CDI 1 MCQs - Quiz
  • 1. What is the primary goal of criminal investigation?
A) To punish the offender immediately
B) To satisfy the victim's family
C) To determine the truth and identify the guilty
D) To close the case quickly
  • 2. Which is NOT one of the three-fold aims of criminal investigation?
A) Provide evidence to support conviction
B) Identify the perpetrator
C) Recover damages for the victim
D) Locate and apprehend the perpetrator
  • 3. The three basic tools of criminal investigation are:
A) People, money, technology
B) Information, Interview, Instrumentation
C) Patrol, surveillance, entrapment
D) Police, prosecutor, court
  • 4. Information as an investigative tool refers to:
A) Data gathered from witnesses only
B) Knowledge derived from persons, records, and public sources
C) Confessions obtained under pressure
D) Secret documents only
  • 5. Interview differs from interrogation in that interview is:
A) Done to suspects only
B) Questioning of persons who may or may not be involved, done in friendly atmosphere
C) Always recorded secretly
D) Conducted without counsel
  • 6. Interrogation is conducted primarily to:
A) Get the person to restate what they know
B) Calm the witness
C) Verify alibi's
D) Obtain admission or confession from a suspect
  • 7. Instrumentation in investigation means:
A) Using authority to gather facts
B) Relying on intuition
C) Application of sciences and technical methods to detect crime
D) Buying expensive equipment
  • 8. Who among the following is the person who first arrives at the crime scene?
A) Prosecutor
B) Case investigator
C) First responder
D) Crime laboratory technician
  • 9. The very first action of the first responder at a crime scene:
A) Secure and isolate the scene
B) Collect evidence
C) Take photographs
D) Interview witnesses
  • 10. Chain of custody refers to:
A) The warrant used to seize items
B) The police officer guarding the suspect
C) Unbroken documentary record of everyone who handled evidence
D) The prison transfer form
  • 11. If a suspect is caught in the act of committing a crime, the arrest is:
A) Requires court approval first
B) Warrantless arrest in flagrante delicto
C) Can only be done by a judge
D) Illegal
  • 12. A person who, without being a witness, supplies information of value to investigators on a confidential basis:
A) Suspect
B) Accomplice
C) Victim
D) Informant
  • 13. The intelligence cycle in correct sequence:
A) Collection → Planning → Processing → Dissemination
B) Planning → Collection → Processing → Dissemination
C) Processing → Planning → Dissemination → Collection
D) Dissemination → Collection → Planning → Processing
  • 14. What type of intelligence deals with personalities, their activities and associations?
A) Counter-intelligence
B) Line / Tactical intelligence
C) Strategic intelligence
D) Estimate
  • 15. Intelligence intended for long-term planning and policy making:
A) Tactical intelligence
B) Strategic intelligence
C) Current intelligence
D) Operational intelligence
  • 16. Covert observation of a person, place, or thing to obtain information:
A) Search
B) Surveillance
C) Interoggation
D) Raid
  • 17. Surveillance conducted on foot:
A) Mobile /foot surveillance
B) Stationary surveillance
C) Air surveillance
D) Technical surveillance
  • 18. When the observer takes a fixed position to watch a target:
A) Casing
B) Shadowing
C) Stationary / fixed surveillance
D) Tailing
  • 19. A secret investigation conducted before launching the actual case inquiry to verify facts:
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Follow-up investigation
C) Preparatory investigation / casing
D) Re-investigation
  • 20. Evidence that proves a fact directly without need of inference:
A) Direct evidence
B) Hearsay evidence
C) Circumtancial evidence
D) Ducomentary evidence
  • 21. Evidence that implies a fact from which the main fact may be inferred:
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Real evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 22. The body of the crime; the fact that a crime has actually been committed:
A) Res gestae
B) Corpus delicti
C) Modus operandi
D) Prima facie
  • 23. Method of operation; characteristic way a criminal commits crimes:
A) Alibi
B) Motive
C) Modus operandi
D) Corpus delicti
  • 24. Reason that impels a person to commit a crime:
A) Motive
B) Opportunity
C) Ability
D) Intent
  • 25. A defense that the accused was somewhere else when the crime happened:
A) Alibi
B) Self-defense
C) Entrapment
D) Duress
  • 26. A statement made by a suspect acknowledging guilt:
A) Deposition
B) Admission
C) Affidavit
D) Confession
  • 27. An acknowledgement of a fact or circumstance but not necessarily of guilt ?
A) Testimony
B) Confession
C) Admission
D) Declaration
  • 28. Who among informants is motivated by revenge against the target?
A) Fearful
B) Grudge
C) Vengeful
D) Mercenaries
  • 29. Informant who gives information in exchange for money or reward?
A) Mercentile
B) Repentant
C) Mercenary
D) Disinterested
  • 30. The most reliable type of informant is usually?
A) Disinterested / Neutral
B) Criminal participant
C) Grudge-bearing
D) Mercenary
  • 31. Under RA 4200, unauthorized wiretapping is:
A) A criminal offense
B) Allowed if police say so
C) Allowed if public safety is involved
D) Permitted without warrant in all cases
  • 32. A written order issued by a judge directing a peace officer to arrest a person
A) Warrant of arrest
B) Subpoena
C) Search warrant
D) Summon
  • 33. A search warrant is valid for:
A) Indefinite
B) 30 days from date of issuance
C) 15 days from date of issuance
D) 10 days from date of issuance
  • 34. A search warrant must be issued upon probable cause determined personally by
A) President
B) Judge
C) Police chief
D) Prosecutor
  • 35. Things to be seized under a search warrant must be particularly described in the:
A) News report
B) Police blotter
C) Warrant itself
D) Affidavit only
  • 36. Warrantless search incidental to a lawful arrest is valid if made:
A) Before filling of complaint
B) 1 week after arrest
C) Any time after arrest
D) At the time of arrest and within the immediate area of control
  • 37. Objects in plain view of an officer who has a right to be in the place can be seized under:
A) Exigent circumstances
B) None of these
C) Plain view doctrine
D) Consent search
  • 38. A search conducted with the voluntary permission of the person concerned:
A) Always illegal
B) Required written court order
C) Consent search; must be voluntary and intelligent
D) Valid only if witnessed
  • 39. Custodial investigation begins when:
A) . The officer first sees the suspect
B) The investigation focuses on a specific person who is taken into custody
C) The complaint is filed
D) The warrant is issued
  • 40. During custodial investigation, the suspect must be informed of the right to:
A) Be informed of these rights in a language understood
B) Have competent and independent counsel
C) All of the above
D) Remain silent
  • 41. Any extrajudicial confession made without the assistance of counsel is:
A) Admissible in minor offenses only
B) Admissible if signed
C) Admissible if true
D) Null and void and cannot be used in court
  • 42. The rule that evidence obtained illegally cannot be used in court:
A) Hearsay rules
B) Best evidence rules
C) Miranda rules
D) Exclusionary rule / Fruit of the poisonous tree
  • 43. Preliminary investigation is conducted to determine:
A) Suspicion
B) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
C) Probable cause
D) Public opinion
  • 44. Who conducts preliminary investigation?
A) Prosecutor
B) Mayor
C) Judge
D) Police investigator
  • 45. Inquest proceeding applies when a person is lawfully arrested without warrant and:
A) The arrest is valid and the offense requires preliminary investigation
B) There are no witnesses
C) The offense is bailable
D) The suspect waives rights
  • 46. The period to file inquest for offenses punishable by imprisonment of 4 years, 2 months and 1 day to 6 years:
A) 36 hours
B) 24 hours
C) 18 hours
D) 15 hours
  • 47. The police blotter is a record of:
A) Confidential informants
B) Daily events and reports at the station
C) Court decision
D) Secret operation
  • 48. The document prepared by the investigator containing facts of the case:
A) Investigative report
B) Editorial
C) Policy paper
D) News release
  • 49. The sketch drawn at the crime scene showing measurements and distances:
A) Perspective sketch
B) Rough sketch
C) Finished sketch
D) Artistic sketch
  • 50. Photographs taken at the crime scene should be done in sequence:
A) Medium → general → close-up
B) General → medium → close-up
C) Close-up → medium → general
D) No fix order
  • 51. What is the minimum number of photographs recommended for complete scene documentation?**
A) 2
B) 4
C) Only one overview
D) Overlapping coverage from all angles
  • 52. The "walk-through" of the crime scene after photography:
A) Reconstruction
B) Final survey
C) Initial survey / primary search
D) Release
  • 53. Evidence should be marked:
A) At the scene immediately upon collection
B) Before the trial
C) After reaching the laboratory
D) When the prosecutor say so
  • 54. When collecting bloodstained material, it should be:
A) Packed wet in plastic immediately
B) Keep under sunlight
C) Air-dried properly then packaged to prevent contamination
D) Sprayed with water
  • 55. Fingerprints found at the scene are what type of evidence?
A) Hearsay
B) Testimonial
C) Documentary
D) Real / physical evidence
  • 56. Modus operandi files are useful to:
A) Identify victims
B) Justify overtime
C) Link crimes committed by the same person
D) Record police salary
  • 57. Which is NOT a characteristic of a good investigator?
A) Open-mindedness
B) Impartiality
C) Prejudgment
D) Perseverance
  • 58. The best time to interview a witness is:
A) As soon as possible after the event
B) After the trial start
C) Whenever convenient
D) One month later
  • 59. Leading questions may be allowed during:
A) Cross examination
B) Initial interview of friendly witness
C) Never
D) Direct examination
  • 60. A witness who cannot recall details may be aided with:
A) Suggestion
B) Pressure to remember
C) Leading questions always
D) Past recollection recorded / refreshing memory
  • 61. In interrogation, the investigator should start from:
A) Accusing immediately
B) General matters then narrow to specific
C) . The most serious charge first
D) Threatening arrest
  • 62. If a suspect confesses, the next step is:
A) Publicize it
B) Destroy other evidence
C) Release them
D) Reduce to writing with counsel assistance
  • 63. Entrapment is a means of:
A) Manufacturing Evidence
B) Catching a criminal in the execution of their plan; lawful
C) Punishing innocent persons
D) Inducing a person to commit a crime
  • 64. Instigation differs from entrapment because instigation:
A) Is the same as entrapment
B) Required no evidence
C) Is lawful
D) Induces an innocent person to commit a crime; accused is acquitted
  • 65. Undercover agent means:
A) A jail warden
B) An officer openly in uniform
C) An operative assigned to act under assumed identity
D) A judge
  • 66. The purpose of casing a place is to:
A) Arrest immediately
B) Destroy evidence
C) Announce police presence
D) Observe layout, security, habits, without arousing suspicion
  • 67. Stationary surveillance is also known as:
A) Loitering
B) Fixed / stake-out
C) Tailing
D) Shadowing
  • 68. When the target is aware of being followed and evades, this is:
A) Surveillance compromised / blown
B) Normal
C) Expected
D) Good practice
  • 69. A "pouch" or drop system in intelligence refers to:
A) Money bag
B) Leaving and picking up information at prearranged place
C) Evidence bag
D) Mail delivery
  • 70. A reliable source is one who:
A) Is related to the suspect
B) Always tells what you want to hear
C) Is paid the most
D) Has provided accurate information in the past
  • 71. Intelligence information evaluation uses four factors:
A) Time, place, person, thing
B) Reliability of source, accuracy of info, relevance, timeliness
C) Speed, secrecy, cost, risk
D) Rank, experience, training, courage
  • 72. Confidentiality in intelligence means:
A) Telling only friends
B) Restricting access to those who need to know
C) Publishing on social media
D) Never writing anything down
  • 73. The "need-to-know" principle means:
A) No one gets information
B) Only the public is informed
C) Information given only to those whose duty requires it
D) Everyone gets all information
  • 74. Preliminary investigation in the Philippines is governed by:
A) Local ordinances
B) Police manual only
C) Rules of Court, Rule 112
D) RPC only
  • 75. A complaint under Rule 110 is a sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by:
A) Other public officer charged with enforcement
B) Any peace officers
C) All of the above
D) Offended party
  • 76. A person can be charged even if the victim does not file if:
A) The police want to
B) Any of these
C) The media demands it
D) The crime is against public interest
  • 77. Venue of criminal action is where:
A) The prosecutor decides
B) The offense was committed or any of its essential ingredients occurred
C) The victims lives
D) The court is most convenient
  • 78. Double jeopardy means:
A) Having two lawyers
B) Being arrested twice
C) Being questioned twice
D) Being tried twice for the same offense after acquittal or conviction
  • 79. The accused is presumed:
A) Innocent if wealthy
B) Innocent until proven guilty
C) Guilty until proven otherwise
D) Guilty if charged
  • 80. Proof beyond reasonable doubt is required to establish:
A) Conviction
B) Filling of complaint
C) Suspicion
D) Probable cause
  • 81. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction if:
A) It is the only evidence
B) The facts proved are consistent with guilt and inconsistent with innocence
C) The suspect cannot explain
D) The victim say so
  • 82. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Admissible
B) Admissible if written
C) Admissible if urgent
D) Inadmissible
  • 83. Dying declaration is an exception to:
A) Hearsay rule
B) Miranda rule
C) Best evidence rule
D) Chain of custody
  • 84. For a dying declaration to be valid, the declarant must be:
A) Under medication
B) Related to the victim
C) Over 21 years old
D) Conscious of impending death
  • 85. Res gestae refers to statements:
A) Prepared in advance
B) Made long after the event
C) Spontaneously made during startling occurrence
D) Taken from books
  • 86. The crime scene should be photographed:
A) After cleaning
B) Before anyone enters and disturbs it
C) Only if media is present
D) . After evidence is collected
  • 87. When evidence is transferred from one handler to another, this must be recorded in:
A) Social media post
B) General diary
C) Personal notebook
D) Chain of custudy form
  • 88. If evidence is lost or contaminated:
A) Case is automatically dismissed
B) Investigator is jailed immediately
C) Admissibility may be affected; integrity challenged
D) Suspect is acquitted automatically
  • 89. The release of the crime scene is done when:
A) Media leaves
B) Public gets impatient
C) Suspect is caught
D) All processing is completed and approved
  • 90. Follow-up investigation begins:
A) Only after conviction
B) After preliminary investigation and continues until case is solved or closed
C) Before the crime is reported
D) When ordered by media
  • 91. During follow-up, alibis should be:
A) Accepted immediately
B) Ignored
C) Verified and checked for credibility
D) Kept secret
  • 92. The investigator's court appearance requires:
A) Wearing casual clothes
B) Arguing with the defense
C) Bringing witnesses secretly
D) Familiarity with case facts, documents, and proper decorum
  • 93. When testifying, the witness should:
A) Guess if unsure
B) Answer clearly and truthfully only what is known
C) Give extra information voluntarily
D) Look only at the prosecutor
  • 94. A case may be closed when:
A) No leads despite all efforts
B) Suspect is identified and evidence sufficient for filing
C) Suspect is dead
D) Any of the above as per procedure
  • 95. Cold case refers to:
A) Well-documented case
B) A crime committed in winter
C) Minor offense
D) An unsolved case with exhausted leads
  • 96. Re-opening a closed case is proper when:
A) Investigator is bored
B) Media reports it
C) New and substantial evidence is discovered
D) Public demands it
  • 97. Republic Act 11131 is known as:
A) Criminology Profession Act of 2018
B) Security agency regulation law
C) Anti-crime law
D) Police act
  • 98. CHED Memorandum Order No. 5 Series of 2018 covers:
A) Jail management
B) BS Criminology curriculum
C) Fire code
D) Police training
  • 99. The licensure exam for Criminologists includes CDI subjects with a weight of:
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 15%
D) 25%
  • 100. The ultimate goal of the criminal justice system is:
A) Justice through due process and truth
B) Speedy disposal of cases
C) Conviction
D) Punishment
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