CPCTES
  • 1. What is the primary purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To collect taxes
B) To regulate the process of criminal justice
C) To create laws
D) To punish witnesses
  • 2. Which refers to the means sanctioned by rules for proving truth in court?
A) Verdict
B) Complaint
C) Pleading
D) Evidence
  • 3. A complaint is defined as:
A) A police report only
B) A decision of the court
C) A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense
D) A lawyer’s opinion
  • 4. An information is:
A) . A criminal pleading filed by the prosecutor in court
B) A confession
C) A newspaper report
D) A witness statement only
  • 5. Which party has the burden of proving guilt in a criminal case?
A) Accused
B) Judge
C) Prosecution
D) Witness
  • 6. The constitutional presumption in favor of the accused is:
A) Presumption of liability
B) Presumption of innocence
C) Presumption of guilt
D) Presumption of wealth
  • 7. Which court proceeding determines probable cause for arrest?
A) Trial
B) Preliminary Investigation
C) Sentencing
D) Appeal
  • 8. Probable cause means:
A) Strong suspicion supported by facts
B) Witness opinion only
C) Absolute certainty
D) Mere rumor
  • 9. Which of the following is considered documentary evidence?
A) Fingerprint
B) Testimony
C) Knife
D) Contract
  • 10. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Physical object
B) Photograph
C) Oral statement made under oath
D) Written confession only
  • 11. Physical evidence is also known as:
A) Documentary evidence
B) Opinion evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 12. Which rule requires the original document when contents are in issue?
A) Res Gestae Rule
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 13. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Inadmissible unless under exceptions
B) Always true
C) Always admissible
D) Required in court
  • 14. Cross-examination is conducted by:
A) Opposing counsel
B) Witness himself
C) Judge only
D) Jury
  • 15. Which stage allows questioning of a witness by the party who presented him?
A) Appeal
B) Cross-examination
C) Direct examination
D) Recall
  • 16. Circumstantial evidence is:
A) Fake evidence
B) Documentary proof only
C) Evidence requiring inference
D) Direct proof of fact
  • 17. Direct evidence proves a fact:
A) By rumor
B) Immediately and directly
C) Through inference
D) By opinion alone
  • 18. Which officer generally prosecutes criminal cases?
A) Clerk of Court
B) Sheriff
C) Prosecutor
D) Bailiff
  • 19. The accused enters his plea during:
A) Promulgation
B) Appeal
C) Trial
D) Arraignment
  • 20. A plea of guilty means:
A) Admission of charge
B) Request for dismissal
C) Denial of charge
D) Refusal to testify
  • 21. A plea of not guilty means:
A) Acceptance of punishment
B) Denial of the accusation
C) Admission of guilt
D) Waiver of trial
  • 22. Which constitutional right protects against self-incrimination?
A) Right to property
B) Right to remain silent
C) Right to vote
D) Right to travel
  • 23. Arrest is defined as:
A) Court conviction
B) Taking a person into custody to answer for an offense
C) Filing a complaint
D) Payment of fine
  • 24. A warrant of arrest is issued by:
A) Police officer
B) Judge
C) Witness
D) Prosecutor
  • 25. Which of the following is an example of object evidence?
    A. Affidavit
A) Testimony
B) Gun used in crime
C) Affidavit
D) Police blotter
  • 26. Evidence must be relevant and:
A) Expensive
B) Lengthy
C) Admissible
D) Popular
  • 27. Relevant evidence means:
A) Evidence from newspaper only
B) Illegal evidence
C) Evidence unrelated to issue
D) Evidence having connection with the fact in issue
  • 28. Competent evidence means:
A) Witness-approved
B) Very expensive
C) Legally admissible in court
D) Publicly known
  • 29. Which examination follows direct examination?
A) Appeal
B) Recall examination
C) Redirect examination
D) Cross-examination
  • 30. Redirect examination aims to:
A) Attack witness credibility only
B) Clarify matters raised during cross-examination
C) Change testimony entirely
D) End the case
  • 31. Which evidence is stronger when proving a document’s contents?
A) Oral testimony
B) Secondary evidence
C) Rumor
D) Original document
  • 32. Secondary evidence may be admitted when:
A) Original is lost or unavailable under rules
B) Judge prefers it
C) Original exists and available
D) Witness refuses to testify
  • 33. Judicial notice refers to:
A) Witness testimony
B) Newspaper publication
C) Police investigation
D) Court recognizing facts without evidence
  • 34. The credibility of a witness refers to:
A) Believability or trustworthiness
B) Age only
C) Occupation only
D) Financial status
  • 35. Which evidence is based on personal knowledge of a witness?
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Speculation
C) Rumor
D) Direct testimony
  • 36. Motive is:
A) Court order
B) Witness statement
C) Reason that induces a person to act
D) The act itself
  • 37. Alibi is a defense claiming:
A) Lack of motive
B) Self-defense
C) Presence at another place during crime
D) Mistaken identity only
  • 38. Which standard is required to convict an accused?
A) Probable cause
B) Beyond reasonable doubt
C) Public opinion
D) Mere suspicion
  • 39. Acquittal means:
A) Conviction of accused
B) Release because guilt not proven
C) Filing of case
D) Arrest of accused
  • 40. Conviction means:
A) Finding the accused guilty
B) Withdrawal of complaint
C) New trial
D) Dismissal of case
  • 41. Which right guarantees legal assistance to the accused?
A) Right to travel
B) Right to property
C) Right to counsel
D) Right to privacy
  • 42. Bail is defined as:
A) Police investigation
B) Court decision
C) Security for release of accused to guarantee court apperance
D) Final punishment
  • 43. Bail may be given in the form of:
A) Police report only
B) Property or surety bond
C) Court transcript
D) Testimony only
  • 44. Search warrant is issued for the purpose of:
A) Convicting accused
B) Searching and seizing specific property
C) Filing complaint
D) Collecting taxes
  • 45. Which official issues a search warrant?
A) Witness
B) Prosecutor
C) Police officer
D) Judge
  • 46. Illegal search and seizure violate:
A) Tax laws
B) Traffic rules
C) Constitutional rights
D) School policies
  • 47. Evidence obtained illegally is generally called:
A) Excluded evidence
B) Best evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 48. Which rule excludes illegally obtained evidence?
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Exclusionary Rule
C) Dead Man Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 49. Corpus delicti refers to:
A) Fact that a crime has been committed
B) Witness affidavit
C) Court records
D) Body of the accused only
  • 50. Which document records witness statements under oath?
A) Receipt
B) Summons
C) Invoice
D) Affidavit
  • 51. Summons is generally issued in:
A) Civil cases
B) Sentencing
C) Appeal only
D) Criminal conviction
  • 52. Which officer serves court processes such as writs and subpoenas?
A) Witness
B) Sheriff
C) Clerk
D) Prosecutor
  • 53. A subpoena is issued to:
A) Convict accused
B) Arrest immediately
C) Dismiss case
D) Compel attendance of witness or production of documents
  • 54. Subpoena duces tecum requires:
A) Witness appearance only
B) Production of documents or objects
C) Payment of fine
D) Arrest of accused
  • 55. Subpoena ad testificandum compels:
A) Payment of damages
B) Delivery of property
C) Witness testimony
D) Filing of complaint
  • 56. Which evidence consists of written or printed materials?
A) Documentary evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 57. The judge’s decision is based on:
A) Personal opinion alone
B) Media reports
C) Evidence presented and applicable law
D) Public pressure
  • 58. Which proceeding follows arraignment?
A) Complaint filing
B) Arrest
C) Investigation
D) Trial
  • 59. Trial is conducted to:
A) Punish witness
B) Determine guilt or innocence
C) Collect taxes
D) Write police report
  • 60. Which principle states that no person shall be tried twice for the same offense?
A) Double jeopardy
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Probable cause
D) Due process
  • 61. Double jeopardy protects a person from:
A) Multiple arrests for different crimes
B) Being tried twice for the same offense
C) Giving testimony twice
D) Paying bail twice
  • 62. Due process means:
A) Fair and lawful procedure
B) Public opinion decides the case
C) Immediate punishment without hearing
D) Police decide guilt
  • 63. Which pleading is filed to challenge defects in a complaint or information?
A) Verdict
B) Motion to Quash
C) Affidavit
D) Warrant
  • 64. A demurrer to evidence is filed when:
A) Accused admits guilt
B) Prosecution evidence is insufficient
C) Witness disappears
D) Trial has not started
  • 65. Which party presents evidence first during trial?
A) Judge
B) Prosecution
C) Defense
D) Witness
  • 66. The defense presents evidence:
A) Before complaint filing
B) Before arraignment
C) During investigation only
D) After prosecution rests its case
  • 67. Which motion asks the court to postpone proceedings?
A) Motion for Judgment
B) Motion to Quash
C) Motion for Continuance
D) Motion to Dismiss
  • 68. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Supports both parties
B) Refuses oath only
C) Shows adverse interest or unwillingness
D) Is under 18 years old
  • 69. Which evidence proves a fact without inference?
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 70. Character evidence generally refers to:
A) Financial records
B) Proof of moral traits or reputation
C) Written contracts
D) Crime scene objects
  • 71. Expert witness testimony is based on:
A) Specialized knowledge and skill
B) Guesswork
C) Friendship with accused
D) Rumor
  • 72. Which witness testifies about facts personally perceived?
A) Ordinary witness
B) Expert witness
C) Hostile witness
D) Character witness
  • 73. Which document officially records court proceedings?
A) Receipt
B) Search warrant
C) Police badge
D) Transcript of stenographic notes
  • 74. Perjury is committed by
A) Remaining silent
B) Posting bail
C) Giving false testimony under oath
D) Filing appeal
  • 75. Which court action formally ends a criminal case without conviction?
A) Conviction
B) Dismissal
C) Arraignment
D) Sentencing
  • 76. Sentencing occurs when:
A) Trial begins
B) Judge imposes penalty after conviction
C) Bail is posted
D) Complaint is filed
  • 77. Appeal is made to:
A) Arrest accused again
B) Reinvestigate crime scene only
C) File police blotter
D) Request review of lower court decision
  • 78. Which court officer keeps records and documents?
A) Clerk of Court
B) Sheriff
C) Bailiff
D) Prosecutor
  • 79. Judicial affidavit is:
A) Oral testimony only
B) Court decision
C) Written sworn testimony of witness
D) Arrest order
  • 80. Which principle requires that criminal laws be interpreted strictly against the State?
A) Estoppel
B) Judicial notice
C) Liberal construction
D) Rule of lenity
  • 81. Which court document contains the final judgment of the court?
A) Subpoena
B) Affidavit
C) Decision
D) Complaint
  • 82. The term venue in criminal cases refers to:
A) Type of penalty
B) Place where the case is tried
C) Court furniture
D) Witness location
  • 83. Which right ensures that an accused knows the nature and cause of accusation?
A) Right to travel
B) Right to property
C) Right to information
D) Right to privacy
  • 84. Which evidence is admissible because it forms part of a spontaneous statement?
A) Secondary evidence
B) Hearsay
C) Res Gestae
D) Opinion evidence
  • 85. Leading questions are generally:
A) Required during trial
B) Allowed on direct examination
C) Not allowed on direct examination
D) Used by witnesses only
  • 86. Which question suggests its own answer to the witness?
A) Hypothetical question
B) Leading question
C) Narrative question
D) Compound question
  • 87. Which objection challenges evidence as irrelevant?
A) Objection: Leading
B) Objection: Irrelevant
C) Objection: Compound
D) Objection: Argumentative
  • 88. Which doctrine states that facts admitted no longer require proof?
A) Double Jeopardy
B) Judicial Admission
C) Corpus Delicti
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 89. Recantation means:
A) Repeating testimony
B) Filing complaint
C) Posting bail
D) Withdrawal or repudiation of previous statement
  • 90. Which witness may provide opinions based on specialized expertise?
A) Character witness
B) Child witness
C) Expert witness
D) Hostile witness
  • 91. Which rule prevents testimony about privileged communication?
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Exclusionary Rule
C) Privileged Communication Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 92. Attorney-client communication is generally:
A) Privileged and confidential
B) Hearsay only
C) Illegal evidence
D) Public information
  • 93. Which stage occurs when judgment is announced in court?
A) Promulgation
B) Examination
C) Investigation
D) Arraignment
  • 94. Which legal remedy questions the legality of detention?
A) Mandamus
B) Habeas Corpus
C) Injunction
D) Certiorari
  • 95. Which evidence relies upon a chain of circumstances?
A) Primary evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 96. Which principle states that an accused is innocent until proven guilty?
A) Judicial notice
B) Corpus delicti
C) Rule of lenity
D) Presumption of innocence
  • 97. Which court order commands law enforcement to arrest a person?
A) Warrant of arrest
B) Subpoena
C) Search warrant
D) Summons
  • 98. Which examination follows cross-examination?
A) Redirect examination
B) Arraignment
C) Sentencing
D) Investigation
  • 99. Which term refers to the legal authority of a court to hear and decide a case?
A) Probable cause
B) Jurisdiction
C) Venue
D) Promulgation
  • 100. The ultimate goal of criminal procedure and evidence is to:
A) Increase penalties only
B) Avoid trials
C) Protect rights and ensure justice
D) Delay cases
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