CPCTES - Quiz
  • 1. What is the primary purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To punish witnesses
B) To create laws
C) To collect taxes
D) To regulate the process of criminal justice
  • 2. Which refers to the means sanctioned by rules for proving truth in court?
A) Complaint
B) Evidence
C) Pleading
D) Verdict
  • 3. A complaint is defined as:
A) A lawyer’s opinion
B) A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense
C) A decision of the court
D) A police report only
  • 4. An information is:
A) A newspaper report
B) A witness statement only
C) . A criminal pleading filed by the prosecutor in court
D) A confession
  • 5. Which party has the burden of proving guilt in a criminal case?
A) Judge
B) Witness
C) Prosecution
D) Accused
  • 6. The constitutional presumption in favor of the accused is:
A) Presumption of wealth
B) Presumption of innocence
C) Presumption of liability
D) Presumption of guilt
  • 7. Which court proceeding determines probable cause for arrest?
A) Trial
B) Sentencing
C) Appeal
D) Preliminary Investigation
  • 8. Probable cause means:
A) Mere rumor
B) Absolute certainty
C) Witness opinion only
D) Strong suspicion supported by facts
  • 9. Which of the following is considered documentary evidence?
A) Contract
B) Testimony
C) Fingerprint
D) Knife
  • 10. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Oral statement made under oath
B) Photograph
C) Written confession only
D) Physical object
  • 11. Physical evidence is also known as:
A) Opinion evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 12. Which rule requires the original document when contents are in issue?
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Res Gestae Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 13. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Inadmissible unless under exceptions
B) Required in court
C) Always admissible
D) Always true
  • 14. Cross-examination is conducted by:
A) Opposing counsel
B) Jury
C) Witness himself
D) Judge only
  • 15. Which stage allows questioning of a witness by the party who presented him?
A) Recall
B) Appeal
C) Cross-examination
D) Direct examination
  • 16. Circumstantial evidence is:
A) Direct proof of fact
B) Fake evidence
C) Evidence requiring inference
D) Documentary proof only
  • 17. Direct evidence proves a fact:
A) Immediately and directly
B) By opinion alone
C) By rumor
D) Through inference
  • 18. Which officer generally prosecutes criminal cases?
A) Clerk of Court
B) Prosecutor
C) Sheriff
D) Bailiff
  • 19. The accused enters his plea during:
A) Arraignment
B) Trial
C) Appeal
D) Promulgation
  • 20. A plea of guilty means:
A) Denial of charge
B) Refusal to testify
C) Admission of charge
D) Request for dismissal
  • 21. A plea of not guilty means:
A) Acceptance of punishment
B) Denial of the accusation
C) Waiver of trial
D) Admission of guilt
  • 22. Which constitutional right protects against self-incrimination?
A) Right to vote
B) Right to travel
C) Right to remain silent
D) Right to property
  • 23. Arrest is defined as:
A) Court conviction
B) Payment of fine
C) Filing a complaint
D) Taking a person into custody to answer for an offense
  • 24. A warrant of arrest is issued by:
A) Witness
B) Police officer
C) Prosecutor
D) Judge
  • 25. Which of the following is an example of object evidence?
    A. Affidavit
A) Affidavit
B) Gun used in crime
C) Testimony
D) Police blotter
  • 26. Evidence must be relevant and:
A) Lengthy
B) Popular
C) Admissible
D) Expensive
  • 27. Relevant evidence means:
A) Evidence unrelated to issue
B) Evidence from newspaper only
C) Evidence having connection with the fact in issue
D) Illegal evidence
  • 28. Competent evidence means:
A) Very expensive
B) Legally admissible in court
C) Witness-approved
D) Publicly known
  • 29. Which examination follows direct examination?
A) Redirect examination
B) Cross-examination
C) Recall examination
D) Appeal
  • 30. Redirect examination aims to:
A) Clarify matters raised during cross-examination
B) End the case
C) Attack witness credibility only
D) Change testimony entirely
  • 31. Which evidence is stronger when proving a document’s contents?
A) Secondary evidence
B) Original document
C) Rumor
D) Oral testimony
  • 32. Secondary evidence may be admitted when:
A) Witness refuses to testify
B) Original exists and available
C) Original is lost or unavailable under rules
D) Judge prefers it
  • 33. Judicial notice refers to:
A) Newspaper publication
B) Witness testimony
C) Police investigation
D) Court recognizing facts without evidence
  • 34. The credibility of a witness refers to:
A) Believability or trustworthiness
B) Occupation only
C) Financial status
D) Age only
  • 35. Which evidence is based on personal knowledge of a witness?
A) Speculation
B) Rumor
C) Direct testimony
D) Hearsay evidence
  • 36. Motive is:
A) Reason that induces a person to act
B) The act itself
C) Court order
D) Witness statement
  • 37. Alibi is a defense claiming:
A) Self-defense
B) Mistaken identity only
C) Presence at another place during crime
D) Lack of motive
  • 38. Which standard is required to convict an accused?
A) Mere suspicion
B) Public opinion
C) Probable cause
D) Beyond reasonable doubt
  • 39. Acquittal means:
A) Release because guilt not proven
B) Filing of case
C) Arrest of accused
D) Conviction of accused
  • 40. Conviction means:
A) Finding the accused guilty
B) New trial
C) Withdrawal of complaint
D) Dismissal of case
  • 41. Which right guarantees legal assistance to the accused?
A) Right to counsel
B) Right to travel
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to property
  • 42. Bail is defined as:
A) Final punishment
B) Security for release of accused to guarantee court apperance
C) Police investigation
D) Court decision
  • 43. Bail may be given in the form of:
A) Police report only
B) Testimony only
C) Property or surety bond
D) Court transcript
  • 44. Search warrant is issued for the purpose of:
A) Filing complaint
B) Collecting taxes
C) Searching and seizing specific property
D) Convicting accused
  • 45. Which official issues a search warrant?
A) Judge
B) Witness
C) Police officer
D) Prosecutor
  • 46. Illegal search and seizure violate:
A) Constitutional rights
B) Tax laws
C) Traffic rules
D) School policies
  • 47. Evidence obtained illegally is generally called:
A) Excluded evidence
B) Best evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 48. Which rule excludes illegally obtained evidence?
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Dead Man Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Exclusionary Rule
  • 49. Corpus delicti refers to:
A) Fact that a crime has been committed
B) Witness affidavit
C) Court records
D) Body of the accused only
  • 50. Which document records witness statements under oath?
A) Receipt
B) Affidavit
C) Invoice
D) Summons
  • 51. Summons is generally issued in:
A) Appeal only
B) Criminal conviction
C) Sentencing
D) Civil cases
  • 52. Which officer serves court processes such as writs and subpoenas?
A) Witness
B) Prosecutor
C) Sheriff
D) Clerk
  • 53. A subpoena is issued to:
A) Convict accused
B) Compel attendance of witness or production of documents
C) Dismiss case
D) Arrest immediately
  • 54. Subpoena duces tecum requires:
A) Production of documents or objects
B) Arrest of accused
C) Witness appearance only
D) Payment of fine
  • 55. Subpoena ad testificandum compels:
A) Delivery of property
B) Witness testimony
C) Payment of damages
D) Filing of complaint
  • 56. Which evidence consists of written or printed materials?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 57. The judge’s decision is based on:
A) Evidence presented and applicable law
B) Personal opinion alone
C) Public pressure
D) Media reports
  • 58. Which proceeding follows arraignment?
A) Trial
B) Complaint filing
C) Investigation
D) Arrest
  • 59. Trial is conducted to:
A) Collect taxes
B) Determine guilt or innocence
C) Write police report
D) Punish witness
  • 60. Which principle states that no person shall be tried twice for the same offense?
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Double jeopardy
C) Due process
D) Probable cause
  • 61. Double jeopardy protects a person from:
A) Giving testimony twice
B) Being tried twice for the same offense
C) Paying bail twice
D) Multiple arrests for different crimes
  • 62. Due process means:
A) Immediate punishment without hearing
B) Public opinion decides the case
C) Fair and lawful procedure
D) Police decide guilt
  • 63. Which pleading is filed to challenge defects in a complaint or information?
A) Verdict
B) Warrant
C) Motion to Quash
D) Affidavit
  • 64. A demurrer to evidence is filed when:
A) Accused admits guilt
B) Witness disappears
C) Trial has not started
D) Prosecution evidence is insufficient
  • 65. Which party presents evidence first during trial?
A) Defense
B) Witness
C) Judge
D) Prosecution
  • 66. The defense presents evidence:
A) Before complaint filing
B) After prosecution rests its case
C) Before arraignment
D) During investigation only
  • 67. Which motion asks the court to postpone proceedings?
A) Motion for Judgment
B) Motion to Dismiss
C) Motion for Continuance
D) Motion to Quash
  • 68. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Supports both parties
B) Is under 18 years old
C) Refuses oath only
D) Shows adverse interest or unwillingness
  • 69. Which evidence proves a fact without inference?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Hearsay evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 70. Character evidence generally refers to:
A) Proof of moral traits or reputation
B) Written contracts
C) Financial records
D) Crime scene objects
  • 71. Expert witness testimony is based on:
A) Specialized knowledge and skill
B) Friendship with accused
C) Rumor
D) Guesswork
  • 72. Which witness testifies about facts personally perceived?
A) Expert witness
B) Ordinary witness
C) Character witness
D) Hostile witness
  • 73. Which document officially records court proceedings?
A) Receipt
B) Police badge
C) Search warrant
D) Transcript of stenographic notes
  • 74. Perjury is committed by
A) Giving false testimony under oath
B) Posting bail
C) Filing appeal
D) Remaining silent
  • 75. Which court action formally ends a criminal case without conviction?
A) Dismissal
B) Arraignment
C) Sentencing
D) Conviction
  • 76. Sentencing occurs when:
A) Judge imposes penalty after conviction
B) Bail is posted
C) Complaint is filed
D) Trial begins
  • 77. Appeal is made to:
A) File police blotter
B) Reinvestigate crime scene only
C) Arrest accused again
D) Request review of lower court decision
  • 78. Which court officer keeps records and documents?
A) Sheriff
B) Bailiff
C) Clerk of Court
D) Prosecutor
  • 79. Judicial affidavit is:
A) Court decision
B) Oral testimony only
C) Written sworn testimony of witness
D) Arrest order
  • 80. Which principle requires that criminal laws be interpreted strictly against the State?
A) Estoppel
B) Judicial notice
C) Liberal construction
D) Rule of lenity
  • 81. Which court document contains the final judgment of the court?
A) Complaint
B) Affidavit
C) Decision
D) Subpoena
  • 82. The term venue in criminal cases refers to:
A) Witness location
B) Court furniture
C) Place where the case is tried
D) Type of penalty
  • 83. Which right ensures that an accused knows the nature and cause of accusation?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right to property
C) Right to travel
D) Right to information
  • 84. Which evidence is admissible because it forms part of a spontaneous statement?
A) Opinion evidence
B) Hearsay
C) Res Gestae
D) Secondary evidence
  • 85. Leading questions are generally:
A) Allowed on direct examination
B) Used by witnesses only
C) Not allowed on direct examination
D) Required during trial
  • 86. Which question suggests its own answer to the witness?
A) Leading question
B) Hypothetical question
C) Narrative question
D) Compound question
  • 87. Which objection challenges evidence as irrelevant?
A) Objection: Irrelevant
B) Objection: Argumentative
C) Objection: Leading
D) Objection: Compound
  • 88. Which doctrine states that facts admitted no longer require proof?
A) Corpus Delicti
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Judicial Admission
D) Double Jeopardy
  • 89. Recantation means:
A) Repeating testimony
B) Filing complaint
C) Posting bail
D) Withdrawal or repudiation of previous statement
  • 90. Which witness may provide opinions based on specialized expertise?
A) Character witness
B) Child witness
C) Expert witness
D) Hostile witness
  • 91. Which rule prevents testimony about privileged communication?
A) Privileged Communication Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Exclusionary Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 92. Attorney-client communication is generally:
A) Hearsay only
B) Public information
C) Illegal evidence
D) Privileged and confidential
  • 93. Which stage occurs when judgment is announced in court?
A) Examination
B) Arraignment
C) Promulgation
D) Investigation
  • 94. Which legal remedy questions the legality of detention?
A) Certiorari
B) Mandamus
C) Injunction
D) Habeas Corpus
  • 95. Which evidence relies upon a chain of circumstances?
A) Direct evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Primary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 96. Which principle states that an accused is innocent until proven guilty?
A) Corpus delicti
B) Presumption of innocence
C) Rule of lenity
D) Judicial notice
  • 97. Which court order commands law enforcement to arrest a person?
A) Subpoena
B) Warrant of arrest
C) Summons
D) Search warrant
  • 98. Which examination follows cross-examination?
A) Redirect examination
B) Arraignment
C) Sentencing
D) Investigation
  • 99. Which term refers to the legal authority of a court to hear and decide a case?
A) Promulgation
B) Probable cause
C) Jurisdiction
D) Venue
  • 100. The ultimate goal of criminal procedure and evidence is to:
A) Avoid trials
B) Protect rights and ensure justice
C) Delay cases
D) Increase penalties only
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