A) Medical Jurisprudence B) Forensic Medicine C) All of the Above D) Legal Medicine
A) Medical Jurist B) Medico - legal Expert C) All of the Above D) Medical Examiner
A) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies B) all of these C) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals D) Health officers
A) Autopsic B) Autopsy/ Necropsy C) Clinical Autopsy D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Medico legal autopsy C) Autopsic D) Autopsy/ Necropsy
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Medico-legal autopsy C) Autopsy/Necropsy D) Autoptic
A) Special law B) Remedial law C) Civil Law D) Criminal law
A) Crimes against property B) Crimes against chastity C) Circumstances affecting criminal liability D) Crimes against person
A) Rigor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Algor Mortis D) Livor Mortis
A) Algor Mortis B) Livor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Rigor Mortis
A) Flaccidity B) Livor Mortis C) Algor Mortis D) Rigor Mortis
A) Proma Facie Evidence B) Corpus Delicti C) Material Evidence D) Corroborative Evidence
A) Alkaline test B) Acid hematin C) Albumin test D) Precipitin test
A) Photographing it B) Written interrogatories C) Memories D) Tape recording them
A) Method of operation's of the suspect B) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed C) Cordon the area D) Identity of the suspect
A) Punchured B) Abrasion C) Contusion D) Hematoma
A) Punchured wound B) Contusion C) Abrasion D) Hematoma
A) Contusion B) Hematoma C) Abrasion D) Punctured wound
A) Hematoma B) Contusion C) Punctured wound D) Abrasion
A) Homicide B) Armed Robbery C) Arrest D) Robbery
A) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove B) The face appears softened C) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached D) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact
A) Defense wound B) Lacerated wound C) Justifying circumstances D) Incised wound
A) Slight physical injury B) Less serious physical injury C) Mutilation D) Serious physical injury
A) Diffusion Livility B) Hypostatics Livility C) Hyper Livility D) Rigor mortis
A) Moral virginity B) Virgo-intacta C) Physical virginity D) Demi-virginity
A) 48 hours death B) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension C) Primary flaccidity D) Livor mortis
A) 30-45 minutes B) 10-15 minutes C) 45-60 minutes D) 15-30 minutes
A) Carbolization B) Livor mortis C) Putrefaction D) Saponification
A) 36 hours B) 24 hours C) 12 hours D) 48 hours
A) Death, property damage B) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries C) Fatal, non fatal, property damage D) Physical injuries and death
A) Bright red B) yellow C) Pink D) Violet
A) Radiation burn B) Electrical burn C) Thermal burn D) Friction burn
A) 14 years old B) 15 years old C) 13 years old D) 12 years old
A) A non- aggressive assailant B) All of these C) A non-resisting victim D) Limitations of the forensic examination
A) Calor B) Tenor C) Dolor D) Rubor
A) Vital Infection B) Vital Deactivation C) Vital Infliction D) Vital Reaction
A) Non-Mortal Wounds B) Open Wounds C) Mortal Wounds D) Closed Wounds
A) Punctured Wound B) Inscised Wound C) Stab Wound D) Lacerated Wound
A) 6-8 hours B) 1-2 hours C) 3-4 hours D) 5-7 hours
A) Maceration B) Saponification C) Purge D) Mummification
A) Sado-masochism B) Fornication C) Masochism D) Sadism
A) Locus Minoris Resistancia B) Coup Injury C) Contre-Coup Injury D) Coup Contre-Coup Injur
A) Murder B) Infanticide C) Homicide D) Parricide
A) Homicide B) Murder C) Parricide D) Infanticide
A) Homicide B) Murder C) Infanticide D) Parricide
A) All of the above B) Must be described and inventoried C) Must be buried or cremated with body D) Must be turned over to the police as evidence
A) Euthanasia B) Passive Euthanasia C) Active Euthanasia D) Mercy Killing
A) 3 hours B) 12 hours C) 8 hours D) 6 hours
A) Suffocation B) Asphyxia C) Hanging D) Strangulation
A) Abrasion B) Contusion C) Hematoma D) Incised Wound
A) Virginity B) Carnal Knowledge C) Defloration D) Moral Virginity
A) Petechiae B) Contusion C) Close Wound D) Hematoma
A) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches B) 12 inches C) Near contact to 6 inches D) More than 25 inches
A) Witness accounts B) Circumstances of the death C) Last medical history D) All of the above
A) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper B) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic C) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic D) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper
A) Autoptic B) Real C) Rule of Court D) Evidence
A) Oralism B) Fetishism C) Sadism D) Masochism
A) Narcissism B) Pygmalionism C) Mannikinism D) Vampirism
A) Autosexual B) Necrophilia C) Gerontophilia D) Bestosexual
A) 3 to 4 hours B) 2 to 3 hours C) 5 to 6 hours D) 4 to 5 hours
A) All of the above B) Health officers C) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals D) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies
A) Crime scene investigation B) Autopsy C) Exhumation D) Post-mortem investigation
A) Exhumation B) Pounding C) Cremation D) Charring
A) Reddish-brown B) Red C) Black D) Clay
A) Phenolphthalein Test B) Barberio Test C) Takayama Test D) Florence Test
A) Deoxy nucleic acid B) Deonatural acid C) Dematuralized acid D) Deoxyribonucleic acid
A) False Physical Virginity B) Physical Virginity C) Demi-Virginity D) True Physical Virginity
A) To immediately begin the evidence collection process. B) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. C) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. D) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian.
A) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. B) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. C) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife. D) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian.
A) Mutt and Jeff B) Shifting the Blame C) Pretense of Physical Evidence D) Extenuation
A) Corpus Delicti B) Circumstantial Evidence C) Associative Evidence D) Tracing Evidence
A) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. B) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings. C) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel. D) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement.
A) That it is material and relevant to the case. B) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved. C) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. D) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene.
A) How to conduct surveillance of a place. B) Qualities of a good surveillant. C) How to detect foot surveillance D) Methods of shadowing.
A) Legitimate Informant B) Mercenary Informant C) Double-Crosser Informant D) Anonymous Informant
A) Modus Operandi (MO) B) Corpus Delicti C) Associative Evidence D) Tracing Evidence
A) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence. B) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. C) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. D) Release the crime scene to the property owner.
A) Triangulation Method B) Rectangular Coordinates Method C) Baseline Method D) Compass Point Method
A) Corroborative Evidence B) Direct Evidence C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Positive Evidence
A) Admission B) Excited Utterance C) Confession D) Dying Declaration
A) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. B) Identify the suspect through artistic composition. C) Create a sensational visual record for media release. D) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch.
A) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview. B) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. C) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption. D) Establish Rapport with the witness.
A) Detect if they are under surveillance. B) Comply with local traffic regulations. C) Ensure they reach their destination on time. D) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover.
A) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery. B) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry. C) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. D) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death.
A) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence. B) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. C) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. D) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one.
A) Corpus Delicti B) Locard's Exchange Principle C) Miranda Doctrine D) Modus Operandi
A) Made in the presence of the victim's family. B) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. C) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. D) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence.
A) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration. B) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. C) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. D) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies.
A) Compass Direction (North) B) Scale C) Title D) Legend
A) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. B) A search method for large, open areas. C) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. D) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed.
A) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. B) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition. C) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. D) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court.
A) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. B) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. C) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. D) Allow the media to photograph the suspect.
A) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. B) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom. C) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom. D) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How.
A) Database of modus operandi. B) Library of ballistic fingerprints. C) Collection of artist sketches. D) File of photographic images of known criminals.
A) There is only one suspect. B) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. C) There is more than one suspect. D) The suspect is a hardened criminal.
A) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete. B) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. C) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. D) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ.
A) Official police databases. B) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors. C) Government records and news items. D) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts.
A) Mark a location for a future meeting. B) Detect if they are under surveillance. C) Dispose of incriminating evidence. D) Communicate with an accomplice.
A) Revised Penal Code. B) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. C) Rules on Electronic Evidence. D) Anti-Wiretapping Law.
A) An approximately circular or oval open field. B) long, narrow road. C) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. D) multi-story building divided into zones. |