COEDAD FINAL - Quiz
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Minimum timestep
B) Auto timestep
C) Fixed timestep
D) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Calculating from frequency response
B) Measuring peak voltage only
C) Reading the voltage value at t=0
D) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Develop new electronic components
B) Program microcontrollers
C) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
D) Build physical electronic circuits
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Nyquist plot
B) Bode plot
C) Time domain plot
D) Smith chart
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) R-C
B) R+C
C) C/R
D) RxC
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 220Ω
B) 100Ω
C) 1kΩ
D) 47Ω
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) DC sweep
B) Fourier
C) Transient
D) Monte Carlo
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 5ms
B) 10ms
C) 2ms
D) 1ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 15ΚΩ
C) 5ΚΩ
D) 20kΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 2kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 500Hz
D) 1kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 500kHz
B) 2MHz
C) 100kHz
D) 1MHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LT1001
B) TL082
C) LM358
D) LM741
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >60dB
B) >40dB
C) >20dB
D) >80dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Voltage out / Voltage in
B) Output power / Input power × 100%
C) Current out / Current in
D) Input power / Output power × 100%
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 100kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 1kHz
D) 50kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Different signals on each input
B) Identical signals applied to both inputs
C) Grounded input
D) Single input signal only
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) RC time constant
B) External clock
C) LC resonance
D) Power supply frequency
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) RMS calculation
B) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
C) Instantaneous voltage
D) Average voltage
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 0.1Hz
B) 100Hz
C) 1Hz
D) 10Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
B) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
C) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
D) Transistors with 5% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Open loop control
B) Linear regulation
C) PWM feedback control
D) Voltage follower
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 24V DC
B) 3.3V DC
C) 12V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Average power
B) Output voltage settling time
C) Input current
D) Switching noise
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-6
B) gmin = 1e-7
C) gmin = 1e-12
D) gmin = 1e-9
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Series sense resistor with feedback
B) Voltage divider
C) Capacitive coupling
D) Parallel resistor
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Component count
B) Random probing
C) Visual inspection
D) Systematic node voltage checking
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Wien bridge oscillator
B) Hartley oscillator
C) Colpitts oscillator
D) Crystal oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 100ΚΩ
B) 1ΚΩ
C) 47kQ
D) 10ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) AVout/AVin
B) AVout/Alload
C) AVin/AVout
D) Alout/AVout
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) Sallen-Key
B) Multiple feedback
C) State variable
D) Twin-T
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 80dB
D) 10
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Gain bandwidth
B) Slew rate
C) Input bias current
D) CMRR
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
B) Energy calculation
C) Power = V *1
D) Heat measurement
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) -15V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 5V DC
D) +15V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Linear regulator
B) Buck converter
C) Flyback converter
D) Boost converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 9V
B) 24V
C) 15V
D) 12V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) Binary format
B) SPICE compatible text format
C) XML format
D) HTML format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) Peak amplitude
B) Long-term frequency drift measurement
C) RMS voltage
D) Phase noise
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Colpitts
B) RC phase shift
C) Wien bridge
D) Crystal
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 5
B) 2
C) 15
D) 10
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Multiple schematics
B) Symbol creation with subcircuits
C) Component arrays
D) Linked files
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F2
B) F3
C) F4
D) F1
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) +5V only
B) ±12V
C) ±15V
D) +12V only
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Bridge configuration with four diodes
B) Single diode setup
C) Center-tapped transformer
D) Two diodes in series
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 250kHz
B) 500kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 1MHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .ac
B) .dc
C) .tran
D) .op
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) 0V
B) 5V
C) 1V
D) -5V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 100μF
B) 1000μF
C) 2200μF
D) 470μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) reltol = 1e-3
B) vntol = 1e-6
C) abstol 1e-12
D) itol = 1e-8
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .plot
B) .print
C) .meas
D) .save
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Separate text file
B) Reference manual
C) SPICE directives with comments
D) Verbal description
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 15V
B) 5V
C) 10V
D) 12V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 5V
B) 6V
C) 3.3V
D) 9V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Theoretical calculation comparison
B) Assumption
C) Visual estimation
D) Peer review
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 1ns
B) 100ns
C) 10ns
D) 1μς
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 220μΗ
B) 1mH
C) 100μΗ
D) 47μΗ
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 2V square wave
B) 3V pulse
C) 0.5V triangle wave
D) 1V sine wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Maximum frequency of input signal
B) Cutoff frequency at OdB
C) Resonant frequency
D) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .ac analysis
B) .tran fft
C) .fft V(out)
D) .four
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Fixed resistor
B) Variable capacitor
C) Zener diode
D) AGC circuit with thermistor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Zero crossing point
B) Quarter power point
C) Maximum amplitude point
D) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -90 degrees
B) -180 degrees
C) -45 degrees
D) -60 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
B) Default names
C) Sequential only
D) Random numbers
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Random storage
B) Separate folders for each analysis type
C) Mixed files
D) Single directory
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
B) Numeric only
C) Random string
D) Date_Time
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 10MHz
B) 500kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 1MHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 5V DC
B) 120V AC
C) 12V DC
D) 24V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Video demonstration of circuit operation
B) Simulation results
C) Comparison with theoretical calculations
D) Complete schematic file
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Power cycling
B) Error log analysis and stepping
C) Circuit restart
D) Component replacement
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .measure average
B) .save rms
C) .print rms
D) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) -40 dB/decade
B) -30 dB/decade
C) 20 dB/decade
D) -60 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) Transient analysis
B) AC analysis
C) Monte Carlo analysis
D) Phase response analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Thermal shutdown
B) Over-current protection
C) Under-voltage lockout
D) Soft-start circuit
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >80dB
B) >60dB
C) >40dB
D) >100dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Reset circuit
B) Startup switches
C) .ic command with node voltages
D) External sources
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Sinusoidal oscillation
B) Linear increase
C) Step function
D) Exponential rise to steady state
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <5%
B) <0.1%
C) <10%
D) <1%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
B) 3rd order Bessel filter
C) 5th order Elliptic filter
D) 4th order Butterworth filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Output voltage / differential input voltage
B) Peak output voltage
C) Average of both inputs
D) Total output / total input
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 12V DC
B) 120V AC
C) 240V AC
D) 24V DC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) diff(V1,V2)
B) voltage(1,2)
C) measure(v1-v2)
D) V(node1)-V(node2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.5
B) 0.25
C) 0.1
D) 0.707
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 50
D) 75
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Transient response
B) Input impedance
C) Output ripple voltage
D) Efficiency at different loads
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Assumption based
B) Visual inspection
C) Comparison with datasheet specifications
D) Peer feedback
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Print screen
B) Right-click plot, export data as text
C) Copy to clipboard
D) Save as image only
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) Multiple feedback topology
B) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
C) Twin-T configuration
D) State variable filter
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 3A
B) 2A
C) 500mA
D) 1A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Power loss calculation
B) Voltage ratio only
C) Current ratio only
D) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) Sequential backup with date stamps
B) Single file override
C) Random copies
D) No backup
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Component wizard
B) Modifying existing parts
C) Symbol editor only
D) Using.subckt definition
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Change solver type
B) Increase maximum iterations
C) Reduce timestep
D) Modify gmin stepping
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 500mA
B) 2A
C) 1A
D) 5A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Linear amplitude increase
B) Immediate full amplitude
C) Random amplitude variation
D) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 47μF
B) 1000μF
C) 100μF
D) 220μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Complete rebuild
B) Progressive component addition
C) Circuit simplification
D) Parameter randomization
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <0.1dB
B) <3dB
C) <1dB
D) <0.5dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 2ΚΩ
C) 100Ω
D) 1KΩ
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 200kHz
B) 50kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 75kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 10V peak-to-peak
B) 1V peak-to-peak
C) 3.3V peak-to-peak
D) 5V peak-to-peak
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