CPCTES
  • 1. What is the primary purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To punish witnesses
B) To collect taxes
C) To create laws
D) To regulate the process of criminal justice
  • 2. Which refers to the means sanctioned by rules for proving truth in court?
A) Verdict
B) Pleading
C) Evidence
D) Complaint
  • 3. A complaint is defined as:
A) A lawyer’s opinion
B) A police report only
C) A decision of the court
D) A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense
  • 4. An information is:
A) A witness statement only
B) A newspaper report
C) A confession
D) . A criminal pleading filed by the prosecutor in court
  • 5. Which party has the burden of proving guilt in a criminal case?
A) Judge
B) Prosecution
C) Witness
D) Accused
  • 6. The constitutional presumption in favor of the accused is:
A) Presumption of guilt
B) Presumption of innocence
C) Presumption of wealth
D) Presumption of liability
  • 7. Which court proceeding determines probable cause for arrest?
A) Preliminary Investigation
B) Sentencing
C) Trial
D) Appeal
  • 8. Probable cause means:
A) Witness opinion only
B) Strong suspicion supported by facts
C) Absolute certainty
D) Mere rumor
  • 9. Which of the following is considered documentary evidence?
A) Testimony
B) Fingerprint
C) Contract
D) Knife
  • 10. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Written confession only
B) Oral statement made under oath
C) Physical object
D) Photograph
  • 11. Physical evidence is also known as:
A) Object evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Opinion evidence
  • 12. Which rule requires the original document when contents are in issue?
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Parol Evidence Rule
C) Res Gestae Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 13. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Always true
B) Inadmissible unless under exceptions
C) Required in court
D) Always admissible
  • 14. Cross-examination is conducted by:
A) Jury
B) Witness himself
C) Opposing counsel
D) Judge only
  • 15. Which stage allows questioning of a witness by the party who presented him?
A) Direct examination
B) Cross-examination
C) Recall
D) Appeal
  • 16. Circumstantial evidence is:
A) Documentary proof only
B) Evidence requiring inference
C) Fake evidence
D) Direct proof of fact
  • 17. Direct evidence proves a fact:
A) Immediately and directly
B) By opinion alone
C) Through inference
D) By rumor
  • 18. Which officer generally prosecutes criminal cases?
A) Clerk of Court
B) Prosecutor
C) Sheriff
D) Bailiff
  • 19. The accused enters his plea during:
A) Appeal
B) Arraignment
C) Trial
D) Promulgation
  • 20. A plea of guilty means:
A) Request for dismissal
B) Admission of charge
C) Denial of charge
D) Refusal to testify
  • 21. A plea of not guilty means:
A) Waiver of trial
B) Denial of the accusation
C) Admission of guilt
D) Acceptance of punishment
  • 22. Which constitutional right protects against self-incrimination?
A) Right to property
B) Right to vote
C) Right to remain silent
D) Right to travel
  • 23. Arrest is defined as:
A) Taking a person into custody to answer for an offense
B) Court conviction
C) Payment of fine
D) Filing a complaint
  • 24. A warrant of arrest is issued by:
A) Witness
B) Police officer
C) Prosecutor
D) Judge
  • 25. Which of the following is an example of object evidence?
    A. Affidavit
A) Gun used in crime
B) Affidavit
C) Police blotter
D) Testimony
  • 26. Evidence must be relevant and:
A) Popular
B) Admissible
C) Lengthy
D) Expensive
  • 27. Relevant evidence means:
A) Evidence from newspaper only
B) Evidence having connection with the fact in issue
C) Illegal evidence
D) Evidence unrelated to issue
  • 28. Competent evidence means:
A) Publicly known
B) Legally admissible in court
C) Witness-approved
D) Very expensive
  • 29. Which examination follows direct examination?
A) Appeal
B) Recall examination
C) Redirect examination
D) Cross-examination
  • 30. Redirect examination aims to:
A) End the case
B) Clarify matters raised during cross-examination
C) Change testimony entirely
D) Attack witness credibility only
  • 31. Which evidence is stronger when proving a document’s contents?
A) Rumor
B) Oral testimony
C) Secondary evidence
D) Original document
  • 32. Secondary evidence may be admitted when:
A) Witness refuses to testify
B) Judge prefers it
C) Original is lost or unavailable under rules
D) Original exists and available
  • 33. Judicial notice refers to:
A) Newspaper publication
B) Witness testimony
C) Court recognizing facts without evidence
D) Police investigation
  • 34. The credibility of a witness refers to:
A) Occupation only
B) Believability or trustworthiness
C) Financial status
D) Age only
  • 35. Which evidence is based on personal knowledge of a witness?
A) Rumor
B) Speculation
C) Hearsay evidence
D) Direct testimony
  • 36. Motive is:
A) The act itself
B) Court order
C) Reason that induces a person to act
D) Witness statement
  • 37. Alibi is a defense claiming:
A) Self-defense
B) Presence at another place during crime
C) Mistaken identity only
D) Lack of motive
  • 38. Which standard is required to convict an accused?
A) Probable cause
B) Public opinion
C) Mere suspicion
D) Beyond reasonable doubt
  • 39. Acquittal means:
A) Conviction of accused
B) Filing of case
C) Arrest of accused
D) Release because guilt not proven
  • 40. Conviction means:
A) Dismissal of case
B) Finding the accused guilty
C) Withdrawal of complaint
D) New trial
  • 41. Which right guarantees legal assistance to the accused?
A) Right to travel
B) Right to counsel
C) Right to property
D) Right to privacy
  • 42. Bail is defined as:
A) Final punishment
B) Court decision
C) Police investigation
D) Security for release of accused to guarantee court apperance
  • 43. Bail may be given in the form of:
A) Police report only
B) Court transcript
C) Testimony only
D) Property or surety bond
  • 44. Search warrant is issued for the purpose of:
A) Searching and seizing specific property
B) Collecting taxes
C) Filing complaint
D) Convicting accused
  • 45. Which official issues a search warrant?
A) Judge
B) Witness
C) Prosecutor
D) Police officer
  • 46. Illegal search and seizure violate:
A) Constitutional rights
B) Tax laws
C) School policies
D) Traffic rules
  • 47. Evidence obtained illegally is generally called:
A) Best evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Excluded evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 48. Which rule excludes illegally obtained evidence?
A) Exclusionary Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Dead Man Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 49. Corpus delicti refers to:
A) Fact that a crime has been committed
B) Body of the accused only
C) Court records
D) Witness affidavit
  • 50. Which document records witness statements under oath?
A) Invoice
B) Affidavit
C) Receipt
D) Summons
  • 51. Summons is generally issued in:
A) Criminal conviction
B) Civil cases
C) Sentencing
D) Appeal only
  • 52. Which officer serves court processes such as writs and subpoenas?
A) Sheriff
B) Witness
C) Clerk
D) Prosecutor
  • 53. A subpoena is issued to:
A) Convict accused
B) Arrest immediately
C) Compel attendance of witness or production of documents
D) Dismiss case
  • 54. Subpoena duces tecum requires:
A) Arrest of accused
B) Production of documents or objects
C) Witness appearance only
D) Payment of fine
  • 55. Subpoena ad testificandum compels:
A) Delivery of property
B) Witness testimony
C) Filing of complaint
D) Payment of damages
  • 56. Which evidence consists of written or printed materials?
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 57. The judge’s decision is based on:
A) Personal opinion alone
B) Public pressure
C) Evidence presented and applicable law
D) Media reports
  • 58. Which proceeding follows arraignment?
A) Arrest
B) Investigation
C) Trial
D) Complaint filing
  • 59. Trial is conducted to:
A) Write police report
B) Punish witness
C) Determine guilt or innocence
D) Collect taxes
  • 60. Which principle states that no person shall be tried twice for the same offense?
A) Due process
B) Probable cause
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Double jeopardy
  • 61. Double jeopardy protects a person from:
A) Being tried twice for the same offense
B) Paying bail twice
C) Multiple arrests for different crimes
D) Giving testimony twice
  • 62. Due process means:
A) Fair and lawful procedure
B) Immediate punishment without hearing
C) Public opinion decides the case
D) Police decide guilt
  • 63. Which pleading is filed to challenge defects in a complaint or information?
A) Warrant
B) Verdict
C) Motion to Quash
D) Affidavit
  • 64. A demurrer to evidence is filed when:
A) Prosecution evidence is insufficient
B) Trial has not started
C) Witness disappears
D) Accused admits guilt
  • 65. Which party presents evidence first during trial?
A) Witness
B) Judge
C) Defense
D) Prosecution
  • 66. The defense presents evidence:
A) Before complaint filing
B) During investigation only
C) After prosecution rests its case
D) Before arraignment
  • 67. Which motion asks the court to postpone proceedings?
A) Motion for Judgment
B) Motion to Quash
C) Motion to Dismiss
D) Motion for Continuance
  • 68. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Supports both parties
B) Shows adverse interest or unwillingness
C) Is under 18 years old
D) Refuses oath only
  • 69. Which evidence proves a fact without inference?
A) Direct evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Hearsay evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 70. Character evidence generally refers to:
A) Crime scene objects
B) Written contracts
C) Financial records
D) Proof of moral traits or reputation
  • 71. Expert witness testimony is based on:
A) Guesswork
B) Rumor
C) Friendship with accused
D) Specialized knowledge and skill
  • 72. Which witness testifies about facts personally perceived?
A) Character witness
B) Hostile witness
C) Expert witness
D) Ordinary witness
  • 73. Which document officially records court proceedings?
A) Police badge
B) Transcript of stenographic notes
C) Receipt
D) Search warrant
  • 74. Perjury is committed by
A) Filing appeal
B) Giving false testimony under oath
C) Remaining silent
D) Posting bail
  • 75. Which court action formally ends a criminal case without conviction?
A) Arraignment
B) Conviction
C) Sentencing
D) Dismissal
  • 76. Sentencing occurs when:
A) Trial begins
B) Complaint is filed
C) Judge imposes penalty after conviction
D) Bail is posted
  • 77. Appeal is made to:
A) Arrest accused again
B) Reinvestigate crime scene only
C) Request review of lower court decision
D) File police blotter
  • 78. Which court officer keeps records and documents?
A) Prosecutor
B) Clerk of Court
C) Bailiff
D) Sheriff
  • 79. Judicial affidavit is:
A) Court decision
B) Oral testimony only
C) Arrest order
D) Written sworn testimony of witness
  • 80. Which principle requires that criminal laws be interpreted strictly against the State?
A) Rule of lenity
B) Estoppel
C) Judicial notice
D) Liberal construction
  • 81. Which court document contains the final judgment of the court?
A) Complaint
B) Subpoena
C) Affidavit
D) Decision
  • 82. The term venue in criminal cases refers to:
A) Place where the case is tried
B) Type of penalty
C) Witness location
D) Court furniture
  • 83. Which right ensures that an accused knows the nature and cause of accusation?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right to information
C) Right to property
D) Right to travel
  • 84. Which evidence is admissible because it forms part of a spontaneous statement?
A) Opinion evidence
B) Hearsay
C) Secondary evidence
D) Res Gestae
  • 85. Leading questions are generally:
A) Required during trial
B) Allowed on direct examination
C) Not allowed on direct examination
D) Used by witnesses only
  • 86. Which question suggests its own answer to the witness?
A) Hypothetical question
B) Narrative question
C) Compound question
D) Leading question
  • 87. Which objection challenges evidence as irrelevant?
A) Objection: Argumentative
B) Objection: Compound
C) Objection: Irrelevant
D) Objection: Leading
  • 88. Which doctrine states that facts admitted no longer require proof?
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Corpus Delicti
C) Judicial Admission
D) Double Jeopardy
  • 89. Recantation means:
A) Posting bail
B) Filing complaint
C) Withdrawal or repudiation of previous statement
D) Repeating testimony
  • 90. Which witness may provide opinions based on specialized expertise?
A) Child witness
B) Hostile witness
C) Character witness
D) Expert witness
  • 91. Which rule prevents testimony about privileged communication?
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Privileged Communication Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Exclusionary Rule
  • 92. Attorney-client communication is generally:
A) Public information
B) Hearsay only
C) Illegal evidence
D) Privileged and confidential
  • 93. Which stage occurs when judgment is announced in court?
A) Promulgation
B) Investigation
C) Examination
D) Arraignment
  • 94. Which legal remedy questions the legality of detention?
A) Habeas Corpus
B) Certiorari
C) Injunction
D) Mandamus
  • 95. Which evidence relies upon a chain of circumstances?
A) Direct evidence
B) Primary evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 96. Which principle states that an accused is innocent until proven guilty?
A) Judicial notice
B) Presumption of innocence
C) Rule of lenity
D) Corpus delicti
  • 97. Which court order commands law enforcement to arrest a person?
A) Search warrant
B) Subpoena
C) Warrant of arrest
D) Summons
  • 98. Which examination follows cross-examination?
A) Sentencing
B) Arraignment
C) Investigation
D) Redirect examination
  • 99. Which term refers to the legal authority of a court to hear and decide a case?
A) Probable cause
B) Promulgation
C) Venue
D) Jurisdiction
  • 100. The ultimate goal of criminal procedure and evidence is to:
A) Delay cases
B) Avoid trials
C) Increase penalties only
D) Protect rights and ensure justice
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