CLJ1
  • 1. During a cyber-enabled drug trafficking case, PDEA requests assistance from the NBI. What is the best rationale for involving the NBI?
A) BI possesses specialized forensic and cyber-investigation capability needed for transnational cases.
B) PNP is constitutionally barred from drug enforcement
C) NBI has exclusive power over cybercrime investigations.
D) PDEA is limited to drug rehabilitation programs.
  • 2. Which situation illustrates the preventive role of the PNP most accurately?
A) Arresting suspects after a robbery
B) Conducting custodial interrogation.
C) Prosecuting accused individuals.
D) Establishing community patrol visibility to deter crime.
  • 3. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support?
A) Inter-agency collaboration and operational efficiency
B) Non-delegation of powers
C) Absolute independence of agencies
D) Jurisdictional supremacy
  • 4. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support? A commercial complex failed to comply with fire code requirements. A fire later occurs, causing multiple casualties. From the lens of criminal justice, which evaluative issue arises against the BFP?
A) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
B) Procedural delay in criminal prosecution
C) Negligence in preventive regulatory enforcement
D) Failure in community policing
  • 5. Which distinction most clearly separates the mandates of the PNP and the NBI?
A) PNP manages prosecutions, while NBI supervises corrections.
B) PNP enforces all laws nationwide, while NBI investigates only corruption cases.
C) PNP handles general law enforcement, while NBI focuses on technical, complex, and high-profile investigations.
D) PNP investigates graft, while NBI handles only barangay crimes.
  • 6. Why is chain of custody crucial in PNP-handled drug cases?
A) It applies only in NBI laboratories, not in PNP operations.
B) It ensures that evidence integrity is preserved for admissibility in court.
C) It gives judges discretion to disregard rules of evidence.
D) It allows evidence to be freely transferred between agencies.
  • 7. After a suspicious fire, the BFP submits a technical report indicating arson. How does this role affect criminal proceedings?
A) It replaces the need for police investigation
B) It provides admissible forensic evidence supporting prosecution.
C) It grants the BFP jurisdiction over sentencing.
D) It allows BFP to automatically prosecute the offender.
  • 8. Which case scenario properly falls under the NBI’s jurisdiction rather than the PNP’s?
A) Theft in a barangay sari-sari store
B) Syndicated estafa involving high-ranking officials and foreign entities
C) Traffic violations along EDSA
D) Barangay disturbance between neighbors
  • 9. A PNP-led buy-bust operation is dismissed in court because it was conducted without PDEA coordination. What principle is compromised?
A) Separation of powers
B) Judicial independence
C) Due process and proper jurisdictional mandate
D) Proportionality in sentencing
  • 10. Which BFP function most directly reflects its preventive contribution to criminal justice?
A) Investigating graft and corruption cases
B) Prohibiting building permits
C) Enforcing fire safety codes and conducting inspections
D) Arresting suspects in arson cases
  • 11. Which evaluative advantage does the PNP hold compared to NBI in the grassroots application of criminal justice?
A) Superior cyber-investigation facilities
B) Mandate over international law enforcement
C) Broader barangay presence and patrol-based deterrence
D) Exclusive power over anti-drug operations
  • 12. A prosecutor notes conflicting complaints separately filed by PNP and NBI in the same case. Which evaluative issue arises?
A) Redundancy and lack of inter-agency coordination
B) Chain of custody
C) Separation of powers
D) Collaborative governance
  • 13. During an inquest, it was found that PNP did not document the evidence properly. What is the likely legal impact?
A) PDEA assumes jurisdiction.
B) The suspect is automatically acquitted.
C) BFP conducts secondary investigation.
D) Evidence may be excluded, weakening prosecution.
  • 14. In cases of suspected arson, why is BFP’s role essential even after fire suppression?
A) It conducts forensic analysis necessary for criminal liability determination.
B) It prevents further police intervention.
C) It provides legal representation for suspects.
D) It adjudicates liability of building owners.
  • 15. Which agency has the authority to deputize other law enforcement bodies for anti-drug operations?
A) BFP
B) NBI
C) PDEA
D) DOJ
  • 16. What principle is promoted when PNP secures the perimeter, NBI handles cyber evidence, and PDEA leads the raid in a drug bust?
A) Overstepping of authority
B) Unity of command
C) Procedural redundancy
D) Collaborative governance and complementarity of mandates
  • 17. What is the primary evaluative reason that PNP is often called the “backbone” of law enforcement in the criminal justice system?
A) They provide legal defense for the accused.
B) Their widespread presence allows immediate response and preventive policing.
C) They control the courts.
D) They supervise prison corrections.
  • 18. Which NBI function most strengthens its credibility in high-profile investigations?
A) Barangay patrol assistance
B) Fire suppression capability
C) Nationwide precinct deployment
D) Forensic and technical divisions specializing in advanced evidence analysis
  • 19. A large-scale anti-drug operation fails because PDEA and PNP conducted overlapping operations separately. Which consequence arises?
A) Automatic conviction of suspects.
B) Evidence handling and prosecution are compromised.
C) BFP assumes jurisdiction.
D) Media coverage is reduced.
  • 20. Which statement best evaluates BFP’s link to the “community” pillar of justice?
A) Its enforcement of fire codes prevents disasters that could escalate into criminal negligence affecting communities.
B) It prosecutes arsonists directly on behalf of barangays
C) It supervises barangay elections.
D) It eliminates LGU functions during calamities.
  • 21. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint because the arrest was illegal, and no valid warrantless arrest exception applied. What is being safeguarded?
A) Integrity of judicial process
B) Efficiency of case disposal
C) Prosecutorial discretion
D) Legality of arrest and personal liberty
  • 22. What best explains why prosecutors cannot delegate the determination of probable cause to the police?
A) Courts do not trust police testimony
B) Delegation violates separation of powers
C) Police officers lack training in evidence handling
D) Probable cause is a quasi-judicial function reserved for prosecutors
  • 23. In an inquest proceeding, why is it important that the prosecutor evaluates whether the arrest falls under Rule 113, Sec. 5 (warrantless arrests)?
A) To avoid filing cases based on illegal arrests, which could later be quashed
B) To protect prosecutors from liability
C) To reduce the workload of judges
D) To ensure cases are filed quickly
  • 24. If a prosecutor files an information despite weak evidence, what is the most likely impact on the justice system?
A) Courts will automatically convict
B) It strengthens police credibility
C) It expedites justice delivery
D) It undermines the rights of the accused and clogs court dockets
  • 25. In preliminary investigations, why is it necessary to require counter-affidavits from the respondents?
A) To comply with due process and ensure a balanced evaluation of evidence
B) To delay filing of cases until evidence is complete
C) To shorten the prosecutor’s workload
D) To shift responsibility to defense counsel
  • 26. If during an inquest, evidence clearly shows a person was caught in flagrante delicto, what should the prosecutor do?
A) File the appropriate information in court without preliminary investigation
B) Refer the case to the DOJ Secretary
C) Wait for the suspect’s motion for bail
D) Release the suspect immediately
  • 27. A prosecutor finds inconsistencies in the complainant’s affidavit but strong corroborating physical evidence exists. How should this be evaluated?
A) Dismiss the case outright
B) Defer to the judge for determination
C) Still establish probable cause based on the totality of evidenc
D) Require additional police affidavits only
  • 28. What principle justifies the prosecutor’s authority to decide whether to file a case in court?
A) Prosecutorial independence
B) Judicial discretion
C) Police authority in law enforcement
D) Legislative intent
  • 29. Which scenario reflects the proper exercise of prosecutorial discretion in preliminary investigation?
A) Dismissing a complaint due to insufficient probable cause
B) Leaving evidence evaluation to the judge
C) Automatically endorsing all complaints to the DOJ Secretary
D) Filing a case despite no prima facie evidence to avoid criticism
  • 30. If a prosecutor files a case based on inadmissible evidence (illegally obtained), what is the likely consequence in court?
A) Mistrial
B) Automatic appeal to DOJ
C) Conviction due to presumption of regularity
D) Acquittal or dismissal due to exclusionary rule
  • 31. Why is the prosecutor considered the 'gatekeeper' of the courts in criminal proceedings?
A) They decide on guilt or innocence
B) They approve police promotions
C) They determine which cases merit judicial trial through preliminary investigation
D) They supervise correctional facilities
  • 32. A suspect is arrested without a warrant for murder but the prosecutor finds no probable cause during inquest. What should the prosecutor do?
A) Suspend proceedings until further evidence is gathered
B) Endorse the case to the Ombudsman
C) Order the suspect’s immediate release
D) File the case anyway and let the court decide
  • 33. In conducting preliminary investigation, why must prosecutors avoid relying solely on police recommendations?
A) DOJ circulars prohibit it
B) Courts demand police neutrality
C) Police may exaggerate findings
D) The Constitution requires independent and impartial evaluation of evidence
  • 34. Which of the following best evaluates the role of the prosecutor in protecting the accused’s right to liberty?
A) By conducting speedy trials
B) By ensuring probable cause exists before a person is haled into court
C) By dismissing all weak cases regardless of evidence
D) By automatically recommending bail
  • 35. What is the critical evaluative function of inquest proceedings compared to preliminary investigation?
A) Both serve only as police procedures
B) Inquest is optional, while preliminary investigation is mandatory
C) Inquest is conducted only after conviction
D) Inquest determines validity of warrantless arrests, while preliminary
  • 36. When prosecutors conduct inquest proceedings immediately after arrest, what constitutional principle is primarily observed?
A) Right to speedy disposition of cases
B) Right to free counsel
C) Right to equal protection
D) Right against double jeopardy
  • 37. A prosecutor ignores an accused’s request to submit a counter-affidavit in preliminary investigation. What is the most probable legal outcome?
A) Accused may question the prosecutor’s action via certiorari for denial of due process
B) The case proceeds unaffected
C) Evidence will be considered waived
D) The case will automatically be dismissed
  • 38. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint after finding that the evidence presented is based only on hearsay affidavits. Which principle is the prosecutor upholding?
A) Adversarial principle
B) Inquisitorial principle
C) Res judicata
D) Probable cause requirement
  • 39. During a preliminary investigation, the prosecutor evaluates the sufficiency of evidence. What is the correct evaluative standard to determine probable cause?
A) Such evidence as would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe a crime was committed
B) Substantial evidence
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Mere suspicion or belief
  • 40. If a prosecutor conducts an inquest proceeding without affording the arrested person the chance to explain or submit evidence, which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to due process
B) Right to equal protection of the laws
C) Right to bail
D) Right against double jeopardy
  • 41. Which of the following best describes the role of the Supreme Court in the Philippine judicial hierarchy?
A) It only hears cases endorsed by the President.
B) It exercises appellate jurisdiction and has the power of judicial review over all lower courts.
C) It directly hears all cases filed by the public without restriction
D) It primarily serves as a trial court for criminal cases.
  • 42. Why is it important to maintain a hierarchy of courts in the Philippine judicial system?
A) To expand the power of barangay courts.
B) To limit the number of lawyers who can appear in trial courts.
C) To allow parties to skip lower courts for faster results.
D) To ensure orderly administration of justice and prevent forum shopping.
  • 43. Which trial court has original jurisdiction over cases of illegal possession of dangerous drugs involving small quantities?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
  • 44. What is the primary evaluative distinction between the Sandiganbayan and the Regional Trial Courts?
A) Both share identical jurisdictions.
B) RTCs only handle barangay-level disputes, while Sandiganbayan hears all national cases.
C) Both A and C
D) Sandiganbayan handles cases involving public officials, while RTCs handle general criminal and civil cases.
  • 45. The doctrine of hierarchy of courts requires what procedural rule when filing petitions for extraordinary writs?
A) Petitions should generally be filed in the lowest court with concurrent jurisdiction.
B) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
C) Parties are free to choose any court.
D) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
  • 46. Which of the following cases falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
A) Cybercrime by a private company.
B) Estafa committed by a private individual.
C) Graft and corruption by a provincial governor
D) Family disputes involving annulment.
  • 47. Which principle explains why the Supreme Court cannot be burdened with all trial-level cases?
A) Principle of Judicial Hierarchy
B) Principle of Judicial Economy
C) Principle of Collegiality
D) Principle of Judicial Activism
  • 48. Which trial court has jurisdiction over civil cases where the value of the property does not exceed ₱300,000 (outside Metro Manila)?
A) Supreme Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Municipal Trial Court
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 49. The Court of Appeals primarily serves what function in the hierarchy of courts?
A) It acts as an appellate court reviewing decisions of RTCs and quasi-judicial agencies.
B) It directly tries barangay disputes.
C) It enforces laws passed by Congress.
D) It serves as the first-level trial court for minor offenses.
  • 50. A public official charged with plunder must be tried before which court?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Regional Trial Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 51. Why are Municipal Trial Courts considered the “first level courts”?
A) They try less serious offenses and small claims to decongest higher courts.
B) They handle the heaviest caseload in the system.
C) They serve as administrative bodies only.
D) They have the same power as the Supreme Court.
  • 52. Which case would properly fall within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court?
A) Theft involving ₱5,000
B) Murder
C) Barangay conciliation disputes
D) Violation of traffic rules
  • 53. Which doctrine guides the Supreme Court in refusing to act on petitions directly filed before it without first exhausting lower remedies?
A) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
B) Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
C) Doctrine of Judicial Review
D) Doctrine of Judicial Restraint
  • 54. Why is the Sandiganbayan considered a special court within the hierarchy?
A) Because it handles marriage annulments.
B) Because it hears all appeals from the RTC.
C) Because it focuses on crimes involving graft and corruption by public officials.
D) Because it handles electoral disputes.
  • 55. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) When the RTC is unavailable due to vacancy.
B) When barangay officials decline to mediate.
C) When an MTC judge is absent.
D) When there are novel constitutional issues of transcendental importance.
  • 56. Which is true of the relationship between the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals?
A) The Court of Appeals has no appellate power at all.
B) The Supreme Court can only review CA cases involving traffic violations.
C) The Supreme Court directly supervises case raffling in the Court of Appeals.
D) The Court of Appeals acts as an intermediate appellate body whose decisions are reviewable by the Supreme Court.
  • 57. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates a violation of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) Appealing an RTC decision to the Court of Appeals.
B) Filing a small claims case in an MTC.
C) Elevating a CA decision to the Supreme Court for review.
D) Filing a petition for certiorari directly with the Supreme Court despite available remedies in the Court of Appeals.
  • 58. The jurisdiction of Shari’a courts is limited to what type of cases?
A) Civil cases relating to marriage, divorce, and inheritance among Muslims
B) All cases in Mindanao
C) All graft cases committed in Muslim areas
D) Criminal cases involving Muslims
  • 59. Which court has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all decisions of the Municipal Trial Courts?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Supreme Court
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Court of Appeals
  • 60. A case of homicide committed in Quezon City should first be filed before which court?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Municipal Trial Court
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 61. Which principle justifies BJMP’s responsibility to improve conditions despite limited resources?
A) Expediency
B) Human rights protection
C) Administrative convenience
D) Retribution
  • 62. Which evaluative distinction best explains why BJMP facilities are considered temporary compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Geographic scope
B) Jurisdictional funding
C) Size of facilities
D) Nature of detainees’ custody
  • 63. Why is the transfer of inmates from BJMP to BuCor custody upon final conviction important?
A) To delay enforcement of judgment
B) To reduce congestion only
C) To punish detainees further
D) To assign custody to the proper agency
  • 64. Which role of BuCor most directly reflects its rehabilitative mandate under RA 10575?
A) Reformation programs
B) Issuing warrants
C) Maintaining jails
D) Crime investigation
  • 65. If BJMP fails to provide humane conditions for detainees, what constitutional right is most compromised?
A) Right to property
B) Right against cruel punishment
C) Right to bail
D) Right to speedy trial
  • 66. A convict sentenced to reclusion perpetua is mistakenly kept under BJMP custody. What evaluative failure occurred?
A) Jurisdictional custody
B) Judicial oversight
C) Administrative error
D) Prosecutorial lapse
  • 67. The BuCor uses classification systems for inmates (minimum, medium, maximum security). This serves primarily to:
A) Punish more severely
B) Reduce costs
C) Manage risks and rehabilitation
D) Delay reintegration
  • 68. Which evaluative factor best explains why BJMP is under DILG while BuCor is under DOJ?
A) Funding allocation
B) Distinction between local jails and national prisons
C) Geographic scope
D) Political mandate
  • 69. Which of the following situations demonstrates a gap in BJMP’s mandate compared to BuCor?
A) Managing short-term detainees
B) Handling warrants
C) Administrative budgeting
D) Lack of rehabilitation for long-term detainees
  • 70. What is the significance of BuCor’s reformation programs to national security?
A) They reduce recidivism
B) They replace judicial proceedings
C) They provide employment to jail staff
D) They reduce jail congestion
  • 71. In terms of the five pillars of the criminal justice system, BJMP and BuCor belong to which pillar?
A) Corrections
B) Judiciary
C) Law enforcement
D) Prosecution
  • 72. Which evaluative issue is most commonly associated with BJMP facilities compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Overcrowding
B) National classification
C) Political interference
D) Excessive budgets
  • 73. A BJMP official implements livelihood training for detainees. This function demonstrates which broader role?
A) Humanitarian function of jails
B) Prosecutorial support
C) Sentencing
D) Judicial oversight
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole works closely with BuCor because:
A) Prisoners eligible for release are under BuCor custody
B) Courts automatically release parolees
C) BJMP manages parolee monitoring
D) Prosecutors direct parole decisions
  • 75. Why is inter-agency coordination between BJMP and BuCor critical after final judgment?
A) To delay transfer of convicts
B) To ensure proper transfer of custody
C) To increase BJMP budget
D) To punish detainees twice
  • 76. Which principle of penology is most at stake when BuCor fails to implement effective rehabilitation programs?
A) Deterrence
B) Isolation
C) Retribution
D) Reformation
  • 77. Which of the following demonstrates BJMP’s role in ensuring access to justice?
A) Drafting laws
B) Safeguarding detainees’ right to attend trial
C) Issuing arrest warrants
D) Conducting criminal investigations
  • 78. The modernization of BuCor under RA 10575 emphasized which evaluative reform?
A) Privatization
B) Professionalization and rehabilitation
C) Political independence
D) Expansion of local jails
  • 79. If BuCor fails to classify prisoners properly, what risk increases?
A) Faster reintegration
B) Violence and security breaches
C) Higher operational costs
D) Judicial appeals
  • 80. Which of the following represents a shared challenge for both BJMP and BuCor?
A) Duplication of parole power
B) Geographic limitation
C) Lack of judicial authority
D) Overcrowding
  • 81. Which evaluative conclusion best explains the complementary role of BJMP and BuCor in corrections?
A) They both prosecute criminal cases
B) They both adjudicate disputes
C) They both issue arrest warrants
D) They divide custody between temporary detention and long-term imprisonment
  • 82. Which demonstrates BuCor’s reintegration role after release of prisoners?
A) Managing trial schedules
B) Issuing criminal warrants
C) Supervising prosecutors
D) Post-release monitoring and livelihood suppor
  • 83. A detainee sentenced to 2 years imprisonment remains under BJMP custody. Why is this correct?
A) BJMP handles sentences below 3 years
B) DOJ lacks authority
C) BuCor refuses custody
D) Court orders override rules
  • 84. What is the evaluative function of BuCor’s therapeutic community programs?
A) Reduce state expenses
B) Ensure longer detention
C) Increase judicial backlog
D) Facilitate rehabilitation and reintegration
  • 85. Which rationale explains why BJMP cannot impose retributive punishment on detainees?
A) BuCor has exclusive authority
B) Courts control BJMP
C) Detainees are presumed innocent
D) BJMP lacks resources
  • 86. Which of the following best demonstrates the evaluative function of the doctrine of judicial hierarchy?
A) It ensures that all courts have equal power.
B) It prevents overburdening of higher courts by routing cases first to proper trial
C) It abolishes trial courts in favor of the Supreme Court.
D) It allows parties to choose the fastest court.
  • 87. Why does the Constitution vest the Supreme Court with both original and appellate jurisdiction?
A) To ensure flexibility in resolving cases of national significance.
B) To avoid the Court of Appeals’ role.
C) To reduce the power of trial courts.
D) To directly handle barangay disputes.
  • 88. The principle that “jurisdiction is conferred by law” means what in practice?
A) Jurisdiction is strictly defined by statute and cannot be assumed at will
B) Jurisdiction can be granted by barangay officials.
C) Courts may expand their own jurisdiction when necessary.
D) Jurisdiction of a court depends only on the agreement of the parties
  • 89. Which of the following demonstrates proper application of jurisdictional rules?
A) A small claims case exceeding ₱1,000,000 filed before the MTC.
B) An annulment case filed before the Sandiganbayan.
C) A murder case filed before the RTC.
D) A graft case against a mayor filed before the MTC.
  • 90. Which evaluative statement best explains the function of trial courts in the criminal justice system?
A) They act as advisory bodies to the President.
B) They determine guilt or innocence based on evidence presented
C) They exercise only appellate functions.
D) They create laws for implementation.
  • 91. Which of the following reflects the PDEA’s strategic role under RA 9165?
A) Supervising barangay justice systems
B) Implementing the National Anti-Drug Plan of Action and leading drug enforcement policy
C) Managing correctional rehabilitation centers
D) Handling cybercrimes independently
  • 92. Why is inter-agency training between PNP, NBI, BFP, and PDEA essential?
A) To reduce agency manpower
B) To centralize all powers in one body
C) To replace judicial oversight
D) To create uniform operational knowledge and enhance coordination in joint operations
  • 93. When PNP evidence is consistently dismissed in court, what evaluative issue should be reviewed?
A) Judges’ impartiality
B) Possible recurring lapses in evidence handling and procedure
C) Lack of PDEA authority
D) Influence of the suspects
  • 94. Why is law enforcement considered the “first pillar” of the Philippine criminal justice system?
A) It determines guilt or innocence.
B) It rehabilitates offenders.
C) It enforces the law, gathers evidence, and initiates case build-up for prosecution.
D) It supervises post-conviction reintegration.
  • 95. What evaluative failure occurs when BFP neglects fire safety inspections, resulting in deaths from a preventable fire?
A) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
B) Procedural redundancy
C) Failure in custodial investigation
D) Failure of preventive function leading to potential criminal negligence
  • 96. What evaluative factor distinguishes preliminary investigation from judicial trial?
A) Preliminary investigation requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Preliminary investigation already decides guilt or innocence
C) Preliminary investigation is inquisitorial, focusing only on existence of probable cause
D) Judicial trial is conducted only by prosecutors
  • 97. Why is DOJ supervision over prosecutors important in preliminary investigation?
A) It centralizes police power in the DOJ
B) It ensures national consistency and prevents abuse of discretion
C) It allows judges to review every complaint
D) It relieves prosecutors of accountability
  • 98. Which illustrates prosecutorial abuse of discretion during inquest?
A) Ordering release due to lack of evidence
B) Dismissing a case due to absence of probable cause
C) Filing a case without verifying legality of arrest
D) Referring the case to higher prosecutors for review
  • 99. What is the practical effect of a prosecutor’s resolution finding no probable cause?
A) Case is automatically filed in court
B) Respondent cannot be charged unless reversed on review
C) Police may refile the same case without additional evidence
D) Court may still conduct trial
  • 100. Which best explains the importance of prosecutors in the administration of justice?
A) They determine penalties imposed by courts
B) They balance the rights of the State to prosecute and the rights of the accused to due process
C) They lead all criminal investigations
D) They ensure all police cases proceed to trial
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