CPCTES
  • 1. What is the primary purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To create laws
B) To regulate the process of criminal justice
C) To collect taxes
D) To punish witnesses
  • 2. Which refers to the means sanctioned by rules for proving truth in court?
A) Pleading
B) Complaint
C) Verdict
D) Evidence
  • 3. A complaint is defined as:
A) A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense
B) A lawyer’s opinion
C) A police report only
D) A decision of the court
  • 4. An information is:
A) . A criminal pleading filed by the prosecutor in court
B) A newspaper report
C) A confession
D) A witness statement only
  • 5. Which party has the burden of proving guilt in a criminal case?
A) Accused
B) Witness
C) Judge
D) Prosecution
  • 6. The constitutional presumption in favor of the accused is:
A) Presumption of innocence
B) Presumption of guilt
C) Presumption of liability
D) Presumption of wealth
  • 7. Which court proceeding determines probable cause for arrest?
A) Preliminary Investigation
B) Sentencing
C) Appeal
D) Trial
  • 8. Probable cause means:
A) Mere rumor
B) Absolute certainty
C) Witness opinion only
D) Strong suspicion supported by facts
  • 9. Which of the following is considered documentary evidence?
A) Knife
B) Contract
C) Fingerprint
D) Testimony
  • 10. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Physical object
B) Oral statement made under oath
C) Written confession only
D) Photograph
  • 11. Physical evidence is also known as:
A) Opinion evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 12. Which rule requires the original document when contents are in issue?
A) Res Gestae Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 13. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Always true
B) Inadmissible unless under exceptions
C) Always admissible
D) Required in court
  • 14. Cross-examination is conducted by:
A) Witness himself
B) Opposing counsel
C) Judge only
D) Jury
  • 15. Which stage allows questioning of a witness by the party who presented him?
A) Cross-examination
B) Recall
C) Direct examination
D) Appeal
  • 16. Circumstantial evidence is:
A) Fake evidence
B) Documentary proof only
C) Direct proof of fact
D) Evidence requiring inference
  • 17. Direct evidence proves a fact:
A) Immediately and directly
B) By rumor
C) Through inference
D) By opinion alone
  • 18. Which officer generally prosecutes criminal cases?
A) Bailiff
B) Sheriff
C) Prosecutor
D) Clerk of Court
  • 19. The accused enters his plea during:
A) Promulgation
B) Arraignment
C) Trial
D) Appeal
  • 20. A plea of guilty means:
A) Denial of charge
B) Request for dismissal
C) Admission of charge
D) Refusal to testify
  • 21. A plea of not guilty means:
A) Waiver of trial
B) Admission of guilt
C) Acceptance of punishment
D) Denial of the accusation
  • 22. Which constitutional right protects against self-incrimination?
A) Right to property
B) Right to remain silent
C) Right to vote
D) Right to travel
  • 23. Arrest is defined as:
A) Payment of fine
B) Court conviction
C) Filing a complaint
D) Taking a person into custody to answer for an offense
  • 24. A warrant of arrest is issued by:
A) Judge
B) Prosecutor
C) Police officer
D) Witness
  • 25. Which of the following is an example of object evidence?
    A. Affidavit
A) Gun used in crime
B) Affidavit
C) Testimony
D) Police blotter
  • 26. Evidence must be relevant and:
A) Admissible
B) Expensive
C) Popular
D) Lengthy
  • 27. Relevant evidence means:
A) Evidence from newspaper only
B) Evidence unrelated to issue
C) Evidence having connection with the fact in issue
D) Illegal evidence
  • 28. Competent evidence means:
A) Witness-approved
B) Publicly known
C) Very expensive
D) Legally admissible in court
  • 29. Which examination follows direct examination?
A) Cross-examination
B) Redirect examination
C) Recall examination
D) Appeal
  • 30. Redirect examination aims to:
A) Clarify matters raised during cross-examination
B) Attack witness credibility only
C) End the case
D) Change testimony entirely
  • 31. Which evidence is stronger when proving a document’s contents?
A) Original document
B) Secondary evidence
C) Oral testimony
D) Rumor
  • 32. Secondary evidence may be admitted when:
A) Judge prefers it
B) Original exists and available
C) Witness refuses to testify
D) Original is lost or unavailable under rules
  • 33. Judicial notice refers to:
A) Court recognizing facts without evidence
B) Witness testimony
C) Police investigation
D) Newspaper publication
  • 34. The credibility of a witness refers to:
A) Financial status
B) Age only
C) Believability or trustworthiness
D) Occupation only
  • 35. Which evidence is based on personal knowledge of a witness?
A) Speculation
B) Direct testimony
C) Rumor
D) Hearsay evidence
  • 36. Motive is:
A) Court order
B) Reason that induces a person to act
C) Witness statement
D) The act itself
  • 37. Alibi is a defense claiming:
A) Self-defense
B) Presence at another place during crime
C) Mistaken identity only
D) Lack of motive
  • 38. Which standard is required to convict an accused?
A) Beyond reasonable doubt
B) Public opinion
C) Probable cause
D) Mere suspicion
  • 39. Acquittal means:
A) Release because guilt not proven
B) Filing of case
C) Conviction of accused
D) Arrest of accused
  • 40. Conviction means:
A) Withdrawal of complaint
B) New trial
C) Finding the accused guilty
D) Dismissal of case
  • 41. Which right guarantees legal assistance to the accused?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right to counsel
C) Right to property
D) Right to travel
  • 42. Bail is defined as:
A) Final punishment
B) Court decision
C) Security for release of accused to guarantee court apperance
D) Police investigation
  • 43. Bail may be given in the form of:
A) Testimony only
B) Police report only
C) Property or surety bond
D) Court transcript
  • 44. Search warrant is issued for the purpose of:
A) Filing complaint
B) Searching and seizing specific property
C) Collecting taxes
D) Convicting accused
  • 45. Which official issues a search warrant?
A) Police officer
B) Witness
C) Judge
D) Prosecutor
  • 46. Illegal search and seizure violate:
A) Traffic rules
B) School policies
C) Constitutional rights
D) Tax laws
  • 47. Evidence obtained illegally is generally called:
A) Best evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Direct evidence
D) Excluded evidence
  • 48. Which rule excludes illegally obtained evidence?
A) Exclusionary Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Dead Man Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 49. Corpus delicti refers to:
A) Fact that a crime has been committed
B) Court records
C) Witness affidavit
D) Body of the accused only
  • 50. Which document records witness statements under oath?
A) Receipt
B) Affidavit
C) Invoice
D) Summons
  • 51. Summons is generally issued in:
A) Civil cases
B) Appeal only
C) Sentencing
D) Criminal conviction
  • 52. Which officer serves court processes such as writs and subpoenas?
A) Clerk
B) Prosecutor
C) Witness
D) Sheriff
  • 53. A subpoena is issued to:
A) Compel attendance of witness or production of documents
B) Convict accused
C) Dismiss case
D) Arrest immediately
  • 54. Subpoena duces tecum requires:
A) Production of documents or objects
B) Witness appearance only
C) Payment of fine
D) Arrest of accused
  • 55. Subpoena ad testificandum compels:
A) Delivery of property
B) Payment of damages
C) Witness testimony
D) Filing of complaint
  • 56. Which evidence consists of written or printed materials?
A) Object evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 57. The judge’s decision is based on:
A) Evidence presented and applicable law
B) Public pressure
C) Personal opinion alone
D) Media reports
  • 58. Which proceeding follows arraignment?
A) Investigation
B) Trial
C) Complaint filing
D) Arrest
  • 59. Trial is conducted to:
A) Punish witness
B) Write police report
C) Determine guilt or innocence
D) Collect taxes
  • 60. Which principle states that no person shall be tried twice for the same offense?
A) Due process
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Double jeopardy
D) Probable cause
  • 61. Double jeopardy protects a person from:
A) Being tried twice for the same offense
B) Paying bail twice
C) Giving testimony twice
D) Multiple arrests for different crimes
  • 62. Due process means:
A) Fair and lawful procedure
B) Police decide guilt
C) Immediate punishment without hearing
D) Public opinion decides the case
  • 63. Which pleading is filed to challenge defects in a complaint or information?
A) Affidavit
B) Motion to Quash
C) Warrant
D) Verdict
  • 64. A demurrer to evidence is filed when:
A) Witness disappears
B) Prosecution evidence is insufficient
C) Accused admits guilt
D) Trial has not started
  • 65. Which party presents evidence first during trial?
A) Defense
B) Witness
C) Judge
D) Prosecution
  • 66. The defense presents evidence:
A) During investigation only
B) After prosecution rests its case
C) Before complaint filing
D) Before arraignment
  • 67. Which motion asks the court to postpone proceedings?
A) Motion for Judgment
B) Motion to Dismiss
C) Motion to Quash
D) Motion for Continuance
  • 68. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Refuses oath only
B) Shows adverse interest or unwillingness
C) Is under 18 years old
D) Supports both parties
  • 69. Which evidence proves a fact without inference?
A) Secondary evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Direct evidence
D) Hearsay evidence
  • 70. Character evidence generally refers to:
A) Written contracts
B) Proof of moral traits or reputation
C) Financial records
D) Crime scene objects
  • 71. Expert witness testimony is based on:
A) Guesswork
B) Rumor
C) Specialized knowledge and skill
D) Friendship with accused
  • 72. Which witness testifies about facts personally perceived?
A) Hostile witness
B) Expert witness
C) Character witness
D) Ordinary witness
  • 73. Which document officially records court proceedings?
A) Police badge
B) Transcript of stenographic notes
C) Search warrant
D) Receipt
  • 74. Perjury is committed by
A) Filing appeal
B) Posting bail
C) Remaining silent
D) Giving false testimony under oath
  • 75. Which court action formally ends a criminal case without conviction?
A) Sentencing
B) Arraignment
C) Conviction
D) Dismissal
  • 76. Sentencing occurs when:
A) Trial begins
B) Complaint is filed
C) Judge imposes penalty after conviction
D) Bail is posted
  • 77. Appeal is made to:
A) File police blotter
B) Reinvestigate crime scene only
C) Request review of lower court decision
D) Arrest accused again
  • 78. Which court officer keeps records and documents?
A) Clerk of Court
B) Bailiff
C) Prosecutor
D) Sheriff
  • 79. Judicial affidavit is:
A) Arrest order
B) Court decision
C) Written sworn testimony of witness
D) Oral testimony only
  • 80. Which principle requires that criminal laws be interpreted strictly against the State?
A) Rule of lenity
B) Liberal construction
C) Judicial notice
D) Estoppel
  • 81. Which court document contains the final judgment of the court?
A) Complaint
B) Decision
C) Subpoena
D) Affidavit
  • 82. The term venue in criminal cases refers to:
A) Witness location
B) Type of penalty
C) Place where the case is tried
D) Court furniture
  • 83. Which right ensures that an accused knows the nature and cause of accusation?
A) Right to travel
B) Right to privacy
C) Right to information
D) Right to property
  • 84. Which evidence is admissible because it forms part of a spontaneous statement?
A) Opinion evidence
B) Res Gestae
C) Hearsay
D) Secondary evidence
  • 85. Leading questions are generally:
A) Used by witnesses only
B) Not allowed on direct examination
C) Allowed on direct examination
D) Required during trial
  • 86. Which question suggests its own answer to the witness?
A) Leading question
B) Hypothetical question
C) Compound question
D) Narrative question
  • 87. Which objection challenges evidence as irrelevant?
A) Objection: Argumentative
B) Objection: Leading
C) Objection: Irrelevant
D) Objection: Compound
  • 88. Which doctrine states that facts admitted no longer require proof?
A) Double Jeopardy
B) Corpus Delicti
C) Judicial Admission
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 89. Recantation means:
A) Repeating testimony
B) Filing complaint
C) Posting bail
D) Withdrawal or repudiation of previous statement
  • 90. Which witness may provide opinions based on specialized expertise?
A) Child witness
B) Character witness
C) Hostile witness
D) Expert witness
  • 91. Which rule prevents testimony about privileged communication?
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Exclusionary Rule
D) Privileged Communication Rule
  • 92. Attorney-client communication is generally:
A) Privileged and confidential
B) Illegal evidence
C) Hearsay only
D) Public information
  • 93. Which stage occurs when judgment is announced in court?
A) Arraignment
B) Investigation
C) Promulgation
D) Examination
  • 94. Which legal remedy questions the legality of detention?
A) Certiorari
B) Habeas Corpus
C) Injunction
D) Mandamus
  • 95. Which evidence relies upon a chain of circumstances?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Primary evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 96. Which principle states that an accused is innocent until proven guilty?
A) Judicial notice
B) Corpus delicti
C) Presumption of innocence
D) Rule of lenity
  • 97. Which court order commands law enforcement to arrest a person?
A) Subpoena
B) Summons
C) Warrant of arrest
D) Search warrant
  • 98. Which examination follows cross-examination?
A) Investigation
B) Redirect examination
C) Sentencing
D) Arraignment
  • 99. Which term refers to the legal authority of a court to hear and decide a case?
A) Probable cause
B) Jurisdiction
C) Venue
D) Promulgation
  • 100. The ultimate goal of criminal procedure and evidence is to:
A) Delay cases
B) Increase penalties only
C) Avoid trials
D) Protect rights and ensure justice
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