ECHO 1_AREA2
  • 1. Which characteristic makes dental identification unique among other biological identifiers?
A) Teeth provide genetic information directly
B) Teeth change shape with age
C) Teeth regenerate after severe trauma
D) Teeth resist decomposition and extreme heat
  • 2. The Henry FBI Classification System primarily serves what purpose?
A) To measure ridge density
B) To organize fingerprint cards for retrieval
C) To detect forged fingerprints
D) To classify latent prints at crime scenes
  • 3. Why is dental charting superior during mass fatality incidents?
A) Dentition is highly resistant to post-mortem damage
B) Dental charts contain compulsory genetic markers
C) It requires no prior dental records
D) Dental features rarely match across victims
  • 4. In the Henry FBI system, what is the role of the Secondary Classification?
A) It refines the filing sequence using ridge patterns on index fingers
B) It identifies Level 3 pore characteristics
C) It determines which fingerprints are suitable for database entry
D) It classifies latent prints with insufficient ridge flow
  • 5. Which of the following best describes the purpose of descriptive biometric analysis (DBA)?
A) To categorize fingerprints by their whorl values
B) To match physical traits when friction ridges are unavailable
C) To measure body temperature variations post-mortem
D) To analyze DNA in partially decomposed bodies
  • 6. Why must classified fingerprint cards be arranged in numerical order?
A) It segregates fingerprints by ethnicity and age
B) It ensures standardized filing and efficient retrieval
C) It prevents contamination of fingerprint ink
D) It allows automatic destruction of old records
  • 7. A latent print contains clear bifurcations but lacks a visible core and delta. How should the examiner classify it?
A) As a loop pattern
B) As a whorl pattern
C) As an arch pattern
D) As pattern-indeterminate
  • 8. A fingerprint with two deltas and circular ridge flow should be classified as a:
A) Tented arch
B) Plain whorl
C) Radial loop
D) Composite pattern
  • 9. Two prints share equal ridge counts but differ significantly in ridge flow direction. What should the examiner apply?
A) Principle of individuality
B) Ridge density standard
C) Principle of permanence
D) Ridge count principle
  • 10. A loop fingerprint shows ridge irregularities due to surface distortion. How should the examiner evaluate these irregularities?
A) Reject the print based solely on the pattern
B) Ignore minutiae and classify using pattern shape only
C) Evaluate minutiae configuration rather than the overall loop pattern
D) Convert the loop pattern into a whorl for easier analysis
  • 11. Which principle justifies the admissibility of fingerprint evidence in court due to its unchanging nature?
A) Multiplicity
B) Divergence
C) Universality
D) Permanence
  • 12. Two fingerprints share ridge endings in the same area but differ in pore positions and ridge edge shapes. What conclusion is most accurate?
A) They belong to the same individual because ridge endings match
B) They can be considered identical after applying ridge counting
C) They originate from different individuals based on Level 3 differences
D) They are inconclusive due to lack of Level 1 detail
  • 13. A corpse has severely dried fingers. What method should be applied before taking prints?
A) Use rehydration or tissue-builder injection
B) Apply magnetic powder
C) Use iodine fuming before rolling
D) Cut the finger and discard the skin
  • 14. You must immediately develop latent prints on a smooth glass surface. What method is most suitable?
A) Iodine fuming
B) Powder dusting
C) Silver nitrate
D) Ninhydrin
  • 15. A rolled impression shows smudging due to downward pressure. How should the technician correct this?
A) Reduce pressure and allow natural rolling
B) Roll the finger faster to limit distortion
C) Increase pressure to improve contrast
D) Use only plain impressions instead of rolled
  • 16. A latent print on porous paper requires chemical development. Which sequence is best?
A) DFO → ninhydrin → water rinse
B) Superglue → black powder → ALS
C) Powder → cyanoacrylate → magnetic powder
D) Ninhydrin → DFO → silver nitrate as needed
  • 17. A latent print on rough, uneven wood must be preserved. What lifting method is appropriate?
A) Adhesive tape
B) Gel lifter
C) Heat transfer sheet
D) Ink transfer
  • 18. After cyanoacrylate fuming, ridge detail appears faint. Why does applying powder improve visibility?
A) Cyanoacrylate prevents any further enhancement
B) Powder converts pores into visible white marks
C) The hardened cyanoacrylate surface enhances powder adhesion
D) Powder chemically dissolves cyanoacrylate
  • 19. During the Analysis phase, you find a latent print with limited ridge clarity. What should you do?
A) Immediately declare the print an identification
B) Skip analysis and ask for supervisor approval
C) Proceed directly to comparison
D) Decide whether the print is suitable before moving on
  • 20. A verifier receives a fingerprint case already evaluated by another examiner. What method ensures objectivity?
A) Conducting blind and independent verification
B) Rejecting the first examiner’s conclusion automatically
C) Reviewing the first examiner’s notes first
D) Reprocessing the evidence using different chemicals
  • 21. Which principle of photography refers to arranging visual elements to create a balanced and meaningful image?
A) Spectral Quality
B) Exposure Value
C) Light Intensity
D) Composition
  • 22. What type of flash produces illumination directly toward the subject without redirection?
A) Bounce Flash
B) Direct Flash
C) Off-Camera Flash
D) Rear-Curtain Flash
  • 23. Hard light creates which characteristic effect on forensic photographs?
A) Minimal textural visibility
B) Soft blending of edges
C) Increased shadow definition
D) Lower contrast on surfaces
  • 24. Bounce flash is preferred in indoor crime scenes because it—
A) Produces softer and more diffused illumination
B) Enhances only reflective surfaces
C) Uses stronger wattage for sharp detail
D) Eliminates the need for a tripod
  • 25. Why is color temperature crucial in forensic documentation?
A) It ensures faithful representation of evidence colors
B) It determines the shutter speed accuracy
C) It limits the depth of field range
D) It avoids lens distortion
  • 26. The rule of thirds primarily helps the investigator achieve what goal?
A) Increase flash synchronization
B) Improve visual clarity and subject positioning
C) Ensure realistic color tones
D) Prevent overexposure
  • 27. An investigator photographs a low-light indoor scene without using flash. Which exposure adjustment is MOST appropriate to avoid motion blur?
A) Reduce ISO to 100
B) Increase ISO to a higher value
C) Narrow the aperture to f/16
D) Use a slower shutter speed
  • 28. When photographing a bloodstain pattern, the photographer must use a scale placed next to the stain. This procedural act demonstrates which forensic principle?
A) Evidence Size Documentation
B) Background Neutralization
C) Exaggeration Prevention Rule
D) Horizontal Composition Rule
  • 29. You must photograph a shoeprint at an oblique angle. Which camera setting will best enhance subtle surface details?
A) Wide aperture, auto ISO
B) High ISO, fast shutter
C) Slow shutter, high ISO
D) Small aperture, low ISO
  • 30. In photographing a dark outdoor crime scene, which action maximizes proper exposure without altering evidence?
A) Increasing flash power directly at the evidence
B) Moving the evidence closer to artificial light
C) Increasing shutter time using a tripod
D) Adjusting lens zoom to crop shadows
  • 31. During medium-range shots, the photographer must capture evidence relative to fixed surroundings. This ensures—
A) Scene orientation is established
B) Flash reflection is avoided
C) Light intensity remains constant
D) Depth of field is minimized
  • 32. When capturing fingerprints using an alternate light source, the photographer must adjust the camera to—
A) Match the wavelength with white balance settings
B) Increase shutter speed to darken fluorescence
C) Disable macro mode to avoid magnification
D) Use high ISO to enhance ambient background
  • 33. A crime scene photo appears overly bright with loss of detail on reflective surfaces. Which combination MOST likely caused the error?
A) High ISO and wide aperture
B) Narrow aperture with rear flash
C) Slow shutter with diffused lighting
D) Low ISO and fast shutter speed
  • 34. Two investigators photographed the same bullet trajectory. One used wide-angle; the other used telephoto. Which issue may arise in court?
A) Telephoto may distort the color temperature
B) Wide-angle may alter spatial relationships
C) Telephoto eliminates shadow accuracy
D) Wide-angle removes depth of field
  • 35. A digital camera fails to record images despite allowing shutter release. Which part should be checked FIRST?
A) Memory card slot
B) ISO control
C) Image sensor
D) Lens focusing ring
  • 36. When photographing very small fibers, which lens type ensures optimum magnification and detail?
A) Telephoto lens
B) Standard lens
C) Macro lens
D) Ultra-wide lens
  • 37. The investigator needs to minimize image noise while maintaining brightness. The most suitable action is—
A) Increase shutter speed
B) Disable autofocus
C) Lower ISO and widen aperture
D) Raise ISO and narrow aperture
  • 38. When using a manual/analogue camera in a dim room, which adjustment compensates for the absence of digital ISO controls?
A) Selecting higher ASA film
B) Rotating memory dial
C) Adjusting lens mount
D) Changing film advance lever
  • 39. A wide-angle lens produces slight edge distortion in scene photos. How may this affect forensic interpretation?
A) May misrepresent the distance between objects
B) May increase exposure stability
C) May shift color temperature drastically
D) May remove shadow details entirely
  • 40. A camera shows blurry close-up images despite proper lighting. Review indicates the photographer used a telephoto lens at minimum focusing distance. What is the likely cause?
A) Minimum focusing distance exceeded
B) Telephoto lenses cannot capture contrast
C) Shutter curtain failed to synchronize
D) Image sensor malfunctioned
  • 41. Which principle best explains why forensic chemists must use validated analytical procedures when examining seized chemical evidence?
A) To allow investigators to bypass the chain of custody
B) To ensure evidence is stored in climate-controlled facilities
C) To guarantee results are reproducible and legally defensible
D) To prevent the need for confirmatory testing
  • 42. The significance of toxicological findings in court primarily depends on which factor?
A) The interpretation of toxin concentration relative to physiological effects
B) The financial value of the toxic substance detected
C) The popularity of the analytical instrument used
D) The quantity of samples submitted by the investigator
  • 43. Which statement correctly differentiates preliminary from confirmatory tests in forensic chemistry?
A) Preliminary tests permanently identify a substance, while confirmatory tests only screen
B) Preliminary tests are presumptive, while confirmatory tests specifically identify substances
C) Confirmatory tests rely on color changes, while preliminary tests use instrumentation
D) Preliminary tests require accreditation, while confirmatory tests do not
  • 44. A crime scene technician performs a Kastle-Meyer test on a red stain and obtains a rapid pink color change. What is the MOST appropriate next step to ensure admissibility?
A) Disregard the sample due to possible contamination
B) Collect only photographs since the test already confirmed blood
C) Perform a confirmatory test, such as a Takayama or Teichmann test
D) Conclude immediately that the stain is human blood
  • 45. During the collection of semen evidence on fabric, which procedure BEST preserves its forensic value?
A) Air-drying the fabric and placing it in a breathable paper container
B) Applying heat to accelerate drying before packaging`
C) Packaging the moist fabric in plastic to prevent air exposure
D) Folding the fabric tightly to secure the stain
  • 46. While collecting glass fragments from a hit-and-run scene, which action MOST ensures accurate comparative analysis?
A) Placing fragments into cotton-filled plastic bags to minimize noise
B) Cleaning the fragments with water before packaging
C) Separating fragments by size and origin before sealing
D) Mixing all fragments from different areas into one container
  • 47. A victim is suspected of poisoning from an organophosphate pesticide. Which treatment is MOST appropriate to administer based on toxicological principles?
A) Activated charcoal only
B) High-dose vitamin K therapy
C) Atropine with pralidoxime (2-PAM)
D) Sodium bicarbonate infusion
  • 48. A forensic toxicologist must distinguish between cyanide poisoning and carbon monoxide poisoning. Which comparison is MOST forensically relevant?
A) Carbon monoxide smells like almonds, while cyanide has no odor
B) Cyanide causes cherry-red skin, while carbon monoxide does not
C) Carbon monoxide poisoning typically changes blood to greenish color
D) Cyanide inhibits cellular respiration, while carbon monoxide forms carboxyhemoglobin
  • 49. Which of the following is classified as a public document?
A) A personal diary
B) A company memo
C) A notarized affidavit
D) A handwritten personal letter
  • 50. Which equipment is primarily used to detect indented writing on a questioned document?
A) VSC
B) IR lamp
C) ESDA
D) Stereomicroscope
  • 51. A document examiner uses an infrared light source to evaluate a questioned contract. Which issue is this technique MOST suited to detect?
A) Chemical erasures or overwritten ink
B) The presence of signature tremors
C) Paper fiber uniqueness
D) Pen pressure inconsistencies
  • 52. A faded receipt is examined using a Video Spectral Comparator. What is the main advantage of this tool?
A) It magnifies handwriting strokes up to 1000x
B) It measures paper thickness with high precision
C) It reveals erased or overwritten text using multi-spectral imaging
D) It detects the weight of ink residue
  • 53. An altered bank document shows mismatched ink under UV light. This discrepancy indicates:
A) Ink from different batches or pens was used
B) The paper is of inferior quality
C) The document contains natural handwriting variation
D) The writer used excessive pressure when signing
  • 54. A signature shows slow movement, tremors, and unnatural pauses. What type of forgery is MOST likely present?
A) Freehand imitation
B) Natural variation
C) Disguised signature
D) Forgery through tracing
  • 55. A questioned signature shows heavy pen pressure at the beginning and end of strokes, uncommon in the writer’s known samples. What does this suggest?
A) Ink used was incompatible
B) The signature may be simulated
C) It is an authentic signature
D) The writer was in a hurry
  • 56. A handwriting expert compares known and questioned writings. He observes the same unique pen lift pattern before the letter "t." What principle is being applied?
A) Individual characteristics
B) Natural variation
C) Line quality analysis
D) Class characteristics
  • 57. A check shows altered numbers where the original ink reacts differently under IR examination. What is the conclusion?
A) The lighting technique was incorrect
B) The ink was exposed to moisture
C) Alteration likely occurred
D) The paper is counterfeit
  • 58. A forged document shows uniform spacing and mechanical alignment in the signature. This is characteristic of:
A) Simulation
B) Typewriter output
C) Signature stamp or machine signature
D) Freehand forgery
  • 59. The examiner notices baseline drift and inconsistent slant in a questioned handwritten note. What does this BEST indicate?
A) A natural signature variation
B) Impairment or loss of motor control
C) Habitual writing behavior
D) Possible disguise attempt
  • 60. A suspect denies authorship of a document. The examiner requests "extended handwriting specimens." Why?
A) To assess quality of ink
B) To observe fatigue in writing
C) To determine paper density
D) To obtain a sufficient range of natural variation
  • 61. A contract shows two lines written with identical flow, pressure, and shading but different pen tips under microscopic view. What does this imply?
A) The paper absorbed ink unevenly
B) A mechanical copying method was used
C) The writer used two pens intentionally
D) The writing is genuine
  • 62. A signature appears genuine in line quality but contradicts the writer’s usual habit of connecting letters. Microscopic analysis shows deliberate stops between strokes. What is the most reasonable conclusion?
A) The ink has degraded over time
B) The writer was under stress
C) The signature is authentic with natural variation
D) The signature is simulated
  • 63. A banknote passes the watermark test but fails the UV fluorescence test. What does this contrast MOST likely indicate?
A) The security thread has naturally faded
B) It is a hybrid counterfeit using mixed materials
C) The note is genuine but old
D) The UV lamp is defective
  • 64. A suspected fake ID shows correct hologram placement but inconsistent microprinting under magnification. What is the strongest conclusion?
A) The document was damaged by moisture
B) The hologram was transferred from a real ID
C) The ID is authentic but worn out
D) Microprinting is naturally variable
  • 65. Which of the following is a primary physiological indicator used in polygraph examinations?
A) Skin conductance
B) Pupil dilation
C) Eye color
D) Blood pressure
  • 66. Polygraph accuracy can be significantly affected by which factor?
A) Length of examination only
B) Ambient room temperature only
C) Subject’s favorite color
D) Examiner skill and experience
  • 67. Why are control questions used in polygraph tests?
A) To confuse the subject and induce errors
B) To determine the subject’s memory capacity
C) To establish baseline physiological responses for comparison
D) To directly detect lies about the incident
  • 68. How can a subject’s psychological state affect polygraph accuracy?
A) It has no measurable effect
B) Anxiety or fear may exaggerate physiological responses
C) Only physical factors matter, not psychological
D) It improves the detection of deception automatically
  • 69. During which phase of polygraph examination is the subject first interviewed?
A) In-test phase
B) Pre-test phase
C) Control phase
D) Post-test phase
  • 70. A sudden spike in galvanic skin response is observed on the chart. This is likely recorded using:
A) Cardiograph
B) Pneumograph
C) Galvanometer
D) Thermometer
  • 71. If a subject reacts strongly to a control question but minimally to a relevant question, the examiner should:
A) Consider the control response valid and relevant response non-deceptive
B) Ignore both responses
C) Consider the relevant question deceptive
D) Restart the entire test
  • 72. Which polygraph component measures respiration?
A) Pneumograph
B) Galvanometer
C) Cardio sensor
D) Computer software
  • 73. What is the purpose of irrelevant questions in a polygraph test?
A) To establish baseline physiological responses
B) To test memory retention
C) To directly confirm deception
D) To confuse the subject
  • 74. How should chart markings be interpreted during evaluation?
A) By comparing responses to relevant, control, and irrelevant questions
B) Only using computer software
C) By ignoring baseline readings
D) Only by visual inspection
  • 75. A polygraph examiner notes inconsistent heart rate changes across all question types. The next step is:
A) Re-evaluate data and consider external factors
B) Ask more irrelevant questions
C) Declare deception immediately
D) Ignore inconsistencies
  • 76. An examiner observes that a subject’s physiological responses are unusually flat. Which evaluation is most appropriate?
A) Conclude deception automatically
B) Consider possible countermeasures or medical conditions affecting accuracy
C) Increase the number of relevant questions
D) Ignore the responses and continue
  • 77. A polygraph test shows strong responses to irrelevant questions but mild responses to relevant questions. What can be inferred?
A) Subject’s baseline responses are high, making relevant responses less conclusive
B) Subject is likely deceptive
C) Examiner should add more control questions
D) Subject is definitely truthful
  • 78. Comparing reactions to control and relevant questions helps the examiner to:
A) Measure subject’s memory accuracy
B) Determine the subject’s emotional intelligence
C) Predict subject’s future behavior
D) Analyze physiological deviation and detect deception
  • 79. Which instrument is primarily used to compare the striations on two bullets?
A) Comparison microscope
B) Rifling gauge
C) Caliper
D) Ballistic chronograph
  • 80. Why is photographing ballistic evidence before collection important at a crime scene?
A) It helps in measuring rifling impressions
B) It ensures visual documentation of position and condition
C) It prevents contamination of evidence
D) It identifies the firearm used
  • 81. During crime scene processing, which procedure ensures proper chain of custody?
A) Comparing bullets in the laboratory
B) Photographing the suspect
C) Testing the firearm immediately
D) Documenting every transfer and storage of evidence
  • 82. Which of the following best explains the role of ballistic evidence presentation in court?
A) To demonstrate internal ballistics to the jury
B) To illustrate the relationship between firearms, bullets, and cartridge cases
C) To show expert’s opinion without physical exhibits
D) To determine the shooter’s intent
  • 83. What is the main purpose of using a ballistic chronograph in firearm examination?
A) To measure bullet speed and trajectory
B) To compare rifling impressions
C) To identify firearm serial numbers
D) To document cartridge case markings
  • 84. Which precaution is essential when presenting a firearm in court?
A) Disassembling the firearm in open court
B) Loading the firearm to demonstrate firing
C) Testing bullets in front of the jury
D) Removing all ammunition and rendering it safe
  • 85. A bullet recovered from a crime scene has rifling impressions matching a suspect’s firearm. This analysis demonstrates:
A) Terminal ballistics
B) Individual characteristics
C) Class characteristics
D) Internal ballistics
  • 86. A revolver is classified under which type of firearm?
A) Handgun
B) Rifle
C) Shotgun
D) Machine gun
  • 87. Which part of ammunition ignites the gunpowder when struck?
A) Firing pin
B) Bullet
C) Primer
D) Cartridge case
  • 88. Determining the trajectory of a bullet after it leaves the barrel is an example of:
A) Terminal ballistics
B) Internal ballistics
C) Forensic ballistics
D) External ballistics
  • 89. A fired cartridge case exhibits unique marks from the extractor and ejector. These are examples of:
A) Individual characteristics
B) Class characteristics
C) Ammunition design
D) Internal ballistics
  • 90. Identifying the make and model of a firearm based on caliber and rifling is an example of:
A) Individual characteristics
B) Class characteristics
C) External ballistics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 91. Which branch of ballistics studies the effect of a bullet on a target?
A) Internal ballistics
B) Forensic ballistics
C) External ballistics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 92. A semi-automatic rifle is fired, and the bullet path is traced to a tree. This investigation falls under:
A) Firearm classification
B) External ballistics
C) Terminal ballistics
D) Internal ballistics
  • 93. Which ammunition component determines the bullet’s size and fit within the barrel?
A) Cartridge case
B) Primer
C) Gunpowder
D) Bullet
  • 94. An expert concludes that multiple bullets came from the same firearm after analysis. This conclusion is most critical for:
A) Establishing individual characteristics
B) Determining class characteristics
C) Assessing external ballistics
D) Evaluating firearm classification
  • 95. What is the safest way to collect a firearm at a crime scene?
A) Hand it to anyone nearby
B) Test fire before collection
C) Keep it loaded while packaging
D) Remove ammunition and secure the firearm
  • 96. Why is assigning identification numbers to bullets and cartridge cases essential?
A) To measure bullet velocity accurately
B) To assess terminal ballistics
C) To determine firearm make and model
D) To maintain chain of custody and avoid confusion
  • 97. During evidence preservation, why must firearms be stored in controlled environments?
A) To load them for demonstration
B) To test them before court
C) To prevent corrosion and preserve markings
D) To analyze gunpowder separately
  • 98. Which factor is critical when handling fired cartridge cases to prevent contamination?
A) Wearing gloves and using appropriate packaging
B) Polishing them for clarity
C) Cleaning them immediately
D) Keeping them in open air
  • 99. You are tasked to create a forensic report for court presentation on a complex case involving multiple types of evidence. Which of the following approaches best ensures the report is both legally defensible and scientifically rigorous?
A) Include only results that support the prosecution’s case to simplify reading.
B) Use highly technical language throughout to demonstrate expertise.
C) Limit technical explanations to avoid confusing the court.
D) Organize the report systematically, include all findings, and provide clear interpretations.
  • 100. While handling a chemical sample in the laboratory, you notice a minor spill. What is the most appropriate immediate action according to standard laboratory safety procedures?
A) Evacuate the laboratory and leave the spill unattended.
B) Continue the experiment and report the spill after finishing.
C) Call security personnel to remove the chemical immediately.
D) Contain and clean the spill following the laboratory’s spill protocol while wearing proper PPE.
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