Cevide 2
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Relevant and material
B) Competent and credible
C) Material and voluntary
D) Relevant and competent
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Support witness credibility only
B) Disprove all evidence
C) Confuse the issue
D) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Secondary evidence
B) Oral evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Demonstrative evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) Testimonial evidence
B) The weakest form of proof
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) The highest order of evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Statements given by witnesses under oath
B) Documentary proof
C) Objects presented to the court
D) Circumstantial demonstration
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Submission of any copy
B) Presentation of the original document
C) Oral testimony of document contents
D) Hearsay testimony
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Written contracts
B) Oral contracts
C) Testimonies only
D) Electronic communications
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Witness testimony
B) Objects and materials
C) Oral declarations
D) Written documents presented in court
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Admissions apply to all
B) Confidential evidence is protected
C) Hearsay statements are valid
D) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Only verbal admissions are valid
B) Silence is never an admission
C) Applies only to written statements
D) Failure to deny implies consent
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Prove innocence by silence
B) Withhold testimony
C) Avoid cross-examination
D) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Common interest
B) Mutual understanding
C) Confidentiality and public policy
D) Lack of relevance
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only if requested by prosecution
B) During or after marriage
C) Only before marriage
D) Only if both spouses testify
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) Before marriage
B) By any relative
C) Only while the marriage subsists
D) After marriage
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) A child from testifying against parents
B) Parents from testifying against neighbors
C) Priests from testifying
D) Teachers from testifying
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
B) Public confessions
C) Anonymous statements
D) Gossip about religious leaders
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Prevent medical records in court
B) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
C) Disallow expert witnesses
D) Protect hospital reputation
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Original document rule
B) Parol rule
C) Competency rule
D) Hearsay rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Cited by counsel
B) Emotional
C) Based on speculation
D) Relevant and properly identified
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made after survival
B) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
C) Made casually before death
D) Written by another person
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Neutral and quiet
B) Unavailable
C) Competent and legally qualified
D) Authorized by both parties
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Is related to the accused
B) Can read and write
C) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
D) Is intelligent only
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Privileged statement
B) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
C) Declaration against interest
D) Testimony about another’s guilt
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Out-of-court statement
B) Admission made in casual conversation
C) Statement made to police
D) Admission made in court pleadings
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Testimony made in trial
B) Confession under oath
C) Admission made out of court
D) Statement by a judge
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Only victims to testify
B) Only police officers to testify
C) No minors as witnesses
D) Any legally qualified person to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They have personal knowledge
B) They have special knowledge or skill
C) They are relatives
D) They are court employees
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
B) Source reliability only
C) Age of samples
D) Court preference
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Made under torture
B) Oral or informal
C) Forced
D) Anonymous
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Strength of documents
B) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
C) Public opinion
D) Quantity of witnesses
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
B) Based on rumor
C) Allowed if written
D) Always admissible
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
B) Support confessions
C) Admit all statements
D) Shorten the trial
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Cross-examination
B) Character evidence
C) Opinion testimony
D) Dying declaration
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Judicial admission
B) Privileged declaration
C) Extra-judicial admission
D) Confession
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Valid if recorded
B) Acceptable
C) Considered documentary evidence
D) Inadmissible
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Support credibility
B) Indicate intent
C) Show motive
D) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Witness credibility
B) Integrity of physical evidence
C) Speedy trial
D) Admissibility of confessions
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Lacks knowledge
B) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
C) Lies under oath
D) Refuses to testify
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The witness
B) The defense
C) The judge
D) The prosecution
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Substantial evidence
B) Preponderance of evidence
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Probable cause
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Dying Inside to Hold you
B) Judicial declaration
C) Dying Declaration
D) Confession
E) Admission
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Judge
B) Complainant
C) Witness
D) Judge Nono
E) Expert
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Competency
B) Intelligence
C) Reliability
D) Credibility
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Res Inter Alios Acta
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Priest Privilege
B) Marital Privilege
C) Physician Privilege
D) Parental Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Parental Privilege
B) Professional Privilege
C) Client-Lawyer Privilege
D) Physician-Patient Privilege
E) Marital Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Teacher-Student Privilege
B) Doctor-Patient Privilege
C) Spiritual Privilege
D) Priest-Penitent Privilege
E) Spousal Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Exa Sec To
B) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
E) Hearsay Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Admission by Silence
B) Parol rule evidence
C) Dying against declaration
D) Opinion Rule
E) Declaration Against Interest
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Depende
B) No comback
C) Yes comback
D) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
E) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) personal diary
B) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
C) A company's internal memo
D) an email exchange between private citizens
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
B) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
C) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
D) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
B) It is only used to impeach a witness.
C) It is always inadmissible in court.
D) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
B) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
C) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
D) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
B) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
C) They are never admissible in court.
D) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
B) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
C) All of the above
D) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
B) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
C) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
D) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
B) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
C) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
D) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Internal memos of a private company.
B) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
C) Private contracts between individuals
D) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A list of items sold in a store.
B) A list of businesses registered with the government.
C) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
D) A catalog of products for sale online.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A private diary entry
B) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
C) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
D) A grocery list kept in personal records
E) A handwritten letter between two individuals
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
B) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
C) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
D) Personal letters exchanged between friends
E) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) notary public
B) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
C) Only the document creator
D) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
E) The court judge
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Notarization of the document by an attorney
B) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
C) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
D) Notarization of the document by an attorney
E) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was found in a government office
B) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
C) It was signed in front of a notary public
D) It was sent by registered mail
E) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It was signed by an unknown individual
B) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
C) It has been altered in any way
D) It has been lost for more than 30 years
E) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) A government official
B) Any witness who has seen the person write before
C) Any witness who has seen the person write before
D) A certified handwriting analyst
E) Only the person whose handwriting it is
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
B) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
C) Seeing the person write only once
D) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
E) Having read similar documents before
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Private evidence needing verification
B) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
C) Inadmissible unless notarized
D) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
E) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Notarized within the Philippines
B) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
C) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
D) Verified by at least two witnesses
E) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
B) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
C) The copy is a public document
D) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
E) None of the above
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
B)   The head of a department
C) Any individual who has access to the document
D) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
E) A private individual designated by the parties involved
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) When the office is undergoing renovations
B) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
C) Only with permission from the president
D) For personal inspection by the document owner
E) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) Any court officer
B) An authorized public official
C) An authorized public official
D) A private notary
E) Any individual who owns the document
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
B) To make it available for historical records
C) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
D) To allow easy access to the public
E) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
B) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
C) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
D) If the agreement is more than five years old.
E) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
B) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
C) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
D) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
E) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
B) By prioritizing the first provision.
C) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
D) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
E) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The particular provisions should always prevail.
B) The court should disregard both provisions.
C) The particular provisions should always prevail.
D) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
E) The general provisions should always prevail.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
B) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
C) Without regard to any external factors.
D) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
E) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
B) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
C) According to their primary and general meaning only.
D) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
E) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The term that appears first.
B) The latter of the two terms
C) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
D) The latter of the two terms.
E) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
B) When both parties request an interpreter.
C) When it contains legal jargon only.
D) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
E) When it is written in ordinary language.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
B) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
C) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
D) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
E) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
B) Existence, termination, power, and loss
C) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
D) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
B) Investigations, trials, and appeals
C) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
D) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Real evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By a forensic expert's analysis
B) By a witness who can identify the subject
C) By the photographer's testimony
D) By comparing it to other photographs
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Evaluating the weight of evidence
B) Assessing the credibility of a witness
C) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
D) Determining the admissibility of evidence
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To determine the cause of death
B) To identify the accused
C) To verify the authenticity of evidence
D) To examine the crime scene
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