A) Legal Medicine B) Medical Jurisprudence C) All of the Above D) Forensic Medicine
A) Medico - legal Expert B) Medical Jurist C) Medical Examiner D) All of the Above
A) all of these B) Health officers C) Member of the medical staff of accredited hospitals D) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies
A) Clinical Autopsy B) Medico legal autopsy C) Autopsic D) Autopsy/ Necropsy
A) Medico legal autopsy B) Clinical Autopsy C) Autopsic D) Autopsy/ Necropsy
A) Medico-legal autopsy B) Autoptic C) Clinical Autopsy D) Autopsy/Necropsy
A) Special law B) Civil Law C) Remedial law D) Criminal law
A) Crimes against property B) Crimes against person C) Crimes against chastity D) Circumstances affecting criminal liability
A) Flaccidity B) Algor Mortis C) Rigor Mortis D) Livor Mortis
A) Algor Mortis B) Flaccidity C) Livor Mortis D) Rigor Mortis
A) Flaccidity B) Livor Mortis C) Algor Mortis D) Rigor Mortis
A) Proma Facie Evidence B) Corroborative Evidence C) Material Evidence D) Corpus Delicti
A) Albumin test B) Acid hematin C) Alkaline test D) Precipitin test
A) Photographing it B) Tape recording them C) Written interrogatories D) Memories
A) Identity of the suspect B) Cordon the area C) Corpus delicti or facts that crime was committed D) Method of operation's of the suspect
A) Punchured B) Hematoma C) Abrasion D) Contusion
A) Abrasion B) Contusion C) Hematoma D) Punchured wound
A) Abrasion B) Contusion C) Hematoma D) Punctured wound
A) Punctured wound B) Abrasion C) Hematoma D) Contusion
A) Robbery B) Homicide C) Armed Robbery D) Arrest
A) The face appears softened B) Skin on the hands and feet become swollen and bleached C) Skin wrinkled, scrotum, and penis distended with gas, nails and hair still intact D) Abdomen distended, skin of hands and feet come off with the nails like a glove
A) Justifying circumstances B) Defense wound C) Lacerated wound D) Incised wound
A) Less serious physical injury B) Mutilation C) Serious physical injury D) Slight physical injury
A) Rigor mortis B) Diffusion Livility C) Hypostatics Livility D) Hyper Livility
A) Demi-virginity B) Virgo-intacta C) Physical virginity D) Moral virginity
A) Primary flaccidity B) 24 hour after death, unless the health officer allows extension C) Livor mortis D) 48 hours death
A) 45-60 minutes B) 30-45 minutes C) 15-30 minutes D) 10-15 minutes
A) Carbolization B) Livor mortis C) Putrefaction D) Saponification
A) 12 hours B) 36 hours C) 24 hours D) 48 hours
A) Slight, less serious, serious physical injuries B) Fatal, non fatal, property damage C) Physical injuries and death D) Death, property damage
A) Pink B) Violet C) Bright red D) yellow
A) Radiation burn B) Friction burn C) Thermal burn D) Electrical burn
A) 13 years old B) 12 years old C) 15 years old D) 14 years old
A) A non-resisting victim B) All of these C) Limitations of the forensic examination D) A non- aggressive assailant
A) Calor B) Tenor C) Rubor D) Dolor
A) Vital Infection B) Vital Reaction C) Vital Deactivation D) Vital Infliction
A) Open Wounds B) Mortal Wounds C) Closed Wounds D) Non-Mortal Wounds
A) Lacerated Wound B) Stab Wound C) Punctured Wound D) Inscised Wound
A) 5-7 hours B) 6-8 hours C) 3-4 hours D) 1-2 hours
A) Mummification B) Purge C) Maceration D) Saponification
A) Fornication B) Sado-masochism C) Sadism D) Masochism
A) Coup Injury B) Locus Minoris Resistancia C) Coup Contre-Coup Injur D) Contre-Coup Injury
A) Homicide B) Parricide C) Murder D) Infanticide
A) Parricide B) Homicide C) Infanticide D) Murder
A) Infanticide B) Parricide C) Murder D) Homicide
A) All of the above B) Must be described and inventoried C) Must be turned over to the police as evidence D) Must be buried or cremated with body
A) Passive Euthanasia B) Mercy Killing C) Euthanasia D) Active Euthanasia
A) 8 hours B) 12 hours C) 3 hours D) 6 hours
A) Strangulation B) Asphyxia C) Suffocation D) Hanging
A) Incised Wound B) Hematoma C) Contusion D) Abrasion
A) Virginity B) Defloration C) Moral Virginity D) Carnal Knowledge
A) Hematoma B) Contusion C) Close Wound D) Petechiae
A) More than 25 inches B) Near contact to 6 inches C) 12 inches D) More than 6 inches up to 24 inches
A) Witness accounts B) Last medical history C) All of the above D) Circumstances of the death
A) Dried at the lab and packaged in paper B) Dried at the lab and packaged in plastic C) Dried at the scene and packaged in paper D) Dried at the scene and packaged in plastic
A) Rule of Court B) Evidence C) Real D) Autoptic
A) Oralism B) Fetishism C) Masochism D) Sadism
A) Vampirism B) Mannikinism C) Narcissism D) Pygmalionism
A) Gerontophilia B) Bestosexual C) Necrophilia D) Autosexual
A) 5 to 6 hours B) 4 to 5 hours C) 3 to 4 hours D) 2 to 3 hours
A) All of the above B) Medical officers of law enforcement agencies C) Members of the medical staff of accredited hospitals D) Health officers
A) Post-mortem investigation B) Crime scene investigation C) Exhumation D) Autopsy
A) Charring B) Pounding C) Cremation D) Exhumation
A) Red B) Reddish-brown C) Black D) Clay
A) Florence Test B) Barberio Test C) Takayama Test D) Phenolphthalein Test
A) Dematuralized acid B) Deoxyribonucleic acid C) Deoxy nucleic acid D) Deonatural acid
A) Demi-Virginity B) Physical Virginity C) True Physical Virginity D) False Physical Virginity
A) To establish the boundaries of the crime scene to effectively preserve it. B) To formally release the scene to the evidence custodian. C) To allow the media and VIPs to observe from a safe distance. D) To immediately begin the evidence collection process.
A) A chain of custody form is prepared first, followed by photography of the knife. B) The knife is immediately collected, then photographed and measured at the evidence station. C) The knife is photographed, measured, and its location sketched before it is touched or moved. D) The discoverer's initials are placed on the knife, and it is then turned over to the evidence custodian.
A) Pretense of Physical Evidence B) Shifting the Blame C) Mutt and Jeff D) Extenuation
A) Tracing Evidence B) Corpus Delicti C) Circumstantial Evidence D) Associative Evidence
A) No, because a priest, like a law enforcement officer, is required to give the Miranda warnings. B) Yes, because the suspect's moral obligation to tell the truth to a priest outweighs the constitutional requirement for counsel. C) No, because any confession made during custodial investigation requires the presence of competent and independent counsel to be admissible. D) Yes, because the confession was made spontaneously and voluntarily to a private person, not during a questioning by law enforcement.
A) That it has been properly identified, and the chain of custody has been proved. B) That it was collected by the team leader of the SOCO. C) That it is material and relevant to the case. D) That it was the only evidence recovered from the scene.
A) How to conduct surveillance of a place. B) Methods of shadowing. C) How to detect foot surveillance D) Qualities of a good surveillant.
A) Double-Crosser Informant B) Mercenary Informant C) Anonymous Informant D) Legitimate Informant
A) Associative Evidence B) Modus Operandi (MO) C) Tracing Evidence D) Corpus Delicti
A) Make a general assessment and develop a theory of the crime. B) Immediately begin the collection of all visible evidence. C) Take the sworn statements of all witnesses on the scene. D) Release the crime scene to the property owner.
A) Compass Point Method B) Triangulation Method C) Rectangular Coordinates Method D) Baseline Method
A) Positive Evidence B) Circumstantial Evidence C) Corroborative Evidence D) Direct Evidence
A) Admission B) Dying Declaration C) Confession D) Excited Utterance
A) Serve as a substitute for a detailed crime scene sketch. B) Create a sensational visual record for media release. C) Identify the suspect through artistic composition. D) Create an accurate, objective visual record before any item is moved.
A) Make an Opening Statement on the purpose of the interview. B) Establish Rapport with the witness. C) Identify himself by name, rank, and agency. D) Allow the witness to Narrate their story without interruption.
A) Ensure they reach their destination on time. B) Detect if they are under surveillance. C) Comply with local traffic regulations. D) Assist the surveillants in maintaining cover.
A) The declarant is conscious of his impending death and has no hope of recovery. B) The declaration concerns the cause and surrounding circumstances of the declarant's death. C) The declarant's death is the subject of the inquiry. D) The declaration must be corroborated by at least two other witnesses.
A) The investigator shifts the blame away from the suspect's character. B) The investigator pretends to have conclusive physical evidence. C) The suspect is isolated and falsely informed that their accomplice has confessed. D) Two agents play the roles of a relentless investigator and a kind-hearted one.
A) Miranda Doctrine B) Modus Operandi C) Locard's Exchange Principle D) Corpus Delicti
A) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence. B) Made with the assistance of competent and independent counsel. C) Made in the presence of the victim's family. D) Corroborated by at least one piece of physical evidence.
A) It is an opportunity to obtain a statement that may become admissible evidence if the victim dies. B) It replaces the need for a full crime scene investigation. C) It allows the investigator to shift from interview to interrogation immediately. D) It is the only statement that does not require corroboration.
A) Compass Direction (North) B) Title C) Legend D) Scale
A) The secret observation of persons and places from a fixed point. B) The vigorous questioning of a reluctant suspect. C) A method where the investigator's official identity is concealed. D) A search method for large, open areas.
A) The number of persons who handled the evidence from collection to final disposition. B) The legal chain required to secure an arrest warrant. C) The hierarchy of witnesses presented in court. D) The sequence of commands from the team leader to the evidence collector.
A) Intimidate the suspect into confessing. B) Eliminate the power of suggestion on the witness. C) Allow the media to photograph the suspect. D) Comply with the mandatory pre-trial publicity rule.
A) Who, What, Where, When, Why, and How. B) What, Why, Where, How, If, and Then. C) Who, What, When, How, Which, and Whom. D) When, Where, Why, How, Whether, and Whom.
A) Collection of artist sketches. B) Database of modus operandi. C) File of photographic images of known criminals. D) Library of ballistic fingerprints.
A) The suspect has already requested a lawyer. B) There is only one suspect. C) There is more than one suspect. D) The suspect is a hardened criminal.
A) Interrogate the primary suspect in situ. B) Draft the final report for the prosecutor. C) Make a final review to determine if processing is complete. D) Brief the media on the investigation's progress.
A) Information from prisoners and ex-convicts. B) Government records and news items. C) Official police databases. D) Information gathered upon the investigator's own initiative from informants and vendors.
A) Dispose of incriminating evidence. B) Mark a location for a future meeting. C) Detect if they are under surveillance. D) Communicate with an accomplice.
A) Rules on Electronic Evidence. B) Anti-Wiretapping Law. C) Code of Conduct for Law Enforcement Officials. D) Revised Penal Code.
A) An approximately circular or oval open field. B) multi-story building divided into zones. C) long, narrow road. D) A rectangular-shaped warehouse. |