Cevide 2
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Relevant and competent
B) Material and voluntary
C) Competent and credible
D) Relevant and material
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Disprove all evidence
B) Confuse the issue
C) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
D) Support witness credibility only
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Demonstrative evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Oral evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) The highest order of evidence
B) The weakest form of proof
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Objects presented to the court
B) Statements given by witnesses under oath
C) Circumstantial demonstration
D) Documentary proof
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Submission of any copy
B) Oral testimony of document contents
C) Presentation of the original document
D) Hearsay testimony
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Oral contracts
B) Electronic communications
C) Written contracts
D) Testimonies only
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Written documents presented in court
B) Oral declarations
C) Witness testimony
D) Objects and materials
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Confidential evidence is protected
B) Hearsay statements are valid
C) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
D) Admissions apply to all
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Failure to deny implies consent
B) Silence is never an admission
C) Applies only to written statements
D) Only verbal admissions are valid
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Withhold testimony
B) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
C) Avoid cross-examination
D) Prove innocence by silence
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Mutual understanding
B) Confidentiality and public policy
C) Lack of relevance
D) Common interest
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only before marriage
B) Only if both spouses testify
C) During or after marriage
D) Only if requested by prosecution
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) By any relative
B) Before marriage
C) Only while the marriage subsists
D) After marriage
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) Priests from testifying
B) Teachers from testifying
C) Parents from testifying against neighbors
D) A child from testifying against parents
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Gossip about religious leaders
B) Anonymous statements
C) Public confessions
D) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Disallow expert witnesses
B) Prevent medical records in court
C) Protect hospital reputation
D) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Hearsay rule
B) Original document rule
C) Parol rule
D) Competency rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Relevant and properly identified
B) Emotional
C) Cited by counsel
D) Based on speculation
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Written by another person
B) Made after survival
C) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
D) Made casually before death
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Neutral and quiet
B) Competent and legally qualified
C) Authorized by both parties
D) Unavailable
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Is related to the accused
B) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
C) Can read and write
D) Is intelligent only
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Privileged statement
B) Declaration against interest
C) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
D) Testimony about another’s guilt
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Out-of-court statement
B) Admission made in court pleadings
C) Statement made to police
D) Admission made in casual conversation
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Testimony made in trial
B) Admission made out of court
C) Confession under oath
D) Statement by a judge
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Only victims to testify
B) No minors as witnesses
C) Any legally qualified person to testify
D) Only police officers to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They have special knowledge or skill
B) They have personal knowledge
C) They are court employees
D) They are relatives
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Source reliability only
B) Age of samples
C) Court preference
D) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Made under torture
B) Anonymous
C) Forced
D) Oral or informal
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
B) Public opinion
C) Quantity of witnesses
D) Strength of documents
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Allowed if written
B) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
C) Based on rumor
D) Always admissible
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Admit all statements
B) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
C) Support confessions
D) Shorten the trial
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Dying declaration
B) Opinion testimony
C) Cross-examination
D) Character evidence
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Extra-judicial admission
B) Confession
C) Judicial admission
D) Privileged declaration
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Valid if recorded
B) Inadmissible
C) Considered documentary evidence
D) Acceptable
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Show motive
B) Indicate intent
C) Support credibility
D) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Speedy trial
B) Integrity of physical evidence
C) Admissibility of confessions
D) Witness credibility
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Lies under oath
B) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
C) Refuses to testify
D) Lacks knowledge
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The defense
B) The prosecution
C) The judge
D) The witness
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Probable cause
B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Preponderance of evidence
D) Substantial evidence
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Dying Declaration
B) Judicial declaration
C) Admission
D) Dying Inside to Hold you
E) Confession
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Expert
B) Witness
C) Complainant
D) Judge Nono
E) Judge
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Intelligence
B) Competency
C) Credibility
D) Reliability
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Parol Evidence Rule
C) Res Inter Alios Acta
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Physician Privilege
B) Marital Privilege
C) Parental Privilege
D) Priest Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Marital Privilege
B) Parental Privilege
C) Client-Lawyer Privilege
D) Professional Privilege
E) Physician-Patient Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Spousal Privilege
B) Priest-Penitent Privilege
C) Doctor-Patient Privilege
D) Spiritual Privilege
E) Teacher-Student Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Exa Sec To
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
E) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Admission by Silence
B) Parol rule evidence
C) Dying against declaration
D) Opinion Rule
E) Declaration Against Interest
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
B) Depende
C) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
D) Yes comback
E) No comback
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
B) an email exchange between private citizens
C) personal diary
D) A company's internal memo
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
B) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
C) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
D) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It is always inadmissible in court.
B) It is only used to impeach a witness.
C) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
D) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
B) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
C) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
D) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
B) They are never admissible in court.
C) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
D) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) All of the above
B) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
C) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
D) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
B) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
C) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
D) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
B) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
C) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
D) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Private contracts between individuals
B) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
C) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
D) Internal memos of a private company.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A catalog of products for sale online.
B) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
C) A list of items sold in a store.
D) A list of businesses registered with the government.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A handwritten letter between two individuals
B) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
C) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
D) A grocery list kept in personal records
E) A private diary entry
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
B) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
C) Personal letters exchanged between friends
D) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
E) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
B) notary public
C) Only the document creator
D) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
E) The court judge
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
B) Notarization of the document by an attorney
C) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
D) Notarization of the document by an attorney
E) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
B) It was found in a government office
C) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
D) It was sent by registered mail
E) It was signed in front of a notary public
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It was signed by an unknown individual
B) It has been lost for more than 30 years
C) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
D) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
E) It has been altered in any way
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) A government official
B) A certified handwriting analyst
C) Any witness who has seen the person write before
D) Any witness who has seen the person write before
E) Only the person whose handwriting it is
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Seeing the person write only once
B) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
C) Having read similar documents before
D) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
E) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Inadmissible unless notarized
B) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
C) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
D) Private evidence needing verification
E) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Notarized within the Philippines
B) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
C) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
D) Verified by at least two witnesses
E) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) The copy is a public document
B) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
C) None of the above
D) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
E) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A)   The head of a department
B) A private individual designated by the parties involved
C) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
D) Any individual who has access to the document
E) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
B) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
C) When the office is undergoing renovations
D) For personal inspection by the document owner
E) Only with permission from the president
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) An authorized public official
B) Any individual who owns the document
C) Any court officer
D) An authorized public official
E) A private notary
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
B) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
C) To make it available for historical records
D) To allow easy access to the public
E) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
B) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
C) If the agreement is more than five years old.
D) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
E) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
B) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
C) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
D) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
E) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
B) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
C) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
D) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
E) By prioritizing the first provision.
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The particular provisions should always prevail.
B) The court should disregard both provisions.
C) The particular provisions should always prevail.
D) The general provisions should always prevail.
E) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
B) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
C) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
D) Without regard to any external factors.
E) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) According to their primary and general meaning only.
B) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
C) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
D) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
E) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The latter of the two terms
B) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
C) The latter of the two terms.
D) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
E) The term that appears first.
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it contains legal jargon only.
B) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
C) When it is written in ordinary language.
D) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
E) When both parties request an interpreter.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
B) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
C) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
D) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
E) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Existence, termination, power, and loss
B) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
C) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
D) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Investigations, trials, and appeals
B) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
C) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
D) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Real evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By a witness who can identify the subject
B) By comparing it to other photographs
C) By a forensic expert's analysis
D) By the photographer's testimony
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
B) Assessing the credibility of a witness
C) Evaluating the weight of evidence
D) Determining the admissibility of evidence
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To examine the crime scene
B) To verify the authenticity of evidence
C) To determine the cause of death
D) To identify the accused
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