Risk management - Quiz
Risk management
  • 1. Which organization identifies the principles for risk management mentioned in the text?
A) World Health Organization
B) Benoit Mandelbrot Foundation
C) ISO 31000 Committee on Standards
D) International Organization for Standardization
  • 2. What is the ISO principle regarding resource expenditure in risk management?
A) Mitigation costs are irrelevant as long as the risk is completely removed.
B) Resources expended must equal the total value of the assets being protected.
C) Resources expended to mitigate risk should be less than the consequence of inaction.
D) Expenditures should focus strictly on eliminating 100 percent of all identified threats.
  • 3. According to ISO principles, risk management should be what in relation to organizational processes?
A) An optional external review
B) An integral part
C) A completely separate department
D) A temporary trial phase
  • 4. What should risk management explicitly address according to the ISO principles?
A) Uncertainty and assumptions
B) Employee satisfaction and retention
C) Marketing strategies and competitor pricing
D) Financial profits and shareholder dividends
  • 5. Which information should be used when following the ISO principles for risk management?
A) Historical data older than ten years
B) The best available information
C) Exclusively internal company records
D) Information provided solely by external consultants
  • 6. How should risk management adapt to changes, based on the ISO principles?
A) Alter its core goals every single week
B) Remain fixed and unchangeable once established
C) Change only during annual corporate restructuring
D) Be dynamic, iterative and responsive to change
  • 7. Who distinguished between 'mild' and 'wild' risk?
A) An anonymous group of actuaries
B) ISO standards committee
C) Standard ISO 31000 authors
D) Benoit Mandelbrot
  • 8. What type of probability distribution does mild risk follow?
A) Fat-tailed distributions
B) Normal or near-normal probability distributions
C) Infinite variance distributions
D) Pareto or power-law distributions
  • 9. Why is mild risk relatively predictable?
A) It is subject to regression to the mean and the law of large numbers.
B) It always results in zero financial loss.
C) It is managed entirely by government regulators.
D) It never changes over time.
  • 10. What type of probability distribution does wild risk follow?
A) Strictly uniform distributions
B) Bell-curve distributions with finite variance
C) Normal or near-normal distributions
D) Fat-tailed distributions, e.g., Pareto or power-law distributions
  • 11. Why is wild risk difficult or impossible to predict?
A) It has a predictable mean that never shifts.
B) It is subject to regression to the tail, rendering the law of large numbers ineffective.
C) It only occurs in completely unregulated markets.
D) It follows standard normal probability curves.
  • 12. What is a common error in risk assessment and management regarding mild and wild risk?
A) To ignore normal distributions entirely in favor of Pareto distributions
B) To use power-law distributions for simple everyday events
C) To underestimate the wildness of risk, assuming it to be mild when it is wild
D) To treat mild risk as if it could destroy the entire organization
  • 13. Which standard outlines the risk management process consisting of several steps?
A) ISO 9001
B) ISO 14001
C) ISO 31000
D) ISO 27001
  • 14. What is the first step in the risk management process according to ISO 31000?
A) Source analysis
B) Problem analysis
C) Establishing the context
D) Risk identification
  • 15. Establishing the context involves observing what?
A) Competitor stock prices exclusively
B) Only the internal financial records
C) The environment of the organization
D) The personal lives of all employees
  • 16. When establishing the context, what needs to be defined regarding stakeholders?
A) Their identity and objectives
B) Their home addresses and phone numbers
C) Their personal credit scores
D) Their voting records in national elections
  • 17. After establishing the context, what is the next step in the risk management process?
A) Execute immediate mitigation strategies
B) Purchase insurance policies
C) Dismiss all project stakeholders
D) Identify potential risks
  • 18. What do risks concern when they are triggered?
A) Guaranteed legal penalties
B) Mandatory structural reorganizations
C) Only catastrophic financial failures
D) Events that cause problems or benefits
  • 19. Where may risk sources be located relative to the system being targeted?
A) Only within legislative bodies
B) Exclusively external to the organization
C) Strictly internal to the system
D) Internal or external to the system
  • 20. Why does the text suggest using mitigation instead of management for risk?
A) Risk deals with factors of decision-making that cannot be managed.
B) Management is a legally trademarked term.
C) Management implies that risks can be completely eliminated.
D) Mitigation sounds more professional in business reports.
  • 21. What are some examples of risk sources provided in the text?
A) Accounting software errors, server crashes, and power outages
B) Government regulations, tax policies, and trade tariffs
C) Stakeholders of a project, employees of a company, or the weather over an airport
D) Stock market crashes, inflation rates, and global pandemics
  • 22. What are risks related to in problem analysis?
A) Identified threats
B) Planned organizational changes
C) Unidentified random occurrences
D) Guaranteed positive outcomes
  • 23. With which entities do threats most importantly exist according to problem analysis?
A) Consultants, auditors, and external contractors
B) Competitors, media outlets, and general publics
C) Suppliers, distributors, and logistics partners
D) Shareholders, customers, and legislative bodies such as the government
  • 24. What risk event is illustrated by stakeholders withdrawing during a project?
A) It forces the government to take over operations
B) It guarantees an immediate increase in profits
C) It may endanger funding of the project
D) It will automatically improve employee morale
  • 25. What risk event is illustrated by confidential information being handled improperly?
A) It will be safely encrypted by external hackers
B) It loses all value to competitors
C) It may be stolen by employees even within a closed network
D) It becomes public property automatically
  • 26. What risk event is illustrated by lightning striking an aircraft during takeoff?
A) It recharges the aircraft's emergency batteries
B) It may make all people on board immediate casualties
C) It improves the navigational equipment
D) It causes a minor delay in flight schedules
  • 27. What factors may the chosen method of identifying risks depend on?
A) Company size, office location, and CEO preference
B) Stock exchange listings and marketing budgets
C) Culture, industry practice, and compliance
D) Daily weather conditions and employee turnover
  • 28. In objectives-based risk identification, what is identified as a risk?
A) Any event that increases the speed of daily operations
B) Any event that may prevent an objective from being achieved
C) Any change in government tax laws
D) Any decision made by executive management
  • 29. In scenario-based risk identification, what is created?
A) Different scenarios
B) Legal compliance contracts
C) Financial balance sheets
D) Employee performance reviews
  • 30. What is the taxonomy in taxonomy-based risk identification?
A) A classification of software bugs
B) A breakdown of possible risk sources
C) A database of historical financial losses
D) A hierarchical list of corporate job titles
  • 31. How are risks revealed in taxonomy-based risk identification?
A) Through answers to a questionnaire compiled from the taxonomy and best practices
B) By reviewing quarterly tax filings
C) By analyzing daily social media mentions
D) Through random audits conducted by external consultants
  • 32. What is common-risk checking?
A) Checking available lists of known risks for application to a particular situation
B) Testing software code for basic syntax errors
C) Comparing company expenses with industry averages
D) Asking employees to guess what might go wrong each morning
  • 33. What does risk charting combine?
A) Profit margins, employee counts, and office sizes
B) Resources at risk, threats, modifying factors, and consequences
C) Marketing strategies, customer feedback, and sales data
D) Tax rates, legal regulations, and government policies
  • 34. What can be created by listing resources, threats, modifying factors, and consequences in a matrix?
A) A binding legal contract for insurance
B) An automated employee payroll system
C) A public relations crisis management plan
D) A variety of approaches for risk identification
  • 35. According to the ISO principles, should risk management be capable of continual improvement?
A) Only during periods of severe financial loss
B) Only when mandated by external regulatory bodies
C) No, it should remain standardized and never be modified
D) Yes, it should be capable of continual improvement and enhancement
  • 36. Which human element must be taken into account according to ISO principles?
A) Employee salary expectations
B) Union membership numbers
C) Personal political beliefs
D) Human factors
  • 37. How should the risk management process be described regarding transparency?
A) Secretive and executive-only
B) Hidden from lower-level employees
C) Confidential to board members
D) Transparent and inclusive
  • 38. What statistical law becomes invalid or ineffective for wild risk?
A) Murphy's law
B) The law of supply and demand
C) The law of large numbers
D) Moore's law
  • 39. What kind of mean or variance does wild risk exhibit?
A) Fixed mean with normal distribution
B) Constant and predictable variance
C) Infinite mean or variance
D) Zero mean and zero variance
  • 40. What term describes the phenomenon where wild risk is subject to movement toward the extreme tails?
A) Regression to the tail
B) Standard deviation shift
C) Regression to the mean
D) Central limit theorem
  • 41. When did opportunities first appear in academic research or management books?
A) 1990s
B) 1970s
C) 2000s
D) 1980s
  • 42. Did the first PMBoK Project Management Body of Knowledge draft of 1987 mention opportunities?
A) Only briefly
B) Yes
C) Implicitly
D) No
  • 43. When were opportunities included in project management literature like PMBoK?
A) Since the 2000s
B) Since the 1990s
C) Since the 1970s
D) Since the 1980s
  • 44. When did opportunities become a significant part of project risk management?
A) 1990s
B) 1980s
C) 2000s
D) 2010s
  • 45. What are positive risks called?
A) Liabilities
B) Vulnerabilities
C) Opportunities
D) Threats
  • 46. In practice, how are risks usually considered?
A) Always beneficial
B) Always neutral
C) Usually positive
D) Usually negative
  • 47. Focusing significantly more on threats than on opportunities can lead to what negative phenomenon?
A) Analysis paralysis
B) Scope creep
C) Groupthink
D) Target fixation
  • 48. In which PMBoK edition was Implement Risk Responses included as an activity in the Monitor and Control process?
A) 3rd Ed.
B) 1st Ed.
C) 6th Ed.
D) 4th Ed.
  • 49. In which PMBoK edition was Implement Risk Responses separated as a distinct process?
A) 4th Ed.
B) 2nd Ed.
C) 1st Ed.
D) 6th Ed.
  • 50. What does the Monitor Risks process involve?
A) Identifying threats
B) Monitoring the implementation
C) Numerical analysis of effects
D) Implementing agreed-upon plans
  • 51. Which of the following is a source of risk mentioned in the text?
A) Guaranteed market profits
B) Consistent decision-making
C) Fixed percentage sizing
D) Political instability
  • 52. Which strategy is typically used to manage threats?
A) Increasing the probability of the threat
B) Ignoring potential consequences
C) Maximizing negative effects
D) Avoiding the threat
  • 53. Since approximately when has risk management appeared in scientific and management literature?
A) The 1900s
B) The 1950s
C) The 1980s
D) The 1920s
  • 54. When did risk management become a formal science?
A) The 1970s
B) The 1920s
C) The 1950s
D) The 2000s
  • 55. What does assessing overall risk often prove to be in practice?
A) Tricky
B) Fully automated
C) Simple and straightforward
D) Irrelevant
  • 56. What represents a unique challenge for risk managers?
A) Market inflation
B) Fixed asset depreciation
C) Opportunity cost
D) Employee turnover
  • 57. What does ideal risk management optimize?
A) Resource usage
B) Office space
C) Advertising budgets
D) Employee headcount
  • 58. Evaluating the severity of consequences is often quite difficult for which type of assets?
A) Inventory in warehouses
B) Cash reserves
C) Intangible assets
D) Buildings and vehicles
  • 59. Who proposed a formula for presenting risks in financial terms in 1970 at IBM?
A) Isaac Newton
B) Bill Gates
C) Albert Einstein
D) Robert Courtney Jr.
  • 60. What does the acronym ALE stand for in the context of the Courtney formula?
A) Annual ledger expense
B) Actual loss evaluation
C) Annualized loss expectancy
D) Assessed liability estimate
  • 61. Which agency type accepted the Courtney formula as the official risk analysis method?
A) US governmental agencies
B) Private tech startups
C) European banking institutions
D) Global health organizations
  • 62. What must be addressed alongside evaluating the severity of consequences for intangible assets?
A) Building architectural designs
B) Asset valuation
C) Office furniture colors
D) Employee holiday schedules
  • 63. How many essential techniques does risk management planning use?
A) Five
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
  • 64. Which technique involves intentionally assuming risks without financial protections?
A) Acceptance
B) Avoidance
C) Transfer
D) Reduction
  • 65. Which approach shields a business from losses by shifting risks to a third party?
A) Avoidance
B) Transfer
C) Reduction
D) Acceptance
  • 66. In the transfer approach, what is frequently given in exchange for shifting risks?
A) An asset
B) A guarantee
C) A fee
D) A penalty
  • 67. What strategy avoids losses by choosing not to participate in high-risk ventures?
A) Acceptance
B) Reduction
C) Transfer
D) Avoidance
  • 68. By using the avoidance strategy, what else does the business lose out on besides avoiding losses?
A) Third-party fees
B) Possibilities
C) Insurance policies
D) Financial assets
  • 69. Which approach lowers risks by implementing strategies like insurance?
A) Avoidance
B) Acceptance
C) Transfer
D) Reduction
  • 70. What does insurance guarantee in the event of losses?
A) Reimbursement
B) Exploitation
C) Acquisition
D) Enhancement
  • 71. What is another meaning of the acronym ACAT used in US Defense industry procurements?
A) Acquisition Category
B) Asset Control and Transfer
C) Accepted Contingency Asset Transfer
D) Avoidance and Control Allocation Technique
  • 72. What are the specific mitigation strategies for opportunities mentioned in the text?
A) Avoid, control, accept, transfer
B) Eliminate, mitigate, insure, budget
C) Accept, transfer, avoid, reduce
D) Exploit, share, enhance, ignore
  • 73. What was a major problem with early software development methodologies?
A) They only delivered software in the final phase
B) They avoided treating high-risk patients
C) They used water sprinklers that caused damage
D) They had prohibitive Halon system costs
  • 74. How may insurance be described more accurately than as a risk transfer?
A) A risk-retention pool
B) A complete hazard eradication tool
C) A pre-event prevention strategy
D) A post-event compensatory mechanism
  • 75. Who remains the person who has been in the accident according to the text's car example?
A) The third-party contractor
B) The insurance agent
C) The policyholder
D) The court judge
  • 76. How do methods of managing risk fall?
A) Strictly into bankruptcy proceedings
B) Into multiple categories
C) Exclusively into risk transfer
D) Into a single mandatory category
  • 77. What type of insurance falls into the category of risk retention?
A) Commercial property insurance
B) Mandatory liability insurance
C) State-mandated health insurance
D) True self-insurance
  • 78. Which of the following is given as an example of a risk that is retained by default?
A) Routine employee turnover
B) Common computer viruses
C) Minor office property damage
D) War
  • 79. Which management level should decide on a risk concerning the image of the organization?
A) IT management
B) Facility management
C) Junior staff
D) Top management
  • 80. What is the second basic step of a risk management plan mentioned in the text?
A) Impact assessment
B) Risk treatment planning
C) Threat assessment
D) Vulnerability assessment
  • 81. What is the third basic step of a risk management plan mentioned in the text?
A) Risk mitigation strategy development
B) Vulnerability assessment
C) Control implementation
D) Impact assessment
  • 82. What is done with risks that are decided to be transferred during implementation?
A) Absorbing them entirely without coverage.
B) Ignoring them completely.
C) Reporting them to external regulators.
D) Purchasing insurance policies.
  • 83. How often should risk analysis results and management plans be updated?
A) On a daily basis without exception.
B) Periodically.
C) Once every decade.
D) Only after a major corporate failure.
  • 84. What do ERM systems usually focus on safeguarding?
A) Short-term profits.
B) Reputation.
C) Physical office buildings.
D) Employee benefit packages.
  • 85. What framework governs the parallel regulatory capital requirements, including for operational risk?
A) Basel I
B) Bretton Woods
C) Basel III
D) Dodd-Frank
  • 86. What do fund managers use to protect their fund value?
A) Standard contract language
B) Limitation of liability clauses
C) Indemnification provisions
D) Various strategies
  • 87. Who defined 'contractual risk management' as a practical, proactive and systematical contracting method?
A) CH2M Hill
B) La Gorce Country Club
C) Samuel Greengard
D) Petri Keskitalo
  • 88. What nationality is the academic Petri Keskitalo?
A) British
B) Swedish
C) Norwegian
D) American
  • 89. In what year was Samuel Greengard's article mentioning two US legal cases published?
A) 2020
B) 2010
C) 2015
D) 2005
  • 90. Which US legal case deals with the risk to a professional advisor who signs an indemnification provision?
A) UDC v. CH2M Hill
B) Witt v. La Gorce Country Club
C) Keskitalo v. UDC
D) Basel v. Greengard
  • 91. Which US legal case deals with the effectiveness of a limitation of liability clause?
A) Basel v. La Gorce
B) UDC v. CH2M Hill
C) Keskitalo v. Greengard
D) Witt v. La Gorce Country Club
  • 92. What did Samuel Greengard recommend using as much as possible to reduce risk?
A) Novel and customized legal terminology
B) Industry-standard contract language
C) Jurisdiction-specific indemnification clauses
D) Verbal agreements between parties
  • 93. Which risk analysis technique requires diagramming software according to the text?
A) Hazard analysis
B) Failure mode and effects analysis
C) Hazard and operability study
D) Fault tree analysis
  • 94. Which tool can be used to perform failure mode and effects analysis (FMEA)?
A) Safety assurance case generators
B) Customs risk management frameworks
C) A spreadsheet program
D) Diagramming software only
  • 95. What method did the FDA introduce through a draft guidance for medical device safety assurance analysis?
A) Fault Tree Analysis
B) Failure Mode and Effects Analysis
C) Hazard and Operability Study
D) Safety Assurance Case
  • 96. For which type of devices is a safety assurance case expected as part of pre-market clearance submission like 510(k)?
A) Only non-implantable administrative devices
B) All types of medical devices without exception
C) Customs inspection equipment
D) Safety critical devices
  • 97. What is a typical characteristic of a risk officer?
A) A healthy skepticism
B) Extreme optimism
C) Total indifference
D) Lack of experience
  • 98. Which of the following is an attribute of each risk in the database?
A) Project profit margin
B) Employee salary
C) Opening date
D) Customer satisfaction score
  • 99. What are megaprojects also sometimes called?
A) Major programs
B) Micro initiatives
C) Standard assignments
D) Minor tasks
  • 100. Which of the following is an example of a megaproject?
A) Residential sheds
B) Major bridges
C) Neighborhood parks
D) Local bicycle racks
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