COEDAD FINAL
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Auto timestep
B) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
C) Minimum timestep
D) Fixed timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Measuring peak voltage only
B) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
C) Reading the voltage value at t=0
D) Calculating from frequency response
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
B) Program microcontrollers
C) Build physical electronic circuits
D) Develop new electronic components
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Smith chart
B) Time domain plot
C) Bode plot
D) Nyquist plot
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) RxC
B) R-C
C) C/R
D) R+C
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 1kΩ
B) 100Ω
C) 220Ω
D) 47Ω
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) DC sweep
B) Monte Carlo
C) Transient
D) Fourier
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 2ms
B) 5ms
C) 10ms
D) 1ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 20kΩ
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 15ΚΩ
D) 5ΚΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 2kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 500Hz
D) 1kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 100kHz
B) 2MHz
C) 1MHz
D) 500kHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LM358
B) LM741
C) LT1001
D) TL082
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >80dB
B) >20dB
C) >40dB
D) >60dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Output power / Input power × 100%
B) Input power / Output power × 100%
C) Current out / Current in
D) Voltage out / Voltage in
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 100kHz
B) 1kHz
C) 10kHz
D) 50kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Different signals on each input
B) Identical signals applied to both inputs
C) Grounded input
D) Single input signal only
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) RC time constant
B) External clock
C) LC resonance
D) Power supply frequency
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) RMS calculation
B) Average voltage
C) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
D) Instantaneous voltage
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 10Hz
B) 1Hz
C) 100Hz
D) 0.1Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
B) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
C) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
D) Transistors with 5% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Voltage follower
B) Open loop control
C) PWM feedback control
D) Linear regulation
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 24V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 5V DC
D) 3.3V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Switching noise
B) Input current
C) Output voltage settling time
D) Average power
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-9
B) gmin = 1e-12
C) gmin = 1e-7
D) gmin = 1e-6
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Parallel resistor
B) Voltage divider
C) Capacitive coupling
D) Series sense resistor with feedback
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Component count
B) Random probing
C) Visual inspection
D) Systematic node voltage checking
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Hartley oscillator
B) Wien bridge oscillator
C) Crystal oscillator
D) Colpitts oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 100ΚΩ
C) 47kQ
D) 1ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) AVout/AVin
B) AVout/Alload
C) AVin/AVout
D) Alout/AVout
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) Sallen-Key
B) State variable
C) Twin-T
D) Multiple feedback
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 50
B) 10
C) 80dB
D) 100
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Slew rate
B) Gain bandwidth
C) CMRR
D) Input bias current
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) Energy calculation
B) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
C) Heat measurement
D) Power = V *1
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) +15V DC
B) -15V DC
C) 12V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Linear regulator
B) Boost converter
C) Flyback converter
D) Buck converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 24V
B) 15V
C) 12V
D) 9V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) HTML format
B) XML format
C) Binary format
D) SPICE compatible text format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) Phase noise
B) Long-term frequency drift measurement
C) RMS voltage
D) Peak amplitude
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Crystal
B) Colpitts
C) Wien bridge
D) RC phase shift
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 10
B) 15
C) 5
D) 2
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Component arrays
B) Linked files
C) Multiple schematics
D) Symbol creation with subcircuits
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F1
B) F2
C) F4
D) F3
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) +12V only
B) ±15V
C) ±12V
D) +5V only
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Bridge configuration with four diodes
B) Single diode setup
C) Center-tapped transformer
D) Two diodes in series
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 250kHz
B) 1MHz
C) 500kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .op
B) .ac
C) .dc
D) .tran
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) -5V
B) 5V
C) 1V
D) 0V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 1000μF
B) 2200μF
C) 100μF
D) 470μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) itol = 1e-8
B) abstol 1e-12
C) reltol = 1e-3
D) vntol = 1e-6
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .print
B) .meas
C) .plot
D) .save
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) SPICE directives with comments
B) Separate text file
C) Verbal description
D) Reference manual
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 15V
B) 12V
C) 5V
D) 10V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 9V
B) 5V
C) 6V
D) 3.3V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Peer review
B) Visual estimation
C) Assumption
D) Theoretical calculation comparison
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 1μς
B) 10ns
C) 1ns
D) 100ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 100μΗ
B) 1mH
C) 47μΗ
D) 220μΗ
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 1V sine wave
B) 3V pulse
C) 0.5V triangle wave
D) 2V square wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Cutoff frequency at OdB
B) Maximum frequency of input signal
C) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
D) Resonant frequency
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .fft V(out)
B) .four
C) .tran fft
D) .ac analysis
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) AGC circuit with thermistor
B) Zener diode
C) Fixed resistor
D) Variable capacitor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Zero crossing point
B) Maximum amplitude point
C) Quarter power point
D) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -180 degrees
B) -45 degrees
C) -90 degrees
D) -60 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Sequential only
B) Default names
C) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
D) Random numbers
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Separate folders for each analysis type
B) Mixed files
C) Random storage
D) Single directory
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) Date_Time
B) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
C) Random string
D) Numeric only
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 1MHz
B) 500kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 10MHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 120V AC
B) 12V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Comparison with theoretical calculations
B) Complete schematic file
C) Video demonstration of circuit operation
D) Simulation results
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Circuit restart
B) Power cycling
C) Component replacement
D) Error log analysis and stepping
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .print rms
B) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
C) .measure average
D) .save rms
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) -60 dB/decade
B) 20 dB/decade
C) -30 dB/decade
D) -40 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) AC analysis
B) Monte Carlo analysis
C) Phase response analysis
D) Transient analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Under-voltage lockout
B) Thermal shutdown
C) Soft-start circuit
D) Over-current protection
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >60dB
B) >40dB
C) >100dB
D) >80dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Startup switches
B) .ic command with node voltages
C) Reset circuit
D) External sources
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Exponential rise to steady state
B) Sinusoidal oscillation
C) Linear increase
D) Step function
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <10%
B) <1%
C) <0.1%
D) <5%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 4th order Butterworth filter
B) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
C) 3rd order Bessel filter
D) 5th order Elliptic filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Average of both inputs
B) Peak output voltage
C) Output voltage / differential input voltage
D) Total output / total input
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 24V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 120V AC
D) 240V AC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) V(node1)-V(node2)
B) measure(v1-v2)
C) diff(V1,V2)
D) voltage(1,2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.5
B) 0.1
C) 0.707
D) 0.25
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 200
B) 75
C) 50
D) 100
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Efficiency at different loads
B) Output ripple voltage
C) Transient response
D) Input impedance
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Peer feedback
B) Visual inspection
C) Assumption based
D) Comparison with datasheet specifications
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Right-click plot, export data as text
B) Save as image only
C) Copy to clipboard
D) Print screen
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) Multiple feedback topology
B) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
C) State variable filter
D) Twin-T configuration
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 500mA
B) 2A
C) 3A
D) 1A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Current ratio only
B) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
C) Voltage ratio only
D) Power loss calculation
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) Single file override
B) No backup
C) Random copies
D) Sequential backup with date stamps
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Modifying existing parts
B) Using.subckt definition
C) Symbol editor only
D) Component wizard
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Reduce timestep
B) Modify gmin stepping
C) Change solver type
D) Increase maximum iterations
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 5A
B) 2A
C) 1A
D) 500mA
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Linear amplitude increase
B) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
C) Immediate full amplitude
D) Random amplitude variation
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 1000μF
B) 220μF
C) 100μF
D) 47μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Progressive component addition
B) Parameter randomization
C) Circuit simplification
D) Complete rebuild
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <1dB
B) <0.1dB
C) <0.5dB
D) <3dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 1KΩ
B) 2ΚΩ
C) 10ΚΩ
D) 100Ω
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 75kHz
B) 50kHz
C) 200kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 3.3V peak-to-peak
B) 1V peak-to-peak
C) 5V peak-to-peak
D) 10V peak-to-peak
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