelligence
D) Structural intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Cause of death
B) Evidence collected
C) Date and time of occurrence
D) Weather Conditions
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Locates suspect
B) Shows exact appearance
C) Replace testimony
D) Create Investigation direction
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Produce intelligence reports
B) Identify the guilty party
C) Avoid filing cases
D) Satisfy public demand
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Scene integrity
B) Witness credibility
C) Confidential materials from adversaries
D) Suspect
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Arrest warrant
B) Preliminary hearing
C) Judicial affidavit
D) Interrogation
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Case documentation
B) Follow-up
C) Termination
D) Processing
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Sketching
B) Interview
C) Surveillance
D) Interrogation
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Strategic
B) Administrative intelligence
C) Overt
D) Structural
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Evaluating investigative leads
B) Conducting termination
C) Initial response
D) Organizing evidence chronologically
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Motive analysis
B) Verification
C) Scene sketching
D) Reconstruction
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Processing
B) Dissemination
C) Collection
D) Coordination
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Pattern analysis
B) Case isolation
C) Witness evaluation
D) Accusation formulation
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) Note-taking
B) Surveillance
C) The cardinal points
D) Deductive reasoning
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Maintaining a fixed pace
B) Using direct confrontation
C) Establishing overt presence
D) Preserving cover and concealment
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Dissemination
B) Direction
C) Collection
D) Processing
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Securing informant identity
B) Randomizing interrogation
C) Evidence substitution
D) Strategic penetration
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Pattern recognition
B) Interrogation technique
C) Overt documentation
D) Randomized tracking
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Dissemination
B) Classification
C) Direction
D) Evaluation
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Regular informant
B) Danger informant
C) Classified agent
D) Accidental source
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Security labeling
B) Encoding
C) Raw sorting
D) Overclassification
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Tail-relay method
B) Direct trailing
C) Contact surveillance
D) Visual obstruction tracking
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Reclassification
B) Dissemination
C) Analysis
D) Planning and direction
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Source validation
B) Surveillance support
C) Tactical manipulation
D) Premature classification
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Offensive surveillance
B) Prioritization of information
C) Random selection
D) Discarding all sources
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Dual-tracking
B) Cover selection
C) Forced confrontation
D) Rational shadowing
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Strategic
B) Background
C) Administrative
D) Operational
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Controlled overt collection
B) Indirect canvassing
C) Technical surveillance
D) Witness retrieval
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Covert misinformation
B) Proper document disposal
C) Interrogation secrecy
D) Information suppression
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Improvised surveillance
B) Fragmented tracking
C) Static intelligence
D) Combined (team) surveillance
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Planning clarity
B) Dissemination
C) Source reliability
D) Document security
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) Whether to change the informant’s identity
B) If surveillance should be canceled
C) Operational utility vs. security risk
D) Whether to reassign the team
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Multi-source evaluation
B) Surveillance coordination
C) Covert collection
D) Compartmentation principle
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Immediate confrontation
B) Evidence suppression
C) Hypothetical assumption
D) Source cross-validation
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