COEDAD FINAL
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
B) Minimum timestep
C) Fixed timestep
D) Auto timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Measuring peak voltage only
B) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
C) Reading the voltage value at t=0
D) Calculating from frequency response
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Develop new electronic components
B) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
C) Build physical electronic circuits
D) Program microcontrollers
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Nyquist plot
B) Time domain plot
C) Smith chart
D) Bode plot
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) R+C
B) R-C
C) RxC
D) C/R
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 47Ω
B) 100Ω
C) 220Ω
D) 1kΩ
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) Transient
B) Monte Carlo
C) Fourier
D) DC sweep
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 5ms
B) 2ms
C) 1ms
D) 10ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 20kΩ
B) 15ΚΩ
C) 10ΚΩ
D) 5ΚΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 500Hz
B) 10kHz
C) 1kHz
D) 2kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 100kHz
B) 2MHz
C) 1MHz
D) 500kHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LT1001
B) LM358
C) TL082
D) LM741
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >40dB
B) >20dB
C) >80dB
D) >60dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Voltage out / Voltage in
B) Output power / Input power × 100%
C) Current out / Current in
D) Input power / Output power × 100%
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 10kHz
B) 50kHz
C) 1kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Different signals on each input
B) Identical signals applied to both inputs
C) Grounded input
D) Single input signal only
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) Power supply frequency
B) RC time constant
C) LC resonance
D) External clock
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Instantaneous voltage
B) Average voltage
C) RMS calculation
D) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 1Hz
B) 10Hz
C) 0.1Hz
D) 100Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
B) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
C) Transistors with 5% tolerance
D) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) PWM feedback control
B) Linear regulation
C) Voltage follower
D) Open loop control
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 24V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 5V DC
D) 3.3V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Average power
B) Output voltage settling time
C) Input current
D) Switching noise
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-9
B) gmin = 1e-12
C) gmin = 1e-7
D) gmin = 1e-6
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Capacitive coupling
B) Series sense resistor with feedback
C) Voltage divider
D) Parallel resistor
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Component count
B) Random probing
C) Systematic node voltage checking
D) Visual inspection
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Colpitts oscillator
B) Hartley oscillator
C) Wien bridge oscillator
D) Crystal oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 100ΚΩ
B) 1ΚΩ
C) 47kQ
D) 10ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) AVout/Alload
B) AVin/AVout
C) Alout/AVout
D) AVout/AVin
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) State variable
B) Sallen-Key
C) Multiple feedback
D) Twin-T
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 100
B) 10
C) 80dB
D) 50
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Input bias current
B) Gain bandwidth
C) Slew rate
D) CMRR
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) Power = V *1
B) Heat measurement
C) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
D) Energy calculation
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) +15V DC
B) 12V DC
C) -15V DC
D) 5V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Flyback converter
B) Boost converter
C) Buck converter
D) Linear regulator
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 9V
B) 12V
C) 15V
D) 24V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) HTML format
B) Binary format
C) XML format
D) SPICE compatible text format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) Phase noise
B) RMS voltage
C) Peak amplitude
D) Long-term frequency drift measurement
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Colpitts
B) Wien bridge
C) RC phase shift
D) Crystal
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 10
B) 2
C) 15
D) 5
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Linked files
B) Multiple schematics
C) Symbol creation with subcircuits
D) Component arrays
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F1
B) F2
C) F4
D) F3
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) +12V only
B) ±12V
C) ±15V
D) +5V only
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Two diodes in series
B) Center-tapped transformer
C) Single diode setup
D) Bridge configuration with four diodes
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 1MHz
B) 500kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 250kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .dc
B) .op
C) .ac
D) .tran
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) -5V
B) 0V
C) 5V
D) 1V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 470μF
B) 2200μF
C) 100μF
D) 1000μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) reltol = 1e-3
B) vntol = 1e-6
C) itol = 1e-8
D) abstol 1e-12
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .print
B) .save
C) .meas
D) .plot
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Separate text file
B) Reference manual
C) SPICE directives with comments
D) Verbal description
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 12V
B) 15V
C) 5V
D) 10V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 6V
B) 9V
C) 3.3V
D) 5V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Theoretical calculation comparison
B) Assumption
C) Visual estimation
D) Peer review
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 1ns
B) 10ns
C) 1μς
D) 100ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 220μΗ
B) 47μΗ
C) 100μΗ
D) 1mH
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 3V pulse
B) 1V sine wave
C) 2V square wave
D) 0.5V triangle wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Resonant frequency
B) Maximum frequency of input signal
C) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
D) Cutoff frequency at OdB
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .ac analysis
B) .four
C) .fft V(out)
D) .tran fft
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Variable capacitor
B) Fixed resistor
C) AGC circuit with thermistor
D) Zener diode
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Quarter power point
B) Maximum amplitude point
C) Zero crossing point
D) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -60 degrees
B) -90 degrees
C) -45 degrees
D) -180 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Sequential only
B) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
C) Random numbers
D) Default names
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Single directory
B) Random storage
C) Mixed files
D) Separate folders for each analysis type
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) Date_Time
B) Random string
C) Numeric only
D) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 1MHz
B) 10MHz
C) 500kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 5V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 120V AC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Simulation results
B) Complete schematic file
C) Comparison with theoretical calculations
D) Video demonstration of circuit operation
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Component replacement
B) Error log analysis and stepping
C) Power cycling
D) Circuit restart
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
B) .measure average
C) .save rms
D) .print rms
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) 20 dB/decade
B) -40 dB/decade
C) -30 dB/decade
D) -60 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) Transient analysis
B) Monte Carlo analysis
C) Phase response analysis
D) AC analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Soft-start circuit
B) Thermal shutdown
C) Under-voltage lockout
D) Over-current protection
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >40dB
B) >100dB
C) >60dB
D) >80dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) External sources
B) Reset circuit
C) Startup switches
D) .ic command with node voltages
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Step function
B) Sinusoidal oscillation
C) Exponential rise to steady state
D) Linear increase
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <5%
B) <10%
C) <0.1%
D) <1%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 3rd order Bessel filter
B) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
C) 4th order Butterworth filter
D) 5th order Elliptic filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Total output / total input
B) Average of both inputs
C) Output voltage / differential input voltage
D) Peak output voltage
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 12V DC
B) 24V DC
C) 120V AC
D) 240V AC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) V(node1)-V(node2)
B) diff(V1,V2)
C) voltage(1,2)
D) measure(v1-v2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.1
B) 0.25
C) 0.707
D) 0.5
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 200
B) 75
C) 50
D) 100
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Output ripple voltage
B) Transient response
C) Input impedance
D) Efficiency at different loads
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Assumption based
B) Comparison with datasheet specifications
C) Visual inspection
D) Peer feedback
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Right-click plot, export data as text
B) Save as image only
C) Print screen
D) Copy to clipboard
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) State variable filter
B) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
C) Twin-T configuration
D) Multiple feedback topology
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 3A
B) 500mA
C) 1A
D) 2A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Power loss calculation
B) Voltage ratio only
C) Current ratio only
D) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) Random copies
B) Single file override
C) Sequential backup with date stamps
D) No backup
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Symbol editor only
B) Using.subckt definition
C) Modifying existing parts
D) Component wizard
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Change solver type
B) Reduce timestep
C) Increase maximum iterations
D) Modify gmin stepping
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 500mA
B) 2A
C) 5A
D) 1A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Random amplitude variation
B) Linear amplitude increase
C) Immediate full amplitude
D) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 220μF
B) 1000μF
C) 47μF
D) 100μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Circuit simplification
B) Parameter randomization
C) Progressive component addition
D) Complete rebuild
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <1dB
B) <0.1dB
C) <3dB
D) <0.5dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 2ΚΩ
C) 1KΩ
D) 100Ω
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 100kHz
B) 75kHz
C) 50kHz
D) 200kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 5V peak-to-peak
B) 1V peak-to-peak
C) 10V peak-to-peak
D) 3.3V peak-to-peak
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