A) Medical Jurisprudence B) All of the Above C) Forensic Medicine D) Legal Medicine
A) Medical Jurist B) Medico - legal Expert C) Medical Examiner D) All of the Above
A) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals B) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies C) Health officers D) all of these
A) Autopsy/ Necropsy B) Medico legal autopsy C) Autopsic D) Clinical Autopsy
A) Autopsic B) Autopsy/ Necropsy C) Clinical Autopsy D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Autopsy/Necropsy C) Medico-legal autopsy D) Autoptic
A) Remedial law B) Special law C) Civil Law D) Criminal law
A) Crimes against property B) Circumstances affecting criminal liability C) Crimes against person D) Crimes against chastity
A) Rigor Mortis B) Algor Mortis C) Livor Mortis D) Flaccidity
A) Algor Mortis B) Rigor Mortis C) Livor Mortis D) Flaccidity
A) Rigor Mortis B) Livor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Algor Mortis
A) Corpus Delicti B) Proma Facie Evidence C) Corroborative Evidence D) Material Evidence
A) Albumin test B) Acid hematin C) Precipitin test D) Alkaline test
A) Memories B) Photographing it C) Written interrogatories D) Tape recording them
A) Method of operation's of the suspect B) Cordon the area C) Identity of the suspect D) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed
A) Hematoma B) Punchured C) Contusion D) Abrasion
A) Punchured wound B) Abrasion C) Contusion D) Hematoma
A) Abrasion B) Punctured wound C) Hematoma D) Contusion
A) Punctured wound B) Hematoma C) Contusion D) Abrasion
A) Arrest B) Robbery C) Armed Robbery D) Homicide
A) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact B) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached C) The face appears softened D) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove
A) Incised wound B) Defense wound C) Justifying circumstances D) Lacerated wound
A) Serious physical injury B) Less serious physical injury C) Mutilation D) Slight physical injury
A) Rigor mortis B) Hypostatics Livility C) Hyper Livility D) Diffusion Livility
A) Moral virginity B) Physical virginity C) Demi-virginity D) Virgo-intacta
A) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension B) 48 hours death C) Livor mortis D) Primary flaccidity
A) 30-45 minutes B) 10-15 minutes C) 15-30 minutes D) 45-60 minutes
A) Putrefaction B) Livor mortis C) Carbolization D) Saponification
A) 36 hours B) 12 hours C) 24 hours D) 48 hours
A) Death, property damage B) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries C) Physical injuries and death D) Fatal, non fatal, property damage
A) Bright red B) Pink C) Violet D) yellow
A) Radiation burn B) Electrical burn C) Thermal burn D) Friction burn
A) 14 years old B) 15 years old C) 12 years old D) 13 years old
A) All of these B) A non-resisting victim C) Limitations of the forensic examination D) A non- aggressive assailant
A) Tenor B) Dolor C) Calor D) Rubor
A) Vital Infection B) Vital Infliction C) Vital Deactivation D) Vital Reaction
A) Mortal Wounds B) Closed Wounds C) Non-Mortal Wounds D) Open Wounds
A) Punctured Wound B) Stab Wound C) Lacerated Wound D) Inscised Wound
A) 5-7 hours B) 3-4 hours C) 6-8 hours D) 1-2 hours
A) Maceration B) Purge C) Saponification D) Mummification
A) Masochism B) Fornication C) Sado-masochism D) Sadism
A) Coup Injury B) Contre-Coup Injury C) Coup Contre-Coup Injur D) Locus Minoris Resistancia
A) Infanticide B) Murder C) Parricide D) Homicide
A) Parricide B) Murder C) Homicide D) Infanticide
A) Murder B) Parricide C) Homicide D) Infanticide
A) Must be buried or cremated with body B) Must be described and inventoried C) Must be turned over to the police as evidence D) All of the above
A) Passive Euthanasia B) Active Euthanasia C) Mercy Killing D) Euthanasia
A) 6 hours B) 12 hours C) 3 hours D) 8 hours
A) Suffocation B) Asphyxia C) Hanging D) Strangulation
A) Contusion B) Hematoma C) Abrasion D) Incised Wound
A) Virginity B) Defloration C) Carnal Knowledge D) Moral Virginity
A) Close Wound B) Hematoma C) Petechiae D) Contusion
A) 12 inches B) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches C) Near contact to 6 inches D) More than 25 inches
A) Circumstances of the death B) Witness accounts C) Last medical history D) All of the above
A) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper B) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper C) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic D) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic
A) Rule of Court B) Evidence C) Real D) Autoptic
A) Oralism B) Sadism C) Masochism D) Fetishism
A) Mannikinism B) Narcissism C) Pygmalionism D) Vampirism
A) Necrophilia B) Gerontophilia C) Autosexual D) Bestosexual
A) 3 to 4 hours B) 5 to 6 hours C) 2 to 3 hours D) 4 to 5 hours
A) All of the above B) Health officers C) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals D) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies
A) Crime scene investigation B) Exhumation C) Autopsy D) Post-mortem investigation
A) Charring B) Exhumation C) Pounding D) Cremation
A) Red B) Clay C) Black D) Reddish-brown
A) Phenolphthalein Test B) Florence Test C) Barberio Test D) Takayama Test
A) Deoxy nucleic acid B) Deoxyribonucleic acid C) Dematuralized acid D) Deonatural acid
A) False Physical Virginity B) True Physical Virginity C) Physical Virginity D) Demi-Virginity
A) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian. B) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. C) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. D) To immediately begin the evidence collection process.
A) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. B) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian. C) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. D) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife.
A) Extenuation B) Mutt and Jeff C) Shifting the Blame D) Pretense of Physical Evidence
A) Circumstantial Evidence B) Corpus Delicti C) Associative Evidence D) Tracing Evidence
A) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. B) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement. C) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings. D) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel.
A) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. B) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved. C) That it is material and relevant to the case. D) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene.
A) Qualities of a good surveillant. B) Methods of shadowing. C) How to detect foot surveillance D) How to conduct surveillance of a place.
A) Mercenary Informant B) Double-Crosser Informant C) Legitimate Informant D) Anonymous Informant
A) Tracing Evidence B) Associative Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Modus Operandi (MO)
A) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. B) Release the crime scene to the property owner. C) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. D) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence.
A) Compass Point Method B) Baseline Method C) Rectangular Coordinates Method D) Triangulation Method
A) Positive Evidence B) Circumstantial Evidence C) Corroborative Evidence D) Direct Evidence
A) Confession B) Dying Declaration C) Admission D) Excited Utterance
A) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. B) Create a sensational visual record for media release. C) Identify the suspect through artistic composition. D) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved.
A) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption. B) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. C) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview. D) Establish Rapport with the witness.
A) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. B) Ensure they reach their destination on time. C) Comply with local traffic regulations. D) Detect if they are under surveillance.
A) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery. B) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. C) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry. D) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death.
A) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. B) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one. C) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. D) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence.
A) Corpus Delicti B) Modus Operandi C) Miranda Doctrine D) Locard's Exchange Principle
A) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. B) Made in the presence of the victim's family. C) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. D) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel.
A) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration. B) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. C) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies. D) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation.
A) Scale B) Title C) Legend D) Compass Direction (North)
A) A search method for large, open areas. B) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. C) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed. D) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point.
A) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court. B) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. C) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. D) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition.
A) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. B) Allow the media to photograph the suspect. C) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. D) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule.
A) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. B) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom. C) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. D) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom.
A) Database of modus operandi. B) File of photographic images of known criminals. C) Library of ballistic fingerprints. D) Collection of artist sketches.
A) There is only one suspect. B) The suspect is a hardened criminal. C) There is more than one suspect. D) The suspect has already requested a lawyer.
A) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. B) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. C) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ. D) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete.
A) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors. B) Government records and news items. C) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. D) Official police databases.
A) Mark a location for a future meeting. B) Dispose of incriminating evidence. C) Communicate with an accomplice. D) Detect if they are under surveillance.
A) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. B) Anti-Wiretapping Law. C) Rules on Electronic Evidence. D) Revised Penal Code.
A) multi-story building divided into zones. B) long, narrow road. C) An approximately circular or oval open field. D) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. |