COEDAD FINAL
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Auto timestep
B) Fixed timestep
C) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
D) Minimum timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Reading the voltage value at t=0
B) Measuring peak voltage only
C) Calculating from frequency response
D) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Develop new electronic components
B) Build physical electronic circuits
C) Program microcontrollers
D) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Nyquist plot
B) Bode plot
C) Smith chart
D) Time domain plot
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) RxC
B) R-C
C) R+C
D) C/R
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 100Ω
B) 220Ω
C) 47Ω
D) 1kΩ
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) Transient
B) Monte Carlo
C) DC sweep
D) Fourier
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 5ms
B) 2ms
C) 1ms
D) 10ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 20kΩ
B) 15ΚΩ
C) 10ΚΩ
D) 5ΚΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 2kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 1kHz
D) 500Hz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 1MHz
B) 500kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 2MHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LT1001
B) LM358
C) TL082
D) LM741
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >20dB
B) >60dB
C) >40dB
D) >80dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Voltage out / Voltage in
B) Output power / Input power × 100%
C) Input power / Output power × 100%
D) Current out / Current in
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 100kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 1kHz
D) 50kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Different signals on each input
B) Identical signals applied to both inputs
C) Grounded input
D) Single input signal only
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) RC time constant
B) External clock
C) LC resonance
D) Power supply frequency
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Instantaneous voltage
B) RMS calculation
C) Average voltage
D) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 100Hz
B) 0.1Hz
C) 10Hz
D) 1Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
B) Transistors with 5% tolerance
C) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
D) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Voltage follower
B) Linear regulation
C) Open loop control
D) PWM feedback control
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 12V DC
B) 5V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 3.3V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Output voltage settling time
B) Average power
C) Switching noise
D) Input current
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-12
B) gmin = 1e-6
C) gmin = 1e-9
D) gmin = 1e-7
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Parallel resistor
B) Voltage divider
C) Capacitive coupling
D) Series sense resistor with feedback
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Random probing
B) Systematic node voltage checking
C) Visual inspection
D) Component count
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Hartley oscillator
B) Colpitts oscillator
C) Crystal oscillator
D) Wien bridge oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 47kQ
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 1ΚΩ
D) 100ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) AVout/AVin
B) AVout/Alload
C) AVin/AVout
D) Alout/AVout
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) State variable
B) Multiple feedback
C) Sallen-Key
D) Twin-T
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 100
B) 80dB
C) 50
D) 10
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Slew rate
B) Gain bandwidth
C) CMRR
D) Input bias current
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
B) Energy calculation
C) Heat measurement
D) Power = V *1
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) -15V DC
B) 12V DC
C) +15V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Boost converter
B) Flyback converter
C) Linear regulator
D) Buck converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 15V
B) 12V
C) 9V
D) 24V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) XML format
B) HTML format
C) SPICE compatible text format
D) Binary format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) Peak amplitude
B) Phase noise
C) RMS voltage
D) Long-term frequency drift measurement
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Crystal
B) Wien bridge
C) RC phase shift
D) Colpitts
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 10
B) 2
C) 5
D) 15
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Linked files
B) Multiple schematics
C) Component arrays
D) Symbol creation with subcircuits
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F3
B) F1
C) F4
D) F2
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) ±15V
B) +5V only
C) +12V only
D) ±12V
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Bridge configuration with four diodes
B) Center-tapped transformer
C) Single diode setup
D) Two diodes in series
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 500kHz
B) 250kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 1MHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .op
B) .tran
C) .dc
D) .ac
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) 5V
B) -5V
C) 0V
D) 1V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 2200μF
B) 1000μF
C) 470μF
D) 100μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) abstol 1e-12
B) reltol = 1e-3
C) itol = 1e-8
D) vntol = 1e-6
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .plot
B) .meas
C) .save
D) .print
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Reference manual
B) SPICE directives with comments
C) Verbal description
D) Separate text file
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 12V
B) 5V
C) 15V
D) 10V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 6V
B) 5V
C) 3.3V
D) 9V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Peer review
B) Theoretical calculation comparison
C) Assumption
D) Visual estimation
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 100ns
B) 1μς
C) 10ns
D) 1ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 100μΗ
B) 220μΗ
C) 47μΗ
D) 1mH
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 0.5V triangle wave
B) 3V pulse
C) 1V sine wave
D) 2V square wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Maximum frequency of input signal
B) Resonant frequency
C) Cutoff frequency at OdB
D) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .ac analysis
B) .four
C) .tran fft
D) .fft V(out)
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Variable capacitor
B) Fixed resistor
C) Zener diode
D) AGC circuit with thermistor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Zero crossing point
B) Quarter power point
C) Maximum amplitude point
D) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -60 degrees
B) -180 degrees
C) -90 degrees
D) -45 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Sequential only
B) Default names
C) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
D) Random numbers
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Separate folders for each analysis type
B) Single directory
C) Random storage
D) Mixed files
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) Date_Time
B) Numeric only
C) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
D) Random string
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 100kHz
B) 10MHz
C) 500kHz
D) 1MHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 5V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 120V AC
D) 24V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Simulation results
B) Video demonstration of circuit operation
C) Complete schematic file
D) Comparison with theoretical calculations
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Component replacement
B) Circuit restart
C) Error log analysis and stepping
D) Power cycling
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .measure average
B) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
C) .save rms
D) .print rms
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) -60 dB/decade
B) 20 dB/decade
C) -30 dB/decade
D) -40 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) AC analysis
B) Transient analysis
C) Phase response analysis
D) Monte Carlo analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Under-voltage lockout
B) Over-current protection
C) Soft-start circuit
D) Thermal shutdown
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >40dB
B) >100dB
C) >80dB
D) >60dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Reset circuit
B) .ic command with node voltages
C) Startup switches
D) External sources
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Exponential rise to steady state
B) Step function
C) Linear increase
D) Sinusoidal oscillation
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <10%
B) <0.1%
C) <5%
D) <1%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 3rd order Bessel filter
B) 5th order Elliptic filter
C) 4th order Butterworth filter
D) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Average of both inputs
B) Output voltage / differential input voltage
C) Peak output voltage
D) Total output / total input
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 12V DC
B) 24V DC
C) 240V AC
D) 120V AC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) V(node1)-V(node2)
B) measure(v1-v2)
C) voltage(1,2)
D) diff(V1,V2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.707
B) 0.25
C) 0.1
D) 0.5
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 50
D) 75
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Efficiency at different loads
B) Output ripple voltage
C) Input impedance
D) Transient response
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Comparison with datasheet specifications
B) Assumption based
C) Peer feedback
D) Visual inspection
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Print screen
B) Copy to clipboard
C) Right-click plot, export data as text
D) Save as image only
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) Twin-T configuration
B) Multiple feedback topology
C) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
D) State variable filter
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 1A
B) 500mA
C) 3A
D) 2A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Voltage ratio only
B) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
C) Current ratio only
D) Power loss calculation
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) Single file override
B) Sequential backup with date stamps
C) Random copies
D) No backup
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Symbol editor only
B) Modifying existing parts
C) Using.subckt definition
D) Component wizard
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Modify gmin stepping
B) Increase maximum iterations
C) Reduce timestep
D) Change solver type
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 5A
B) 1A
C) 500mA
D) 2A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Immediate full amplitude
B) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
C) Random amplitude variation
D) Linear amplitude increase
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 100μF
B) 220μF
C) 47μF
D) 1000μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Parameter randomization
B) Progressive component addition
C) Complete rebuild
D) Circuit simplification
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <0.5dB
B) <1dB
C) <0.1dB
D) <3dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 1KΩ
B) 100Ω
C) 10ΚΩ
D) 2ΚΩ
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 100kHz
B) 75kHz
C) 200kHz
D) 50kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 1V peak-to-peak
B) 10V peak-to-peak
C) 5V peak-to-peak
D) 3.3V peak-to-peak
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