Cevide 2
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Relevant and competent
B) Competent and credible
C) Material and voluntary
D) Relevant and material
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Confuse the issue
B) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
C) Disprove all evidence
D) Support witness credibility only
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Demonstrative evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Oral evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) The highest order of evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) The weakest form of proof
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Circumstantial demonstration
B) Documentary proof
C) Statements given by witnesses under oath
D) Objects presented to the court
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Submission of any copy
B) Oral testimony of document contents
C) Presentation of the original document
D) Hearsay testimony
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Oral contracts
B) Written contracts
C) Electronic communications
D) Testimonies only
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Oral declarations
B) Objects and materials
C) Witness testimony
D) Written documents presented in court
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Confidential evidence is protected
B) Hearsay statements are valid
C) Admissions apply to all
D) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Silence is never an admission
B) Only verbal admissions are valid
C) Failure to deny implies consent
D) Applies only to written statements
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Prove innocence by silence
B) Withhold testimony
C) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
D) Avoid cross-examination
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Lack of relevance
B) Confidentiality and public policy
C) Common interest
D) Mutual understanding
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only if requested by prosecution
B) Only before marriage
C) Only if both spouses testify
D) During or after marriage
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) Before marriage
B) By any relative
C) After marriage
D) Only while the marriage subsists
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) Teachers from testifying
B) A child from testifying against parents
C) Parents from testifying against neighbors
D) Priests from testifying
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
B) Public confessions
C) Anonymous statements
D) Gossip about religious leaders
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Disallow expert witnesses
B) Protect hospital reputation
C) Prevent medical records in court
D) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Hearsay rule
B) Parol rule
C) Competency rule
D) Original document rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Relevant and properly identified
B) Emotional
C) Cited by counsel
D) Based on speculation
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made casually before death
B) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
C) Written by another person
D) Made after survival
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Neutral and quiet
B) Unavailable
C) Authorized by both parties
D) Competent and legally qualified
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Can read and write
B) Is related to the accused
C) Is intelligent only
D) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Testimony about another’s guilt
B) Declaration against interest
C) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
D) Privileged statement
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Admission made in casual conversation
B) Statement made to police
C) Out-of-court statement
D) Admission made in court pleadings
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Confession under oath
B) Statement by a judge
C) Admission made out of court
D) Testimony made in trial
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Any legally qualified person to testify
B) Only police officers to testify
C) No minors as witnesses
D) Only victims to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They have special knowledge or skill
B) They are court employees
C) They have personal knowledge
D) They are relatives
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Age of samples
B) Court preference
C) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
D) Source reliability only
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Made under torture
B) Forced
C) Anonymous
D) Oral or informal
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Public opinion
B) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
C) Strength of documents
D) Quantity of witnesses
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Based on rumor
B) Allowed if written
C) Always admissible
D) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
B) Shorten the trial
C) Support confessions
D) Admit all statements
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Opinion testimony
B) Cross-examination
C) Dying declaration
D) Character evidence
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Extra-judicial admission
B) Privileged declaration
C) Judicial admission
D) Confession
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Valid if recorded
B) Acceptable
C) Considered documentary evidence
D) Inadmissible
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Indicate intent
B) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
C) Support credibility
D) Show motive
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Admissibility of confessions
B) Witness credibility
C) Integrity of physical evidence
D) Speedy trial
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Refuses to testify
B) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
C) Lacks knowledge
D) Lies under oath
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The defense
B) The prosecution
C) The witness
D) The judge
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Substantial evidence
C) Preponderance of evidence
D) Probable cause
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Dying Declaration
B) Confession
C) Dying Inside to Hold you
D) Judicial declaration
E) Admission
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Judge
B) Complainant
C) Judge Nono
D) Witness
E) Expert
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Credibility
B) Competency
C) Reliability
D) Intelligence
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Res Inter Alios Acta
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Parental Privilege
B) Marital Privilege
C) Priest Privilege
D) Physician Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Physician-Patient Privilege
B) Client-Lawyer Privilege
C) Marital Privilege
D) Professional Privilege
E) Parental Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Spousal Privilege
B) Teacher-Student Privilege
C) Priest-Penitent Privilege
D) Spiritual Privilege
E) Doctor-Patient Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Exa Sec To
D) Best Evidence Rule
E) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Dying against declaration
B) Parol rule evidence
C) Declaration Against Interest
D) Admission by Silence
E) Opinion Rule
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
B) No comback
C) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
D) Depende
E) Yes comback
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) personal diary
B) an email exchange between private citizens
C) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
D) A company's internal memo
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
B) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
C) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
D) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
B) It is always inadmissible in court.
C) It is only used to impeach a witness.
D) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
B) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
C) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
D) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
B) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
C) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
D) They are never admissible in court.
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
B) All of the above
C) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
D) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
B) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
C) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
D) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
B) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
C) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
D) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
B) Private contracts between individuals
C) Internal memos of a private company.
D) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A list of items sold in a store.
B) A catalog of products for sale online.
C) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
D) A list of businesses registered with the government.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A handwritten letter between two individuals
B) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
C) A private diary entry
D) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
E) A grocery list kept in personal records
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
B) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
C) Personal letters exchanged between friends
D) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
E) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
B) notary public
C) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
D) Only the document creator
E) The court judge
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
B) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
C) Notarization of the document by an attorney
D) Notarization of the document by an attorney
E) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was sent by registered mail
B) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
C) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
D) It was found in a government office
E) It was signed in front of a notary public
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It has been altered in any way
B) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
C) It was signed by an unknown individual
D) It has been lost for more than 30 years
E) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) A certified handwriting analyst
B) Any witness who has seen the person write before
C) Only the person whose handwriting it is
D) A government official
E) Any witness who has seen the person write before
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Having read similar documents before
B) Seeing the person write only once
C) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
D) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
E) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Private evidence needing verification
B) Inadmissible unless notarized
C) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
D) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
E) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Verified by at least two witnesses
B) Notarized within the Philippines
C) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
D) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
E) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) The copy is a public document
B) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
C) None of the above
D) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
E) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
B) A private individual designated by the parties involved
C)   The head of a department
D) Any individual who has access to the document
E) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) When the office is undergoing renovations
B) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
C) Only with permission from the president
D) For personal inspection by the document owner
E) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) An authorized public official
B) An authorized public official
C) Any court officer
D) A private notary
E) Any individual who owns the document
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
B) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
C) To allow easy access to the public
D) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
E) To make it available for historical records
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
B) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
C) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
D) If the agreement is more than five years old.
E) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
B) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
C) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
D) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
E) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
B) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
C) By prioritizing the first provision.
D) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
E) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The general provisions should always prevail.
B) The particular provisions should always prevail.
C) The particular provisions should always prevail.
D) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
E) The court should disregard both provisions.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
B) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
C) Without regard to any external factors.
D) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
E) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
B) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
C) According to their primary and general meaning only.
D) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
E) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The latter of the two terms.
B) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
C) The term that appears first.
D) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
E) The latter of the two terms
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it is written in ordinary language.
B) When both parties request an interpreter.
C) When it contains legal jargon only.
D) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
E) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
B) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
C) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
D) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
E) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Existence, termination, power, and loss
B) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
C) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
D) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
B) Investigations, trials, and appeals
C) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
D) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Real evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By a witness who can identify the subject
B) By the photographer's testimony
C) By comparing it to other photographs
D) By a forensic expert's analysis
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Assessing the credibility of a witness
B) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
C) Evaluating the weight of evidence
D) Determining the admissibility of evidence
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To determine the cause of death
B) To identify the accused
C) To examine the crime scene
D) To verify the authenticity of evidence
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