CLJ1
  • 1. During a cyber-enabled drug trafficking case, PDEA requests assistance from the NBI. What is the best rationale for involving the NBI?
A) PDEA is limited to drug rehabilitation programs.
B) BI possesses specialized forensic and cyber-investigation capability needed for transnational cases.
C) NBI has exclusive power over cybercrime investigations.
D) PNP is constitutionally barred from drug enforcement
  • 2. Which situation illustrates the preventive role of the PNP most accurately?
A) Arresting suspects after a robbery
B) Establishing community patrol visibility to deter crime.
C) Prosecuting accused individuals.
D) Conducting custodial interrogation.
  • 3. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support?
A) Inter-agency collaboration and operational efficiency
B) Absolute independence of agencies
C) Jurisdictional supremacy
D) Non-delegation of powers
  • 4. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support? A commercial complex failed to comply with fire code requirements. A fire later occurs, causing multiple casualties. From the lens of criminal justice, which evaluative issue arises against the BFP?
A) Failure in community policing
B) Procedural delay in criminal prosecution
C) Negligence in preventive regulatory enforcement
D) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
  • 5. Which distinction most clearly separates the mandates of the PNP and the NBI?
A) PNP manages prosecutions, while NBI supervises corrections.
B) PNP handles general law enforcement, while NBI focuses on technical, complex, and high-profile investigations.
C) PNP enforces all laws nationwide, while NBI investigates only corruption cases.
D) PNP investigates graft, while NBI handles only barangay crimes.
  • 6. Why is chain of custody crucial in PNP-handled drug cases?
A) It ensures that evidence integrity is preserved for admissibility in court.
B) It applies only in NBI laboratories, not in PNP operations.
C) It allows evidence to be freely transferred between agencies.
D) It gives judges discretion to disregard rules of evidence.
  • 7. After a suspicious fire, the BFP submits a technical report indicating arson. How does this role affect criminal proceedings?
A) It grants the BFP jurisdiction over sentencing.
B) It allows BFP to automatically prosecute the offender.
C) It provides admissible forensic evidence supporting prosecution.
D) It replaces the need for police investigation
  • 8. Which case scenario properly falls under the NBI’s jurisdiction rather than the PNP’s?
A) Traffic violations along EDSA
B) Theft in a barangay sari-sari store
C) Syndicated estafa involving high-ranking officials and foreign entities
D) Barangay disturbance between neighbors
  • 9. A PNP-led buy-bust operation is dismissed in court because it was conducted without PDEA coordination. What principle is compromised?
A) Judicial independence
B) Due process and proper jurisdictional mandate
C) Proportionality in sentencing
D) Separation of powers
  • 10. Which BFP function most directly reflects its preventive contribution to criminal justice?
A) Prohibiting building permits
B) Enforcing fire safety codes and conducting inspections
C) Investigating graft and corruption cases
D) Arresting suspects in arson cases
  • 11. Which evaluative advantage does the PNP hold compared to NBI in the grassroots application of criminal justice?
A) Exclusive power over anti-drug operations
B) Mandate over international law enforcement
C) Broader barangay presence and patrol-based deterrence
D) Superior cyber-investigation facilities
  • 12. A prosecutor notes conflicting complaints separately filed by PNP and NBI in the same case. Which evaluative issue arises?
A) Redundancy and lack of inter-agency coordination
B) Collaborative governance
C) Separation of powers
D) Chain of custody
  • 13. During an inquest, it was found that PNP did not document the evidence properly. What is the likely legal impact?
A) BFP conducts secondary investigation.
B) The suspect is automatically acquitted.
C) PDEA assumes jurisdiction.
D) Evidence may be excluded, weakening prosecution.
  • 14. In cases of suspected arson, why is BFP’s role essential even after fire suppression?
A) It provides legal representation for suspects.
B) It prevents further police intervention.
C) It adjudicates liability of building owners.
D) It conducts forensic analysis necessary for criminal liability determination.
  • 15. Which agency has the authority to deputize other law enforcement bodies for anti-drug operations?
A) PDEA
B) BFP
C) DOJ
D) NBI
  • 16. What principle is promoted when PNP secures the perimeter, NBI handles cyber evidence, and PDEA leads the raid in a drug bust?
A) Procedural redundancy
B) Overstepping of authority
C) Collaborative governance and complementarity of mandates
D) Unity of command
  • 17. What is the primary evaluative reason that PNP is often called the “backbone” of law enforcement in the criminal justice system?
A) They supervise prison corrections.
B) They provide legal defense for the accused.
C) They control the courts.
D) Their widespread presence allows immediate response and preventive policing.
  • 18. Which NBI function most strengthens its credibility in high-profile investigations?
A) Fire suppression capability
B) Forensic and technical divisions specializing in advanced evidence analysis
C) Nationwide precinct deployment
D) Barangay patrol assistance
  • 19. A large-scale anti-drug operation fails because PDEA and PNP conducted overlapping operations separately. Which consequence arises?
A) Media coverage is reduced.
B) Automatic conviction of suspects.
C) Evidence handling and prosecution are compromised.
D) BFP assumes jurisdiction.
  • 20. Which statement best evaluates BFP’s link to the “community” pillar of justice?
A) Its enforcement of fire codes prevents disasters that could escalate into criminal negligence affecting communities.
B) It supervises barangay elections.
C) It eliminates LGU functions during calamities.
D) It prosecutes arsonists directly on behalf of barangays
  • 21. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint because the arrest was illegal, and no valid warrantless arrest exception applied. What is being safeguarded?
A) Efficiency of case disposal
B) Legality of arrest and personal liberty
C) Prosecutorial discretion
D) Integrity of judicial process
  • 22. What best explains why prosecutors cannot delegate the determination of probable cause to the police?
A) Courts do not trust police testimony
B) Delegation violates separation of powers
C) Probable cause is a quasi-judicial function reserved for prosecutors
D) Police officers lack training in evidence handling
  • 23. In an inquest proceeding, why is it important that the prosecutor evaluates whether the arrest falls under Rule 113, Sec. 5 (warrantless arrests)?
A) To avoid filing cases based on illegal arrests, which could later be quashed
B) To reduce the workload of judges
C) To protect prosecutors from liability
D) To ensure cases are filed quickly
  • 24. If a prosecutor files an information despite weak evidence, what is the most likely impact on the justice system?
A) Courts will automatically convict
B) It expedites justice delivery
C) It strengthens police credibility
D) It undermines the rights of the accused and clogs court dockets
  • 25. In preliminary investigations, why is it necessary to require counter-affidavits from the respondents?
A) To shift responsibility to defense counsel
B) To shorten the prosecutor’s workload
C) To delay filing of cases until evidence is complete
D) To comply with due process and ensure a balanced evaluation of evidence
  • 26. If during an inquest, evidence clearly shows a person was caught in flagrante delicto, what should the prosecutor do?
A) File the appropriate information in court without preliminary investigation
B) Wait for the suspect’s motion for bail
C) Release the suspect immediately
D) Refer the case to the DOJ Secretary
  • 27. A prosecutor finds inconsistencies in the complainant’s affidavit but strong corroborating physical evidence exists. How should this be evaluated?
A) Defer to the judge for determination
B) Require additional police affidavits only
C) Still establish probable cause based on the totality of evidenc
D) Dismiss the case outright
  • 28. What principle justifies the prosecutor’s authority to decide whether to file a case in court?
A) Judicial discretion
B) Police authority in law enforcement
C) Prosecutorial independence
D) Legislative intent
  • 29. Which scenario reflects the proper exercise of prosecutorial discretion in preliminary investigation?
A) Leaving evidence evaluation to the judge
B) Automatically endorsing all complaints to the DOJ Secretary
C) Filing a case despite no prima facie evidence to avoid criticism
D) Dismissing a complaint due to insufficient probable cause
  • 30. If a prosecutor files a case based on inadmissible evidence (illegally obtained), what is the likely consequence in court?
A) Mistrial
B) Conviction due to presumption of regularity
C) Acquittal or dismissal due to exclusionary rule
D) Automatic appeal to DOJ
  • 31. Why is the prosecutor considered the 'gatekeeper' of the courts in criminal proceedings?
A) They decide on guilt or innocence
B) They determine which cases merit judicial trial through preliminary investigation
C) They approve police promotions
D) They supervise correctional facilities
  • 32. A suspect is arrested without a warrant for murder but the prosecutor finds no probable cause during inquest. What should the prosecutor do?
A) File the case anyway and let the court decide
B) Order the suspect’s immediate release
C) Endorse the case to the Ombudsman
D) Suspend proceedings until further evidence is gathered
  • 33. In conducting preliminary investigation, why must prosecutors avoid relying solely on police recommendations?
A) Courts demand police neutrality
B) The Constitution requires independent and impartial evaluation of evidence
C) DOJ circulars prohibit it
D) Police may exaggerate findings
  • 34. Which of the following best evaluates the role of the prosecutor in protecting the accused’s right to liberty?
A) By dismissing all weak cases regardless of evidence
B) By conducting speedy trials
C) By ensuring probable cause exists before a person is haled into court
D) By automatically recommending bail
  • 35. What is the critical evaluative function of inquest proceedings compared to preliminary investigation?
A) Inquest determines validity of warrantless arrests, while preliminary
B) Inquest is optional, while preliminary investigation is mandatory
C) Both serve only as police procedures
D) Inquest is conducted only after conviction
  • 36. When prosecutors conduct inquest proceedings immediately after arrest, what constitutional principle is primarily observed?
A) Right against double jeopardy
B) Right to equal protection
C) Right to speedy disposition of cases
D) Right to free counsel
  • 37. A prosecutor ignores an accused’s request to submit a counter-affidavit in preliminary investigation. What is the most probable legal outcome?
A) Evidence will be considered waived
B) The case will automatically be dismissed
C) Accused may question the prosecutor’s action via certiorari for denial of due process
D) The case proceeds unaffected
  • 38. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint after finding that the evidence presented is based only on hearsay affidavits. Which principle is the prosecutor upholding?
A) Adversarial principle
B) Res judicata
C) Inquisitorial principle
D) Probable cause requirement
  • 39. During a preliminary investigation, the prosecutor evaluates the sufficiency of evidence. What is the correct evaluative standard to determine probable cause?
A) Substantial evidence
B) Such evidence as would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe a crime was committed
C) Mere suspicion or belief
D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 40. If a prosecutor conducts an inquest proceeding without affording the arrested person the chance to explain or submit evidence, which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to equal protection of the laws
B) Right to due process
C) Right against double jeopardy
D) Right to bail
  • 41. Which of the following best describes the role of the Supreme Court in the Philippine judicial hierarchy?
A) It directly hears all cases filed by the public without restriction
B) It exercises appellate jurisdiction and has the power of judicial review over all lower courts.
C) It primarily serves as a trial court for criminal cases.
D) It only hears cases endorsed by the President.
  • 42. Why is it important to maintain a hierarchy of courts in the Philippine judicial system?
A) To allow parties to skip lower courts for faster results.
B) To ensure orderly administration of justice and prevent forum shopping.
C) To limit the number of lawyers who can appear in trial courts.
D) To expand the power of barangay courts.
  • 43. Which trial court has original jurisdiction over cases of illegal possession of dangerous drugs involving small quantities?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
C) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 44. What is the primary evaluative distinction between the Sandiganbayan and the Regional Trial Courts?
A) RTCs only handle barangay-level disputes, while Sandiganbayan hears all national cases.
B) Sandiganbayan handles cases involving public officials, while RTCs handle general criminal and civil cases.
C) Both A and C
D) Both share identical jurisdictions.
  • 45. The doctrine of hierarchy of courts requires what procedural rule when filing petitions for extraordinary writs?
A) Parties are free to choose any court.
B) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
C) Petitions should generally be filed in the lowest court with concurrent jurisdiction.
D) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
  • 46. Which of the following cases falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
A) Family disputes involving annulment.
B) Graft and corruption by a provincial governor
C) Estafa committed by a private individual.
D) Cybercrime by a private company.
  • 47. Which principle explains why the Supreme Court cannot be burdened with all trial-level cases?
A) Principle of Judicial Economy
B) Principle of Judicial Activism
C) Principle of Judicial Hierarchy
D) Principle of Collegiality
  • 48. Which trial court has jurisdiction over civil cases where the value of the property does not exceed ₱300,000 (outside Metro Manila)?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Municipal Trial Court
  • 49. The Court of Appeals primarily serves what function in the hierarchy of courts?
A) It serves as the first-level trial court for minor offenses.
B) It directly tries barangay disputes.
C) It enforces laws passed by Congress.
D) It acts as an appellate court reviewing decisions of RTCs and quasi-judicial agencies.
  • 50. A public official charged with plunder must be tried before which court?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Municipal Trial Court
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Court of Appeals
  • 51. Why are Municipal Trial Courts considered the “first level courts”?
A) They have the same power as the Supreme Court.
B) They handle the heaviest caseload in the system.
C) They try less serious offenses and small claims to decongest higher courts.
D) They serve as administrative bodies only.
  • 52. Which case would properly fall within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court?
A) Violation of traffic rules
B) Murder
C) Barangay conciliation disputes
D) Theft involving ₱5,000
  • 53. Which doctrine guides the Supreme Court in refusing to act on petitions directly filed before it without first exhausting lower remedies?
A) Doctrine of Judicial Review
B) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
C) Doctrine of Judicial Restraint
D) Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
  • 54. Why is the Sandiganbayan considered a special court within the hierarchy?
A) Because it hears all appeals from the RTC.
B) Because it handles marriage annulments.
C) Because it focuses on crimes involving graft and corruption by public officials.
D) Because it handles electoral disputes.
  • 55. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) When there are novel constitutional issues of transcendental importance.
B) When barangay officials decline to mediate.
C) When an MTC judge is absent.
D) When the RTC is unavailable due to vacancy.
  • 56. Which is true of the relationship between the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals?
A) The Supreme Court can only review CA cases involving traffic violations.
B) The Court of Appeals acts as an intermediate appellate body whose decisions are reviewable by the Supreme Court.
C) The Court of Appeals has no appellate power at all.
D) The Supreme Court directly supervises case raffling in the Court of Appeals.
  • 57. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates a violation of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) Elevating a CA decision to the Supreme Court for review.
B) Filing a small claims case in an MTC.
C) Filing a petition for certiorari directly with the Supreme Court despite available remedies in the Court of Appeals.
D) Appealing an RTC decision to the Court of Appeals.
  • 58. The jurisdiction of Shari’a courts is limited to what type of cases?
A) All cases in Mindanao
B) Civil cases relating to marriage, divorce, and inheritance among Muslims
C) Criminal cases involving Muslims
D) All graft cases committed in Muslim areas
  • 59. Which court has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all decisions of the Municipal Trial Courts?
A) Supreme Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Regional Trial Court
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 60. A case of homicide committed in Quezon City should first be filed before which court?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Municipal Trial Court
  • 61. Which principle justifies BJMP’s responsibility to improve conditions despite limited resources?
A) Expediency
B) Human rights protection
C) Administrative convenience
D) Retribution
  • 62. Which evaluative distinction best explains why BJMP facilities are considered temporary compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Jurisdictional funding
B) Nature of detainees’ custody
C) Size of facilities
D) Geographic scope
  • 63. Why is the transfer of inmates from BJMP to BuCor custody upon final conviction important?
A) To reduce congestion only
B) To delay enforcement of judgment
C) To assign custody to the proper agency
D) To punish detainees further
  • 64. Which role of BuCor most directly reflects its rehabilitative mandate under RA 10575?
A) Maintaining jails
B) Crime investigation
C) Issuing warrants
D) Reformation programs
  • 65. If BJMP fails to provide humane conditions for detainees, what constitutional right is most compromised?
A) Right to bail
B) Right to speedy trial
C) Right against cruel punishment
D) Right to property
  • 66. A convict sentenced to reclusion perpetua is mistakenly kept under BJMP custody. What evaluative failure occurred?
A) Prosecutorial lapse
B) Administrative error
C) Jurisdictional custody
D) Judicial oversight
  • 67. The BuCor uses classification systems for inmates (minimum, medium, maximum security). This serves primarily to:
A) Punish more severely
B) Reduce costs
C) Delay reintegration
D) Manage risks and rehabilitation
  • 68. Which evaluative factor best explains why BJMP is under DILG while BuCor is under DOJ?
A) Funding allocation
B) Political mandate
C) Geographic scope
D) Distinction between local jails and national prisons
  • 69. Which of the following situations demonstrates a gap in BJMP’s mandate compared to BuCor?
A) Administrative budgeting
B) Handling warrants
C) Lack of rehabilitation for long-term detainees
D) Managing short-term detainees
  • 70. What is the significance of BuCor’s reformation programs to national security?
A) They provide employment to jail staff
B) They reduce recidivism
C) They replace judicial proceedings
D) They reduce jail congestion
  • 71. In terms of the five pillars of the criminal justice system, BJMP and BuCor belong to which pillar?
A) Judiciary
B) Corrections
C) Prosecution
D) Law enforcement
  • 72. Which evaluative issue is most commonly associated with BJMP facilities compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Overcrowding
B) National classification
C) Political interference
D) Excessive budgets
  • 73. A BJMP official implements livelihood training for detainees. This function demonstrates which broader role?
A) Judicial oversight
B) Humanitarian function of jails
C) Sentencing
D) Prosecutorial support
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole works closely with BuCor because:
A) Courts automatically release parolees
B) Prosecutors direct parole decisions
C) BJMP manages parolee monitoring
D) Prisoners eligible for release are under BuCor custody
  • 75. Why is inter-agency coordination between BJMP and BuCor critical after final judgment?
A) To delay transfer of convicts
B) To punish detainees twice
C) To increase BJMP budget
D) To ensure proper transfer of custody
  • 76. Which principle of penology is most at stake when BuCor fails to implement effective rehabilitation programs?
A) Retribution
B) Isolation
C) Deterrence
D) Reformation
  • 77. Which of the following demonstrates BJMP’s role in ensuring access to justice?
A) Safeguarding detainees’ right to attend trial
B) Issuing arrest warrants
C) Drafting laws
D) Conducting criminal investigations
  • 78. The modernization of BuCor under RA 10575 emphasized which evaluative reform?
A) Political independence
B) Privatization
C) Expansion of local jails
D) Professionalization and rehabilitation
  • 79. If BuCor fails to classify prisoners properly, what risk increases?
A) Judicial appeals
B) Faster reintegration
C) Violence and security breaches
D) Higher operational costs
  • 80. Which of the following represents a shared challenge for both BJMP and BuCor?
A) Overcrowding
B) Lack of judicial authority
C) Duplication of parole power
D) Geographic limitation
  • 81. Which evaluative conclusion best explains the complementary role of BJMP and BuCor in corrections?
A) They divide custody between temporary detention and long-term imprisonment
B) They both prosecute criminal cases
C) They both issue arrest warrants
D) They both adjudicate disputes
  • 82. Which demonstrates BuCor’s reintegration role after release of prisoners?
A) Managing trial schedules
B) Post-release monitoring and livelihood suppor
C) Issuing criminal warrants
D) Supervising prosecutors
  • 83. A detainee sentenced to 2 years imprisonment remains under BJMP custody. Why is this correct?
A) DOJ lacks authority
B) BJMP handles sentences below 3 years
C) Court orders override rules
D) BuCor refuses custody
  • 84. What is the evaluative function of BuCor’s therapeutic community programs?
A) Facilitate rehabilitation and reintegration
B) Increase judicial backlog
C) Reduce state expenses
D) Ensure longer detention
  • 85. Which rationale explains why BJMP cannot impose retributive punishment on detainees?
A) Courts control BJMP
B) BJMP lacks resources
C) Detainees are presumed innocent
D) BuCor has exclusive authority
  • 86. Which of the following best demonstrates the evaluative function of the doctrine of judicial hierarchy?
A) It prevents overburdening of higher courts by routing cases first to proper trial
B) It allows parties to choose the fastest court.
C) It abolishes trial courts in favor of the Supreme Court.
D) It ensures that all courts have equal power.
  • 87. Why does the Constitution vest the Supreme Court with both original and appellate jurisdiction?
A) To directly handle barangay disputes.
B) To reduce the power of trial courts.
C) To ensure flexibility in resolving cases of national significance.
D) To avoid the Court of Appeals’ role.
  • 88. The principle that “jurisdiction is conferred by law” means what in practice?
A) Jurisdiction is strictly defined by statute and cannot be assumed at will
B) Jurisdiction can be granted by barangay officials.
C) Jurisdiction of a court depends only on the agreement of the parties
D) Courts may expand their own jurisdiction when necessary.
  • 89. Which of the following demonstrates proper application of jurisdictional rules?
A) A small claims case exceeding ₱1,000,000 filed before the MTC.
B) A graft case against a mayor filed before the MTC.
C) An annulment case filed before the Sandiganbayan.
D) A murder case filed before the RTC.
  • 90. Which evaluative statement best explains the function of trial courts in the criminal justice system?
A) They exercise only appellate functions.
B) They determine guilt or innocence based on evidence presented
C) They act as advisory bodies to the President.
D) They create laws for implementation.
  • 91. Which of the following reflects the PDEA’s strategic role under RA 9165?
A) Implementing the National Anti-Drug Plan of Action and leading drug enforcement policy
B) Managing correctional rehabilitation centers
C) Supervising barangay justice systems
D) Handling cybercrimes independently
  • 92. Why is inter-agency training between PNP, NBI, BFP, and PDEA essential?
A) To create uniform operational knowledge and enhance coordination in joint operations
B) To reduce agency manpower
C) To replace judicial oversight
D) To centralize all powers in one body
  • 93. When PNP evidence is consistently dismissed in court, what evaluative issue should be reviewed?
A) Influence of the suspects
B) Possible recurring lapses in evidence handling and procedure
C) Judges’ impartiality
D) Lack of PDEA authority
  • 94. Why is law enforcement considered the “first pillar” of the Philippine criminal justice system?
A) It determines guilt or innocence.
B) It enforces the law, gathers evidence, and initiates case build-up for prosecution.
C) It rehabilitates offenders.
D) It supervises post-conviction reintegration.
  • 95. What evaluative failure occurs when BFP neglects fire safety inspections, resulting in deaths from a preventable fire?
A) Failure of preventive function leading to potential criminal negligence
B) Procedural redundancy
C) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
D) Failure in custodial investigation
  • 96. What evaluative factor distinguishes preliminary investigation from judicial trial?
A) Preliminary investigation is inquisitorial, focusing only on existence of probable cause
B) Preliminary investigation requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Judicial trial is conducted only by prosecutors
D) Preliminary investigation already decides guilt or innocence
  • 97. Why is DOJ supervision over prosecutors important in preliminary investigation?
A) It relieves prosecutors of accountability
B) It centralizes police power in the DOJ
C) It ensures national consistency and prevents abuse of discretion
D) It allows judges to review every complaint
  • 98. Which illustrates prosecutorial abuse of discretion during inquest?
A) Filing a case without verifying legality of arrest
B) Referring the case to higher prosecutors for review
C) Dismissing a case due to absence of probable cause
D) Ordering release due to lack of evidence
  • 99. What is the practical effect of a prosecutor’s resolution finding no probable cause?
A) Case is automatically filed in court
B) Police may refile the same case without additional evidence
C) Court may still conduct trial
D) Respondent cannot be charged unless reversed on review
  • 100. Which best explains the importance of prosecutors in the administration of justice?
A) They balance the rights of the State to prosecute and the rights of the accused to due process
B) They ensure all police cases proceed to trial
C) They lead all criminal investigations
D) They determine penalties imposed by courts
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