CDI1-FINVIN
  • 1. The primary objective of criminal investigation is to?
A) Collect evidence for intelligence units
B) Secure the conviction of the accused
C) Influence the statements of witnesses
D) Ascertain facts to establish truth
  • 2. The phase where investigators arrive, evaluate the area, and ensure safety is?
A) Reporting phase
B) Initial response phase
C) Termination phase
D) Follow-up phase
  • 3. The “cardinal points of investigation” mainly guide investigators in?
A) Identifying the criminal’s motives only
B) Determining the essential information about a crime
C) Organizing the prosecution panel
D) Drafting an intelligence cycle
  • 4. The “WHO” in the cardinal points refers to:
A) All individuals involved directly or indirectly
B) Only the perpetrators
C) Persons who may testify only
D) Individuals present before the incident
  • 5. The intelligence principle stating that intelligence must be produced on time is:
A) Timeliness
B) Flexibility
C) Secrecy
D) Accuracy
  • 6. The investigative tool that involves asking structured questions to gather facts:
A) Interrogation
B) Validation
C) Examination
D) Interview
  • 7. The proper sequence of the intelligence cycle begins with:
A) Dissemination
B) Collection
C) Planning and direction
D) Processing
  • 8. In the processing phase of the intelligence cycle, the main activity is:
A) Documentation of court records
B) Arrest of suspects
C) Conversion of raw data to usable information
D) Deployment of operatives
  • 9. The objective of surveillance in investigation is to:
A) Replace interrogation
B) Establish public visibility
C) Observe activities discreetly
D) Create fear among suspects
  • 10. The investigative phase that includes case buildup and suspect identification is:
A) Follow-up investigation
B) Termination
C) Court prosecution
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 11. A principle of intelligence ensuring unauthorized persons cannot access information:
A) Reliability
B) Mobility
C) Secrecy
D) Accuracy
  • 12. An investigator reconstructs the event by determining what happened. This refers to:
A) The “How”
B) The “When”
C) The “Who”
D) The “Why
  • 13. The tool used to preserve crime scene conditions through visual documentation:
A) Photography
B) Canvassing
C) Notes
D) Surveillance
  • 14. The purpose of an initial interview with witnesses is to:
A) Elicit firsthand observations
B) Prepare defense strategies
C) Influence their recall
D) Pressure them for a confession
  • 15. Intelligence information that comes from public reports is:
A) Covert collection
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Operational intelligence
D) Overt information
  • 16. The investigator’s “follow-up” work includes:
A) Securing perimeter
B) Arresting without probable cause
C) Closing case files
D) Case linkage and further evidence search
  • 17. Which is not part of the cardinal points?
A) Witness credibility
B) Where
C) Who
D) Why
  • 18. The principle that intelligence must be correct and factual:
A) Compatibility
B) Accuracy
C) Secrecy
D) Timeliness
  • 19. The tool of investigation used to record observations:
A) Interview
B) Note-taking
C) Examination
D) Sketch
  • 20. The “objective of criminal investigation” focusing on evidence aims to:
A) Provide foundation for prosecution
B) Reduce the investigator’s workload
C) Confuse the defense counsel
D) Avoid the need for witnesses
  • 21. The phase where investigators prepare formal documentation:
A) Reporting phase
B) Termination phase
C) Prosecution phase
D) Initial response
  • 22. Intelligence that guides long-term planning:
A) Overt intelligence
B) Operational intelligence
C) Counterintelligence
D) Strategic intelligence
  • 23. Crime scene sketching is essential to:
A) Identify the suspect immediately
B) Make a 3D reconstruction
C) Provide a scale representation of the area
D) Replace photography
  • 24. A principle requiring all investigators to coordinate with others:
A) Objectivity
B) Coordination
C) Unity of direction
D) Accurate reporting
  • 25. An informer is motivated by revenge, while an informant is motivated by civic duty. Distinguishing their motives is essential to:
A) Case termination
B) Source evaluation
C) Surveillance planning
D) Arrest timing
  • 26. A suspect uses countersurveillance techniques, forcing the team to adapt routes, timings, and spacing. This demonstrates:
A) Reactive investigative strategy
B) Low information value
C) Deviation from intelligence doctrine
D) Failure of planning
  • 27. When an officer analyzes reports to determine which information contributes to long-term policy decisions, he is identifying:
A) Operational intelligence
B) Administrative intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Tactical surveillance data
  • 28. Multiple reports about a terrorist plot come from different informants. The officer synthesizes them to form a single picture. This analytical process is:
A) Integration
B) Exclusion
C) Prior isolation
D) Refutation
  • 29. A handler receives a tip that may cause political embarrassment if leaked. The handler must evaluate classification not just by content but by effect of disclosure. This requires:
A) Analytical risk assessment
B) Rapid reporting
C) Specialized dissemination
D) Document reproduction
  • 30. An officer arrests a suspect without a warrant after witnessing the suspect stab another person. This scenario illustrates:
A) Arrest in flagrante delicto
B) Arrest by search warrant
C) Arrest by virtue of citizen’s arrest
D) Arrest by pre-arranged operation
  • 31. During a warrantless arrest, the officer must immediately inform the suspect of the cause of arrest. This step applies which requirement under R.A. 7438?
A) Right to a speed disposition
B) Right to silence only
C) Right to bail
D) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of arrest
  • 32. When conducting a systematic strip method during crime scene search, the team applies:
A) Vertical, overlapping movement
B) Coordinated circular movement
C) Evidence-centered searching
D) Randomized checking pattern
  • 33. A police officer refrains from threatening a suspect during questioning to comply with:
    A.
A) R.A. 9745 – Anti-Torture Act
B) R.A. 9231
C) R.A. 7438
D) R.A. 10022
  • 34. A team leader divides the area into quadrants before assigning personnel. This uses the:
A) Wheel search method
B) Outward spiral method
C) Spotlight method
D) Zone search method
  • 35. Upon arrest, the suspect requests counsel. The officer stops questioning until a lawyer arrives. This practice follows:
A) Costudial remedy rule
B) Hot pursuit doctrine
C) Miranda rights under R.A. 7438
D) Physical evidence doctrine
  • 36. An investigator uses measurements from fixed points to plot the position of evidence in a crime scene sketch. This application uses:
A) Rough sketching
B) Polar coordinates
C) Baseline method
D) Triangulation method
  • 37. A police officer tells the suspect to sign a confession without counsel. This violates:
    A. Search and seizure procedure
A) Search and seizure procedure
B) R.A. 9745
C) R.A. 7438
D) Warrantless arrest doctrine
  • 38. During vehicle surveillance, the team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Tail–relay method
B) Visual obstruction tracking
C) Contact surveillance
D) Direct trailing
  • 39. When sketching a crime scene, the investigator first prepares a rough sketch. This is done to:
A) Establish a quick but accurate representation of the scene
B) Substitute formal diagrams
C) Replace photography
D) Produce a final sketch for court immediately
  • 40. A lawful search is conducted after an arrest, limited to the immediate control area of the arrestee. This applies:
A) Search for premises
B) Consent search
C) Administrative search
D) Search incidental to a lawful arrest
  • 41. A police officer tells a suspect to sign a confession without a lawyer present. This violates:
A) R.A. 9745
B) R.A. 7438
C) Only search and seizure rules
D) Both A and B
  • 42. During a wheel method search, the team starts at:
A) The corners of the crime scene
B) Random points decided by personnel
C) The outer boundaries moving inward
D) The central point moving outward
  • 43. An investigator seals collected evidence bags immediately after retrieval. This applies the principle of:
A) Chain of surveillance
B) Harmonization
C) Chain of custody
D) Physical integrity doctrine
  • 44. The officer asks a female officer to search a female suspect. This follows:
A) Proper search procedure
B) Gender-nuetrality principle
C) Necessity of force principle
D) Administrative rule for detention
  • 45. Evidence in plain view was seized after the officer lawfully entered the home for a warrant execution, but the object was unrelated to the warrant. The officer must determine if:
A) The incriminating nature was immediately apparent
B) The evidence was in closed storage
C) A perimeter search was conducted
D) The suspect verbally consented
  • 46. Officers conducted a search based solely on anonymous tip without corroboration. The supervising officer must determine whether:
A) Consent existed
B) Evidence was already in plain view
C) Crime scene was already secured
D) Probable cause was independently established
  • 47. A crime scene is large and irregular; the team chooses the spiral method. The leader must assess:
A) Whether sketches can be made later
B) Whether the center is identifiable
C) Whether multiple teams are available
D) Whether visibility is limited
  • 48. A final sketch contradicts the rough sketch measurements. The investigator must:
A) Reconcile inconsistencies through re-measurement
B) Discard the rough sketch
C) Rely solely on photographs
D) Present both sketches and let the court decide
  • 49. A suspect voluntarily blurts out a confession before being read rights. The officer must determ
A) Whether the officer recorded the moment
B) If the suspect was deceived
C) If the suspect already had a lawyer
D) Whether the confession was spontaneous
  • 50. The officer arrests someone because they “look suspicious.” Analyzing this, the arrest is:
A) Invalid due to lack of overt act
B) Valid under stop-and-frisk
C) Valid under warrantless arrest
D) Valid under custodial rule
  • 51. A team conducts a quadrant search at night but lighting is poor. The leader must analyze whether:
A) Only photographs should be taken
B) Quadrant search should be replaced by strip method
C) The search should be delayed until morning
D) Additional lighting equipment should be deployed
  • 52. A suspect signs a waiver of rights without counsel. Under R.A. 7438, this is:
A) Valid if officer witnesses it
B) Valid if recorded
C) Invalid for lack of counsel
D) Valid if voluntary
  • 53. Search incidental to arrest was performed in a room far from where the suspect was apprehended. The court must analyze:
A) Whether suspect resisted
B) Whether area searched was within immediate control
C) Whether consent was implied
D) Whether officers had a search warrant
  • 54. A team conducts a strip method search and finds concealed weapons. This demonstrates:
A) Systematic crime scene search
B) Uncontrolled investigation
C) Witness-led collection
D) Random evidence retrieval
  • 55. Information that requires validation before being used for intelligence:
A) Discarded information
B) Classified information
C) Finished intelligence
D) Raw information
  • 56. The “Why” in cardinal points explain
A) Underlying motive
B) Sequence of action
C) Weapon used
D) Suspect identities
  • 57. A core objective of intelligence is to:
A) Support decision-making
B) Provide public entertainment
C) Replace investigators
D) Create confidential rumors
  • 58. A characteristic of a good investigator:
A) Prioritizing personal judgment
B) Impulsive decision-making
C) Overreliance on instincts
D) Observant and systematic
  • 59. Physical evidence is best described as:
A) Hearsay from neighbors
B) Tangible items related to the crim
C) Rumors about the suspect
D) Any verbal statement
  • 60. Intelligence collected through hidden means:
A) Publicly available
B) Covert
C) Strategic
D) Overt
  • 61. iminating contamination is a concern in which phase?
A) Court presentation
B) Crime scene processing
C) Dissemination phase
D) Follow-up phase
  • 62. One goal of investigation is to recover:
A) Every item in the area
B) Instruments of the crime
C) All destroyed evidence
D) Personal belongings of witnesses
  • 63. Proper dissemination ensures intelligence reaches:
A) Only investigators
B) The suspect
C) Any available personnel
D) Proper decision-makers
  • 64. A suspect’s background inquiry is an example of:
A) Neighborhood canvassing
B) Intelligence gathering
C) Crime scene processing
D) Surveillance
  • 65. The term “how the crime was committed” refers to:
A) Motive
B) Opportunity
C) Modus operandi
D) Means
  • 66. The investigator’s first duty at the scene:
A) Collect fingerprints immediately
B) Conduct interrogation
C) Secure and isolate the scene
D) Approach the suspect
  • 67. Intelligence that focuses on specific targets for immediate operations:
A) Administrative intelligence
B) Structural intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 68. The “When” in cardinal points identifies:
A) Weather Conditions
B) Date and time of occurrence
C) Evidence collected
D) Cause of death
  • 69. An advantage of photography over sketches:
A) Shows exact appearance
B) Replace testimony
C) Create Investigation direction
D) Locates suspect
  • 70. A fundamental objective of investigation is to:
A) Satisfy public demand
B) Produce intelligence reports
C) Avoid filing cases
D) Identify the guilty party
  • 71. Counterintelligence protects:
A) Suspect
B) Scene integrity
C) Confidential materials from adversaries
D) Witness credibility
  • 72. An example of an investigative tool:
A) Arrest warrant
B) Judicial affidavit
C) Preliminary hearing
D) Interrogation
  • 73. The final phase of investigation is:
A) Case documentation
B) Follow-up
C) Processing
D) Termination
  • 74. The tool used to verify the truthfulness of statements:
A) Interview
B) Sketching
C) Surveillance
D) Interrogation
  • 75. Intelligence used to support administrative decisions:
A) Strategic
B) Administrative intelligence
C) Structural
D) Overt
  • 76. An investigator notes inconsistencies in witness accounts and compares them with physical evidence. This process relates to:
A) Evaluating investigative leads
B) Organizing evidence chronologically
C) Conducting termination
D) Initial response
  • 77. A crime scene with multiple entry points requires the investigator to determine which path the offender used. This applies the principle of:
A) Scene sketching
B) Verification
C) Motive analysis
D) Reconstruction
  • 78. If intelligence gathered is accurate but reaches decision-makers too late, the failure is in:
A) Coordination
B) Processing
C) Dissemination
D) Collection
  • 79. When an investigator determines that the suspect’s MO matches past incidents, the investigator is applying:
A) Case isolation
B) Pattern analysis
C) Witness evaluation
D) Accusation formulation
  • 80. Conflicting evidence suggests two possible scenarios. The investigator compares both to determine the most logical sequence of events. This uses:
A) Deductive reasoning
B) Note-taking
C) Surveillance
D) The cardinal points
  • 81. During a foot surveillance, the suspect suddenly enters a crowded market. The investigator adjusts distance to avoid detection. This action applies which principle?
A) Maintaining a fixed pace
B) Establishing overt presence
C) Preserving cover and concealment
D) Using direct confrontation
  • 82. An operative receives raw data from a civilian and must sort, translate, and verify it before use. This corresponds to which intelligence cycle phase?
A) Direction
B) Processing
C) Dissemination
D) Collection
  • 83. A handler meets an informant in a neutral location to reduce risk. This demonstrates the principle of:
A) Strategic penetration
B) Evidence substitution
C) Randomizing interrogation
D) Securing informant identity
  • 84. When preparing surveillance notes, the investigator diagrams the suspect’s movement pattern to predict next actions. This applies:
A) Randomized tracking
B) Pattern recognition
C) Overt documentation
D) Interrogation technique
  • 85. An intelligence officer determines which unit must receive a report concerning a smuggling operation. This step applies:
A) Direction
B) Evaluation
C) Classification
D) Dissemination
  • 86. A confidential informant provides consistent quality data over several months. The handler categorizes this person as:
A) Classified agent
B) Accidental source
C) Danger informant
D) Regular informant
  • 87. An investigator classifies a document “Secret” because unauthorized disclosure may harm operations. This is:
A) Raw sorting
B) Overclassification
C) Security labeling
D) Encoding
  • 88. During vehicle surveillance, the subject increases speed. The team switches to leapfrogging to prevent losing sight. This procedure is known as:
A) Tail-relay method
B) Contact surveillance
C) Direct trailing
D) Visual obstruction tracking
  • 89. An intelligence unit instructs collectors to focus on illegal firearms networks. This operational task belongs to:
A) Analysis
B) Reclassification
C) Dissemination
D) Planning and direction
  • 90. A handler assesses an informant’s motives before accepting information. This application reflects:
A) Tactical manipulation
B) Source validation
C) Premature classification
D) Surveillance support
  • 91. A field agent receives two conflicting reports and must choose which to pursue based on reliability. This is an example of:
A) Offensive surveillance
B) Random selection
C) Prioritization of information
D) Discarding all sources
  • 92. When conducting stationary surveillance, the officer positions in a location with unobstructed visibility yet low exposure. This applies:
A) Cover selection
B) Rational shadowing
C) Dual-tracking
D) Forced confrontation
  • 93. Intelligence requiring immediate operational action is categorized as:
A) Background
B) Operational
C) Administrative
D) Strategic
  • 94. A field operative monitors radio traffic for intelligence leads. This practice falls under:
A) Controlled overt collection
B) Technical surveillance
C) Witness retrieval
D) Indirect canvassing
  • 95. An investigator destroys preliminary notes after filing final reports to prevent leakage. This applies:
A) Covert misinformation
B) Information suppression
C) Proper document disposal
D) Interrogation secrecy
  • 96. Two teams conduct surveillance: one follows closely while another monitors from a distance. The operation minimizes detection while maintaining observation. This setup exemplifies:
A) Fragmented tracking
B) Static intelligence
C) Combined (team) surveillance
D) Improvised surveillance
  • 97. If direction in the intelligence cycle is weak, resulting in irrelevant data being collected, the failure lies in:
A) Planning clarity
B) Dissemination
C) Document security
D) Source reliability
  • 98. An informant provides accurate details but frequently violates agreed protocols, placing the team at risk. The handler must assess:
A) If surveillance should be canceled
B) Whether to reassign the team
C) Operational utility vs. security risk
D) Whether to change the informant’s identity
  • 99. Intelligence reports classified “Top Secret” are mixed with unclassified memos, increasing exposure. This violates:
A) Compartmentation principle
B) Covert collection
C) Surveillance coordination
D) Multi-source evaluation
  • 100. An officer notices that surveillance footage contradicts live observations, requiring him to identify which source is more credible. This uses:
A) Hypothetical assumption
B) Evidence suppression
C) Source cross-validation
D) Immediate confrontation
Created with That Quiz — where a math practice test is always one click away.