COEDAD FINAL
  • 1. What is the correct simulation resolution setting?
A) Minimum timestep
B) Maximum timestep = 1/100 of smallest time constant
C) Auto timestep
D) Fixed timestep
  • 2. What is the proper method to measure capacitor charging time?
A) Using cursor differences in voltage vs. time plot
B) Measuring peak voltage only
C) Reading the voltage value at t=0
D) Calculating from frequency response
  • 3. What is the primary objective of the advanced circuit analysis laboratory activities?
A) Build physical electronic circuits
B) Master complex circuit simulation techniques in LTSpice
C) Program microcontrollers
D) Develop new electronic components
  • 4. Which plot type correctly shows frequency response?
A) Smith chart
B) Bode plot
C) Nyquist plot
D) Time domain plot
  • 5. What determines the RC circuit's time constant?
A) C/R
B) R+C
C) RxC
D) R-C
  • 6. Which load resistance value is specified for testing?
A) 220Ω
B) 47Ω
C) 100Ω
D) 1kΩ
  • 7. Which analysis type properly evaluates component variations?
A) Fourier
B) DC sweep
C) Transient
D) Monte Carlo
  • 8. What is the correct duration for running the transient analysis?
A) 1ms
B) 10ms
C) 2ms
D) 5ms
  • 9. What is the proper feedback resistor value for matched differential gain?
A) 5ΚΩ
B) 10ΚΩ
C) 15ΚΩ
D) 20kΩ
  • 10. What is the specified cutoff frequency for the second-order low-pass filter?
A) 500Hz
B) 2kHz
C) 10kHz
D) 1kHz
  • 11. What represents the correct stop frequency for AC analysis?
A) 1MHz
B) 2MHz
C) 500kHz
D) 100kHz
  • 12. What op-amp model is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) LM358
B) LM741
C) TL082
D) LT1001
  • 13. What is the required stopband attenuation for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) >80dB
B) >20dB
C) >60dB
D) >40dB
  • 14. What parameter correctly indicates power supply efficiency?
A) Output power / Input power × 100%
B) Voltage out / Voltage in
C) Input power / Output power × 100%
D) Current out / Current in
  • 15. What is the required cutoff frequency for the filter in Activity 3?
A) 100kHz
B) 1kHz
C) 50kHz
D) 10kHz
  • 16. Which configuration best tests common-mode rejection?
A) Single input signal only
B) Different signals on each input
C) Identical signals applied to both inputs
D) Grounded input
  • 17. What determines the correct oscillation frequency?
A) RC time constant
B) External clock
C) Power supply frequency
D) LC resonance
  • 18. Which measurement technique correctly determines ripple voltage?
A) Peak-to-peak voltage measurement
B) Instantaneous voltage
C) Average voltage
D) RMS calculation
  • 19. What is the correct starting frequency for AC analysis?
A) 10Hz
B) 100Hz
C) 1Hz
D) 0.1Hz
  • 20. What type of components are specified to be used as matched pairs in the differential amplifier design?
A) Inductors with 0.5% tolerance
B) Capacitors with 1% tolerance
C) Transistors with 5% tolerance
D) Resistors with 0.1% tolerance
  • 21. Which control method is correct for the buck converter?
A) Linear regulation
B) Voltage follower
C) Open loop control
D) PWM feedback control
  • 22. What is the output voltage requirement for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 3.3V DC
B) 5V DC
C) 12V DC
D) 24V DC
  • 23. Which parameter correctly indicates transient response?
A) Switching noise
B) Average power
C) Output voltage settling time
D) Input current
  • 24. Which convergence setting is proper for complex circuits?
A) gmin = 1e-12
B) gmin = 1e-6
C) gmin = 1e-9
D) gmin = 1e-7
  • 25. What is the correct method for implementing current limiting?
A) Series sense resistor with feedback
B) Voltage divider
C) Parallel resistor
D) Capacitive coupling
  • 26. Which approach correctly verifies circuit operation?
A) Random probing
B) Component count
C) Visual inspection
D) Systematic node voltage checking
  • 27. What type of oscillator is designed in Activity 4?
A) Wien bridge oscillator
B) Hartley oscillator
C) Crystal oscillator
D) Colpitts oscillator
  • 28. What is the correct input resistor value for the differential amplifier?
A) 100ΚΩ
B) 47kQ
C) 10ΚΩ
D) 1ΚΩ
  • 29. Which parameter correctly measures load regulation?
A) AVout/Alload
B) Alout/AVout
C) AVin/AVout
D) AVout/AVin
  • 30. Which topology is specified for the active filter implementation?
A) State variable
B) Multiple feedback
C) Twin-T
D) Sallen-Key
  • 31. In the differential amplifier design activity, what is the required gain specification?
A) 10
B) 100
C) 50
D) 80dB
  • 32. Which parameter correctly measures differential amplifier performance?
A) CMRR
B) Slew rate
C) Input bias current
D) Gain bandwidth
  • 33. Which approach properly analyzes power dissipation?
A) .meas avg power = avg(V(n1)*I(R1))
B) Energy calculation
C) Power = V *1
D) Heat measurement
  • 34. Which of the following is NOT one of the DC output voltages required for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) -15V DC
B) 5V DC
C) +15V DC
D) 12V DC
  • 35. In Activity 2 in final lab, what type of power supply is being designed?
A) Linear regulator
B) Buck converter
C) Boost converter
D) Flyback converter
  • 36. What is the correct input voltage for the regulator circuit?
A) 9V
B) 24V
C) 15V
D) 12V
  • 37. What is the correct format for exporting netlists?
A) SPICE compatible text format
B) XML format
C) HTML format
D) Binary format
  • 38. What is the correct method for measuring frequency stability?
A) Phase noise
B) Long-term frequency drift measurement
C) Peak amplitude
D) RMS voltage
  • 39. Which oscillator type is specified in the lab guide?
A) Crystal
B) Wien bridge
C) Colpitts
D) RC phase shift
  • 40. What gain setting is specified for the non-inverting amplifier?
A) 2
B) 10
C) 15
D) 5
  • 41. Which approach correctly implements hierarchical designs?
A) Component arrays
B) Symbol creation with subcircuits
C) Multiple schematics
D) Linked files
  • 42. In LTSpice, what command key opens the component browser?
A) F1
B) F3
C) F2
D) F4
  • 43. Which power supply configuration is correct for the op-amp?
A) ±12V
B) +12V only
C) +5V only
D) ±15V
  • 44. What is the proper diode configuration for full-wave rectification?
A) Two diodes in series
B) Center-tapped transformer
C) Bridge configuration with four diodes
D) Single diode setup
  • 45. What is the required switching frequency for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 250kHz
B) 100kHz
C) 500kHz
D) 1MHz
  • 46. Which analysis command is used for time-domain simulation?
A) .ac
B) .dc
C) .op
D) .tran
  • 47. Which initial value setting is correct for the pulse source configuration?
A) 1V
B) 5V
C) -5V
D) 0V
  • 48. Which capacitor value is specified for filtering in the power supply?
A) 470μF
B) 2200μF
C) 100μF
D) 1000μF
  • 49. Which parameter properly controls simulation accuracy?
A) reltol = 1e-3
B) itol = 1e-8
C) abstol 1e-12
D) vntol = 1e-6
  • 50. Which command generates proper performance reports?
A) .save
B) .print
C) .plot
D) .meas
  • 51. Which approach properly documents simulation settings?
A) Verbal description
B) Separate text file
C) SPICE directives with comments
D) Reference manual
  • 52. What is the correct peak voltage for the AC source in rectifier simulation?
A) 12V
B) 5V
C) 15V
D) 10V
  • 53. What is the proper output voltage specification?
A) 6V
B) 9V
C) 5V
D) 3.3V
  • 54. Which technique correctly validates results?
A) Visual estimation
B) Theoretical calculation comparison
C) Peer review
D) Assumption
  • 55. What is the proper rise time setting for the pulse source?
A) 100ns
B) 1μς
C) 1ns
D) 10ns
  • 56. What is the correct inductor value for the buck converter?
A) 220μΗ
B) 1mH
C) 47μΗ
D) 100μΗ
  • 57. Which input signal is correct for testing the op-amp circuit?
A) 2V square wave
B) 1V sine wave
C) 0.5V triangle wave
D) 3V pulse
  • 58. What is the correct method for bandwidth measurement?
A) Resonant frequency
B) Maximum frequency of input signal
C) Cutoff frequency at OdB
D) Frequency at -3dB point from midband gain
  • 59. What is the correct method for frequency domain analysis?
A) .tran fft
B) .four
C) .fft V(out)
D) .ac analysis
  • 60. Which component provides proper amplitude stabilization?
A) Variable capacitor
B) Fixed resistor
C) AGC circuit with thermistor
D) Zener diode
  • 61. What defines the -3dB point in frequency response?
A) Half power point (0.707 of peak amplitude)
B) Zero crossing point
C) Quarter power point
D) Maximum amplitude point
  • 62. What is the correct phase shift at cutoff frequency?
A) -60 degrees
B) -180 degrees
C) -45 degrees
D) -90 degrees
  • 63. What is the correct method for component labeling?
A) Random numbers
B) Default names
C) Sequential only
D) Hierarchical prefix with functional description
  • 64. What is the correct file organization structure?
A) Separate folders for each analysis type
B) Mixed files
C) Single directory
D) Random storage
  • 65. Which naming convention is proper for simulation files?
A) Random string
B) Numeric only
C) ProjectName_CircuitType_Version
D) Date_Time
  • 66. What is the specified frequency for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 500kHz
B) 10MHz
C) 1MHz
D) 100kHz
  • 67. What is the input voltage specification for the switch-mode power supply in Activity 2 in finals lab?
A) 24V DC
B) 12V DC
C) 5V DC
D) 120V AC
  • 68. Which of the following is NOT listed as a documentation requirement for the laboratory activities?
A) Video demonstration of circuit operation
B) Comparison with theoretical calculations
C) Simulation results
D) Complete schematic file
  • 69. What is the proper method for identifying simulation errors?
A) Circuit restart
B) Error log analysis and stepping
C) Power cycling
D) Component replacement
  • 70. Which command correctly calculates RMS values?
A) .meas tran rms RMS V(out)
B) .print rms
C) .save rms
D) .measure average
  • 71. Which parameter properly indicates filter roll-off rate?
A) -30 dB/decade
B) 20 dB/decade
C) -40 dB/decade
D) -60 dB/decade
  • 72. Which analysis type is NOT mentioned as part of Activity 3's filter implementation?
A) Transient analysis
B) Monte Carlo analysis
C) AC analysis
D) Phase response analysis
  • 73. Which protection feature is NOT mentioned as a requirement for the regulated power supply design?
A) Under-voltage lockout
B) Thermal shutdown
C) Over-current protection
D) Soft-start circuit
  • 74. What is the required CMRR (Common Mode Rejection Ratio) for the differential amplifier in Activity 1?
A) >40dB
B) >60dB
C) >100dB
D) >80dB
  • 75. What is the correct method for setting initial conditions?
A) Reset circuit
B) External sources
C) .ic command with node voltages
D) Startup switches
  • 76. Which waveform represents correct capacitor charging behavior?
A) Sinusoidal oscillation
B) Linear increase
C) Exponential rise to steady state
D) Step function
  • 77. What is the maximum allowed Total Harmonic Distortion (THD) for the oscillator design?
A) <5%
B) <0.1%
C) <1%
D) <10%
  • 78. What type of filter is designed in Activity 3?
A) 2nd order Chebyshev filter
B) 5th order Elliptic filter
C) 4th order Butterworth filter
D) 3rd order Bessel filter
  • 79. What is the correct method for measuring differential gain?
A) Peak output voltage
B) Total output / total input
C) Output voltage / differential input voltage
D) Average of both inputs
  • 80. In Activity 5, what is the input voltage specification for the regulated power supply?
A) 12V DC
B) 240V AC
C) 120V AC
D) 24V DC
  • 81. What is the proper format for measurement expressions?
A) voltage(1,2)
B) diff(V1,V2)
C) measure(v1-v2)
D) V(node1)-V(node2)
  • 82. What is the correct damping ratio for optimal filter response?
A) 0.25
B) 0.707
C) 0.1
D) 0.5
  • 83. How many points per decade are specified for frequency analysis?
A) 50
B) 200
C) 75
D) 100
  • 84. Which parameter is NOT listed as one to analyze in the switch-mode power supply design?
A) Transient response
B) Efficiency at different loads
C) Output ripple voltage
D) Input impedance
  • 85. Which method properly verifies model accuracy?
A) Comparison with datasheet specifications
B) Visual inspection
C) Peer feedback
D) Assumption based
  • 86. Which method correctly exports waveform data?
A) Print screen
B) Copy to clipboard
C) Save as image only
D) Right-click plot, export data as text
  • 87. What implementation method is specified for the filter design in Activity 3?
A) State variable filter
B) Multiple feedback topology
C) Twin-T configuration
D) Cascaded Sallen-Key stages
  • 88. What is the maximum current specification per output for the regulated power supply in Activity 5?
A) 3A
B) 1A
C) 2A
D) 500mA
  • 89. What is the proper method for measuring efficiency?
A) Power loss calculation
B) Voltage ratio only
C) Current ratio only
D) (Pout/Pin) x 100%
  • 90. What is the correct method for version control?
A) Single file override
B) No backup
C) Random copies
D) Sequential backup with date stamps
  • 91. What is the correct method for creating custom components?
A) Using.subckt definition
B) Symbol editor only
C) Component wizard
D) Modifying existing parts
  • 92. What is the correct approach for handling convergence issues?
A) Change solver type
B) Modify gmin stepping
C) Reduce timestep
D) Increase maximum iterations
  • 93. What is the specified load current for the buck converter in Activity 2?
A) 1A
B) 500mA
C) 5A
D) 2A
  • 94. Which parameter indicates proper oscillator startup?
A) Random amplitude variation
B) Immediate full amplitude
C) Exponential amplitude growth to steady state
D) Linear amplitude increase
  • 95. What is the correct capacitor value specified for the transient analysis task?
A) 220μF
B) 47μF
C) 100μF
D) 1000μF
  • 96. What is the correct approach for debugging convergence issues?
A) Complete rebuild
B) Parameter randomization
C) Circuit simplification
D) Progressive component addition
  • 97. What is the specified passband ripple requirement for the filter in Activity 3?
A) <0.1dB
B) <0.5dB
C) <3dB
D) <1dB
  • 98. Which component value is used for R1 in the initial RC circuit analysis?
A) 10ΚΩ
B) 100Ω
C) 2ΚΩ
D) 1KΩ
  • 99. What is the specified switching frequency?
A) 100kHz
B) 200kHz
C) 50kHz
D) 75kHz
  • 100. What is the required output amplitude for the oscillator in Activity 4?
A) 3.3V peak-to-peak
B) 10V peak-to-peak
C) 5V peak-to-peak
D) 1V peak-to-peak
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