A) Medical Jurisprudence B) Legal Medicine C) Forensic Medicine D) All of the Above
A) Medical Examiner B) All of the Above C) Medical Jurist D) Medico - legal Expert
A) all of these B) Health officers C) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies D) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Autopsic C) Autopsy/ Necropsy D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Autopsic B) Clinical Autopsy C) Autopsy/ Necropsy D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Autoptic B) Clinical Autopsy C) Medico-legal autopsy D) Autopsy/Necropsy
A) Criminal law B) Civil Law C) Remedial law D) Special law
A) Crimes against chastity B) Circumstances affecting criminal liability C) Crimes against person D) Crimes against property
A) Flaccidity B) Livor Mortis C) Rigor Mortis D) Algor Mortis
A) Algor Mortis B) Livor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Rigor Mortis
A) Flaccidity B) Algor Mortis C) Rigor Mortis D) Livor Mortis
A) Corroborative Evidence B) Proma Facie Evidence C) Material Evidence D) Corpus Delicti
A) Albumin test B) Acid hematin C) Precipitin test D) Alkaline test
A) Memories B) Photographing it C) Written interrogatories D) Tape recording them
A) Identity of the suspect B) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed C) Method of operation's of the suspect D) Cordon the area
A) Abrasion B) Hematoma C) Punchured D) Contusion
A) Abrasion B) Hematoma C) Punchured wound D) Contusion
A) Abrasion B) Contusion C) Punctured wound D) Hematoma
A) Abrasion B) Punctured wound C) Hematoma D) Contusion
A) Armed Robbery B) Homicide C) Robbery D) Arrest
A) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached B) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact C) The face appears softened D) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove
A) Lacerated wound B) Incised wound C) Defense wound D) Justifying circumstances
A) Serious physical injury B) Less serious physical injury C) Mutilation D) Slight physical injury
A) Diffusion Livility B) Hypostatics Livility C) Rigor mortis D) Hyper Livility
A) Demi-virginity B) Virgo-intacta C) Physical virginity D) Moral virginity
A) Livor mortis B) Primary flaccidity C) 48 hours death D) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension
A) 15-30 minutes B) 30-45 minutes C) 45-60 minutes D) 10-15 minutes
A) Saponification B) Carbolization C) Putrefaction D) Livor mortis
A) 12 hours B) 24 hours C) 48 hours D) 36 hours
A) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries B) Death, property damage C) Fatal, non fatal, property damage D) Physical injuries and death
A) Pink B) yellow C) Violet D) Bright red
A) Friction burn B) Radiation burn C) Thermal burn D) Electrical burn
A) 14 years old B) 12 years old C) 15 years old D) 13 years old
A) A non- aggressive assailant B) All of these C) Limitations of the forensic examination D) A non-resisting victim
A) Dolor B) Rubor C) Tenor D) Calor
A) Vital Deactivation B) Vital Reaction C) Vital Infection D) Vital Infliction
A) Mortal Wounds B) Open Wounds C) Closed Wounds D) Non-Mortal Wounds
A) Lacerated Wound B) Stab Wound C) Inscised Wound D) Punctured Wound
A) 1-2 hours B) 5-7 hours C) 3-4 hours D) 6-8 hours
A) Saponification B) Mummification C) Maceration D) Purge
A) Sado-masochism B) Fornication C) Masochism D) Sadism
A) Contre-Coup Injury B) Coup Contre-Coup Injur C) Locus Minoris Resistancia D) Coup Injury
A) Parricide B) Homicide C) Murder D) Infanticide
A) Homicide B) Murder C) Parricide D) Infanticide
A) Homicide B) Infanticide C) Parricide D) Murder
A) Must be described and inventoried B) Must be turned over to the police as evidence C) All of the above D) Must be buried or cremated with body
A) Active Euthanasia B) Mercy Killing C) Passive Euthanasia D) Euthanasia
A) 8 hours B) 3 hours C) 6 hours D) 12 hours
A) Asphyxia B) Strangulation C) Suffocation D) Hanging
A) Contusion B) Hematoma C) Abrasion D) Incised Wound
A) Defloration B) Moral Virginity C) Carnal Knowledge D) Virginity
A) Petechiae B) Close Wound C) Hematoma D) Contusion
A) 12 inches B) More than 25 inches C) Near contact to 6 inches D) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches
A) Last medical history B) Witness accounts C) All of the above D) Circumstances of the death
A) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper B) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic C) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic D) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper
A) Rule of Court B) Real C) Autoptic D) Evidence
A) Oralism B) Masochism C) Fetishism D) Sadism
A) Mannikinism B) Narcissism C) Pygmalionism D) Vampirism
A) Gerontophilia B) Autosexual C) Bestosexual D) Necrophilia
A) 5 to 6 hours B) 2 to 3 hours C) 3 to 4 hours D) 4 to 5 hours
A) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies B) Health officers C) All of the above D) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
A) Autopsy B) Crime scene investigation C) Post-mortem investigation D) Exhumation
A) Exhumation B) Pounding C) Charring D) Cremation
A) Red B) Clay C) Reddish-brown D) Black
A) Takayama Test B) Florence Test C) Barberio Test D) Phenolphthalein Test
A) Deoxyribonucleic acid B) Deoxy nucleic acid C) Dematuralized acid D) Deonatural acid
A) Demi-Virginity B) True Physical Virginity C) Physical Virginity D) False Physical Virginity
A) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. B) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. C) To immediately begin the evidence collection process. D) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian.
A) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian. B) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife. C) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. D) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved.
A) Extenuation B) Mutt and Jeff C) Shifting the Blame D) Pretense of Physical Evidence
A) Associative Evidence B) Tracing Evidence C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Corpus Delicti
A) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. B) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement. C) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel. D) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings.
A) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene. B) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved. C) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. D) That it is material and relevant to the case.
A) How to conduct surveillance of a place. B) Methods of shadowing. C) Qualities of a good surveillant. D) How to detect foot surveillance
A) Anonymous Informant B) Double-Crosser Informant C) Mercenary Informant D) Legitimate Informant
A) Corpus Delicti B) Modus Operandi (MO) C) Tracing Evidence D) Associative Evidence
A) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. B) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. C) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence. D) Release the crime scene to the property owner.
A) Rectangular Coordinates Method B) Baseline Method C) Triangulation Method D) Compass Point Method
A) Corroborative Evidence B) Circumstantial Evidence C) Direct Evidence D) Positive Evidence
A) Confession B) Admission C) Excited Utterance D) Dying Declaration
A) Identify the suspect through artistic composition. B) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. C) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. D) Create a sensational visual record for media release.
A) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption. B) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. C) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview. D) Establish Rapport with the witness.
A) Ensure they reach their destination on time. B) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. C) Detect if they are under surveillance. D) Comply with local traffic regulations.
A) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry. B) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. C) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death. D) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery.
A) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. B) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. C) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence. D) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one.
A) Locard's Exchange Principle B) Miranda Doctrine C) Modus Operandi D) Corpus Delicti
A) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. B) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. C) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. D) Made in the presence of the victim's family.
A) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies. B) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. C) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. D) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration.
A) Title B) Compass Direction (North) C) Scale D) Legend
A) A search method for large, open areas. B) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. C) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed. D) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect.
A) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. B) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition. C) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. D) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court.
A) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. B) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. C) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. D) Allow the media to photograph the suspect.
A) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. B) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom. C) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom. D) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How.
A) Collection of artist sketches. B) Database of modus operandi. C) Library of ballistic fingerprints. D) File of photographic images of known criminals.
A) The suspect is a hardened criminal. B) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. C) There is more than one suspect. D) There is only one suspect.
A) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. B) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. C) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ. D) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete.
A) Government records and news items. B) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. C) Official police databases. D) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors.
A) Communicate with an accomplice. B) Detect if they are under surveillance. C) Dispose of incriminating evidence. D) Mark a location for a future meeting.
A) Revised Penal Code. B) Rules on Electronic Evidence. C) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. D) Anti-Wiretapping Law.
A) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. B) An approximately circular or oval open field. C) multi-story building divided into zones. D) long, narrow road. |