CLJ1
  • 1. During a cyber-enabled drug trafficking case, PDEA requests assistance from the NBI. What is the best rationale for involving the NBI?
A) PDEA is limited to drug rehabilitation programs.
B) PNP is constitutionally barred from drug enforcement
C) NBI has exclusive power over cybercrime investigations.
D) BI possesses specialized forensic and cyber-investigation capability needed for transnational cases.
  • 2. Which situation illustrates the preventive role of the PNP most accurately?
A) Prosecuting accused individuals.
B) Conducting custodial interrogation.
C) Establishing community patrol visibility to deter crime.
D) Arresting suspects after a robbery
  • 3. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support?
A) Jurisdictional supremacy
B) Inter-agency collaboration and operational efficiency
C) Absolute independence of agencies
D) Non-delegation of powers
  • 4. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support? A commercial complex failed to comply with fire code requirements. A fire later occurs, causing multiple casualties. From the lens of criminal justice, which evaluative issue arises against the BFP?
A) Negligence in preventive regulatory enforcement
B) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
C) Procedural delay in criminal prosecution
D) Failure in community policing
  • 5. Which distinction most clearly separates the mandates of the PNP and the NBI?
A) PNP handles general law enforcement, while NBI focuses on technical, complex, and high-profile investigations.
B) PNP investigates graft, while NBI handles only barangay crimes.
C) PNP enforces all laws nationwide, while NBI investigates only corruption cases.
D) PNP manages prosecutions, while NBI supervises corrections.
  • 6. Why is chain of custody crucial in PNP-handled drug cases?
A) It gives judges discretion to disregard rules of evidence.
B) It applies only in NBI laboratories, not in PNP operations.
C) It allows evidence to be freely transferred between agencies.
D) It ensures that evidence integrity is preserved for admissibility in court.
  • 7. After a suspicious fire, the BFP submits a technical report indicating arson. How does this role affect criminal proceedings?
A) It grants the BFP jurisdiction over sentencing.
B) It replaces the need for police investigation
C) It provides admissible forensic evidence supporting prosecution.
D) It allows BFP to automatically prosecute the offender.
  • 8. Which case scenario properly falls under the NBI’s jurisdiction rather than the PNP’s?
A) Traffic violations along EDSA
B) Syndicated estafa involving high-ranking officials and foreign entities
C) Theft in a barangay sari-sari store
D) Barangay disturbance between neighbors
  • 9. A PNP-led buy-bust operation is dismissed in court because it was conducted without PDEA coordination. What principle is compromised?
A) Separation of powers
B) Due process and proper jurisdictional mandate
C) Judicial independence
D) Proportionality in sentencing
  • 10. Which BFP function most directly reflects its preventive contribution to criminal justice?
A) Arresting suspects in arson cases
B) Enforcing fire safety codes and conducting inspections
C) Investigating graft and corruption cases
D) Prohibiting building permits
  • 11. Which evaluative advantage does the PNP hold compared to NBI in the grassroots application of criminal justice?
A) Superior cyber-investigation facilities
B) Broader barangay presence and patrol-based deterrence
C) Mandate over international law enforcement
D) Exclusive power over anti-drug operations
  • 12. A prosecutor notes conflicting complaints separately filed by PNP and NBI in the same case. Which evaluative issue arises?
A) Separation of powers
B) Redundancy and lack of inter-agency coordination
C) Chain of custody
D) Collaborative governance
  • 13. During an inquest, it was found that PNP did not document the evidence properly. What is the likely legal impact?
A) BFP conducts secondary investigation.
B) The suspect is automatically acquitted.
C) PDEA assumes jurisdiction.
D) Evidence may be excluded, weakening prosecution.
  • 14. In cases of suspected arson, why is BFP’s role essential even after fire suppression?
A) It provides legal representation for suspects.
B) It prevents further police intervention.
C) It conducts forensic analysis necessary for criminal liability determination.
D) It adjudicates liability of building owners.
  • 15. Which agency has the authority to deputize other law enforcement bodies for anti-drug operations?
A) NBI
B) DOJ
C) BFP
D) PDEA
  • 16. What principle is promoted when PNP secures the perimeter, NBI handles cyber evidence, and PDEA leads the raid in a drug bust?
A) Unity of command
B) Procedural redundancy
C) Collaborative governance and complementarity of mandates
D) Overstepping of authority
  • 17. What is the primary evaluative reason that PNP is often called the “backbone” of law enforcement in the criminal justice system?
A) Their widespread presence allows immediate response and preventive policing.
B) They supervise prison corrections.
C) They provide legal defense for the accused.
D) They control the courts.
  • 18. Which NBI function most strengthens its credibility in high-profile investigations?
A) Barangay patrol assistance
B) Nationwide precinct deployment
C) Fire suppression capability
D) Forensic and technical divisions specializing in advanced evidence analysis
  • 19. A large-scale anti-drug operation fails because PDEA and PNP conducted overlapping operations separately. Which consequence arises?
A) Automatic conviction of suspects.
B) Media coverage is reduced.
C) BFP assumes jurisdiction.
D) Evidence handling and prosecution are compromised.
  • 20. Which statement best evaluates BFP’s link to the “community” pillar of justice?
A) It eliminates LGU functions during calamities.
B) It prosecutes arsonists directly on behalf of barangays
C) Its enforcement of fire codes prevents disasters that could escalate into criminal negligence affecting communities.
D) It supervises barangay elections.
  • 21. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint because the arrest was illegal, and no valid warrantless arrest exception applied. What is being safeguarded?
A) Prosecutorial discretion
B) Integrity of judicial process
C) Efficiency of case disposal
D) Legality of arrest and personal liberty
  • 22. What best explains why prosecutors cannot delegate the determination of probable cause to the police?
A) Delegation violates separation of powers
B) Probable cause is a quasi-judicial function reserved for prosecutors
C) Police officers lack training in evidence handling
D) Courts do not trust police testimony
  • 23. In an inquest proceeding, why is it important that the prosecutor evaluates whether the arrest falls under Rule 113, Sec. 5 (warrantless arrests)?
A) To ensure cases are filed quickly
B) To reduce the workload of judges
C) To avoid filing cases based on illegal arrests, which could later be quashed
D) To protect prosecutors from liability
  • 24. If a prosecutor files an information despite weak evidence, what is the most likely impact on the justice system?
A) Courts will automatically convict
B) It strengthens police credibility
C) It undermines the rights of the accused and clogs court dockets
D) It expedites justice delivery
  • 25. In preliminary investigations, why is it necessary to require counter-affidavits from the respondents?
A) To delay filing of cases until evidence is complete
B) To comply with due process and ensure a balanced evaluation of evidence
C) To shorten the prosecutor’s workload
D) To shift responsibility to defense counsel
  • 26. If during an inquest, evidence clearly shows a person was caught in flagrante delicto, what should the prosecutor do?
A) Release the suspect immediately
B) Refer the case to the DOJ Secretary
C) Wait for the suspect’s motion for bail
D) File the appropriate information in court without preliminary investigation
  • 27. A prosecutor finds inconsistencies in the complainant’s affidavit but strong corroborating physical evidence exists. How should this be evaluated?
A) Require additional police affidavits only
B) Defer to the judge for determination
C) Dismiss the case outright
D) Still establish probable cause based on the totality of evidenc
  • 28. What principle justifies the prosecutor’s authority to decide whether to file a case in court?
A) Police authority in law enforcement
B) Judicial discretion
C) Prosecutorial independence
D) Legislative intent
  • 29. Which scenario reflects the proper exercise of prosecutorial discretion in preliminary investigation?
A) Leaving evidence evaluation to the judge
B) Filing a case despite no prima facie evidence to avoid criticism
C) Automatically endorsing all complaints to the DOJ Secretary
D) Dismissing a complaint due to insufficient probable cause
  • 30. If a prosecutor files a case based on inadmissible evidence (illegally obtained), what is the likely consequence in court?
A) Mistrial
B) Acquittal or dismissal due to exclusionary rule
C) Conviction due to presumption of regularity
D) Automatic appeal to DOJ
  • 31. Why is the prosecutor considered the 'gatekeeper' of the courts in criminal proceedings?
A) They approve police promotions
B) They decide on guilt or innocence
C) They supervise correctional facilities
D) They determine which cases merit judicial trial through preliminary investigation
  • 32. A suspect is arrested without a warrant for murder but the prosecutor finds no probable cause during inquest. What should the prosecutor do?
A) Order the suspect’s immediate release
B) File the case anyway and let the court decide
C) Endorse the case to the Ombudsman
D) Suspend proceedings until further evidence is gathered
  • 33. In conducting preliminary investigation, why must prosecutors avoid relying solely on police recommendations?
A) Police may exaggerate findings
B) DOJ circulars prohibit it
C) Courts demand police neutrality
D) The Constitution requires independent and impartial evaluation of evidence
  • 34. Which of the following best evaluates the role of the prosecutor in protecting the accused’s right to liberty?
A) By conducting speedy trials
B) By automatically recommending bail
C) By dismissing all weak cases regardless of evidence
D) By ensuring probable cause exists before a person is haled into court
  • 35. What is the critical evaluative function of inquest proceedings compared to preliminary investigation?
A) Inquest is conducted only after conviction
B) Inquest determines validity of warrantless arrests, while preliminary
C) Both serve only as police procedures
D) Inquest is optional, while preliminary investigation is mandatory
  • 36. When prosecutors conduct inquest proceedings immediately after arrest, what constitutional principle is primarily observed?
A) Right to equal protection
B) Right to free counsel
C) Right against double jeopardy
D) Right to speedy disposition of cases
  • 37. A prosecutor ignores an accused’s request to submit a counter-affidavit in preliminary investigation. What is the most probable legal outcome?
A) Evidence will be considered waived
B) The case proceeds unaffected
C) Accused may question the prosecutor’s action via certiorari for denial of due process
D) The case will automatically be dismissed
  • 38. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint after finding that the evidence presented is based only on hearsay affidavits. Which principle is the prosecutor upholding?
A) Probable cause requirement
B) Inquisitorial principle
C) Adversarial principle
D) Res judicata
  • 39. During a preliminary investigation, the prosecutor evaluates the sufficiency of evidence. What is the correct evaluative standard to determine probable cause?
A) Substantial evidence
B) Such evidence as would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe a crime was committed
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Mere suspicion or belief
  • 40. If a prosecutor conducts an inquest proceeding without affording the arrested person the chance to explain or submit evidence, which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to due process
B) Right to bail
C) Right against double jeopardy
D) Right to equal protection of the laws
  • 41. Which of the following best describes the role of the Supreme Court in the Philippine judicial hierarchy?
A) It only hears cases endorsed by the President.
B) It exercises appellate jurisdiction and has the power of judicial review over all lower courts.
C) It directly hears all cases filed by the public without restriction
D) It primarily serves as a trial court for criminal cases.
  • 42. Why is it important to maintain a hierarchy of courts in the Philippine judicial system?
A) To ensure orderly administration of justice and prevent forum shopping.
B) To allow parties to skip lower courts for faster results.
C) To expand the power of barangay courts.
D) To limit the number of lawyers who can appear in trial courts.
  • 43. Which trial court has original jurisdiction over cases of illegal possession of dangerous drugs involving small quantities?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
C) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 44. What is the primary evaluative distinction between the Sandiganbayan and the Regional Trial Courts?
A) Both share identical jurisdictions.
B) RTCs only handle barangay-level disputes, while Sandiganbayan hears all national cases.
C) Sandiganbayan handles cases involving public officials, while RTCs handle general criminal and civil cases.
D) Both A and C
  • 45. The doctrine of hierarchy of courts requires what procedural rule when filing petitions for extraordinary writs?
A) Petitions should generally be filed in the lowest court with concurrent jurisdiction.
B) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
C) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
D) Parties are free to choose any court.
  • 46. Which of the following cases falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
A) Family disputes involving annulment.
B) Estafa committed by a private individual.
C) Cybercrime by a private company.
D) Graft and corruption by a provincial governor
  • 47. Which principle explains why the Supreme Court cannot be burdened with all trial-level cases?
A) Principle of Collegiality
B) Principle of Judicial Economy
C) Principle of Judicial Activism
D) Principle of Judicial Hierarchy
  • 48. Which trial court has jurisdiction over civil cases where the value of the property does not exceed ₱300,000 (outside Metro Manila)?
A) Supreme Court
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Municipal Trial Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 49. The Court of Appeals primarily serves what function in the hierarchy of courts?
A) It serves as the first-level trial court for minor offenses.
B) It directly tries barangay disputes.
C) It acts as an appellate court reviewing decisions of RTCs and quasi-judicial agencies.
D) It enforces laws passed by Congress.
  • 50. A public official charged with plunder must be tried before which court?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Municipal Trial Court
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 51. Why are Municipal Trial Courts considered the “first level courts”?
A) They serve as administrative bodies only.
B) They try less serious offenses and small claims to decongest higher courts.
C) They handle the heaviest caseload in the system.
D) They have the same power as the Supreme Court.
  • 52. Which case would properly fall within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court?
A) Theft involving ₱5,000
B) Violation of traffic rules
C) Barangay conciliation disputes
D) Murder
  • 53. Which doctrine guides the Supreme Court in refusing to act on petitions directly filed before it without first exhausting lower remedies?
A) Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
B) Doctrine of Judicial Review
C) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
D) Doctrine of Judicial Restraint
  • 54. Why is the Sandiganbayan considered a special court within the hierarchy?
A) Because it hears all appeals from the RTC.
B) Because it handles electoral disputes.
C) Because it focuses on crimes involving graft and corruption by public officials.
D) Because it handles marriage annulments.
  • 55. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) When barangay officials decline to mediate.
B) When there are novel constitutional issues of transcendental importance.
C) When an MTC judge is absent.
D) When the RTC is unavailable due to vacancy.
  • 56. Which is true of the relationship between the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals?
A) The Supreme Court can only review CA cases involving traffic violations.
B) The Supreme Court directly supervises case raffling in the Court of Appeals.
C) The Court of Appeals has no appellate power at all.
D) The Court of Appeals acts as an intermediate appellate body whose decisions are reviewable by the Supreme Court.
  • 57. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates a violation of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) Filing a small claims case in an MTC.
B) Elevating a CA decision to the Supreme Court for review.
C) Appealing an RTC decision to the Court of Appeals.
D) Filing a petition for certiorari directly with the Supreme Court despite available remedies in the Court of Appeals.
  • 58. The jurisdiction of Shari’a courts is limited to what type of cases?
A) Criminal cases involving Muslims
B) All cases in Mindanao
C) All graft cases committed in Muslim areas
D) Civil cases relating to marriage, divorce, and inheritance among Muslims
  • 59. Which court has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all decisions of the Municipal Trial Courts?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Court of Appeals
C) Regional Trial Court
D) Supreme Court
  • 60. A case of homicide committed in Quezon City should first be filed before which court?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 61. Which principle justifies BJMP’s responsibility to improve conditions despite limited resources?
A) Expediency
B) Retribution
C) Administrative convenience
D) Human rights protection
  • 62. Which evaluative distinction best explains why BJMP facilities are considered temporary compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Jurisdictional funding
B) Geographic scope
C) Size of facilities
D) Nature of detainees’ custody
  • 63. Why is the transfer of inmates from BJMP to BuCor custody upon final conviction important?
A) To punish detainees further
B) To reduce congestion only
C) To assign custody to the proper agency
D) To delay enforcement of judgment
  • 64. Which role of BuCor most directly reflects its rehabilitative mandate under RA 10575?
A) Maintaining jails
B) Reformation programs
C) Issuing warrants
D) Crime investigation
  • 65. If BJMP fails to provide humane conditions for detainees, what constitutional right is most compromised?
A) Right against cruel punishment
B) Right to speedy trial
C) Right to bail
D) Right to property
  • 66. A convict sentenced to reclusion perpetua is mistakenly kept under BJMP custody. What evaluative failure occurred?
A) Jurisdictional custody
B) Prosecutorial lapse
C) Judicial oversight
D) Administrative error
  • 67. The BuCor uses classification systems for inmates (minimum, medium, maximum security). This serves primarily to:
A) Punish more severely
B) Manage risks and rehabilitation
C) Reduce costs
D) Delay reintegration
  • 68. Which evaluative factor best explains why BJMP is under DILG while BuCor is under DOJ?
A) Funding allocation
B) Political mandate
C) Geographic scope
D) Distinction between local jails and national prisons
  • 69. Which of the following situations demonstrates a gap in BJMP’s mandate compared to BuCor?
A) Administrative budgeting
B) Managing short-term detainees
C) Handling warrants
D) Lack of rehabilitation for long-term detainees
  • 70. What is the significance of BuCor’s reformation programs to national security?
A) They replace judicial proceedings
B) They reduce recidivism
C) They reduce jail congestion
D) They provide employment to jail staff
  • 71. In terms of the five pillars of the criminal justice system, BJMP and BuCor belong to which pillar?
A) Corrections
B) Judiciary
C) Prosecution
D) Law enforcement
  • 72. Which evaluative issue is most commonly associated with BJMP facilities compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Political interference
B) National classification
C) Overcrowding
D) Excessive budgets
  • 73. A BJMP official implements livelihood training for detainees. This function demonstrates which broader role?
A) Prosecutorial support
B) Sentencing
C) Humanitarian function of jails
D) Judicial oversight
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole works closely with BuCor because:
A) Prisoners eligible for release are under BuCor custody
B) BJMP manages parolee monitoring
C) Prosecutors direct parole decisions
D) Courts automatically release parolees
  • 75. Why is inter-agency coordination between BJMP and BuCor critical after final judgment?
A) To ensure proper transfer of custody
B) To punish detainees twice
C) To delay transfer of convicts
D) To increase BJMP budget
  • 76. Which principle of penology is most at stake when BuCor fails to implement effective rehabilitation programs?
A) Reformation
B) Retribution
C) Isolation
D) Deterrence
  • 77. Which of the following demonstrates BJMP’s role in ensuring access to justice?
A) Safeguarding detainees’ right to attend trial
B) Conducting criminal investigations
C) Drafting laws
D) Issuing arrest warrants
  • 78. The modernization of BuCor under RA 10575 emphasized which evaluative reform?
A) Professionalization and rehabilitation
B) Expansion of local jails
C) Privatization
D) Political independence
  • 79. If BuCor fails to classify prisoners properly, what risk increases?
A) Judicial appeals
B) Higher operational costs
C) Violence and security breaches
D) Faster reintegration
  • 80. Which of the following represents a shared challenge for both BJMP and BuCor?
A) Geographic limitation
B) Lack of judicial authority
C) Duplication of parole power
D) Overcrowding
  • 81. Which evaluative conclusion best explains the complementary role of BJMP and BuCor in corrections?
A) They both prosecute criminal cases
B) They both issue arrest warrants
C) They both adjudicate disputes
D) They divide custody between temporary detention and long-term imprisonment
  • 82. Which demonstrates BuCor’s reintegration role after release of prisoners?
A) Supervising prosecutors
B) Issuing criminal warrants
C) Post-release monitoring and livelihood suppor
D) Managing trial schedules
  • 83. A detainee sentenced to 2 years imprisonment remains under BJMP custody. Why is this correct?
A) DOJ lacks authority
B) Court orders override rules
C) BuCor refuses custody
D) BJMP handles sentences below 3 years
  • 84. What is the evaluative function of BuCor’s therapeutic community programs?
A) Facilitate rehabilitation and reintegration
B) Ensure longer detention
C) Reduce state expenses
D) Increase judicial backlog
  • 85. Which rationale explains why BJMP cannot impose retributive punishment on detainees?
A) Courts control BJMP
B) BuCor has exclusive authority
C) BJMP lacks resources
D) Detainees are presumed innocent
  • 86. Which of the following best demonstrates the evaluative function of the doctrine of judicial hierarchy?
A) It allows parties to choose the fastest court.
B) It abolishes trial courts in favor of the Supreme Court.
C) It prevents overburdening of higher courts by routing cases first to proper trial
D) It ensures that all courts have equal power.
  • 87. Why does the Constitution vest the Supreme Court with both original and appellate jurisdiction?
A) To reduce the power of trial courts.
B) To ensure flexibility in resolving cases of national significance.
C) To directly handle barangay disputes.
D) To avoid the Court of Appeals’ role.
  • 88. The principle that “jurisdiction is conferred by law” means what in practice?
A) Jurisdiction is strictly defined by statute and cannot be assumed at will
B) Courts may expand their own jurisdiction when necessary.
C) Jurisdiction can be granted by barangay officials.
D) Jurisdiction of a court depends only on the agreement of the parties
  • 89. Which of the following demonstrates proper application of jurisdictional rules?
A) An annulment case filed before the Sandiganbayan.
B) A graft case against a mayor filed before the MTC.
C) A murder case filed before the RTC.
D) A small claims case exceeding ₱1,000,000 filed before the MTC.
  • 90. Which evaluative statement best explains the function of trial courts in the criminal justice system?
A) They determine guilt or innocence based on evidence presented
B) They create laws for implementation.
C) They act as advisory bodies to the President.
D) They exercise only appellate functions.
  • 91. Which of the following reflects the PDEA’s strategic role under RA 9165?
A) Handling cybercrimes independently
B) Managing correctional rehabilitation centers
C) Supervising barangay justice systems
D) Implementing the National Anti-Drug Plan of Action and leading drug enforcement policy
  • 92. Why is inter-agency training between PNP, NBI, BFP, and PDEA essential?
A) To centralize all powers in one body
B) To reduce agency manpower
C) To replace judicial oversight
D) To create uniform operational knowledge and enhance coordination in joint operations
  • 93. When PNP evidence is consistently dismissed in court, what evaluative issue should be reviewed?
A) Lack of PDEA authority
B) Possible recurring lapses in evidence handling and procedure
C) Judges’ impartiality
D) Influence of the suspects
  • 94. Why is law enforcement considered the “first pillar” of the Philippine criminal justice system?
A) It rehabilitates offenders.
B) It enforces the law, gathers evidence, and initiates case build-up for prosecution.
C) It supervises post-conviction reintegration.
D) It determines guilt or innocence.
  • 95. What evaluative failure occurs when BFP neglects fire safety inspections, resulting in deaths from a preventable fire?
A) Procedural redundancy
B) Failure of preventive function leading to potential criminal negligence
C) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
D) Failure in custodial investigation
  • 96. What evaluative factor distinguishes preliminary investigation from judicial trial?
A) Judicial trial is conducted only by prosecutors
B) Preliminary investigation requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Preliminary investigation already decides guilt or innocence
D) Preliminary investigation is inquisitorial, focusing only on existence of probable cause
  • 97. Why is DOJ supervision over prosecutors important in preliminary investigation?
A) It ensures national consistency and prevents abuse of discretion
B) It relieves prosecutors of accountability
C) It allows judges to review every complaint
D) It centralizes police power in the DOJ
  • 98. Which illustrates prosecutorial abuse of discretion during inquest?
A) Ordering release due to lack of evidence
B) Referring the case to higher prosecutors for review
C) Filing a case without verifying legality of arrest
D) Dismissing a case due to absence of probable cause
  • 99. What is the practical effect of a prosecutor’s resolution finding no probable cause?
A) Respondent cannot be charged unless reversed on review
B) Court may still conduct trial
C) Case is automatically filed in court
D) Police may refile the same case without additional evidence
  • 100. Which best explains the importance of prosecutors in the administration of justice?
A) They balance the rights of the State to prosecute and the rights of the accused to due process
B) They determine penalties imposed by courts
C) They lead all criminal investigations
D) They ensure all police cases proceed to trial
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