A) Forensic Medicine B) All of the Above C) Medical Jurisprudence D) Legal Medicine
A) All of the Above B) Medical Jurist C) Medical Examiner D) Medico - legal Expert
A) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals B) Health officers C) all of these D) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies
A) Autopsic B) Autopsy/ Necropsy C) Clinical Autopsy D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Medico legal autopsy B) Autopsic C) Autopsy/ Necropsy D) Clinical Autopsy
A) Autopsy/Necropsy B) Clinical Autopsy C) Autoptic D) Medico-legal autopsy
A) Remedial law B) Civil Law C) Criminal law D) Special law
A) Crimes against chastity B) Crimes against property C) Crimes against person D) Circumstances affecting criminal liability
A) Rigor Mortis B) Livor Mortis C) Flaccidity D) Algor Mortis
A) Algor Mortis B) Livor Mortis C) Rigor Mortis D) Flaccidity
A) Livor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Rigor Mortis D) Algor Mortis
A) Corpus Delicti B) Proma Facie Evidence C) Material Evidence D) Corroborative Evidence
A) Acid hematin B) Precipitin test C) Alkaline test D) Albumin test
A) Tape recording them B) Written interrogatories C) Memories D) Photographing it
A) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed B) Method of operation's of the suspect C) Identity of the suspect D) Cordon the area
A) Punchured B) Contusion C) Hematoma D) Abrasion
A) Punchured wound B) Contusion C) Hematoma D) Abrasion
A) Punctured wound B) Contusion C) Hematoma D) Abrasion
A) Contusion B) Punctured wound C) Abrasion D) Hematoma
A) Homicide B) Robbery C) Arrest D) Armed Robbery
A) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached B) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove C) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact D) The face appears softened
A) Justifying circumstances B) Incised wound C) Lacerated wound D) Defense wound
A) Slight physical injury B) Serious physical injury C) Less serious physical injury D) Mutilation
A) Rigor mortis B) Hyper Livility C) Hypostatics Livility D) Diffusion Livility
A) Moral virginity B) Physical virginity C) Demi-virginity D) Virgo-intacta
A) Primary flaccidity B) Livor mortis C) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension D) 48 hours death
A) 45-60 minutes B) 10-15 minutes C) 30-45 minutes D) 15-30 minutes
A) Saponification B) Livor mortis C) Putrefaction D) Carbolization
A) 12 hours B) 24 hours C) 36 hours D) 48 hours
A) Physical injuries and death B) Death, property damage C) Fatal, non fatal, property damage D) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries
A) Bright red B) Pink C) Violet D) yellow
A) Friction burn B) Radiation burn C) Electrical burn D) Thermal burn
A) 13 years old B) 15 years old C) 14 years old D) 12 years old
A) Limitations of the forensic examination B) A non-resisting victim C) All of these D) A non- aggressive assailant
A) Tenor B) Dolor C) Rubor D) Calor
A) Vital Infliction B) Vital Reaction C) Vital Infection D) Vital Deactivation
A) Mortal Wounds B) Open Wounds C) Closed Wounds D) Non-Mortal Wounds
A) Lacerated Wound B) Punctured Wound C) Stab Wound D) Inscised Wound
A) 6-8 hours B) 5-7 hours C) 3-4 hours D) 1-2 hours
A) Maceration B) Mummification C) Purge D) Saponification
A) Masochism B) Sado-masochism C) Sadism D) Fornication
A) Locus Minoris Resistancia B) Coup Contre-Coup Injur C) Contre-Coup Injury D) Coup Injury
A) Infanticide B) Murder C) Homicide D) Parricide
A) Murder B) Infanticide C) Parricide D) Homicide
A) Infanticide B) Parricide C) Murder D) Homicide
A) Must be buried or cremated with body B) All of the above C) Must be turned over to the police as evidence D) Must be described and inventoried
A) Euthanasia B) Mercy Killing C) Passive Euthanasia D) Active Euthanasia
A) 8 hours B) 12 hours C) 6 hours D) 3 hours
A) Hanging B) Suffocation C) Strangulation D) Asphyxia
A) Hematoma B) Abrasion C) Contusion D) Incised Wound
A) Carnal Knowledge B) Defloration C) Moral Virginity D) Virginity
A) Close Wound B) Contusion C) Petechiae D) Hematoma
A) Near contact to 6 inches B) More than 25 inches C) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches D) 12 inches
A) Last medical history B) Witness accounts C) Circumstances of the death D) All of the above
A) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper B) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper C) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic D) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic
A) Autoptic B) Real C) Evidence D) Rule of Court
A) Masochism B) Sadism C) Oralism D) Fetishism
A) Pygmalionism B) Mannikinism C) Vampirism D) Narcissism
A) Autosexual B) Necrophilia C) Gerontophilia D) Bestosexual
A) 3 to 4 hours B) 2 to 3 hours C) 5 to 6 hours D) 4 to 5 hours
A) All of the above B) Health officers C) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals D) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies
A) Post-mortem investigation B) Exhumation C) Autopsy D) Crime scene investigation
A) Pounding B) Cremation C) Charring D) Exhumation
A) Red B) Clay C) Reddish-brown D) Black
A) Phenolphthalein Test B) Takayama Test C) Barberio Test D) Florence Test
A) Deoxy nucleic acid B) Deonatural acid C) Deoxyribonucleic acid D) Dematuralized acid
A) Physical Virginity B) Demi-Virginity C) True Physical Virginity D) False Physical Virginity
A) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. B) To immediately begin the evidence collection process. C) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. D) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian.
A) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. B) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. C) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian. D) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife.
A) Shifting the Blame B) Extenuation C) Pretense of Physical Evidence D) Mutt and Jeff
A) Corpus Delicti B) Associative Evidence C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Tracing Evidence
A) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement. B) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. C) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel. D) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings.
A) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene. B) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. C) That it is material and relevant to the case. D) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved.
A) How to conduct surveillance of a place. B) How to detect foot surveillance C) Methods of shadowing. D) Qualities of a good surveillant.
A) Mercenary Informant B) Anonymous Informant C) Legitimate Informant D) Double-Crosser Informant
A) Modus Operandi (MO) B) Associative Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Tracing Evidence
A) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence. B) Release the crime scene to the property owner. C) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. D) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene.
A) Triangulation Method B) Baseline Method C) Compass Point Method D) Rectangular Coordinates Method
A) Direct Evidence B) Positive Evidence C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Corroborative Evidence
A) Confession B) Dying Declaration C) Excited Utterance D) Admission
A) Identify the suspect through artistic composition. B) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. C) Create a sensational visual record for media release. D) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch.
A) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption. B) Establish Rapport with the witness. C) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview. D) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency.
A) Comply with local traffic regulations. B) Ensure they reach their destination on time. C) Detect if they are under surveillance. D) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover.
A) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. B) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death. C) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery. D) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry.
A) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. B) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence. C) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one. D) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character.
A) Miranda Doctrine B) Modus Operandi C) Corpus Delicti D) Locard's Exchange Principle
A) Made in the presence of the victim's family. B) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. C) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. D) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence.
A) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. B) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. C) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration. D) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies.
A) Legend B) Scale C) Title D) Compass Direction (North)
A) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. B) A search method for large, open areas. C) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed. D) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point.
A) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition. B) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. C) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court. D) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector.
A) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. B) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. C) Allow the media to photograph the suspect. D) Intimidate the suspect into confessing.
A) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. B) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom. C) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom. D) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then.
A) Collection of artist sketches. B) Library of ballistic fingerprints. C) File of photographic images of known criminals. D) Database of modus operandi.
A) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. B) There is more than one suspect. C) The suspect is a hardened criminal. D) There is only one suspect.
A) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ. B) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. C) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. D) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete.
A) Official police databases. B) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. C) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors. D) Government records and news items.
A) Dispose of incriminating evidence. B) Detect if they are under surveillance. C) Mark a location for a future meeting. D) Communicate with an accomplice.
A) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. B) Revised Penal Code. C) Rules on Electronic Evidence. D) Anti-Wiretapping Law.
A) multi-story building divided into zones. B) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. C) long, narrow road. D) An approximately circular or oval open field. |