CLJ1
  • 1. During a cyber-enabled drug trafficking case, PDEA requests assistance from the NBI. What is the best rationale for involving the NBI?
A) BI possesses specialized forensic and cyber-investigation capability needed for transnational cases.
B) NBI has exclusive power over cybercrime investigations.
C) PDEA is limited to drug rehabilitation programs.
D) PNP is constitutionally barred from drug enforcement
  • 2. Which situation illustrates the preventive role of the PNP most accurately?
A) Conducting custodial interrogation.
B) Arresting suspects after a robbery
C) Prosecuting accused individuals.
D) Establishing community patrol visibility to deter crime.
  • 3. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support?
A) Non-delegation of powers
B) Inter-agency collaboration and operational efficiency
C) Jurisdictional supremacy
D) Absolute independence of agencies
  • 4. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support? A commercial complex failed to comply with fire code requirements. A fire later occurs, causing multiple casualties. From the lens of criminal justice, which evaluative issue arises against the BFP?
A) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
B) Negligence in preventive regulatory enforcement
C) Procedural delay in criminal prosecution
D) Failure in community policing
  • 5. Which distinction most clearly separates the mandates of the PNP and the NBI?
A) PNP enforces all laws nationwide, while NBI investigates only corruption cases.
B) PNP investigates graft, while NBI handles only barangay crimes.
C) PNP manages prosecutions, while NBI supervises corrections.
D) PNP handles general law enforcement, while NBI focuses on technical, complex, and high-profile investigations.
  • 6. Why is chain of custody crucial in PNP-handled drug cases?
A) It gives judges discretion to disregard rules of evidence.
B) It allows evidence to be freely transferred between agencies.
C) It applies only in NBI laboratories, not in PNP operations.
D) It ensures that evidence integrity is preserved for admissibility in court.
  • 7. After a suspicious fire, the BFP submits a technical report indicating arson. How does this role affect criminal proceedings?
A) It allows BFP to automatically prosecute the offender.
B) It provides admissible forensic evidence supporting prosecution.
C) It grants the BFP jurisdiction over sentencing.
D) It replaces the need for police investigation
  • 8. Which case scenario properly falls under the NBI’s jurisdiction rather than the PNP’s?
A) Theft in a barangay sari-sari store
B) Barangay disturbance between neighbors
C) Syndicated estafa involving high-ranking officials and foreign entities
D) Traffic violations along EDSA
  • 9. A PNP-led buy-bust operation is dismissed in court because it was conducted without PDEA coordination. What principle is compromised?
A) Due process and proper jurisdictional mandate
B) Judicial independence
C) Proportionality in sentencing
D) Separation of powers
  • 10. Which BFP function most directly reflects its preventive contribution to criminal justice?
A) Enforcing fire safety codes and conducting inspections
B) Prohibiting building permits
C) Investigating graft and corruption cases
D) Arresting suspects in arson cases
  • 11. Which evaluative advantage does the PNP hold compared to NBI in the grassroots application of criminal justice?
A) Mandate over international law enforcement
B) Exclusive power over anti-drug operations
C) Superior cyber-investigation facilities
D) Broader barangay presence and patrol-based deterrence
  • 12. A prosecutor notes conflicting complaints separately filed by PNP and NBI in the same case. Which evaluative issue arises?
A) Redundancy and lack of inter-agency coordination
B) Separation of powers
C) Collaborative governance
D) Chain of custody
  • 13. During an inquest, it was found that PNP did not document the evidence properly. What is the likely legal impact?
A) The suspect is automatically acquitted.
B) PDEA assumes jurisdiction.
C) BFP conducts secondary investigation.
D) Evidence may be excluded, weakening prosecution.
  • 14. In cases of suspected arson, why is BFP’s role essential even after fire suppression?
A) It provides legal representation for suspects.
B) It prevents further police intervention.
C) It adjudicates liability of building owners.
D) It conducts forensic analysis necessary for criminal liability determination.
  • 15. Which agency has the authority to deputize other law enforcement bodies for anti-drug operations?
A) BFP
B) NBI
C) DOJ
D) PDEA
  • 16. What principle is promoted when PNP secures the perimeter, NBI handles cyber evidence, and PDEA leads the raid in a drug bust?
A) Overstepping of authority
B) Procedural redundancy
C) Unity of command
D) Collaborative governance and complementarity of mandates
  • 17. What is the primary evaluative reason that PNP is often called the “backbone” of law enforcement in the criminal justice system?
A) They control the courts.
B) They supervise prison corrections.
C) Their widespread presence allows immediate response and preventive policing.
D) They provide legal defense for the accused.
  • 18. Which NBI function most strengthens its credibility in high-profile investigations?
A) Barangay patrol assistance
B) Nationwide precinct deployment
C) Forensic and technical divisions specializing in advanced evidence analysis
D) Fire suppression capability
  • 19. A large-scale anti-drug operation fails because PDEA and PNP conducted overlapping operations separately. Which consequence arises?
A) BFP assumes jurisdiction.
B) Automatic conviction of suspects.
C) Media coverage is reduced.
D) Evidence handling and prosecution are compromised.
  • 20. Which statement best evaluates BFP’s link to the “community” pillar of justice?
A) Its enforcement of fire codes prevents disasters that could escalate into criminal negligence affecting communities.
B) It prosecutes arsonists directly on behalf of barangays
C) It eliminates LGU functions during calamities.
D) It supervises barangay elections.
  • 21. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint because the arrest was illegal, and no valid warrantless arrest exception applied. What is being safeguarded?
A) Efficiency of case disposal
B) Integrity of judicial process
C) Prosecutorial discretion
D) Legality of arrest and personal liberty
  • 22. What best explains why prosecutors cannot delegate the determination of probable cause to the police?
A) Probable cause is a quasi-judicial function reserved for prosecutors
B) Courts do not trust police testimony
C) Delegation violates separation of powers
D) Police officers lack training in evidence handling
  • 23. In an inquest proceeding, why is it important that the prosecutor evaluates whether the arrest falls under Rule 113, Sec. 5 (warrantless arrests)?
A) To ensure cases are filed quickly
B) To protect prosecutors from liability
C) To avoid filing cases based on illegal arrests, which could later be quashed
D) To reduce the workload of judges
  • 24. If a prosecutor files an information despite weak evidence, what is the most likely impact on the justice system?
A) Courts will automatically convict
B) It expedites justice delivery
C) It strengthens police credibility
D) It undermines the rights of the accused and clogs court dockets
  • 25. In preliminary investigations, why is it necessary to require counter-affidavits from the respondents?
A) To shift responsibility to defense counsel
B) To comply with due process and ensure a balanced evaluation of evidence
C) To delay filing of cases until evidence is complete
D) To shorten the prosecutor’s workload
  • 26. If during an inquest, evidence clearly shows a person was caught in flagrante delicto, what should the prosecutor do?
A) Release the suspect immediately
B) Wait for the suspect’s motion for bail
C) File the appropriate information in court without preliminary investigation
D) Refer the case to the DOJ Secretary
  • 27. A prosecutor finds inconsistencies in the complainant’s affidavit but strong corroborating physical evidence exists. How should this be evaluated?
A) Require additional police affidavits only
B) Dismiss the case outright
C) Still establish probable cause based on the totality of evidenc
D) Defer to the judge for determination
  • 28. What principle justifies the prosecutor’s authority to decide whether to file a case in court?
A) Judicial discretion
B) Legislative intent
C) Police authority in law enforcement
D) Prosecutorial independence
  • 29. Which scenario reflects the proper exercise of prosecutorial discretion in preliminary investigation?
A) Leaving evidence evaluation to the judge
B) Dismissing a complaint due to insufficient probable cause
C) Automatically endorsing all complaints to the DOJ Secretary
D) Filing a case despite no prima facie evidence to avoid criticism
  • 30. If a prosecutor files a case based on inadmissible evidence (illegally obtained), what is the likely consequence in court?
A) Conviction due to presumption of regularity
B) Acquittal or dismissal due to exclusionary rule
C) Automatic appeal to DOJ
D) Mistrial
  • 31. Why is the prosecutor considered the 'gatekeeper' of the courts in criminal proceedings?
A) They supervise correctional facilities
B) They approve police promotions
C) They determine which cases merit judicial trial through preliminary investigation
D) They decide on guilt or innocence
  • 32. A suspect is arrested without a warrant for murder but the prosecutor finds no probable cause during inquest. What should the prosecutor do?
A) Order the suspect’s immediate release
B) File the case anyway and let the court decide
C) Suspend proceedings until further evidence is gathered
D) Endorse the case to the Ombudsman
  • 33. In conducting preliminary investigation, why must prosecutors avoid relying solely on police recommendations?
A) Courts demand police neutrality
B) DOJ circulars prohibit it
C) The Constitution requires independent and impartial evaluation of evidence
D) Police may exaggerate findings
  • 34. Which of the following best evaluates the role of the prosecutor in protecting the accused’s right to liberty?
A) By ensuring probable cause exists before a person is haled into court
B) By dismissing all weak cases regardless of evidence
C) By automatically recommending bail
D) By conducting speedy trials
  • 35. What is the critical evaluative function of inquest proceedings compared to preliminary investigation?
A) Inquest is optional, while preliminary investigation is mandatory
B) Inquest determines validity of warrantless arrests, while preliminary
C) Both serve only as police procedures
D) Inquest is conducted only after conviction
  • 36. When prosecutors conduct inquest proceedings immediately after arrest, what constitutional principle is primarily observed?
A) Right to equal protection
B) Right to speedy disposition of cases
C) Right to free counsel
D) Right against double jeopardy
  • 37. A prosecutor ignores an accused’s request to submit a counter-affidavit in preliminary investigation. What is the most probable legal outcome?
A) Evidence will be considered waived
B) The case will automatically be dismissed
C) Accused may question the prosecutor’s action via certiorari for denial of due process
D) The case proceeds unaffected
  • 38. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint after finding that the evidence presented is based only on hearsay affidavits. Which principle is the prosecutor upholding?
A) Probable cause requirement
B) Adversarial principle
C) Res judicata
D) Inquisitorial principle
  • 39. During a preliminary investigation, the prosecutor evaluates the sufficiency of evidence. What is the correct evaluative standard to determine probable cause?
A) Substantial evidence
B) Such evidence as would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe a crime was committed
C) Mere suspicion or belief
D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 40. If a prosecutor conducts an inquest proceeding without affording the arrested person the chance to explain or submit evidence, which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to equal protection of the laws
B) Right against double jeopardy
C) Right to bail
D) Right to due process
  • 41. Which of the following best describes the role of the Supreme Court in the Philippine judicial hierarchy?
A) It primarily serves as a trial court for criminal cases.
B) It only hears cases endorsed by the President.
C) It directly hears all cases filed by the public without restriction
D) It exercises appellate jurisdiction and has the power of judicial review over all lower courts.
  • 42. Why is it important to maintain a hierarchy of courts in the Philippine judicial system?
A) To limit the number of lawyers who can appear in trial courts.
B) To allow parties to skip lower courts for faster results.
C) To ensure orderly administration of justice and prevent forum shopping.
D) To expand the power of barangay courts.
  • 43. Which trial court has original jurisdiction over cases of illegal possession of dangerous drugs involving small quantities?
A) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
B) Court of Appeals
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
  • 44. What is the primary evaluative distinction between the Sandiganbayan and the Regional Trial Courts?
A) RTCs only handle barangay-level disputes, while Sandiganbayan hears all national cases.
B) Both A and C
C) Both share identical jurisdictions.
D) Sandiganbayan handles cases involving public officials, while RTCs handle general criminal and civil cases.
  • 45. The doctrine of hierarchy of courts requires what procedural rule when filing petitions for extraordinary writs?
A) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
B) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
C) Parties are free to choose any court.
D) Petitions should generally be filed in the lowest court with concurrent jurisdiction.
  • 46. Which of the following cases falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
A) Graft and corruption by a provincial governor
B) Estafa committed by a private individual.
C) Cybercrime by a private company.
D) Family disputes involving annulment.
  • 47. Which principle explains why the Supreme Court cannot be burdened with all trial-level cases?
A) Principle of Judicial Hierarchy
B) Principle of Judicial Economy
C) Principle of Collegiality
D) Principle of Judicial Activism
  • 48. Which trial court has jurisdiction over civil cases where the value of the property does not exceed ₱300,000 (outside Metro Manila)?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Municipal Trial Court
D) Supreme Court
  • 49. The Court of Appeals primarily serves what function in the hierarchy of courts?
A) It acts as an appellate court reviewing decisions of RTCs and quasi-judicial agencies.
B) It serves as the first-level trial court for minor offenses.
C) It directly tries barangay disputes.
D) It enforces laws passed by Congress.
  • 50. A public official charged with plunder must be tried before which court?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Municipal Trial Court
C) Court of Appeals
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 51. Why are Municipal Trial Courts considered the “first level courts”?
A) They have the same power as the Supreme Court.
B) They try less serious offenses and small claims to decongest higher courts.
C) They serve as administrative bodies only.
D) They handle the heaviest caseload in the system.
  • 52. Which case would properly fall within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court?
A) Theft involving ₱5,000
B) Violation of traffic rules
C) Murder
D) Barangay conciliation disputes
  • 53. Which doctrine guides the Supreme Court in refusing to act on petitions directly filed before it without first exhausting lower remedies?
A) Doctrine of Judicial Review
B) Doctrine of Judicial Restraint
C) Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
D) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
  • 54. Why is the Sandiganbayan considered a special court within the hierarchy?
A) Because it hears all appeals from the RTC.
B) Because it focuses on crimes involving graft and corruption by public officials.
C) Because it handles electoral disputes.
D) Because it handles marriage annulments.
  • 55. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) When an MTC judge is absent.
B) When the RTC is unavailable due to vacancy.
C) When barangay officials decline to mediate.
D) When there are novel constitutional issues of transcendental importance.
  • 56. Which is true of the relationship between the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals?
A) The Supreme Court can only review CA cases involving traffic violations.
B) The Supreme Court directly supervises case raffling in the Court of Appeals.
C) The Court of Appeals acts as an intermediate appellate body whose decisions are reviewable by the Supreme Court.
D) The Court of Appeals has no appellate power at all.
  • 57. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates a violation of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) Appealing an RTC decision to the Court of Appeals.
B) Filing a small claims case in an MTC.
C) Elevating a CA decision to the Supreme Court for review.
D) Filing a petition for certiorari directly with the Supreme Court despite available remedies in the Court of Appeals.
  • 58. The jurisdiction of Shari’a courts is limited to what type of cases?
A) All cases in Mindanao
B) Criminal cases involving Muslims
C) All graft cases committed in Muslim areas
D) Civil cases relating to marriage, divorce, and inheritance among Muslims
  • 59. Which court has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all decisions of the Municipal Trial Courts?
A) Supreme Court
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Regional Trial Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 60. A case of homicide committed in Quezon City should first be filed before which court?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Municipal Trial Court
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Court of Appeals
  • 61. Which principle justifies BJMP’s responsibility to improve conditions despite limited resources?
A) Retribution
B) Administrative convenience
C) Human rights protection
D) Expediency
  • 62. Which evaluative distinction best explains why BJMP facilities are considered temporary compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Jurisdictional funding
B) Nature of detainees’ custody
C) Size of facilities
D) Geographic scope
  • 63. Why is the transfer of inmates from BJMP to BuCor custody upon final conviction important?
A) To reduce congestion only
B) To punish detainees further
C) To assign custody to the proper agency
D) To delay enforcement of judgment
  • 64. Which role of BuCor most directly reflects its rehabilitative mandate under RA 10575?
A) Crime investigation
B) Reformation programs
C) Issuing warrants
D) Maintaining jails
  • 65. If BJMP fails to provide humane conditions for detainees, what constitutional right is most compromised?
A) Right against cruel punishment
B) Right to bail
C) Right to speedy trial
D) Right to property
  • 66. A convict sentenced to reclusion perpetua is mistakenly kept under BJMP custody. What evaluative failure occurred?
A) Judicial oversight
B) Administrative error
C) Prosecutorial lapse
D) Jurisdictional custody
  • 67. The BuCor uses classification systems for inmates (minimum, medium, maximum security). This serves primarily to:
A) Delay reintegration
B) Reduce costs
C) Punish more severely
D) Manage risks and rehabilitation
  • 68. Which evaluative factor best explains why BJMP is under DILG while BuCor is under DOJ?
A) Distinction between local jails and national prisons
B) Funding allocation
C) Political mandate
D) Geographic scope
  • 69. Which of the following situations demonstrates a gap in BJMP’s mandate compared to BuCor?
A) Lack of rehabilitation for long-term detainees
B) Handling warrants
C) Managing short-term detainees
D) Administrative budgeting
  • 70. What is the significance of BuCor’s reformation programs to national security?
A) They replace judicial proceedings
B) They provide employment to jail staff
C) They reduce recidivism
D) They reduce jail congestion
  • 71. In terms of the five pillars of the criminal justice system, BJMP and BuCor belong to which pillar?
A) Law enforcement
B) Prosecution
C) Judiciary
D) Corrections
  • 72. Which evaluative issue is most commonly associated with BJMP facilities compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Political interference
B) National classification
C) Excessive budgets
D) Overcrowding
  • 73. A BJMP official implements livelihood training for detainees. This function demonstrates which broader role?
A) Prosecutorial support
B) Humanitarian function of jails
C) Sentencing
D) Judicial oversight
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole works closely with BuCor because:
A) Prosecutors direct parole decisions
B) Prisoners eligible for release are under BuCor custody
C) BJMP manages parolee monitoring
D) Courts automatically release parolees
  • 75. Why is inter-agency coordination between BJMP and BuCor critical after final judgment?
A) To delay transfer of convicts
B) To punish detainees twice
C) To increase BJMP budget
D) To ensure proper transfer of custody
  • 76. Which principle of penology is most at stake when BuCor fails to implement effective rehabilitation programs?
A) Isolation
B) Reformation
C) Retribution
D) Deterrence
  • 77. Which of the following demonstrates BJMP’s role in ensuring access to justice?
A) Conducting criminal investigations
B) Safeguarding detainees’ right to attend trial
C) Issuing arrest warrants
D) Drafting laws
  • 78. The modernization of BuCor under RA 10575 emphasized which evaluative reform?
A) Expansion of local jails
B) Privatization
C) Professionalization and rehabilitation
D) Political independence
  • 79. If BuCor fails to classify prisoners properly, what risk increases?
A) Faster reintegration
B) Violence and security breaches
C) Judicial appeals
D) Higher operational costs
  • 80. Which of the following represents a shared challenge for both BJMP and BuCor?
A) Overcrowding
B) Lack of judicial authority
C) Duplication of parole power
D) Geographic limitation
  • 81. Which evaluative conclusion best explains the complementary role of BJMP and BuCor in corrections?
A) They both prosecute criminal cases
B) They divide custody between temporary detention and long-term imprisonment
C) They both adjudicate disputes
D) They both issue arrest warrants
  • 82. Which demonstrates BuCor’s reintegration role after release of prisoners?
A) Supervising prosecutors
B) Managing trial schedules
C) Post-release monitoring and livelihood suppor
D) Issuing criminal warrants
  • 83. A detainee sentenced to 2 years imprisonment remains under BJMP custody. Why is this correct?
A) DOJ lacks authority
B) Court orders override rules
C) BuCor refuses custody
D) BJMP handles sentences below 3 years
  • 84. What is the evaluative function of BuCor’s therapeutic community programs?
A) Facilitate rehabilitation and reintegration
B) Reduce state expenses
C) Increase judicial backlog
D) Ensure longer detention
  • 85. Which rationale explains why BJMP cannot impose retributive punishment on detainees?
A) BuCor has exclusive authority
B) Detainees are presumed innocent
C) BJMP lacks resources
D) Courts control BJMP
  • 86. Which of the following best demonstrates the evaluative function of the doctrine of judicial hierarchy?
A) It allows parties to choose the fastest court.
B) It prevents overburdening of higher courts by routing cases first to proper trial
C) It ensures that all courts have equal power.
D) It abolishes trial courts in favor of the Supreme Court.
  • 87. Why does the Constitution vest the Supreme Court with both original and appellate jurisdiction?
A) To directly handle barangay disputes.
B) To avoid the Court of Appeals’ role.
C) To reduce the power of trial courts.
D) To ensure flexibility in resolving cases of national significance.
  • 88. The principle that “jurisdiction is conferred by law” means what in practice?
A) Jurisdiction of a court depends only on the agreement of the parties
B) Jurisdiction can be granted by barangay officials.
C) Jurisdiction is strictly defined by statute and cannot be assumed at will
D) Courts may expand their own jurisdiction when necessary.
  • 89. Which of the following demonstrates proper application of jurisdictional rules?
A) A graft case against a mayor filed before the MTC.
B) A small claims case exceeding ₱1,000,000 filed before the MTC.
C) An annulment case filed before the Sandiganbayan.
D) A murder case filed before the RTC.
  • 90. Which evaluative statement best explains the function of trial courts in the criminal justice system?
A) They act as advisory bodies to the President.
B) They exercise only appellate functions.
C) They create laws for implementation.
D) They determine guilt or innocence based on evidence presented
  • 91. Which of the following reflects the PDEA’s strategic role under RA 9165?
A) Implementing the National Anti-Drug Plan of Action and leading drug enforcement policy
B) Managing correctional rehabilitation centers
C) Handling cybercrimes independently
D) Supervising barangay justice systems
  • 92. Why is inter-agency training between PNP, NBI, BFP, and PDEA essential?
A) To reduce agency manpower
B) To create uniform operational knowledge and enhance coordination in joint operations
C) To replace judicial oversight
D) To centralize all powers in one body
  • 93. When PNP evidence is consistently dismissed in court, what evaluative issue should be reviewed?
A) Influence of the suspects
B) Lack of PDEA authority
C) Possible recurring lapses in evidence handling and procedure
D) Judges’ impartiality
  • 94. Why is law enforcement considered the “first pillar” of the Philippine criminal justice system?
A) It enforces the law, gathers evidence, and initiates case build-up for prosecution.
B) It supervises post-conviction reintegration.
C) It rehabilitates offenders.
D) It determines guilt or innocence.
  • 95. What evaluative failure occurs when BFP neglects fire safety inspections, resulting in deaths from a preventable fire?
A) Procedural redundancy
B) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
C) Failure of preventive function leading to potential criminal negligence
D) Failure in custodial investigation
  • 96. What evaluative factor distinguishes preliminary investigation from judicial trial?
A) Judicial trial is conducted only by prosecutors
B) Preliminary investigation is inquisitorial, focusing only on existence of probable cause
C) Preliminary investigation requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Preliminary investigation already decides guilt or innocence
  • 97. Why is DOJ supervision over prosecutors important in preliminary investigation?
A) It centralizes police power in the DOJ
B) It allows judges to review every complaint
C) It ensures national consistency and prevents abuse of discretion
D) It relieves prosecutors of accountability
  • 98. Which illustrates prosecutorial abuse of discretion during inquest?
A) Ordering release due to lack of evidence
B) Filing a case without verifying legality of arrest
C) Dismissing a case due to absence of probable cause
D) Referring the case to higher prosecutors for review
  • 99. What is the practical effect of a prosecutor’s resolution finding no probable cause?
A) Court may still conduct trial
B) Case is automatically filed in court
C) Police may refile the same case without additional evidence
D) Respondent cannot be charged unless reversed on review
  • 100. Which best explains the importance of prosecutors in the administration of justice?
A) They balance the rights of the State to prosecute and the rights of the accused to due process
B) They ensure all police cases proceed to trial
C) They determine penalties imposed by courts
D) They lead all criminal investigations
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