ECHO 1_AREA2
  • 1. Which characteristic makes dental identification unique among other biological identifiers?
A) Teeth provide genetic information directly
B) Teeth resist decomposition and extreme heat
C) Teeth change shape with age
D) Teeth regenerate after severe trauma
  • 2. The Henry FBI Classification System primarily serves what purpose?
A) To measure ridge density
B) To detect forged fingerprints
C) To classify latent prints at crime scenes
D) To organize fingerprint cards for retrieval
  • 3. Why is dental charting superior during mass fatality incidents?
A) Dental features rarely match across victims
B) Dentition is highly resistant to post-mortem damage
C) It requires no prior dental records
D) Dental charts contain compulsory genetic markers
  • 4. In the Henry FBI system, what is the role of the Secondary Classification?
A) It determines which fingerprints are suitable for database entry
B) It identifies Level 3 pore characteristics
C) It refines the filing sequence using ridge patterns on index fingers
D) It classifies latent prints with insufficient ridge flow
  • 5. Which of the following best describes the purpose of descriptive biometric analysis (DBA)?
A) To analyze DNA in partially decomposed bodies
B) To categorize fingerprints by their whorl values
C) To measure body temperature variations post-mortem
D) To match physical traits when friction ridges are unavailable
  • 6. Why must classified fingerprint cards be arranged in numerical order?
A) It segregates fingerprints by ethnicity and age
B) It ensures standardized filing and efficient retrieval
C) It allows automatic destruction of old records
D) It prevents contamination of fingerprint ink
  • 7. A latent print contains clear bifurcations but lacks a visible core and delta. How should the examiner classify it?
A) As a whorl pattern
B) As pattern-indeterminate
C) As an arch pattern
D) As a loop pattern
  • 8. A fingerprint with two deltas and circular ridge flow should be classified as a:
A) Composite pattern
B) Plain whorl
C) Tented arch
D) Radial loop
  • 9. Two prints share equal ridge counts but differ significantly in ridge flow direction. What should the examiner apply?
A) Ridge density standard
B) Principle of individuality
C) Principle of permanence
D) Ridge count principle
  • 10. A loop fingerprint shows ridge irregularities due to surface distortion. How should the examiner evaluate these irregularities?
A) Ignore minutiae and classify using pattern shape only
B) Reject the print based solely on the pattern
C) Convert the loop pattern into a whorl for easier analysis
D) Evaluate minutiae configuration rather than the overall loop pattern
  • 11. Which principle justifies the admissibility of fingerprint evidence in court due to its unchanging nature?
A) Divergence
B) Universality
C) Permanence
D) Multiplicity
  • 12. Two fingerprints share ridge endings in the same area but differ in pore positions and ridge edge shapes. What conclusion is most accurate?
A) They can be considered identical after applying ridge counting
B) They are inconclusive due to lack of Level 1 detail
C) They belong to the same individual because ridge endings match
D) They originate from different individuals based on Level 3 differences
  • 13. A corpse has severely dried fingers. What method should be applied before taking prints?
A) Use iodine fuming before rolling
B) Cut the finger and discard the skin
C) Use rehydration or tissue-builder injection
D) Apply magnetic powder
  • 14. You must immediately develop latent prints on a smooth glass surface. What method is most suitable?
A) Silver nitrate
B) Powder dusting
C) Ninhydrin
D) Iodine fuming
  • 15. A rolled impression shows smudging due to downward pressure. How should the technician correct this?
A) Use only plain impressions instead of rolled
B) Increase pressure to improve contrast
C) Roll the finger faster to limit distortion
D) Reduce pressure and allow natural rolling
  • 16. A latent print on porous paper requires chemical development. Which sequence is best?
A) DFO → ninhydrin → water rinse
B) Superglue → black powder → ALS
C) Ninhydrin → DFO → silver nitrate as needed
D) Powder → cyanoacrylate → magnetic powder
  • 17. A latent print on rough, uneven wood must be preserved. What lifting method is appropriate?
A) Heat transfer sheet
B) Adhesive tape
C) Ink transfer
D) Gel lifter
  • 18. After cyanoacrylate fuming, ridge detail appears faint. Why does applying powder improve visibility?
A) Powder converts pores into visible white marks
B) Cyanoacrylate prevents any further enhancement
C) Powder chemically dissolves cyanoacrylate
D) The hardened cyanoacrylate surface enhances powder adhesion
  • 19. During the Analysis phase, you find a latent print with limited ridge clarity. What should you do?
A) Proceed directly to comparison
B) Immediately declare the print an identification
C) Decide whether the print is suitable before moving on
D) Skip analysis and ask for supervisor approval
  • 20. A verifier receives a fingerprint case already evaluated by another examiner. What method ensures objectivity?
A) Conducting blind and independent verification
B) Rejecting the first examiner’s conclusion automatically
C) Reviewing the first examiner’s notes first
D) Reprocessing the evidence using different chemicals
  • 21. Which principle of photography refers to arranging visual elements to create a balanced and meaningful image?
A) Spectral Quality
B) Exposure Value
C) Light Intensity
D) Composition
  • 22. What type of flash produces illumination directly toward the subject without redirection?
A) Off-Camera Flash
B) Rear-Curtain Flash
C) Direct Flash
D) Bounce Flash
  • 23. Hard light creates which characteristic effect on forensic photographs?
A) Increased shadow definition
B) Lower contrast on surfaces
C) Soft blending of edges
D) Minimal textural visibility
  • 24. Bounce flash is preferred in indoor crime scenes because it—
A) Eliminates the need for a tripod
B) Enhances only reflective surfaces
C) Uses stronger wattage for sharp detail
D) Produces softer and more diffused illumination
  • 25. Why is color temperature crucial in forensic documentation?
A) It ensures faithful representation of evidence colors
B) It avoids lens distortion
C) It determines the shutter speed accuracy
D) It limits the depth of field range
  • 26. The rule of thirds primarily helps the investigator achieve what goal?
A) Ensure realistic color tones
B) Increase flash synchronization
C) Improve visual clarity and subject positioning
D) Prevent overexposure
  • 27. An investigator photographs a low-light indoor scene without using flash. Which exposure adjustment is MOST appropriate to avoid motion blur?
A) Use a slower shutter speed
B) Increase ISO to a higher value
C) Narrow the aperture to f/16
D) Reduce ISO to 100
  • 28. When photographing a bloodstain pattern, the photographer must use a scale placed next to the stain. This procedural act demonstrates which forensic principle?
A) Background Neutralization
B) Horizontal Composition Rule
C) Exaggeration Prevention Rule
D) Evidence Size Documentation
  • 29. You must photograph a shoeprint at an oblique angle. Which camera setting will best enhance subtle surface details?
A) Small aperture, low ISO
B) Slow shutter, high ISO
C) Wide aperture, auto ISO
D) High ISO, fast shutter
  • 30. In photographing a dark outdoor crime scene, which action maximizes proper exposure without altering evidence?
A) Moving the evidence closer to artificial light
B) Increasing flash power directly at the evidence
C) Adjusting lens zoom to crop shadows
D) Increasing shutter time using a tripod
  • 31. During medium-range shots, the photographer must capture evidence relative to fixed surroundings. This ensures—
A) Scene orientation is established
B) Depth of field is minimized
C) Light intensity remains constant
D) Flash reflection is avoided
  • 32. When capturing fingerprints using an alternate light source, the photographer must adjust the camera to—
A) Use high ISO to enhance ambient background
B) Match the wavelength with white balance settings
C) Increase shutter speed to darken fluorescence
D) Disable macro mode to avoid magnification
  • 33. A crime scene photo appears overly bright with loss of detail on reflective surfaces. Which combination MOST likely caused the error?
A) High ISO and wide aperture
B) Slow shutter with diffused lighting
C) Narrow aperture with rear flash
D) Low ISO and fast shutter speed
  • 34. Two investigators photographed the same bullet trajectory. One used wide-angle; the other used telephoto. Which issue may arise in court?
A) Telephoto eliminates shadow accuracy
B) Telephoto may distort the color temperature
C) Wide-angle removes depth of field
D) Wide-angle may alter spatial relationships
  • 35. A digital camera fails to record images despite allowing shutter release. Which part should be checked FIRST?
A) ISO control
B) Lens focusing ring
C) Memory card slot
D) Image sensor
  • 36. When photographing very small fibers, which lens type ensures optimum magnification and detail?
A) Ultra-wide lens
B) Macro lens
C) Telephoto lens
D) Standard lens
  • 37. The investigator needs to minimize image noise while maintaining brightness. The most suitable action is—
A) Raise ISO and narrow aperture
B) Disable autofocus
C) Lower ISO and widen aperture
D) Increase shutter speed
  • 38. When using a manual/analogue camera in a dim room, which adjustment compensates for the absence of digital ISO controls?
A) Rotating memory dial
B) Selecting higher ASA film
C) Changing film advance lever
D) Adjusting lens mount
  • 39. A wide-angle lens produces slight edge distortion in scene photos. How may this affect forensic interpretation?
A) May remove shadow details entirely
B) May shift color temperature drastically
C) May misrepresent the distance between objects
D) May increase exposure stability
  • 40. A camera shows blurry close-up images despite proper lighting. Review indicates the photographer used a telephoto lens at minimum focusing distance. What is the likely cause?
A) Minimum focusing distance exceeded
B) Image sensor malfunctioned
C) Telephoto lenses cannot capture contrast
D) Shutter curtain failed to synchronize
  • 41. Which principle best explains why forensic chemists must use validated analytical procedures when examining seized chemical evidence?
A) To prevent the need for confirmatory testing
B) To guarantee results are reproducible and legally defensible
C) To allow investigators to bypass the chain of custody
D) To ensure evidence is stored in climate-controlled facilities
  • 42. The significance of toxicological findings in court primarily depends on which factor?
A) The quantity of samples submitted by the investigator
B) The interpretation of toxin concentration relative to physiological effects
C) The popularity of the analytical instrument used
D) The financial value of the toxic substance detected
  • 43. Which statement correctly differentiates preliminary from confirmatory tests in forensic chemistry?
A) Preliminary tests require accreditation, while confirmatory tests do not
B) Confirmatory tests rely on color changes, while preliminary tests use instrumentation
C) Preliminary tests are presumptive, while confirmatory tests specifically identify substances
D) Preliminary tests permanently identify a substance, while confirmatory tests only screen
  • 44. A crime scene technician performs a Kastle-Meyer test on a red stain and obtains a rapid pink color change. What is the MOST appropriate next step to ensure admissibility?
A) Perform a confirmatory test, such as a Takayama or Teichmann test
B) Disregard the sample due to possible contamination
C) Conclude immediately that the stain is human blood
D) Collect only photographs since the test already confirmed blood
  • 45. During the collection of semen evidence on fabric, which procedure BEST preserves its forensic value?
A) Applying heat to accelerate drying before packaging`
B) Air-drying the fabric and placing it in a breathable paper container
C) Packaging the moist fabric in plastic to prevent air exposure
D) Folding the fabric tightly to secure the stain
  • 46. While collecting glass fragments from a hit-and-run scene, which action MOST ensures accurate comparative analysis?
A) Cleaning the fragments with water before packaging
B) Mixing all fragments from different areas into one container
C) Placing fragments into cotton-filled plastic bags to minimize noise
D) Separating fragments by size and origin before sealing
  • 47. A victim is suspected of poisoning from an organophosphate pesticide. Which treatment is MOST appropriate to administer based on toxicological principles?
A) High-dose vitamin K therapy
B) Activated charcoal only
C) Sodium bicarbonate infusion
D) Atropine with pralidoxime (2-PAM)
  • 48. A forensic toxicologist must distinguish between cyanide poisoning and carbon monoxide poisoning. Which comparison is MOST forensically relevant?
A) Carbon monoxide smells like almonds, while cyanide has no odor
B) Carbon monoxide poisoning typically changes blood to greenish color
C) Cyanide inhibits cellular respiration, while carbon monoxide forms carboxyhemoglobin
D) Cyanide causes cherry-red skin, while carbon monoxide does not
  • 49. Which of the following is classified as a public document?
A) A personal diary
B) A company memo
C) A handwritten personal letter
D) A notarized affidavit
  • 50. Which equipment is primarily used to detect indented writing on a questioned document?
A) Stereomicroscope
B) ESDA
C) IR lamp
D) VSC
  • 51. A document examiner uses an infrared light source to evaluate a questioned contract. Which issue is this technique MOST suited to detect?
A) Paper fiber uniqueness
B) Chemical erasures or overwritten ink
C) The presence of signature tremors
D) Pen pressure inconsistencies
  • 52. A faded receipt is examined using a Video Spectral Comparator. What is the main advantage of this tool?
A) It reveals erased or overwritten text using multi-spectral imaging
B) It measures paper thickness with high precision
C) It detects the weight of ink residue
D) It magnifies handwriting strokes up to 1000x
  • 53. An altered bank document shows mismatched ink under UV light. This discrepancy indicates:
A) The paper is of inferior quality
B) Ink from different batches or pens was used
C) The writer used excessive pressure when signing
D) The document contains natural handwriting variation
  • 54. A signature shows slow movement, tremors, and unnatural pauses. What type of forgery is MOST likely present?
A) Natural variation
B) Forgery through tracing
C) Disguised signature
D) Freehand imitation
  • 55. A questioned signature shows heavy pen pressure at the beginning and end of strokes, uncommon in the writer’s known samples. What does this suggest?
A) The writer was in a hurry
B) It is an authentic signature
C) Ink used was incompatible
D) The signature may be simulated
  • 56. A handwriting expert compares known and questioned writings. He observes the same unique pen lift pattern before the letter "t." What principle is being applied?
A) Class characteristics
B) Natural variation
C) Individual characteristics
D) Line quality analysis
  • 57. A check shows altered numbers where the original ink reacts differently under IR examination. What is the conclusion?
A) The lighting technique was incorrect
B) Alteration likely occurred
C) The ink was exposed to moisture
D) The paper is counterfeit
  • 58. A forged document shows uniform spacing and mechanical alignment in the signature. This is characteristic of:
A) Typewriter output
B) Simulation
C) Signature stamp or machine signature
D) Freehand forgery
  • 59. The examiner notices baseline drift and inconsistent slant in a questioned handwritten note. What does this BEST indicate?
A) Habitual writing behavior
B) A natural signature variation
C) Possible disguise attempt
D) Impairment or loss of motor control
  • 60. A suspect denies authorship of a document. The examiner requests "extended handwriting specimens." Why?
A) To determine paper density
B) To observe fatigue in writing
C) To obtain a sufficient range of natural variation
D) To assess quality of ink
  • 61. A contract shows two lines written with identical flow, pressure, and shading but different pen tips under microscopic view. What does this imply?
A) The writing is genuine
B) The writer used two pens intentionally
C) The paper absorbed ink unevenly
D) A mechanical copying method was used
  • 62. A signature appears genuine in line quality but contradicts the writer’s usual habit of connecting letters. Microscopic analysis shows deliberate stops between strokes. What is the most reasonable conclusion?
A) The writer was under stress
B) The ink has degraded over time
C) The signature is simulated
D) The signature is authentic with natural variation
  • 63. A banknote passes the watermark test but fails the UV fluorescence test. What does this contrast MOST likely indicate?
A) It is a hybrid counterfeit using mixed materials
B) The UV lamp is defective
C) The security thread has naturally faded
D) The note is genuine but old
  • 64. A suspected fake ID shows correct hologram placement but inconsistent microprinting under magnification. What is the strongest conclusion?
A) The document was damaged by moisture
B) Microprinting is naturally variable
C) The ID is authentic but worn out
D) The hologram was transferred from a real ID
  • 65. Which of the following is a primary physiological indicator used in polygraph examinations?
A) Blood pressure
B) Skin conductance
C) Eye color
D) Pupil dilation
  • 66. Polygraph accuracy can be significantly affected by which factor?
A) Length of examination only
B) Ambient room temperature only
C) Examiner skill and experience
D) Subject’s favorite color
  • 67. Why are control questions used in polygraph tests?
A) To determine the subject’s memory capacity
B) To confuse the subject and induce errors
C) To establish baseline physiological responses for comparison
D) To directly detect lies about the incident
  • 68. How can a subject’s psychological state affect polygraph accuracy?
A) It has no measurable effect
B) Anxiety or fear may exaggerate physiological responses
C) Only physical factors matter, not psychological
D) It improves the detection of deception automatically
  • 69. During which phase of polygraph examination is the subject first interviewed?
A) Pre-test phase
B) Control phase
C) In-test phase
D) Post-test phase
  • 70. A sudden spike in galvanic skin response is observed on the chart. This is likely recorded using:
A) Galvanometer
B) Thermometer
C) Pneumograph
D) Cardiograph
  • 71. If a subject reacts strongly to a control question but minimally to a relevant question, the examiner should:
A) Consider the control response valid and relevant response non-deceptive
B) Ignore both responses
C) Consider the relevant question deceptive
D) Restart the entire test
  • 72. Which polygraph component measures respiration?
A) Pneumograph
B) Computer software
C) Galvanometer
D) Cardio sensor
  • 73. What is the purpose of irrelevant questions in a polygraph test?
A) To test memory retention
B) To establish baseline physiological responses
C) To directly confirm deception
D) To confuse the subject
  • 74. How should chart markings be interpreted during evaluation?
A) Only by visual inspection
B) By ignoring baseline readings
C) By comparing responses to relevant, control, and irrelevant questions
D) Only using computer software
  • 75. A polygraph examiner notes inconsistent heart rate changes across all question types. The next step is:
A) Ask more irrelevant questions
B) Ignore inconsistencies
C) Declare deception immediately
D) Re-evaluate data and consider external factors
  • 76. An examiner observes that a subject’s physiological responses are unusually flat. Which evaluation is most appropriate?
A) Ignore the responses and continue
B) Conclude deception automatically
C) Increase the number of relevant questions
D) Consider possible countermeasures or medical conditions affecting accuracy
  • 77. A polygraph test shows strong responses to irrelevant questions but mild responses to relevant questions. What can be inferred?
A) Subject’s baseline responses are high, making relevant responses less conclusive
B) Subject is definitely truthful
C) Subject is likely deceptive
D) Examiner should add more control questions
  • 78. Comparing reactions to control and relevant questions helps the examiner to:
A) Determine the subject’s emotional intelligence
B) Analyze physiological deviation and detect deception
C) Predict subject’s future behavior
D) Measure subject’s memory accuracy
  • 79. Which instrument is primarily used to compare the striations on two bullets?
A) Ballistic chronograph
B) Rifling gauge
C) Caliper
D) Comparison microscope
  • 80. Why is photographing ballistic evidence before collection important at a crime scene?
A) It ensures visual documentation of position and condition
B) It helps in measuring rifling impressions
C) It identifies the firearm used
D) It prevents contamination of evidence
  • 81. During crime scene processing, which procedure ensures proper chain of custody?
A) Photographing the suspect
B) Testing the firearm immediately
C) Documenting every transfer and storage of evidence
D) Comparing bullets in the laboratory
  • 82. Which of the following best explains the role of ballistic evidence presentation in court?
A) To show expert’s opinion without physical exhibits
B) To demonstrate internal ballistics to the jury
C) To determine the shooter’s intent
D) To illustrate the relationship between firearms, bullets, and cartridge cases
  • 83. What is the main purpose of using a ballistic chronograph in firearm examination?
A) To identify firearm serial numbers
B) To compare rifling impressions
C) To document cartridge case markings
D) To measure bullet speed and trajectory
  • 84. Which precaution is essential when presenting a firearm in court?
A) Removing all ammunition and rendering it safe
B) Loading the firearm to demonstrate firing
C) Testing bullets in front of the jury
D) Disassembling the firearm in open court
  • 85. A bullet recovered from a crime scene has rifling impressions matching a suspect’s firearm. This analysis demonstrates:
A) Class characteristics
B) Individual characteristics
C) Terminal ballistics
D) Internal ballistics
  • 86. A revolver is classified under which type of firearm?
A) Shotgun
B) Rifle
C) Handgun
D) Machine gun
  • 87. Which part of ammunition ignites the gunpowder when struck?
A) Cartridge case
B) Bullet
C) Firing pin
D) Primer
  • 88. Determining the trajectory of a bullet after it leaves the barrel is an example of:
A) External ballistics
B) Terminal ballistics
C) Internal ballistics
D) Forensic ballistics
  • 89. A fired cartridge case exhibits unique marks from the extractor and ejector. These are examples of:
A) Class characteristics
B) Internal ballistics
C) Ammunition design
D) Individual characteristics
  • 90. Identifying the make and model of a firearm based on caliber and rifling is an example of:
A) External ballistics
B) Class characteristics
C) Individual characteristics
D) Terminal ballistics
  • 91. Which branch of ballistics studies the effect of a bullet on a target?
A) Terminal ballistics
B) Internal ballistics
C) Forensic ballistics
D) External ballistics
  • 92. A semi-automatic rifle is fired, and the bullet path is traced to a tree. This investigation falls under:
A) External ballistics
B) Terminal ballistics
C) Internal ballistics
D) Firearm classification
  • 93. Which ammunition component determines the bullet’s size and fit within the barrel?
A) Gunpowder
B) Primer
C) Bullet
D) Cartridge case
  • 94. An expert concludes that multiple bullets came from the same firearm after analysis. This conclusion is most critical for:
A) Assessing external ballistics
B) Determining class characteristics
C) Evaluating firearm classification
D) Establishing individual characteristics
  • 95. What is the safest way to collect a firearm at a crime scene?
A) Test fire before collection
B) Keep it loaded while packaging
C) Hand it to anyone nearby
D) Remove ammunition and secure the firearm
  • 96. Why is assigning identification numbers to bullets and cartridge cases essential?
A) To assess terminal ballistics
B) To determine firearm make and model
C) To measure bullet velocity accurately
D) To maintain chain of custody and avoid confusion
  • 97. During evidence preservation, why must firearms be stored in controlled environments?
A) To analyze gunpowder separately
B) To load them for demonstration
C) To test them before court
D) To prevent corrosion and preserve markings
  • 98. Which factor is critical when handling fired cartridge cases to prevent contamination?
A) Wearing gloves and using appropriate packaging
B) Polishing them for clarity
C) Keeping them in open air
D) Cleaning them immediately
  • 99. You are tasked to create a forensic report for court presentation on a complex case involving multiple types of evidence. Which of the following approaches best ensures the report is both legally defensible and scientifically rigorous?
A) Limit technical explanations to avoid confusing the court.
B) Include only results that support the prosecution’s case to simplify reading.
C) Use highly technical language throughout to demonstrate expertise.
D) Organize the report systematically, include all findings, and provide clear interpretations.
  • 100. While handling a chemical sample in the laboratory, you notice a minor spill. What is the most appropriate immediate action according to standard laboratory safety procedures?
A) Call security personnel to remove the chemical immediately.
B) Contain and clean the spill following the laboratory’s spill protocol while wearing proper PPE.
C) Evacuate the laboratory and leave the spill unattended.
D) Continue the experiment and report the spill after finishing.
Created with That Quiz — where test making and test taking are made easy for math and other subject areas.