CLJ1
  • 1. During a cyber-enabled drug trafficking case, PDEA requests assistance from the NBI. What is the best rationale for involving the NBI?
A) PNP is constitutionally barred from drug enforcement
B) PDEA is limited to drug rehabilitation programs.
C) BI possesses specialized forensic and cyber-investigation capability needed for transnational cases.
D) NBI has exclusive power over cybercrime investigations.
  • 2. Which situation illustrates the preventive role of the PNP most accurately?
A) Establishing community patrol visibility to deter crime.
B) Conducting custodial interrogation.
C) Prosecuting accused individuals.
D) Arresting suspects after a robbery
  • 3. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support?
A) Jurisdictional supremacy
B) Non-delegation of powers
C) Absolute independence of agencies
D) Inter-agency collaboration and operational efficiency
  • 4. Which principle is best safeguarded when the PDEA leads anti-drug operations but deputizes the PNP for tactical support? A commercial complex failed to comply with fire code requirements. A fire later occurs, causing multiple casualties. From the lens of criminal justice, which evaluative issue arises against the BFP?
A) Failure in community policing
B) Negligence in preventive regulatory enforcement
C) Procedural delay in criminal prosecution
D) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
  • 5. Which distinction most clearly separates the mandates of the PNP and the NBI?
A) PNP manages prosecutions, while NBI supervises corrections.
B) PNP investigates graft, while NBI handles only barangay crimes.
C) PNP enforces all laws nationwide, while NBI investigates only corruption cases.
D) PNP handles general law enforcement, while NBI focuses on technical, complex, and high-profile investigations.
  • 6. Why is chain of custody crucial in PNP-handled drug cases?
A) It allows evidence to be freely transferred between agencies.
B) It ensures that evidence integrity is preserved for admissibility in court.
C) It applies only in NBI laboratories, not in PNP operations.
D) It gives judges discretion to disregard rules of evidence.
  • 7. After a suspicious fire, the BFP submits a technical report indicating arson. How does this role affect criminal proceedings?
A) It grants the BFP jurisdiction over sentencing.
B) It provides admissible forensic evidence supporting prosecution.
C) It allows BFP to automatically prosecute the offender.
D) It replaces the need for police investigation
  • 8. Which case scenario properly falls under the NBI’s jurisdiction rather than the PNP’s?
A) Barangay disturbance between neighbors
B) Syndicated estafa involving high-ranking officials and foreign entities
C) Theft in a barangay sari-sari store
D) Traffic violations along EDSA
  • 9. A PNP-led buy-bust operation is dismissed in court because it was conducted without PDEA coordination. What principle is compromised?
A) Judicial independence
B) Due process and proper jurisdictional mandate
C) Proportionality in sentencing
D) Separation of powers
  • 10. Which BFP function most directly reflects its preventive contribution to criminal justice?
A) Arresting suspects in arson cases
B) Investigating graft and corruption cases
C) Enforcing fire safety codes and conducting inspections
D) Prohibiting building permits
  • 11. Which evaluative advantage does the PNP hold compared to NBI in the grassroots application of criminal justice?
A) Exclusive power over anti-drug operations
B) Broader barangay presence and patrol-based deterrence
C) Mandate over international law enforcement
D) Superior cyber-investigation facilities
  • 12. A prosecutor notes conflicting complaints separately filed by PNP and NBI in the same case. Which evaluative issue arises?
A) Separation of powers
B) Redundancy and lack of inter-agency coordination
C) Chain of custody
D) Collaborative governance
  • 13. During an inquest, it was found that PNP did not document the evidence properly. What is the likely legal impact?
A) BFP conducts secondary investigation.
B) PDEA assumes jurisdiction.
C) Evidence may be excluded, weakening prosecution.
D) The suspect is automatically acquitted.
  • 14. In cases of suspected arson, why is BFP’s role essential even after fire suppression?
A) It adjudicates liability of building owners.
B) It provides legal representation for suspects.
C) It conducts forensic analysis necessary for criminal liability determination.
D) It prevents further police intervention.
  • 15. Which agency has the authority to deputize other law enforcement bodies for anti-drug operations?
A) PDEA
B) DOJ
C) NBI
D) BFP
  • 16. What principle is promoted when PNP secures the perimeter, NBI handles cyber evidence, and PDEA leads the raid in a drug bust?
A) Collaborative governance and complementarity of mandates
B) Procedural redundancy
C) Overstepping of authority
D) Unity of command
  • 17. What is the primary evaluative reason that PNP is often called the “backbone” of law enforcement in the criminal justice system?
A) They supervise prison corrections.
B) They control the courts.
C) They provide legal defense for the accused.
D) Their widespread presence allows immediate response and preventive policing.
  • 18. Which NBI function most strengthens its credibility in high-profile investigations?
A) Forensic and technical divisions specializing in advanced evidence analysis
B) Barangay patrol assistance
C) Nationwide precinct deployment
D) Fire suppression capability
  • 19. A large-scale anti-drug operation fails because PDEA and PNP conducted overlapping operations separately. Which consequence arises?
A) BFP assumes jurisdiction.
B) Automatic conviction of suspects.
C) Evidence handling and prosecution are compromised.
D) Media coverage is reduced.
  • 20. Which statement best evaluates BFP’s link to the “community” pillar of justice?
A) Its enforcement of fire codes prevents disasters that could escalate into criminal negligence affecting communities.
B) It eliminates LGU functions during calamities.
C) It prosecutes arsonists directly on behalf of barangays
D) It supervises barangay elections.
  • 21. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint because the arrest was illegal, and no valid warrantless arrest exception applied. What is being safeguarded?
A) Prosecutorial discretion
B) Legality of arrest and personal liberty
C) Integrity of judicial process
D) Efficiency of case disposal
  • 22. What best explains why prosecutors cannot delegate the determination of probable cause to the police?
A) Probable cause is a quasi-judicial function reserved for prosecutors
B) Courts do not trust police testimony
C) Delegation violates separation of powers
D) Police officers lack training in evidence handling
  • 23. In an inquest proceeding, why is it important that the prosecutor evaluates whether the arrest falls under Rule 113, Sec. 5 (warrantless arrests)?
A) To avoid filing cases based on illegal arrests, which could later be quashed
B) To ensure cases are filed quickly
C) To protect prosecutors from liability
D) To reduce the workload of judges
  • 24. If a prosecutor files an information despite weak evidence, what is the most likely impact on the justice system?
A) Courts will automatically convict
B) It expedites justice delivery
C) It undermines the rights of the accused and clogs court dockets
D) It strengthens police credibility
  • 25. In preliminary investigations, why is it necessary to require counter-affidavits from the respondents?
A) To shorten the prosecutor’s workload
B) To comply with due process and ensure a balanced evaluation of evidence
C) To delay filing of cases until evidence is complete
D) To shift responsibility to defense counsel
  • 26. If during an inquest, evidence clearly shows a person was caught in flagrante delicto, what should the prosecutor do?
A) Release the suspect immediately
B) Refer the case to the DOJ Secretary
C) Wait for the suspect’s motion for bail
D) File the appropriate information in court without preliminary investigation
  • 27. A prosecutor finds inconsistencies in the complainant’s affidavit but strong corroborating physical evidence exists. How should this be evaluated?
A) Require additional police affidavits only
B) Dismiss the case outright
C) Still establish probable cause based on the totality of evidenc
D) Defer to the judge for determination
  • 28. What principle justifies the prosecutor’s authority to decide whether to file a case in court?
A) Judicial discretion
B) Legislative intent
C) Prosecutorial independence
D) Police authority in law enforcement
  • 29. Which scenario reflects the proper exercise of prosecutorial discretion in preliminary investigation?
A) Leaving evidence evaluation to the judge
B) Automatically endorsing all complaints to the DOJ Secretary
C) Filing a case despite no prima facie evidence to avoid criticism
D) Dismissing a complaint due to insufficient probable cause
  • 30. If a prosecutor files a case based on inadmissible evidence (illegally obtained), what is the likely consequence in court?
A) Mistrial
B) Acquittal or dismissal due to exclusionary rule
C) Automatic appeal to DOJ
D) Conviction due to presumption of regularity
  • 31. Why is the prosecutor considered the 'gatekeeper' of the courts in criminal proceedings?
A) They supervise correctional facilities
B) They determine which cases merit judicial trial through preliminary investigation
C) They approve police promotions
D) They decide on guilt or innocence
  • 32. A suspect is arrested without a warrant for murder but the prosecutor finds no probable cause during inquest. What should the prosecutor do?
A) Endorse the case to the Ombudsman
B) Suspend proceedings until further evidence is gathered
C) File the case anyway and let the court decide
D) Order the suspect’s immediate release
  • 33. In conducting preliminary investigation, why must prosecutors avoid relying solely on police recommendations?
A) Police may exaggerate findings
B) DOJ circulars prohibit it
C) Courts demand police neutrality
D) The Constitution requires independent and impartial evaluation of evidence
  • 34. Which of the following best evaluates the role of the prosecutor in protecting the accused’s right to liberty?
A) By dismissing all weak cases regardless of evidence
B) By ensuring probable cause exists before a person is haled into court
C) By automatically recommending bail
D) By conducting speedy trials
  • 35. What is the critical evaluative function of inquest proceedings compared to preliminary investigation?
A) Inquest is optional, while preliminary investigation is mandatory
B) Inquest determines validity of warrantless arrests, while preliminary
C) Inquest is conducted only after conviction
D) Both serve only as police procedures
  • 36. When prosecutors conduct inquest proceedings immediately after arrest, what constitutional principle is primarily observed?
A) Right to free counsel
B) Right against double jeopardy
C) Right to speedy disposition of cases
D) Right to equal protection
  • 37. A prosecutor ignores an accused’s request to submit a counter-affidavit in preliminary investigation. What is the most probable legal outcome?
A) The case proceeds unaffected
B) Accused may question the prosecutor’s action via certiorari for denial of due process
C) The case will automatically be dismissed
D) Evidence will be considered waived
  • 38. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint after finding that the evidence presented is based only on hearsay affidavits. Which principle is the prosecutor upholding?
A) Probable cause requirement
B) Adversarial principle
C) Inquisitorial principle
D) Res judicata
  • 39. During a preliminary investigation, the prosecutor evaluates the sufficiency of evidence. What is the correct evaluative standard to determine probable cause?
A) Mere suspicion or belief
B) Such evidence as would lead a reasonably prudent person to believe a crime was committed
C) Substantial evidence
D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 40. If a prosecutor conducts an inquest proceeding without affording the arrested person the chance to explain or submit evidence, which constitutional right is violated?
A) Right to bail
B) Right to due process
C) Right to equal protection of the laws
D) Right against double jeopardy
  • 41. Which of the following best describes the role of the Supreme Court in the Philippine judicial hierarchy?
A) It only hears cases endorsed by the President.
B) It exercises appellate jurisdiction and has the power of judicial review over all lower courts.
C) It primarily serves as a trial court for criminal cases.
D) It directly hears all cases filed by the public without restriction
  • 42. Why is it important to maintain a hierarchy of courts in the Philippine judicial system?
A) To expand the power of barangay courts.
B) To limit the number of lawyers who can appear in trial courts.
C) To allow parties to skip lower courts for faster results.
D) To ensure orderly administration of justice and prevent forum shopping.
  • 43. Which trial court has original jurisdiction over cases of illegal possession of dangerous drugs involving small quantities?
A) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
B) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Court of Appeals
  • 44. What is the primary evaluative distinction between the Sandiganbayan and the Regional Trial Courts?
A) Both share identical jurisdictions.
B) RTCs only handle barangay-level disputes, while Sandiganbayan hears all national cases.
C) Sandiganbayan handles cases involving public officials, while RTCs handle general criminal and civil cases.
D) Both A and C
  • 45. The doctrine of hierarchy of courts requires what procedural rule when filing petitions for extraordinary writs?
A) Parties are free to choose any court.
B) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
C) Petitions should generally be filed in the lowest court with concurrent jurisdiction.
D) Petitions must always be filed first in the Supreme Court.
  • 46. Which of the following cases falls under the exclusive jurisdiction of the Sandiganbayan?
A) Family disputes involving annulment.
B) Graft and corruption by a provincial governor
C) Estafa committed by a private individual.
D) Cybercrime by a private company.
  • 47. Which principle explains why the Supreme Court cannot be burdened with all trial-level cases?
A) Principle of Judicial Activism
B) Principle of Judicial Economy
C) Principle of Collegiality
D) Principle of Judicial Hierarchy
  • 48. Which trial court has jurisdiction over civil cases where the value of the property does not exceed ₱300,000 (outside Metro Manila)?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Supreme Court
C) Municipal Trial Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 49. The Court of Appeals primarily serves what function in the hierarchy of courts?
A) It serves as the first-level trial court for minor offenses.
B) It enforces laws passed by Congress.
C) It acts as an appellate court reviewing decisions of RTCs and quasi-judicial agencies.
D) It directly tries barangay disputes.
  • 50. A public official charged with plunder must be tried before which court?
A) Regional Trial Court
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Municipal Trial Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 51. Why are Municipal Trial Courts considered the “first level courts”?
A) They have the same power as the Supreme Court.
B) They handle the heaviest caseload in the system.
C) They try less serious offenses and small claims to decongest higher courts.
D) They serve as administrative bodies only.
  • 52. Which case would properly fall within the jurisdiction of the Regional Trial Court?
A) Violation of traffic rules
B) Murder
C) Barangay conciliation disputes
D) Theft involving ₱5,000
  • 53. Which doctrine guides the Supreme Court in refusing to act on petitions directly filed before it without first exhausting lower remedies?
A) Doctrine of Judicial Restraint
B) Doctrine of Hierarchy of Courts
C) Doctrine of Stare Decisis
D) Doctrine of Judicial Review
  • 54. Why is the Sandiganbayan considered a special court within the hierarchy?
A) Because it handles marriage annulments.
B) Because it focuses on crimes involving graft and corruption by public officials.
C) Because it hears all appeals from the RTC.
D) Because it handles electoral disputes.
  • 55. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) When the RTC is unavailable due to vacancy.
B) When barangay officials decline to mediate.
C) When there are novel constitutional issues of transcendental importance.
D) When an MTC judge is absent.
  • 56. Which is true of the relationship between the Supreme Court and the Court of Appeals?
A) The Supreme Court directly supervises case raffling in the Court of Appeals.
B) The Supreme Court can only review CA cases involving traffic violations.
C) The Court of Appeals has no appellate power at all.
D) The Court of Appeals acts as an intermediate appellate body whose decisions are reviewable by the Supreme Court.
  • 57. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates a violation of the doctrine of hierarchy of courts?
A) Filing a petition for certiorari directly with the Supreme Court despite available remedies in the Court of Appeals.
B) Appealing an RTC decision to the Court of Appeals.
C) Elevating a CA decision to the Supreme Court for review.
D) Filing a small claims case in an MTC.
  • 58. The jurisdiction of Shari’a courts is limited to what type of cases?
A) All graft cases committed in Muslim areas
B) Criminal cases involving Muslims
C) All cases in Mindanao
D) Civil cases relating to marriage, divorce, and inheritance among Muslims
  • 59. Which court has exclusive appellate jurisdiction over all decisions of the Municipal Trial Courts?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Supreme Court
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 60. A case of homicide committed in Quezon City should first be filed before which court?
A) Municipal Trial Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 61. Which principle justifies BJMP’s responsibility to improve conditions despite limited resources?
A) Human rights protection
B) Administrative convenience
C) Retribution
D) Expediency
  • 62. Which evaluative distinction best explains why BJMP facilities are considered temporary compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Size of facilities
B) Jurisdictional funding
C) Geographic scope
D) Nature of detainees’ custody
  • 63. Why is the transfer of inmates from BJMP to BuCor custody upon final conviction important?
A) To assign custody to the proper agency
B) To delay enforcement of judgment
C) To reduce congestion only
D) To punish detainees further
  • 64. Which role of BuCor most directly reflects its rehabilitative mandate under RA 10575?
A) Reformation programs
B) Crime investigation
C) Issuing warrants
D) Maintaining jails
  • 65. If BJMP fails to provide humane conditions for detainees, what constitutional right is most compromised?
A) Right to bail
B) Right against cruel punishment
C) Right to property
D) Right to speedy trial
  • 66. A convict sentenced to reclusion perpetua is mistakenly kept under BJMP custody. What evaluative failure occurred?
A) Jurisdictional custody
B) Prosecutorial lapse
C) Administrative error
D) Judicial oversight
  • 67. The BuCor uses classification systems for inmates (minimum, medium, maximum security). This serves primarily to:
A) Manage risks and rehabilitation
B) Delay reintegration
C) Reduce costs
D) Punish more severely
  • 68. Which evaluative factor best explains why BJMP is under DILG while BuCor is under DOJ?
A) Distinction between local jails and national prisons
B) Funding allocation
C) Geographic scope
D) Political mandate
  • 69. Which of the following situations demonstrates a gap in BJMP’s mandate compared to BuCor?
A) Administrative budgeting
B) Handling warrants
C) Managing short-term detainees
D) Lack of rehabilitation for long-term detainees
  • 70. What is the significance of BuCor’s reformation programs to national security?
A) They reduce recidivism
B) They replace judicial proceedings
C) They reduce jail congestion
D) They provide employment to jail staff
  • 71. In terms of the five pillars of the criminal justice system, BJMP and BuCor belong to which pillar?
A) Prosecution
B) Law enforcement
C) Corrections
D) Judiciary
  • 72. Which evaluative issue is most commonly associated with BJMP facilities compared to BuCor institutions?
A) Excessive budgets
B) National classification
C) Overcrowding
D) Political interference
  • 73. A BJMP official implements livelihood training for detainees. This function demonstrates which broader role?
A) Prosecutorial support
B) Judicial oversight
C) Sentencing
D) Humanitarian function of jails
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole works closely with BuCor because:
A) Prosecutors direct parole decisions
B) Courts automatically release parolees
C) BJMP manages parolee monitoring
D) Prisoners eligible for release are under BuCor custody
  • 75. Why is inter-agency coordination between BJMP and BuCor critical after final judgment?
A) To punish detainees twice
B) To increase BJMP budget
C) To delay transfer of convicts
D) To ensure proper transfer of custody
  • 76. Which principle of penology is most at stake when BuCor fails to implement effective rehabilitation programs?
A) Deterrence
B) Retribution
C) Reformation
D) Isolation
  • 77. Which of the following demonstrates BJMP’s role in ensuring access to justice?
A) Conducting criminal investigations
B) Issuing arrest warrants
C) Safeguarding detainees’ right to attend trial
D) Drafting laws
  • 78. The modernization of BuCor under RA 10575 emphasized which evaluative reform?
A) Privatization
B) Political independence
C) Professionalization and rehabilitation
D) Expansion of local jails
  • 79. If BuCor fails to classify prisoners properly, what risk increases?
A) Violence and security breaches
B) Judicial appeals
C) Faster reintegration
D) Higher operational costs
  • 80. Which of the following represents a shared challenge for both BJMP and BuCor?
A) Duplication of parole power
B) Lack of judicial authority
C) Geographic limitation
D) Overcrowding
  • 81. Which evaluative conclusion best explains the complementary role of BJMP and BuCor in corrections?
A) They both issue arrest warrants
B) They divide custody between temporary detention and long-term imprisonment
C) They both adjudicate disputes
D) They both prosecute criminal cases
  • 82. Which demonstrates BuCor’s reintegration role after release of prisoners?
A) Issuing criminal warrants
B) Post-release monitoring and livelihood suppor
C) Managing trial schedules
D) Supervising prosecutors
  • 83. A detainee sentenced to 2 years imprisonment remains under BJMP custody. Why is this correct?
A) BuCor refuses custody
B) DOJ lacks authority
C) Court orders override rules
D) BJMP handles sentences below 3 years
  • 84. What is the evaluative function of BuCor’s therapeutic community programs?
A) Ensure longer detention
B) Reduce state expenses
C) Increase judicial backlog
D) Facilitate rehabilitation and reintegration
  • 85. Which rationale explains why BJMP cannot impose retributive punishment on detainees?
A) Courts control BJMP
B) BuCor has exclusive authority
C) BJMP lacks resources
D) Detainees are presumed innocent
  • 86. Which of the following best demonstrates the evaluative function of the doctrine of judicial hierarchy?
A) It ensures that all courts have equal power.
B) It prevents overburdening of higher courts by routing cases first to proper trial
C) It abolishes trial courts in favor of the Supreme Court.
D) It allows parties to choose the fastest court.
  • 87. Why does the Constitution vest the Supreme Court with both original and appellate jurisdiction?
A) To directly handle barangay disputes.
B) To reduce the power of trial courts.
C) To avoid the Court of Appeals’ role.
D) To ensure flexibility in resolving cases of national significance.
  • 88. The principle that “jurisdiction is conferred by law” means what in practice?
A) Jurisdiction can be granted by barangay officials.
B) Jurisdiction is strictly defined by statute and cannot be assumed at will
C) Jurisdiction of a court depends only on the agreement of the parties
D) Courts may expand their own jurisdiction when necessary.
  • 89. Which of the following demonstrates proper application of jurisdictional rules?
A) A murder case filed before the RTC.
B) An annulment case filed before the Sandiganbayan.
C) A graft case against a mayor filed before the MTC.
D) A small claims case exceeding ₱1,000,000 filed before the MTC.
  • 90. Which evaluative statement best explains the function of trial courts in the criminal justice system?
A) They act as advisory bodies to the President.
B) They exercise only appellate functions.
C) They create laws for implementation.
D) They determine guilt or innocence based on evidence presented
  • 91. Which of the following reflects the PDEA’s strategic role under RA 9165?
A) Supervising barangay justice systems
B) Implementing the National Anti-Drug Plan of Action and leading drug enforcement policy
C) Managing correctional rehabilitation centers
D) Handling cybercrimes independently
  • 92. Why is inter-agency training between PNP, NBI, BFP, and PDEA essential?
A) To reduce agency manpower
B) To create uniform operational knowledge and enhance coordination in joint operations
C) To replace judicial oversight
D) To centralize all powers in one body
  • 93. When PNP evidence is consistently dismissed in court, what evaluative issue should be reviewed?
A) Judges’ impartiality
B) Lack of PDEA authority
C) Influence of the suspects
D) Possible recurring lapses in evidence handling and procedure
  • 94. Why is law enforcement considered the “first pillar” of the Philippine criminal justice system?
A) It determines guilt or innocence.
B) It enforces the law, gathers evidence, and initiates case build-up for prosecution.
C) It rehabilitates offenders.
D) It supervises post-conviction reintegration.
  • 95. What evaluative failure occurs when BFP neglects fire safety inspections, resulting in deaths from a preventable fire?
A) Failure in custodial investigation
B) Overstepping PNP jurisdiction
C) Procedural redundancy
D) Failure of preventive function leading to potential criminal negligence
  • 96. What evaluative factor distinguishes preliminary investigation from judicial trial?
A) Preliminary investigation requires proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Preliminary investigation already decides guilt or innocence
C) Judicial trial is conducted only by prosecutors
D) Preliminary investigation is inquisitorial, focusing only on existence of probable cause
  • 97. Why is DOJ supervision over prosecutors important in preliminary investigation?
A) It ensures national consistency and prevents abuse of discretion
B) It relieves prosecutors of accountability
C) It allows judges to review every complaint
D) It centralizes police power in the DOJ
  • 98. Which illustrates prosecutorial abuse of discretion during inquest?
A) Dismissing a case due to absence of probable cause
B) Filing a case without verifying legality of arrest
C) Referring the case to higher prosecutors for review
D) Ordering release due to lack of evidence
  • 99. What is the practical effect of a prosecutor’s resolution finding no probable cause?
A) Police may refile the same case without additional evidence
B) Court may still conduct trial
C) Case is automatically filed in court
D) Respondent cannot be charged unless reversed on review
  • 100. Which best explains the importance of prosecutors in the administration of justice?
A) They ensure all police cases proceed to trial
B) They lead all criminal investigations
C) They balance the rights of the State to prosecute and the rights of the accused to due process
D) They determine penalties imposed by courts
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