A) Forensic Medicine B) Legal Medicine C) Medical Jurisprudence D) All of the Above
A) Medical Jurist B) All of the Above C) Medico - legal Expert D) Medical Examiner
A) all of these B) Health officers C) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies D) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
A) Autopsic B) Clinical Autopsy C) Autopsy/ Necropsy D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Medico legal autopsy B) Autopsic C) Autopsy/ Necropsy D) Clinical Autopsy
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Medico-legal autopsy C) Autoptic D) Autopsy/Necropsy
A) Remedial law B) Special law C) Civil Law D) Criminal law
A) Crimes against person B) Crimes against property C) Circumstances affecting criminal liability D) Crimes against chastity
A) Livor Mortis B) Algor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Rigor Mortis
A) Rigor Mortis B) Livor Mortis C) Algor Mortis D) Flaccidity
A) Rigor Mortis B) Algor Mortis C) Livor Mortis D) Flaccidity
A) Corroborative Evidence B) Corpus Delicti C) Proma Facie Evidence D) Material Evidence
A) Precipitin test B) Acid hematin C) Alkaline test D) Albumin test
A) Memories B) Tape recording them C) Photographing it D) Written interrogatories
A) Identity of the suspect B) Method of operation's of the suspect C) Cordon the area D) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed
A) Abrasion B) Punchured C) Hematoma D) Contusion
A) Abrasion B) Contusion C) Hematoma D) Punchured wound
A) Contusion B) Hematoma C) Abrasion D) Punctured wound
A) Contusion B) Abrasion C) Punctured wound D) Hematoma
A) Arrest B) Robbery C) Homicide D) Armed Robbery
A) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached B) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact C) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove D) The face appears softened
A) Justifying circumstances B) Defense wound C) Lacerated wound D) Incised wound
A) Mutilation B) Serious physical injury C) Less serious physical injury D) Slight physical injury
A) Diffusion Livility B) Hyper Livility C) Rigor mortis D) Hypostatics Livility
A) Physical virginity B) Moral virginity C) Virgo-intacta D) Demi-virginity
A) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension B) Livor mortis C) 48 hours death D) Primary flaccidity
A) 10-15 minutes B) 45-60 minutes C) 15-30 minutes D) 30-45 minutes
A) Livor mortis B) Putrefaction C) Saponification D) Carbolization
A) 24 hours B) 36 hours C) 48 hours D) 12 hours
A) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries B) Death, property damage C) Fatal, non fatal, property damage D) Physical injuries and death
A) Pink B) Bright red C) Violet D) yellow
A) Thermal burn B) Electrical burn C) Radiation burn D) Friction burn
A) 14 years old B) 13 years old C) 12 years old D) 15 years old
A) All of these B) Limitations of the forensic examination C) A non- aggressive assailant D) A non-resisting victim
A) Calor B) Dolor C) Rubor D) Tenor
A) Vital Reaction B) Vital Deactivation C) Vital Infection D) Vital Infliction
A) Non-Mortal Wounds B) Mortal Wounds C) Open Wounds D) Closed Wounds
A) Stab Wound B) Punctured Wound C) Inscised Wound D) Lacerated Wound
A) 6-8 hours B) 1-2 hours C) 5-7 hours D) 3-4 hours
A) Saponification B) Mummification C) Purge D) Maceration
A) Sadism B) Sado-masochism C) Masochism D) Fornication
A) Contre-Coup Injury B) Locus Minoris Resistancia C) Coup Contre-Coup Injur D) Coup Injury
A) Murder B) Homicide C) Infanticide D) Parricide
A) Parricide B) Homicide C) Murder D) Infanticide
A) Parricide B) Homicide C) Infanticide D) Murder
A) Must be turned over to the police as evidence B) Must be buried or cremated with body C) Must be described and inventoried D) All of the above
A) Mercy Killing B) Euthanasia C) Passive Euthanasia D) Active Euthanasia
A) 3 hours B) 6 hours C) 8 hours D) 12 hours
A) Suffocation B) Strangulation C) Hanging D) Asphyxia
A) Abrasion B) Hematoma C) Incised Wound D) Contusion
A) Virginity B) Moral Virginity C) Carnal Knowledge D) Defloration
A) Hematoma B) Petechiae C) Contusion D) Close Wound
A) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches B) 12 inches C) More than 25 inches D) Near contact to 6 inches
A) Witness accounts B) Circumstances of the death C) Last medical history D) All of the above
A) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper B) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic C) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic D) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper
A) Rule of Court B) Autoptic C) Evidence D) Real
A) Sadism B) Oralism C) Masochism D) Fetishism
A) Vampirism B) Pygmalionism C) Mannikinism D) Narcissism
A) Bestosexual B) Gerontophilia C) Necrophilia D) Autosexual
A) 3 to 4 hours B) 2 to 3 hours C) 5 to 6 hours D) 4 to 5 hours
A) Health officers B) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals C) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies D) All of the above
A) Exhumation B) Autopsy C) Post-mortem investigation D) Crime scene investigation
A) Cremation B) Exhumation C) Charring D) Pounding
A) Red B) Black C) Reddish-brown D) Clay
A) Phenolphthalein Test B) Barberio Test C) Florence Test D) Takayama Test
A) Deonatural acid B) Deoxyribonucleic acid C) Deoxy nucleic acid D) Dematuralized acid
A) Physical Virginity B) Demi-Virginity C) True Physical Virginity D) False Physical Virginity
A) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. B) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. C) To immediately begin the evidence collection process. D) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian.
A) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. B) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. C) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian. D) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife.
A) Shifting the Blame B) Pretense of Physical Evidence C) Extenuation D) Mutt and Jeff
A) Associative Evidence B) Tracing Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Circumstantial Evidence
A) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings. B) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement. C) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. D) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel.
A) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved. B) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. C) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene. D) That it is material and relevant to the case.
A) How to detect foot surveillance B) Methods of shadowing. C) How to conduct surveillance of a place. D) Qualities of a good surveillant.
A) Double-Crosser Informant B) Anonymous Informant C) Legitimate Informant D) Mercenary Informant
A) Associative Evidence B) Modus Operandi (MO) C) Corpus Delicti D) Tracing Evidence
A) Release the crime scene to the property owner. B) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence. C) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. D) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime.
A) Rectangular Coordinates Method B) Triangulation Method C) Compass Point Method D) Baseline Method
A) Positive Evidence B) Circumstantial Evidence C) Corroborative Evidence D) Direct Evidence
A) Admission B) Excited Utterance C) Confession D) Dying Declaration
A) Identify the suspect through artistic composition. B) Create a sensational visual record for media release. C) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. D) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch.
A) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. B) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption. C) Establish Rapport with the witness. D) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview.
A) Comply with local traffic regulations. B) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. C) Detect if they are under surveillance. D) Ensure they reach their destination on time.
A) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery. B) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. C) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death. D) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry.
A) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. B) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. C) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one. D) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence.
A) Modus Operandi B) Locard's Exchange Principle C) Corpus Delicti D) Miranda Doctrine
A) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. B) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. C) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. D) Made in the presence of the victim's family.
A) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. B) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies. C) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. D) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration.
A) Legend B) Scale C) Title D) Compass Direction (North)
A) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. B) A search method for large, open areas. C) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. D) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed.
A) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court. B) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. C) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. D) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition.
A) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. B) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. C) Allow the media to photograph the suspect. D) Intimidate the suspect into confessing.
A) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. B) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom. C) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. D) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom.
A) Collection of artist sketches. B) File of photographic images of known criminals. C) Database of modus operandi. D) Library of ballistic fingerprints.
A) There is more than one suspect. B) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. C) There is only one suspect. D) The suspect is a hardened criminal.
A) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. B) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. C) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete. D) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ.
A) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors. B) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. C) Government records and news items. D) Official police databases.
A) Mark a location for a future meeting. B) Detect if they are under surveillance. C) Dispose of incriminating evidence. D) Communicate with an accomplice.
A) Anti-Wiretapping Law. B) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. C) Revised Penal Code. D) Rules on Electronic Evidence.
A) long, narrow road. B) multi-story building divided into zones. C) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. D) An approximately circular or oval open field. |