PES SS 3 Economics (Objective) Mock 3 Exam 2025/2026
  • 1. Points within a Production Possibilities Curve (PPC) indicate ____________.
A) optimum production levels
B) attainable and efficient production levels
C) unattainable production levels
D) attainable but inefficient production levels
  • 2. Which of the following is not a feature of labour?
A) Its efficiency depends on its size
B) It is highly mobile
C) Its reward is wages or salaries
D) It is an active factor
  • 3. The pursuit of private profits is a feature of ______________
A) Socialist economic
B) Command economic
C) Statutory economic
D) Capitalist economic
  • 4. A major feature of the socialist economic system is ______________
A) Determination of Price by market forces
B) Setting of production targets by public authorities
C) Freedom of choice for consumers
D) Private ownership of productive input
  • 5. If the budget on education is $50 m out of an annual national budget of $300 m. The sector of a pie chart representing education is _________.
A) 16.6°
B) 150°
C) 300°
D) 60°
  • 6. Price elasticity of demand is the responsiveness of quantity demanded to a change in _______________.
A) Price of the product
B) Income of the buyer
C) Demand for the product
D) Price of another product
  • 7. When total revenue increases as price falls, the coefficient of price elasticity of demand is  ______________
A) Less then one
B) One
C) Zero
D) Greater then one
  • 8. If the quantity demanded of rice de- creased from 150 bags to 100 bags, the percentage change in quantity demanded is ____________.
A) 66.7%
B) 50.0%
C) 33.3%
D) 30.0%
  • 9. The law of demand will not hold when
A) Normal goods are involved
B) Incomes of consumers increase
C) Rare commodities
D) Size of the production change
  • 10. If the coefficient of price elasticity of supply of a commodity is 0.8, then supply is ____________
A) Perfectly elastic
B) fairly elastic
C) fairly inelastic
D) perfectly inelastic
  • 11. The negative slope of the demand curve is best explained by ____________.
A) consumer's choice
B) diminishing marginal utility
C) diminishing returns to scale
D) increasing returns to scale
  • 12. Minimum price legislation is used to protect the interests of ___________.
A) Government
B) Small scale producers
C) Consumers
D) foreign companies.
  • 13. Which of the following best explains diseconomies of scale? Increase in output causes the _______________.
A) firm to be de- stabilized
B) marginal revenue to fall
C) marginal cost to fall
D) average cost to rise
  • 14. In the short-run, a firm can increase output by ______________
A) increasing the quantity of raw materials
B) changing its organizational structure
C) increasing the size of its machines
D) purchasing more equipment
  • 15. The fixed cost of producing 100 units of a good is $600. If the variable cost is $400. the average total cost of one unit of the good is __________
A) $8
B) $4
C) $10
D) $6
  • 16. Firms in perfect competition break even in the long-run because of __________
A) more firms can enter the industry due to attractive prof its
B) new firms can not enter the market due to copyright laws
C) marginal revenue is greater than marginal cost at all levels
D) profits are not enough to repay traders' loans
  • 17. The government policy that encourages public corporations to operate profitably is ____________.
A) nationalization
B) indigenization
C) commercialization
D) liberalization
  • 18. Separation of ownership from control is more pronounced in a __________
A) constimer co- operative society
B) partnership
C) sole proprietorship
D) joint-stock company
  • 19. Warehousing of goods in the process of distribution is the function of __________.
A) Supermarket
B) Department store
C) Retailers
D) Wholesalers
  • 20. The supply of labour to an occupation will tend to rise when ____________
A) unemployment benefit rises
B) holiday entitlement is cut
C) welfare packages improve
D) there are less monetary benefits
  • 21. Commercial banks settle their inter-bank indebtedness through __________.
A) merchant banks
B) development banks
C) Stock exchange
D) central banks
  • 22. In determining the growth of a country's population, infant mortality is a component of _______________
A) fertility rate.
B) death rate
C) immigration rate.
D) net migration.
  • 23. The low productivity per worker in agriculture experienced in West African countries is due to _____________ .
A) the use of simple traditional implements
B) laziness on the part of farmers
C) the presence of many extension workers
D) the law of increasing returns to scale
  • 24. What will be the likely effect if agriculture is fully mechanized in West Africa?
A) More jobs will be available for farm labourers
B) Governments will no longer be involved in agriculture
C) Less labour will be required on the farm
D) Labour intensive method of farming will still be dominant
  • 25. National income estimates will be understated as a result of the activities of ___________
A) laundry women
B) subsistence farmers
C) musicians
D) housekeepers
  • 26. The function of money that enables credit purchases of goods and services is _____________
A) standard for deferred payment
B) relative scarcity
C) unit of account
D) store of value
  • 27. Supply of money is best defined as the __________.
A) money given out as loans to members of the public
B) amount of currency printed annually by the government.
C) amount of money spent on consumer goods
D) money in circulation plus bank deposits
  • 28. Capital market operators deal in the ____________.
A) supply of and demand for short term loans only
B) supply of and demand for long term loans for investment
C) sales and purchases of treasury bills
D) sales and purchases of capital equipment
  • 29. A commodity with perfectly inelastic demand has the burden of tax borne by __________.
A) the buyers alone
B) both the sellers and the buyers
C) both the buyers and the government
D) the government alone
  • 30. One indicator of the low level of cap ital formation in developing countries is ___________ .
A) high rate of household savings
B) high rate of investment
C) low importation of consumer goods
D) low per capita income
  • 31. Which of the following is a non-renewable natural resources?
A) Rubber
B) Oil palm
C) Cocoa
D) Coal
  • 32. The demand for a factor input as a result of the demand for it output is known as ____________
A) Complementary demand
B) Market demand
C) Derived demand
D) Competitive demand
  • 33. If the government stops subsidy on cocoa production, the supply curve of coca will ____________.
A) Become vertical
B) Shift to the left
C) Remain unchanged
D) Shift to the right
  • 34. The supply of light could be met using a candle, lantern and gas lamp. This is an example of a____________.
A) Composite
B) Complementary supply
C) Joint supply
D) Abnormal supply
  • 35. Industries are sometimes located in areas which are not profitable so as to ____________ .
A) Be about external economies of scale
B) Be able to reap internal economies of scake
C) Encourage rural urban migration
D) Be able to even out development
  • 36. The study of economics is mainly concerned with how to
A) rank individuals' wants given the abundant resources
B) produce all the goods needed by everyone
C) make choice when resources are inadequate
D) satisfy every member of all societies
  • 37. Resources are pooled for the mutual benefit of its members mainly in a
A) private company
B) partnership
C) joint stock company
D) cooperative society
  • 38. The total fixed cost curve is
A) upward sloping
B) horizontal
C) vertical
D) downward sloping
  • 39. A small scale firm located within an industrial estate will enjoy
A) technological economies of scale
B) financial economies of scale
C) government protection and funding
D) external economies of scale
  • 40. When job vacancies are publicized, the government is mainly trying to solve the problem of
A) residual unemployment
B) technological unemployment
C) cyclical unemployment
D) frictional unemployment
  • 41. An indication that there is inflation in a country is that
A) the same amount of money buys lower quantity of goods
B) there is a decrease in the demand for goods and services
C) people prefer to lend than to borrow
D) there are too many goods in circulation
  • 42. An example of government's recurrent expenditure is
A) purchase of new vehicles
B) paying salaries of workers
C) electrification projects in rural areas
D) the cost of building a school
  • 43. A fall in the price of a normal commodity which has elastic demand will result in
A) a fall in demand
B) a decrease in revenue
C) a fall in quantity demanded
D) an increase in revenue
  • 44. The dependency ratio of a country is the
A) total active population who depend on government for survival
B) the children and aged who rely on the active population for support
C) number of children who depend on their parents for survival
D) people who are cared for by their extended families
  • 45. When the demand for a commodity increases while supply remains unchanged, the equilibrium price and quantity will
A) turn negative
B) remain constant
C) increase
D) decrease
  • 46. Consumers have access to a variety of goods through the activities of the
A) advertising agencies
B) wholesalers
C) retailers
D) mass media
  • 47. The Malthusian theory of population is best illustrated when
A) both population and food supply increase at the same rate
B) food supply increases much faster than population growth
C) population increases much faster than food supply
D) the size of the population and available resources are equal
  • 48. The Net National Product (NNP) of a country is $50m while the depreciation allowance is $10m. The Gross National Product (GNP) is
A) $60m
B) $40m
C) $30m
D) $500m
  • 49. The rate of growth of population is
A) the difference between birth rate and death rate
B) initial population plus number of births and net migration
C) birth rate less death rate plus net migration
D) the number of immigrants plus number of births
  • 50. One of the factor that may not promote industrial development is
A) local firms entering into partnerships with foreign firms
B) setting up industrial estates with modern amenities
C) granting capital to firms at reasonable interest rates
D) granting old firms tax exemptions
  • 51. Many workers are employed in the agricultural sector of developing countries because
A) wages in the sector is high
B) labour intensive method is mostly adopted
C) they practice mechanized system of farming
D) abnormal profits are made
  • 52. Taxes levied on goods and services by government are called
A) poll taxes
B) direct taxes
C) corporate taxes
D) indirect taxes
  • 53. The most liquid asset among the following is
A) cash
B) cheque
C) bonds
D) shares
  • 54. Petrol and Kerosene are jointly obtained from crude oil. If the supply of petrol increases, the
A) supply of kerosene will fall
B) supply of kerosene will rise
C) cost of crude oil production has increased
D) supply of kerosene will remain unchanged
  • 55. The fixing of maximum prices by government is mainly on
A) selected essential goods
B) inferior goods
C) imported capital goods
D) luxury goods
  • 56. The marks obtained by 9 students in a class test are recorded below: 9, 8, 7, 5,7, 6, 8, 9 and 7. What is the median mark?
A) 7
B) 7.5
C) 8.5
D) 8
  • 57. Tariffs, quotas and embargoes are examples of
A) monetary policies
B) foreign exchange policies
C) trade restriction policies
D) fiscal policies
  • 58. A country is described as developing if
A) the income per head is low
B) the population is decreasing
C) there is low labour supply
D) the contribution of tertiary sector to national income is high
  • 59. Which of the following is not a problem facing Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS)?
A) Production of the same commodities
B) Inadequate supply of labour
C) Poor transportation and communication
D) Language barriers
  • 60. An increase in a country's production capacity usually leads to economic
A) stability
B) growth
C) efficiency
D) development
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