CLJ3-CRILW1
  • 1. Which is a primary characteristic of criminal law?
A) Focuses on property rights
B) Enforces social order
C) Resolves private disputes
D) Deals with contracts
  • 2. What element is essential to define a felony?
A) Commission of an unlawful act with criminal intent
B) Absence of harm
C) No punishment
D) Only negligence required
  • 3. Dolo in criminal law means:
A) Accident
B) Excuse for crime
C) Negligence
D) Intent or deliberate fault
  • 4. Which of the following best describes culpa?
A) Criminal negligence or fault
B) Justifiable act
C) No liability
D) Intentional wrongdoing
  • 5. Which element must be proven in every felony?
A) Actus reus and mens rea
B) Police report
C) Civil damages
D) Motive
  • 6. Criminal law is mainly concerned with:
A) Tax disputes
B) Punishment for offenses against society
C) Private contracts
D) Compensation for damages
  • 7. Which describes the phrase “plurality of crimes”?
A) Only misdemeanors
B) Multiple crimes committed simultaneously or consecutively
C) Crimes that are not punishable
D) Single crime committed once
  • 8. Which is NOT a characteristic of criminal law?
A) Imposes penalties
B) Requires victim’s consent
C) Public wrongs
D) Burden of proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 9. What best defines mens rea?
A) Criminal intent or state of mind
B) Proof of harm
C) Physical evidence
D) Criminal act
  • 10. The principle “nullum crimen sine lege” means:
A) Law is irrelevant
B) Crime can happen without law
C) No crime without law
D) All crimes are equal
  • 11. What is an example of dolo?
A) Forgetting a law
B) Unknowingly breaking a rule
C) Accidentally causing harm
D) Planning and killing someone intentionally
  • 12. If a person acted negligently but without intent, this is called:
A) Culpa
B) Dolo
C) Attempt
D) Justifiable homicide
  • 13. What happens in complex crimes under plurality of crimes?
A) No punishment applies
B) Crimes are punished separately but concurrently
C) Only one crime is punished
D) Multiple offenses committed with a single act
  • 14. Which of these is NOT an element of a felony?
A) Voluntariness
B) Criminal intent
C) Unlawful act
D) Monetary damages
  • 15. Which distinguishes felony from misdemeanor?
A) Felonies involve more serious punishment
B) Misdemeanors require intent
C) Felonies have lighter penalties
D) No difference
  • 16. What describes “actus reus”?
A) Physical or unlawful act
B) Penalty
C) Mental element
D) Motive
  • 17. How does criminal law treat repeated offenses?
A) Only first offense counts
B) No punishment for repeats
C) As separate unrelated acts
D) Usually with increased penalties
  • 18. Which is correct about the concept of imputability?
A) Refers to police investigation
B) Refers to physical capability
C) Refers to victim’s fault
D) Refers to legal capacity to be responsible for crime
  • 19. When does criminal liability occur without dolo?
A) When culpa or negligence is present
B) No liability applies
C) Always innocent
D) Only if dolo is proven
  • 20. Which is true about the prosecution of plurality of crimes?
A) Only one crime is considered
B) They must be tried separately always
C) They are ignored
D) They may be consolidated or separate depending on law
  • 21. Mark and Leo planned to rob a store. Mark held the gun and took the money while Leo stood guard outside to stop others from entering. What is Leo's liability?
A) Principal by Inducement
B) Accomplices
C) Principal by direct participation
D) Accesory
  • 22. Anna convinced Carlo to kill her business rival by promising him money. Carlo performed the killing. What is Anna's liability?
A) Principal by Direct Participation
B) Principal by Inducement
C) Accesory
D) Accomplices
  • 23. Three people committed a robbery. Ones acted as the lookout, one drove the gateway vehicle, and one took the money. They agreed beforehand to commit the crim. What describes their liability?
A) Principles by Conspiracy
B) Accesory
C) Accomplices
D) Principle by Inducement
  • 24. Rico helped carry the victim so that his friend could stab him. Rico's act was necessary for the stabbing to happen. What is Rico's Liability?
A) Principle by Inducement
B) Accesory
C) Principal by Indispensable Cooperation
D) Accomplices
  • 25. Sam suggested to Jay to steal a motorcycle, but Jay refuse. The crime was never committed. What is Sam's liability?
A) Proposal to Commit a Felony
B) Accesory
C) Accomplices
D) Conspiracy
  • 26. After a robbery, Greg hid the stolen items in his house knowing they were stolen. What is Greg's liability?
A) Principal by Inducement
B) Accomplices
C) Principal by Cooperation
D) Accesory
  • 27. Two friends agreed to burn a building and both set the fire. What is their liability?
A) Principal by Inducement
B) Accomplices
C) Accesory
D) Principal by direct participation
  • 28. Conspiracy among two or more persons to commit a felony incurs liability to:
A) All participants as principals in the felony
B) Only the principal offender
C) A reduced liability if a participant withdraws
D) No liability if the crime is not completed
  • 29. A person who proposes to commit a felony and performs an act to carry it out is:
A) Not liable unless the crime is committed
B) Liable as a principal in the conspiracy or proposal
C) Guilty as an accessory after the fact
D) Only liable if someone is injured
  • 30. In conspiracy, liability arises when:
A) An overt act in furtherance of the conspiracy occurs, even if the principal crime is not completed
B) The conspirators sever ties
C) The crime is charged but not proven
D) The crime is completed
  • 31. If two or more persons agree to commit a crime and one performs an act in furtherance, all are:
A) Liable only for the act they personally commit
B) Liable as co-conspirators for the intended offense
C) Exempt from liability if none partakes in the final act
D) Exposed to liability only if the crime is completed
  • 32. An agreement to commit a crime, without any act in furtherance, is:
A) Not punishable
B) Punishable only if a victim is harmed
C) Exempt if the parties later desist
D) Punishable as conspiracy if there is a clear intent to commit the offense
  • 33. A person who advises another to commit a felony but takes no further step is:
A) Exempt if the crime is never attempted
B) Guilty of solicitation or proposing the crime, depending on jurisdiction
C) Guilty of conspiracy
D) Not liable unless the advice results in a completed crime
  • 34. Withdrawal from a conspiracy:
A) Relieves a conspirator from liability only if withdrawal is timely and communicated to co-conspirators
B) Converts conspiracy into a mere discussion
C) Always relieves all conspirators of liability
D) Does not affect liability for the conspiracy once formed
  • 35. A participant who assists after the crime is committed is:
A) Guilty as an accessory after the fact, not for conspiracy
B) Exempt from liability if they did not participate in
C) Liable as a principal for the completed crime
D) Guilty as an accomplice only if they provide help before the crime
  • 36. Two individuals agree to commit burglary and one of them purchases crowbars to be used in the plan. They have formed a conspiracy. What is the liability of the purchasing conspirator?
A) Liable only for possession of tools
B) Liable as a conspirator for the planned offense
C) Not liable until the burglary occurs
D) Liable only if they participate in the actual break-in
  • 37. A person proposes to commit a fraud and tells another to go ahead, but no one acts on the proposal. Depending on jurisdiction, this act is most accurately described as:
A) Solicitation or proposing the crime, depending on jurisdiction
B) Conspiracy, if an overt act is performed in reliance on the proposal
C) Attempted crime regardless of overt acts
D) Purely protected speech with no liability
  • 38. During a conspiracy, one member withdraws before any overt act occurs. The withdrawal:
A) Has no effect on liability for the conspiracy
B) Converts the conspiracy into mere agreement
C) Relieves the withdrawing member from liability if and when properly communicated
D) Automatically terminates liability for all co-conspirators
  • 39. If two people conspire to commit a felony and one person acts to help carry out the plan, but the felony is not completed, the other conspirator is:
A) Not liable since the crime failed
B) Only liable for the act they personally performed
C) Liable as a conspirator for the intended offense
D) Exempt if no victim was harmed
  • 40. A person advises another to commit a felony and provides minor assistance, but no further steps are taken. This person is most likely:
A) Guilty of the completed crime
B) Guilty of conspiracy
C) Guilty of solicitation or proposing the crime, depending on jurisdiction
D) Exempt from liability because no crime occurred
  • 41. A person plans to commit robbery but is arrested right after buying a weapon for the crime. Which stage of felony commission applies?
A) Proposal
B) Frustration
C) Consummation
D) Attempt
  • 42. A felony punishable by reclusion perpetua is classified as:
A) Light felony
B) Misdemeanor
C) Less grave felony
D) Grave felony
  • 43. A person commits homicide with mitigating circumstances, which reduces the penalty. This is an example of applying:
A) Indeterminate penalty
B) Maximum penalty
C) Minimum penalty
D) Medium penalty
  • 44. Which of these stages applies to a crime where the offender performs all the acts necessary to consummate the felony but the intended result does not occur?
A) ) Consummation
B) Attempt
C) Proposal
D) Frustration
  • 45. A person is sentenced with the penalty for a less grave felony. This means the crime committed:
A) Has a penalty lighter than grave felonies but heavier than light felonies
B) Is punishable by the most severe penalties
C) Is a misdemeanor
D) Does not involve any penalty
  • 46. A person arranges the details of a planned robbery but has not taken any direct steps. What stage of felony is this?
A) Frustration
B) Proposal
C) Consummation
D) Attempt
  • 47. A person was caught entering a house to commit theft, but left without taking anything. This is best classified as:
A) Proposal
B) Frustration
C) Attempt
D) Consummation
  • 48. Which of the following penalties is generally assigned to less grave felonies?
A) Arresto mayor
B) Prision correccional
C) Destierro
D) Reclusion perpetua
  • 49. A completed murder usually falls under:
A) Less grave felony
B) Grave felony
C) Infraction
D) Light felony
  • 50. If a mitigating circumstance is present, the court should impose the:
A) Maximum penalty
B) Minimum penalty
C) Medium penalty
D) No penalty
  • 51. A person who finishes all acts for robbery but is stopped before taking the money is in what stage?
A) Frustration
B) Consummation
C) Proposal
D) ) Attempt
  • 52. The stage when all elements of the felony are present and the crime is completed is called:
A) Attempt
B) Consummation
C) Proposal
D) Frustration
  • 53. Which crime is classified as a light felony?
A) Slight physical injuries
B) Murder
C) Parricide
D) Qualified theft
  • 54. The graduated scale of penalties means:
A) Penalties progressively increase or decrease based on aggravating or mitigating factors
B) Penalties are waived if the victim forgives
C) Penalties are fixed and non-negotiable
D) Penalties apply only after conviction
  • 55. An offense punishable by arresto mayor is a:
A) Light felony
B) Less grave felony
C) Misdemeanor
D) Grave felony
  • 56. A conspirator withdrawing before any overt act is committed:
A) Is liable only if the crime is completed
B) Is always guilty
C) Is a principal offender
D) May be absolved if withdrawal is timely and communicated
  • 57. How does the presence of aggravating circumstances affect the penalty?
A) Penalty is increased to maximum
B) Penalty is lowered to minimum
C) Penalty remains the same
D) Penalty is waived altogether
  • 58. Attempted felonies receive:
A) Penalties lower than consummated felonies
B) The same penalties as consummated felonies
C) No penalties
D) Administrative penalties only
  • 59. When a person only proposes a felony and no further act occurs, he is guilty of:
A) Proposal or solicitation
B) No crime
C) Consummated felony
D) Conspiracy
  • 60. Which felony classification corresponds to prision mayor punishment?
A) Grave felony
B) Light felony
C) Infraction
D) Less grave felony
  • 61. A person unintentionally causes injury due to negligence. What circumstance affects their liability?
A) Mitigating circumstance
B) Intoxication
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Accident
  • 62. If a person commits a crime in self-defense, the circumstance is:
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Exempting circumstance
C) Aggravating circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 63. A minor below 15 years old commits a felony. What applies to their criminal liability?
A) Liable only if accompanied by adult
B) Exempt from criminal liability
C) Subject to maximum penalty
D) Full liability
  • 64. Voluntary intoxication affecting the person’s mind during a crime is considered a:
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Exempting circumstance
C) Aggravating circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 65. When two or more aggravating circumstances exist, how is liability affected?
A) Penalty is waived
B) Penal liability increases
C) Penal liability decreases
D) Liability is extinguished
  • 66. An insanity or mental illness at the time of the crime is a:
A) Mitigating circumstance
B) Exempting circumstance
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Aggravating circumstance
  • 67. If a person acts under lawful order from a superior, this is a:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Exempting circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 68. Prisoner of war commits a crime during war. What circumstance fits?
A) No circumstance at all
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Exempting circumstance
  • 69. Crime of passion committed immediately after discovering infidelity is a:
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Aggravating circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Exempting circumstance
  • 70. A person is forced at gunpoint to participate in a robbery. This affects criminal liability as:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Exempting circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 71. If the offender is an accomplice and not the principal, which circumstance applies?
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Aggravating circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Exempting circumstance
  • 72. The use of a deadly weapon during the commission of a felony is:
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Aggravating circumstance
C) Exempting circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 73. Act committed by a police officer in lawful arrest is a:
A) Mitigating circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Aggravating circumstance
D) Exempting circumstance
  • 74. Repeat offenses generally result in:
A) Mitigating circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Exempting circumstance
D) Aggravating circumstance
  • 75. If an offender voluntarily surrenders and helps arrest accomplices, this is a:
A) Mitigating circumstance
B) Aggravating circumstance
C) Exempting circumstance
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 76. A crime committed out of motive of hatred or revenge is:
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Exempting circumstance
C) Aggravating circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 77. Committing the crime through an involuntary reflex action is:
A) Exempting circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Aggravating circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 78. A defendant acting under superior orders that are manifestly unlawful is:
A) Mitigated in penalty
B) Still criminally liable
C) Justified fully
D) Exempted from liability
  • 79. If multiple offenses are committed in a single act, the penalty imposed will be:
A) Only the penalty for the most serious felony
B) The sum of the penalties but not exceeding maximum
C) The highest penalty above the others
D) Penalty is waived
  • 80. Committing a felony during a calamity or catastrophe is treated as:
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Mitigating circumstance
C) No special circumstance
D) Aggravating circumstance
  • 81. When a convicted person fully serves the penalty imposed, this mode of extinguishing liability is called:
A) Amnesty
B) Prescription of crimes
C) Service or satisfaction of the penalty
D) Death of the offender
  • 82. If the accused dies before the final judgment, criminal liability is extinguished by:
A) Prescription of crimes
B) Amnesty
C) Death of the offender
D) Acquittal
  • 83. The government pardons a convicted offender, thereby extinguishing liability, through:
A) Expungement
B) Acquittal
C) Prescription of crimes
D) Amnesty
  • 84. If the court decides that the accused is not guilty, liability is extinguished by:
A) Service of sentence
B) Amnesty
C) Death
D) Acquittal
  • 85. Criminal liability can be extinguished when the complaint is retracted by the offended party in a crime punishable only upon complaint. This is:
A) Amnesty
B) Desistance
C) Revocation
D) Compromise or settlement
  • 86. The expiration of the time fixed by law for the prosecution or enforcement of a penalty is called:
A) Rescission
B) Prescription of crimes
C) Abandonment
D) Extinction by death
  • 87. If an accused is released based on a law abolishing that crime or penalty, liability is extinguished by:
A) Acquittal
B) Amnesty
C) Prescription
D) Legislative repeal
  • 88. If the offended party pardons the offender, the mode of extinguishing criminal liability is:
A) Rescission
B) Gratuitous remission of penalty
C) Condonation
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 89. If the accused performs a lawful act that justifies the felony committed, their criminal liability is extinguished by:
A) Acquittal
B) Settlement
C) Prescription
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 90. The mode of extinguishing criminal liability when the offended party agrees to withdraw the complaint before trial commences is called:
A) Compromise
B) Desistance
C) Abandonment
D) Satisfaction
  • 91. A convicted person completes the full prison sentence. What mode of extinction applies?
A) Prescription
B) Death
C) Amnesty
D) Service of penalty
  • 92. The accused dies before trial or sentencing. Which mode extinguishes liability?
A) Acquittal
B) Compromise
C) Amnesty
D) Death
  • 93. The government issues a general pardon for certain crimes, extinguishing liability. This is called:
A) Prescription
B) Amnesty
C) Satisfaction
D) Expungement
  • 94. The court finds the accused not guilty after trial. What mode applies?
A) Amnesty
B) Prescription
C) Acquittal
D) Service of penalty
  • 95. The offended party withdraws the complaint before trial in a crime punishable only upon complaint. This mode is:
A) Desistance
B) Amnesty
C) Satisfaction
D) Abandonment
  • 96. After lapse of a legally fixed period, prosecution or enforcement can no longer be pursued. This is:
A) Prescription
B) Abandonment
C) Amnesty
D) Satisfaction
  • 97. A law abolishes a crime and its penalties, releasing convicted persons from liability. This mode is:
A) Prescription
B) Legislative repeal
C) Amnesty
D) Acquittal
  • 98. The offender is pardoned by the offended party, extinguishing the penalty. This mode is:
A) Prescription
B) Gratuitous remission
C) Desistance
D) Acquittal
  • 99. The crime is justified because the accused acted in lawful self-defense. This mode is:
A) Amnesty
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Prescription
D) Satisfaction
  • 100. When the offended party agrees to withdraw the complaint before trial, ending the prosecution is called:
A) Abandonment
B) Amnesty
C) Compromise
D) Desistance
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