A) Medical Jurisprudence B) All of the Above C) Legal Medicine D) Forensic Medicine
A) Medical Jurist B) All of the Above C) Medical Examiner D) Medico - legal Expert
A) Health officers B) all of these C) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies D) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals
A) Autopsic B) Autopsy/ Necropsy C) Clinical Autopsy D) Medico legal autopsy
A) Autopsic B) Autopsy/ Necropsy C) Medico legal autopsy D) Clinical Autopsy
A) Medico-legal autopsy B) Clinical Autopsy C) Autoptic D) Autopsy/Necropsy
A) Special law B) Civil Law C) Criminal law D) Remedial law
A) Crimes against chastity B) Circumstances affecting criminal liability C) Crimes against person D) Crimes against property
A) Flaccidity B) Livor Mortis C) Algor Mortis D) Rigor Mortis
A) Rigor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Algor Mortis D) Livor Mortis
A) Algor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Rigor Mortis D) Livor Mortis
A) Proma Facie Evidence B) Corroborative Evidence C) Corpus Delicti D) Material Evidence
A) Precipitin test B) Albumin test C) Acid hematin D) Alkaline test
A) Memories B) Written interrogatories C) Tape recording them D) Photographing it
A) Identity of the suspect B) Cordon the area C) Method of operation's of the suspect D) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed
A) Hematoma B) Punchured C) Abrasion D) Contusion
A) Contusion B) Hematoma C) Abrasion D) Punchured wound
A) Punctured wound B) Abrasion C) Contusion D) Hematoma
A) Hematoma B) Abrasion C) Punctured wound D) Contusion
A) Arrest B) Robbery C) Armed Robbery D) Homicide
A) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove B) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact C) The face appears softened D) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached
A) Justifying circumstances B) Incised wound C) Lacerated wound D) Defense wound
A) Less serious physical injury B) Serious physical injury C) Mutilation D) Slight physical injury
A) Rigor mortis B) Hyper Livility C) Diffusion Livility D) Hypostatics Livility
A) Demi-virginity B) Moral virginity C) Virgo-intacta D) Physical virginity
A) 48 hours death B) Livor mortis C) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension D) Primary flaccidity
A) 30-45 minutes B) 45-60 minutes C) 10-15 minutes D) 15-30 minutes
A) Carbolization B) Putrefaction C) Saponification D) Livor mortis
A) 48 hours B) 24 hours C) 12 hours D) 36 hours
A) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries B) Fatal, non fatal, property damage C) Physical injuries and death D) Death, property damage
A) yellow B) Pink C) Violet D) Bright red
A) Thermal burn B) Electrical burn C) Friction burn D) Radiation burn
A) 15 years old B) 13 years old C) 14 years old D) 12 years old
A) A non- aggressive assailant B) A non-resisting victim C) Limitations of the forensic examination D) All of these
A) Tenor B) Rubor C) Calor D) Dolor
A) Vital Infection B) Vital Reaction C) Vital Infliction D) Vital Deactivation
A) Open Wounds B) Closed Wounds C) Mortal Wounds D) Non-Mortal Wounds
A) Punctured Wound B) Stab Wound C) Lacerated Wound D) Inscised Wound
A) 6-8 hours B) 3-4 hours C) 5-7 hours D) 1-2 hours
A) Maceration B) Purge C) Mummification D) Saponification
A) Sado-masochism B) Sadism C) Fornication D) Masochism
A) Locus Minoris Resistancia B) Contre-Coup Injury C) Coup Injury D) Coup Contre-Coup Injur
A) Infanticide B) Parricide C) Homicide D) Murder
A) Infanticide B) Murder C) Parricide D) Homicide
A) Murder B) Homicide C) Infanticide D) Parricide
A) All of the above B) Must be turned over to the police as evidence C) Must be described and inventoried D) Must be buried or cremated with body
A) Active Euthanasia B) Passive Euthanasia C) Euthanasia D) Mercy Killing
A) 8 hours B) 6 hours C) 3 hours D) 12 hours
A) Asphyxia B) Hanging C) Suffocation D) Strangulation
A) Hematoma B) Incised Wound C) Contusion D) Abrasion
A) Virginity B) Carnal Knowledge C) Defloration D) Moral Virginity
A) Hematoma B) Close Wound C) Petechiae D) Contusion
A) More than 25 inches B) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches C) 12 inches D) Near contact to 6 inches
A) Circumstances of the death B) All of the above C) Last medical history D) Witness accounts
A) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic B) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper C) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic D) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper
A) Evidence B) Autoptic C) Rule of Court D) Real
A) Masochism B) Sadism C) Fetishism D) Oralism
A) Mannikinism B) Narcissism C) Vampirism D) Pygmalionism
A) Necrophilia B) Bestosexual C) Gerontophilia D) Autosexual
A) 4 to 5 hours B) 3 to 4 hours C) 5 to 6 hours D) 2 to 3 hours
A) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals B) All of the above C) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies D) Health officers
A) Post-mortem investigation B) Autopsy C) Crime scene investigation D) Exhumation
A) Cremation B) Exhumation C) Charring D) Pounding
A) Red B) Reddish-brown C) Black D) Clay
A) Phenolphthalein Test B) Takayama Test C) Barberio Test D) Florence Test
A) Deoxy nucleic acid B) Deoxyribonucleic acid C) Deonatural acid D) Dematuralized acid
A) True Physical Virginity B) Physical Virginity C) False Physical Virginity D) Demi-Virginity
A) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. B) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. C) To immediately begin the evidence collection process. D) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian.
A) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. B) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. C) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife. D) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian.
A) Pretense of Physical Evidence B) Shifting the Blame C) Extenuation D) Mutt and Jeff
A) Circumstantial Evidence B) Corpus Delicti C) Tracing Evidence D) Associative Evidence
A) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. B) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel. C) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement. D) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings.
A) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. B) That it is material and relevant to the case. C) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene. D) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved.
A) How to detect foot surveillance B) Methods of shadowing. C) Qualities of a good surveillant. D) How to conduct surveillance of a place.
A) Double-Crosser Informant B) Anonymous Informant C) Legitimate Informant D) Mercenary Informant
A) Tracing Evidence B) Modus Operandi (MO) C) Associative Evidence D) Corpus Delicti
A) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. B) Release the crime scene to the property owner. C) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. D) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence.
A) Triangulation Method B) Rectangular Coordinates Method C) Compass Point Method D) Baseline Method
A) Circumstantial Evidence B) Corroborative Evidence C) Direct Evidence D) Positive Evidence
A) Admission B) Dying Declaration C) Excited Utterance D) Confession
A) Identify the suspect through artistic composition. B) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. C) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved. D) Create a sensational visual record for media release.
A) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview. B) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. C) Establish Rapport with the witness. D) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption.
A) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover. B) Comply with local traffic regulations. C) Detect if they are under surveillance. D) Ensure they reach their destination on time.
A) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery. B) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses. C) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry. D) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death.
A) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence. B) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. C) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one. D) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed.
A) Modus Operandi B) Miranda Doctrine C) Locard's Exchange Principle D) Corpus Delicti
A) Made in the presence of the victim's family. B) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. C) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. D) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence.
A) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. B) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. C) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration. D) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies.
A) Scale B) Compass Direction (North) C) Legend D) Title
A) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. B) A search method for large, open areas. C) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. D) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed.
A) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector. B) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. C) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court. D) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition.
A) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule. B) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. C) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. D) Allow the media to photograph the suspect.
A) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom. B) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom. C) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. D) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then.
A) Library of ballistic fingerprints. B) File of photographic images of known criminals. C) Database of modus operandi. D) Collection of artist sketches.
A) There is more than one suspect. B) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. C) There is only one suspect. D) The suspect is a hardened criminal.
A) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete. B) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. C) Brief the media on the investigation's progress. D) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ.
A) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. B) Official police databases. C) Government records and news items. D) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors.
A) Dispose of incriminating evidence. B) Mark a location for a future meeting. C) Communicate with an accomplice. D) Detect if they are under surveillance.
A) Revised Penal Code. B) Anti-Wiretapping Law. C) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. D) Rules on Electronic Evidence.
A) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. B) multi-story building divided into zones. C) An approximately circular or oval open field. D) long, narrow road. |