COEDAD FINAL
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Auto timestep
B) Fixed timestep
C) Minimum timestep
D) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Measuring peak voltage only
B) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
C) Reading the voltage value at t=0
D) Calculating from frequency response
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Build physical electronic circuits
B) Develop new electronic components
C) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
D) Program microcontrollers
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Time domain plot
B) Nyquist plot
C) Bode plot
D) Smith chart
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) R-C
B) R+C
C) C/R
D) RxC
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 220Ω
B) 47Ω
C) 1kΩ
D) 100Ω
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) Fourier
B) DC sweep
C) Transient
D) Monte Carlo
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 1ms
B) 10ms
C) 5ms
D) 2ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 5ΚΩ
B) 15ΚΩ
C) 20kΩ
D) 10ΚΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 2kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 1kHz
D) 500Hz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 2MHz
B) 100kHz
C) 500kHz
D) 1MHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) TL082
B) LM358
C) LT1001
D) LM741
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >80dB
B) >20dB
C) >40dB
D) >60dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Voltage out / Voltage in
B) Input power / Output power × 100%
C) Output power / Input power × 100%
D) Current out / Current in
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 10kHz
B) 1kHz
C) 50kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Grounded input
B) Different signals on each input
C) Identical signals applied to both inputs
D) Single input signal only
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) LC resonance
B) Power supply frequency
C) RC time constant
D) External clock
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Instantaneous voltage
B) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
C) Average voltage
D) RMS calculation
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 10Hz
B) 100Hz
C) 0.1Hz
D) 1Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Transistors with 5% tolerance
B) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
C) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
D) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Open loop control
B) PWM feedback control
C) Voltage follower
D) Linear regulation
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 5V DC
B) 3.3V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 12V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Switching noise
B) Input current
C) Average power
D) Output voltage settling time
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-9
B) gmin = 1e-12
C) gmin = 1e-6
D) gmin = 1e-7
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Parallel resistor
B) Capacitive coupling
C) Series sense resistor with feedback
D) Voltage divider
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Random probing
B) Systematic node voltage checking
C) Component count
D) Visual inspection
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Wien bridge oscillator
B) Hartley oscillator
C) Colpitts oscillator
D) Crystal oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 1ΚΩ
B) 47kQ
C) 100ΚΩ
D) 10ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) Alout/AVout
B) AVout/AVin
C) AVout/Alload
D) AVin/AVout
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) Multiple feedback
B) State variable
C) Sallen-Key
D) Twin-T
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 50
B) 10
C) 100
D) 80dB
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Input bias current
B) Slew rate
C) CMRR
D) Gain bandwidth
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
B) Energy calculation
C) Power = V *1
D) Heat measurement
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 5V DC
B) +15V DC
C) 12V DC
D) -15V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Flyback converter
B) Buck converter
C) Boost converter
D) Linear regulator
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 24V
B) 12V
C) 15V
D) 9V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) XML format
B) Binary format
C) SPICE compatible text format
D) HTML format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) RMS voltage
B) Peak amplitude
C) Long-term frequency drift measurement
D) Phase noise
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Crystal
B) RC phase shift
C) Colpitts
D) Wien bridge
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 15
B) 5
C) 10
D) 2
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Symbol creation with subcircuits
B) Component arrays
C) Multiple schematics
D) Linked files
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F3
B) F4
C) F1
D) F2
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) +5V only
B) ±15V
C) +12V only
D) ±12V
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Two diodes in series
B) Center-tapped transformer
C) Bridge configuration with four diodes
D) Single diode setup
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 1MHz
B) 500kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 250kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .dc
B) .op
C) .ac
D) .tran
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) 1V
B) 5V
C) 0V
D) -5V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 2200μF
B) 100μF
C) 1000μF
D) 470μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) vntol = 1e-6
B) abstol 1e-12
C) reltol = 1e-3
D) itol = 1e-8
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .save
B) .plot
C) .meas
D) .print
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) SPICE directives with comments
B) Verbal description
C) Reference manual
D) Separate text file
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 5V
B) 10V
C) 12V
D) 15V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 5V
B) 6V
C) 9V
D) 3.3V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Assumption
B) Peer review
C) Visual estimation
D) Theoretical calculation comparison
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 1μς
B) 10ns
C) 100ns
D) 1ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 100μΗ
B) 220μΗ
C) 47μΗ
D) 1mH
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 0.5V triangle wave
B) 2V square wave
C) 1V sine wave
D) 3V pulse
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Resonant frequency
B) Cutoff frequency at OdB
C) Maximum frequency of input signal
D) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .fft V(out)
B) .four
C) .tran fft
D) .ac analysis
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Zener diode
B) AGC circuit with thermistor
C) Fixed resistor
D) Variable capacitor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
B) Zero crossing point
C) Maximum amplitude point
D) Quarter power point
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -180 degrees
B) -45 degrees
C) -90 degrees
D) -60 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Sequential only
B) Default names
C) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
D) Random numbers
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Single directory
B) Separate folders for each analysis type
C) Random storage
D) Mixed files
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) Random string
B) Date_Time
C) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
D) Numeric only
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 1MHz
B) 500kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 10MHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 120V AC
B) 12V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Comparison with theoretical calculations
B) Complete schematic file
C) Simulation results
D) Video demonstration of circuit operation
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Circuit restart
B) Component replacement
C) Power cycling
D) Error log analysis and stepping
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .print rms
B) .save rms
C) .measure average
D) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) -30 dB/decade
B) 20 dB/decade
C) -60 dB/decade
D) -40 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) Monte Carlo analysis
B) Transient analysis
C) AC analysis
D) Phase response analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Thermal shutdown
B) Under-voltage lockout
C) Over-current protection
D) Soft-start circuit
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >100dB
B) >60dB
C) >80dB
D) >40dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Startup switches
B) External sources
C) Reset circuit
D) .ic command with node voltages
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Step function
B) Exponential rise to steady state
C) Sinusoidal oscillation
D) Linear increase
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <10%
B) <0.1%
C) <1%
D) <5%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 4th order Butterworth filter
B) 5th order Elliptic filter
C) 3rd order Bessel filter
D) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Output voltage / differential input voltage
B) Average of both inputs
C) Peak output voltage
D) Total output / total input
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 240V AC
B) 12V DC
C) 120V AC
D) 24V DC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) voltage(1,2)
B) measure(v1-v2)
C) V(node1)-V(node2)
D) diff(V1,V2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.707
B) 0.5
C) 0.25
D) 0.1
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 50
B) 100
C) 75
D) 200
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Efficiency at different loads
B) Output ripple voltage
C) Transient response
D) Input impedance
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Visual inspection
B) Peer feedback
C) Assumption based
D) Comparison with datasheet specifications
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Print screen
B) Right-click plot, export data as text
C) Copy to clipboard
D) Save as image only
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) Multiple feedback topology
B) Twin-T configuration
C) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
D) State variable filter
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 1A
B) 500mA
C) 3A
D) 2A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Voltage ratio only
B) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
C) Current ratio only
D) Power loss calculation
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) Single file override
B) No backup
C) Sequential backup with date stamps
D) Random copies
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Using.subckt definition
B) Component wizard
C) Modifying existing parts
D) Symbol editor only
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Modify gmin stepping
B) Reduce timestep
C) Change solver type
D) Increase maximum iterations
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 5A
B) 1A
C) 500mA
D) 2A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Random amplitude variation
B) Immediate full amplitude
C) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
D) Linear amplitude increase
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 220μF
B) 47μF
C) 1000μF
D) 100μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Complete rebuild
B) Circuit simplification
C) Parameter randomization
D) Progressive component addition
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <3dB
B) <0.1dB
C) <1dB
D) <0.5dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 1KΩ
C) 100Ω
D) 2ΚΩ
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 50kHz
B) 75kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 200kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 10V peak-to-peak
B) 3.3V peak-to-peak
C) 5V peak-to-peak
D) 1V peak-to-peak
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