A) Medical Jurisprudence B) Legal Medicine C) Forensic Medicine D) All of the Above
A) Medical Jurist B) All of the Above C) Medico - legal Expert D) Medical Examiner
A) Health officers B) all of these C) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals D) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies
A) Autopsic B) Autopsy/ Necropsy C) Medico legal autopsy D) Clinical Autopsy
A) Autopsic B) Medico legal autopsy C) Autopsy/ Necropsy D) Clinical Autopsy
A) Autoptic B) Autopsy/Necropsy C) Medico-legal autopsy D) Clinical Autopsy
A) Criminal law B) Remedial law C) Civil Law D) Special law
A) Crimes against chastity B) Crimes against person C) Circumstances affecting criminal liability D) Crimes against property
A) Algor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Livor Mortis D) Rigor Mortis
A) Rigor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Livor Mortis D) Algor Mortis
A) Rigor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Livor Mortis D) Algor Mortis
A) Material Evidence B) Corpus Delicti C) Corroborative Evidence D) Proma Facie Evidence
A) Acid hematin B) Precipitin test C) Albumin test D) Alkaline test
A) Memories B) Written interrogatories C) Photographing it D) Tape recording them
A) Identity of the suspect B) Method of operation's of the suspect C) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed D) Cordon the area
A) Contusion B) Punchured C) Hematoma D) Abrasion
A) Abrasion B) Contusion C) Punchured wound D) Hematoma
A) Contusion B) Abrasion C) Punctured wound D) Hematoma
A) Contusion B) Hematoma C) Punctured wound D) Abrasion
A) Arrest B) Robbery C) Armed Robbery D) Homicide
A) The face appears softened B) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached C) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove D) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact
A) Justifying circumstances B) Defense wound C) Lacerated wound D) Incised wound
A) Less serious physical injury B) Mutilation C) Serious physical injury D) Slight physical injury
A) Hypostatics Livility B) Hyper Livility C) Diffusion Livility D) Rigor mortis
A) Physical virginity B) Virgo-intacta C) Demi-virginity D) Moral virginity
A) Primary flaccidity B) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension C) 48 hours death D) Livor mortis
A) 45-60 minutes B) 15-30 minutes C) 30-45 minutes D) 10-15 minutes
A) Saponification B) Livor mortis C) Carbolization D) Putrefaction
A) 24 hours B) 12 hours C) 48 hours D) 36 hours
A) Physical injuries and death B) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries C) Fatal, non fatal, property damage D) Death, property damage
A) yellow B) Violet C) Pink D) Bright red
A) Thermal burn B) Radiation burn C) Friction burn D) Electrical burn
A) 13 years old B) 12 years old C) 14 years old D) 15 years old
A) A non- aggressive assailant B) Limitations of the forensic examination C) All of these D) A non-resisting victim
A) Rubor B) Dolor C) Tenor D) Calor
A) Vital Infection B) Vital Deactivation C) Vital Reaction D) Vital Infliction
A) Non-Mortal Wounds B) Closed Wounds C) Mortal Wounds D) Open Wounds
A) Lacerated Wound B) Punctured Wound C) Stab Wound D) Inscised Wound
A) 3-4 hours B) 5-7 hours C) 6-8 hours D) 1-2 hours
A) Mummification B) Saponification C) Maceration D) Purge
A) Sado-masochism B) Fornication C) Masochism D) Sadism
A) Contre-Coup Injury B) Coup Contre-Coup Injur C) Coup Injury D) Locus Minoris Resistancia
A) Murder B) Infanticide C) Parricide D) Homicide
A) Murder B) Parricide C) Homicide D) Infanticide
A) Homicide B) Parricide C) Murder D) Infanticide
A) Must be buried or cremated with body B) Must be turned over to the police as evidence C) All of the above D) Must be described and inventoried
A) Passive Euthanasia B) Mercy Killing C) Active Euthanasia D) Euthanasia
A) 6 hours B) 12 hours C) 8 hours D) 3 hours
A) Hanging B) Asphyxia C) Strangulation D) Suffocation
A) Incised Wound B) Hematoma C) Abrasion D) Contusion
A) Moral Virginity B) Defloration C) Virginity D) Carnal Knowledge
A) Contusion B) Close Wound C) Petechiae D) Hematoma
A) More than 25 inches B) Near contact to 6 inches C) 12 inches D) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches
A) Circumstances of the death B) Witness accounts C) Last medical history D) All of the above
A) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper B) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic C) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic D) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper
A) Real B) Autoptic C) Evidence D) Rule of Court
A) Fetishism B) Oralism C) Sadism D) Masochism
A) Narcissism B) Vampirism C) Pygmalionism D) Mannikinism
A) Bestosexual B) Gerontophilia C) Autosexual D) Necrophilia
A) 4 to 5 hours B) 3 to 4 hours C) 2 to 3 hours D) 5 to 6 hours
A) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals B) Health officers C) All of the above D) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies
A) Crime scene investigation B) Exhumation C) Post-mortem investigation D) Autopsy
A) Exhumation B) Cremation C) Charring D) Pounding
A) Reddish-brown B) Clay C) Red D) Black
A) Takayama Test B) Phenolphthalein Test C) Barberio Test D) Florence Test
A) Deoxyribonucleic acid B) Dematuralized acid C) Deonatural acid D) Deoxy nucleic acid
A) Physical Virginity B) True Physical Virginity C) Demi-Virginity D) False Physical Virginity
A) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. B) To immediately begin the evidence collection process. C) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. D) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian.
A) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. B) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife. C) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. D) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian.
A) Extenuation B) Pretense of Physical Evidence C) Shifting the Blame D) Mutt and Jeff
A) Associative Evidence B) Corpus Delicti C) Tracing Evidence D) Circumstantial Evidence
A) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. B) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement. C) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings. D) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel.
A) That it is material and relevant to the case. B) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene. C) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. D) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved.
A) Qualities of a good surveillant. B) How to detect foot surveillance C) Methods of shadowing. D) How to conduct surveillance of a place.
A) Double-Crosser Informant B) Mercenary Informant C) Anonymous Informant D) Legitimate Informant
A) Associative Evidence B) Modus Operandi (MO) C) Tracing Evidence D) Corpus Delicti
A) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence. B) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. C) Release the crime scene to the property owner. D) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime.
A) Rectangular Coordinates Method B) Triangulation Method C) Baseline Method D) Compass Point Method
A) Positive Evidence B) Direct Evidence C) Corroborative Evidence D) Circumstantial Evidence
A) Admission B) Confession C) Dying Declaration D) Excited Utterance
A) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. B) Identify the suspect through artistic composition. C) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. D) Create a sensational visual record for media release.
A) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption. B) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. C) Establish Rapport with the witness. D) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview.
A) Ensure they reach their destination on time. B) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. C) Detect if they are under surveillance. D) Comply with local traffic regulations.
A) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery. B) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry. C) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death. D) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses.
A) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. B) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. C) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence. D) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one.
A) Locard's Exchange Principle B) Corpus Delicti C) Modus Operandi D) Miranda Doctrine
A) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. B) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. C) Made in the presence of the victim's family. D) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel.
A) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration. B) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. C) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. D) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies.
A) Compass Direction (North) B) Legend C) Title D) Scale
A) A search method for large, open areas. B) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. C) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. D) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed.
A) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition. B) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. C) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. D) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court.
A) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. B) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. C) Allow the media to photograph the suspect. D) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness.
A) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. B) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom. C) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. D) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom.
A) Database of modus operandi. B) Collection of artist sketches. C) Library of ballistic fingerprints. D) File of photographic images of known criminals.
A) There is more than one suspect. B) The suspect is a hardened criminal. C) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. D) There is only one suspect.
A) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. B) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. C) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ. D) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete.
A) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors. B) Government records and news items. C) Official police databases. D) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts.
A) Communicate with an accomplice. B) Detect if they are under surveillance. C) Mark a location for a future meeting. D) Dispose of incriminating evidence.
A) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. B) Revised Penal Code. C) Anti-Wiretapping Law. D) Rules on Electronic Evidence.
A) An approximately circular or oval open field. B) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. C) long, narrow road. D) multi-story building divided into zones. |