COEDAD FINAL
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Auto timestep
B) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
C) Minimum timestep
D) Fixed timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
B) Measuring peak voltage only
C) Reading the voltage value at t=0
D) Calculating from frequency response
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Program microcontrollers
B) Build physical electronic circuits
C) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
D) Develop new electronic components
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Bode plot
B) Time domain plot
C) Nyquist plot
D) Smith chart
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) RxC
B) R-C
C) C/R
D) R+C
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 220Ω
B) 47Ω
C) 100Ω
D) 1kΩ
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) DC sweep
B) Monte Carlo
C) Transient
D) Fourier
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 5ms
B) 2ms
C) 10ms
D) 1ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 5ΚΩ
C) 15ΚΩ
D) 20kΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 1kHz
B) 500Hz
C) 2kHz
D) 10kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 1MHz
B) 100kHz
C) 500kHz
D) 2MHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LM741
B) LT1001
C) TL082
D) LM358
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >40dB
B) >60dB
C) >20dB
D) >80dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Current out / Current in
B) Voltage out / Voltage in
C) Output power / Input power × 100%
D) Input power / Output power × 100%
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 1kHz
B) 50kHz
C) 100kHz
D) 10kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Identical signals applied to both inputs
B) Single input signal only
C) Grounded input
D) Different signals on each input
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) External clock
B) LC resonance
C) Power supply frequency
D) RC time constant
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Average voltage
B) Instantaneous voltage
C) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
D) RMS calculation
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 1Hz
B) 10Hz
C) 0.1Hz
D) 100Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Transistors with 5% tolerance
B) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
C) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
D) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Voltage follower
B) Open loop control
C) PWM feedback control
D) Linear regulation
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 5V DC
B) 24V DC
C) 3.3V DC
D) 12V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Output voltage settling time
B) Average power
C) Switching noise
D) Input current
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-7
B) gmin = 1e-9
C) gmin = 1e-6
D) gmin = 1e-12
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Series sense resistor with feedback
B) Parallel resistor
C) Capacitive coupling
D) Voltage divider
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Component count
B) Random probing
C) Visual inspection
D) Systematic node voltage checking
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Colpitts oscillator
B) Hartley oscillator
C) Wien bridge oscillator
D) Crystal oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 47kQ
B) 1ΚΩ
C) 100ΚΩ
D) 10ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) Alout/AVout
B) AVout/AVin
C) AVout/Alload
D) AVin/AVout
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) State variable
B) Twin-T
C) Multiple feedback
D) Sallen-Key
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 50
B) 80dB
C) 100
D) 10
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) Slew rate
B) Gain bandwidth
C) CMRR
D) Input bias current
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) Power = V *1
B) Energy calculation
C) Heat measurement
D) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 5V DC
B) +15V DC
C) 12V DC
D) -15V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Boost converter
B) Linear regulator
C) Buck converter
D) Flyback converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 12V
B) 9V
C) 15V
D) 24V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) HTML format
B) XML format
C) Binary format
D) SPICE compatible text format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) RMS voltage
B) Peak amplitude
C) Phase noise
D) Long-term frequency drift measurement
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Colpitts
B) Crystal
C) RC phase shift
D) Wien bridge
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 10
B) 2
C) 15
D) 5
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Linked files
B) Multiple schematics
C) Component arrays
D) Symbol creation with subcircuits
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F1
B) F3
C) F4
D) F2
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) +12V only
B) ±12V
C) +5V only
D) ±15V
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Center-tapped transformer
B) Two diodes in series
C) Single diode setup
D) Bridge configuration with four diodes
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 1MHz
B) 100kHz
C) 500kHz
D) 250kHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .dc
B) .ac
C) .op
D) .tran
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) 5V
B) 0V
C) 1V
D) -5V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 100μF
B) 470μF
C) 2200μF
D) 1000μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) reltol = 1e-3
B) vntol = 1e-6
C) abstol 1e-12
D) itol = 1e-8
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .plot
B) .meas
C) .save
D) .print
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Verbal description
B) SPICE directives with comments
C) Separate text file
D) Reference manual
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 12V
B) 10V
C) 5V
D) 15V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 6V
B) 5V
C) 3.3V
D) 9V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Assumption
B) Theoretical calculation comparison
C) Visual estimation
D) Peer review
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 1μς
B) 100ns
C) 10ns
D) 1ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 100μΗ
B) 1mH
C) 220μΗ
D) 47μΗ
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 0.5V triangle wave
B) 2V square wave
C) 3V pulse
D) 1V sine wave
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Cutoff frequency at OdB
B) Maximum frequency of input signal
C) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
D) Resonant frequency
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .fft V(out)
B) .tran fft
C) .four
D) .ac analysis
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Fixed resistor
B) AGC circuit with thermistor
C) Zener diode
D) Variable capacitor
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
B) Maximum amplitude point
C) Zero crossing point
D) Quarter power point
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -90 degrees
B) -60 degrees
C) -45 degrees
D) -180 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Random numbers
B) Default names
C) Sequential only
D) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Mixed files
B) Single directory
C) Separate folders for each analysis type
D) Random storage
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
B) Random string
C) Numeric only
D) Date_Time
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 500kHz
B) 100kHz
C) 10MHz
D) 1MHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 12V DC
B) 120V AC
C) 5V DC
D) 24V DC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Video demonstration of circuit operation
B) Comparison with theoretical calculations
C) Simulation results
D) Complete schematic file
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Error log analysis and stepping
B) Circuit restart
C) Component replacement
D) Power cycling
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .save rms
B) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
C) .print rms
D) .measure average
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) -60 dB/decade
B) 20 dB/decade
C) -40 dB/decade
D) -30 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) AC analysis
B) Transient analysis
C) Monte Carlo analysis
D) Phase response analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Soft-start circuit
B) Thermal shutdown
C) Over-current protection
D) Under-voltage lockout
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >80dB
B) >60dB
C) >100dB
D) >40dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Reset circuit
B) Startup switches
C) .ic command with node voltages
D) External sources
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Sinusoidal oscillation
B) Linear increase
C) Step function
D) Exponential rise to steady state
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <0.1%
B) <5%
C) <1%
D) <10%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
B) 3rd order Bessel filter
C) 5th order Elliptic filter
D) 4th order Butterworth filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Average of both inputs
B) Peak output voltage
C) Total output / total input
D) Output voltage / differential input voltage
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 240V AC
B) 12V DC
C) 24V DC
D) 120V AC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) measure(v1-v2)
B) diff(V1,V2)
C) V(node1)-V(node2)
D) voltage(1,2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.1
B) 0.707
C) 0.5
D) 0.25
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 200
B) 100
C) 50
D) 75
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Transient response
B) Efficiency at different loads
C) Output ripple voltage
D) Input impedance
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Assumption based
B) Peer feedback
C) Visual inspection
D) Comparison with datasheet specifications
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Print screen
B) Right-click plot, export data as text
C) Save as image only
D) Copy to clipboard
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) Twin-T configuration
B) Multiple feedback topology
C) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
D) State variable filter
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 500mA
B) 1A
C) 2A
D) 3A
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
B) Voltage ratio only
C) Power loss calculation
D) Current ratio only
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) No backup
B) Single file override
C) Sequential backup with date stamps
D) Random copies
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Modifying existing parts
B) Symbol editor only
C) Component wizard
D) Using.subckt definition
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Increase maximum iterations
B) Change solver type
C) Reduce timestep
D) Modify gmin stepping
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 2A
B) 1A
C) 500mA
D) 5A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Random amplitude variation
B) Immediate full amplitude
C) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
D) Linear amplitude increase
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 47μF
B) 100μF
C) 1000μF
D) 220μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Progressive component addition
B) Parameter randomization
C) Complete rebuild
D) Circuit simplification
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <1dB
B) <0.1dB
C) <3dB
D) <0.5dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 2ΚΩ
B) 1KΩ
C) 10ΚΩ
D) 100Ω
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 50kHz
B) 100kHz
C) 200kHz
D) 75kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 1V peak-to-peak
B) 5V peak-to-peak
C) 3.3V peak-to-peak
D) 10V peak-to-peak
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