COEDAD FINAL
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Fixed timestep
B) Auto timestep
C) Minimum timestep
D) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Measuring peak voltage only
B) Calculating from frequency response
C) Reading the voltage value at t=0
D) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Develop new electronic components
B) Program microcontrollers
C) Build physical electronic circuits
D) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Smith chart
B) Bode plot
C) Time domain plot
D) Nyquist plot
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) R-C
B) C/R
C) RxC
D) R+C
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 1kΩ
B) 220Ω
C) 100Ω
D) 47Ω
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) Monte Carlo
B) Transient
C) Fourier
D) DC sweep
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 2ms
B) 10ms
C) 5ms
D) 1ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 20kΩ
B) 5ΚΩ
C) 10ΚΩ
D) 15ΚΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 1kHz
B) 10kHz
C) 2kHz
D) 500Hz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 500kHz
B) 100kHz
C) 2MHz
D) 1MHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LT1001
B) LM358
C) TL082
D) LM741
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >20dB
B) >60dB
C) >40dB
D) >80dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Input power / Output power × 100%
B) Current out / Current in
C) Voltage out / Voltage in
D) Output power / Input power × 100%
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 50kHz
B) 100kHz
C) 10kHz
D) 1kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Grounded input
B) Identical signals applied to both inputs
C) Single input signal only
D) Different signals on each input
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) RC time constant
B) External clock
C) LC resonance
D) Power supply frequency
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Instantaneous voltage
B) Average voltage
C) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
D) RMS calculation
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 10Hz
B) 1Hz
C) 0.1Hz
D) 100Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
B) Transistors with 5% tolerance
C) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
D) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) PWM feedback control
B) Voltage follower
C) Open loop control
D) Linear regulation
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 12V DC
B) 3.3V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Output voltage settling time
B) Switching noise
C) Input current
D) Average power
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-9
B) gmin = 1e-7
C) gmin = 1e-6
D) gmin = 1e-12
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Series sense resistor with feedback
B) Voltage divider
C) Parallel resistor
D) Capacitive coupling
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Systematic node voltage checking
B) Component count
C) Visual inspection
D) Random probing
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Wien bridge oscillator
B) Crystal oscillator
C) Colpitts oscillator
D) Hartley oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 1ΚΩ
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 100ΚΩ
D) 47kQ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) AVout/AVin
B) AVout/Alload
C) Alout/AVout
D) AVin/AVout
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) Twin-T
B) State variable
C) Multiple feedback
D) Sallen-Key
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 80dB
B) 100
C) 10
D) 50
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Slew rate
B) CMRR
C) Input bias current
D) Gain bandwidth
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) Heat measurement
B) Energy calculation
C) Power = V *1
D) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) +15V DC
B) 12V DC
C) -15V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Buck converter
B) Flyback converter
C) Linear regulator
D) Boost converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 9V
B) 15V
C) 12V
D) 24V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) Binary format
B) SPICE compatible text format
C) XML format
D) HTML format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) Phase noise
B) Long-term frequency drift measurement
C) RMS voltage
D) Peak amplitude
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Wien bridge
B) Colpitts
C) Crystal
D) RC phase shift
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 5
B) 15
C) 10
D) 2
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Symbol creation with subcircuits
B) Multiple schematics
C) Linked files
D) Component arrays
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F1
B) F3
C) F2
D) F4
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) ±12V
B) +5V only
C) +12V only
D) ±15V
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Center-tapped transformer
B) Single diode setup
C) Two diodes in series
D) Bridge configuration with four diodes
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 1MHz
B) 250kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 500kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .op
B) .dc
C) .ac
D) .tran
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) 5V
B) -5V
C) 1V
D) 0V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 470μF
B) 2200μF
C) 100μF
D) 1000μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) vntol = 1e-6
B) itol = 1e-8
C) reltol = 1e-3
D) abstol 1e-12
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .save
B) .meas
C) .print
D) .plot
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Separate text file
B) SPICE directives with comments
C) Reference manual
D) Verbal description
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 15V
B) 10V
C) 12V
D) 5V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 3.3V
B) 5V
C) 9V
D) 6V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Peer review
B) Theoretical calculation comparison
C) Visual estimation
D) Assumption
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 100ns
B) 1ns
C) 1μς
D) 10ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 220μΗ
B) 47μΗ
C) 100μΗ
D) 1mH
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 0.5V triangle wave
B) 3V pulse
C) 1V sine wave
D) 2V square wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Resonant frequency
B) Maximum frequency of input signal
C) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
D) Cutoff frequency at OdB
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .fft V(out)
B) .four
C) .ac analysis
D) .tran fft
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) AGC circuit with thermistor
B) Fixed resistor
C) Zener diode
D) Variable capacitor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Quarter power point
B) Zero crossing point
C) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
D) Maximum amplitude point
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -60 degrees
B) -45 degrees
C) -180 degrees
D) -90 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Random numbers
B) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
C) Default names
D) Sequential only
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Separate folders for each analysis type
B) Mixed files
C) Random storage
D) Single directory
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) Date_Time
B) Random string
C) Numeric only
D) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 10MHz
B) 500kHz
C) 1MHz
D) 100kHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 5V DC
B) 120V AC
C) 24V DC
D) 12V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Complete schematic file
B) Comparison with theoretical calculations
C) Video demonstration of circuit operation
D) Simulation results
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Power cycling
B) Error log analysis and stepping
C) Component replacement
D) Circuit restart
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .measure average
B) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
C) .print rms
D) .save rms
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) -30 dB/decade
B) 20 dB/decade
C) -60 dB/decade
D) -40 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) Monte Carlo analysis
B) Transient analysis
C) Phase response analysis
D) AC analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Thermal shutdown
B) Under-voltage lockout
C) Soft-start circuit
D) Over-current protection
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >40dB
B) >100dB
C) >80dB
D) >60dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) .ic command with node voltages
B) External sources
C) Startup switches
D) Reset circuit
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Linear increase
B) Step function
C) Sinusoidal oscillation
D) Exponential rise to steady state
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <5%
B) <0.1%
C) <1%
D) <10%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
B) 4th order Butterworth filter
C) 5th order Elliptic filter
D) 3rd order Bessel filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Average of both inputs
B) Output voltage / differential input voltage
C) Total output / total input
D) Peak output voltage
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 240V AC
B) 24V DC
C) 12V DC
D) 120V AC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) measure(v1-v2)
B) V(node1)-V(node2)
C) diff(V1,V2)
D) voltage(1,2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.1
B) 0.25
C) 0.5
D) 0.707
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 100
B) 200
C) 75
D) 50
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Transient response
B) Efficiency at different loads
C) Input impedance
D) Output ripple voltage
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Peer feedback
B) Comparison with datasheet specifications
C) Assumption based
D) Visual inspection
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Copy to clipboard
B) Print screen
C) Save as image only
D) Right-click plot, export data as text
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) Twin-T configuration
B) State variable filter
C) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
D) Multiple feedback topology
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 500mA
B) 1A
C) 2A
D) 3A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Power loss calculation
B) Voltage ratio only
C) Current ratio only
D) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) Random copies
B) Single file override
C) Sequential backup with date stamps
D) No backup
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Symbol editor only
B) Component wizard
C) Using.subckt definition
D) Modifying existing parts
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Modify gmin stepping
B) Increase maximum iterations
C) Change solver type
D) Reduce timestep
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 500mA
B) 2A
C) 1A
D) 5A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Random amplitude variation
B) Immediate full amplitude
C) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
D) Linear amplitude increase
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 220μF
B) 1000μF
C) 100μF
D) 47μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Parameter randomization
B) Progressive component addition
C) Circuit simplification
D) Complete rebuild
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <0.5dB
B) <1dB
C) <0.1dB
D) <3dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 2ΚΩ
B) 1KΩ
C) 100Ω
D) 10ΚΩ
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 100kHz
B) 75kHz
C) 200kHz
D) 50kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 3.3V peak-to-peak
B) 5V peak-to-peak
C) 10V peak-to-peak
D) 1V peak-to-peak
Created with That Quiz — the math test generation site with resources for other subject areas.