Cevide 2 - Quiz
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Relevant and material
B) Competent and credible
C) Material and voluntary
D) Relevant and competent
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Disprove all evidence
B) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
C) Confuse the issue
D) Support witness credibility only
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Demonstrative evidence
B) Secondary evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Oral evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) The weakest form of proof
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) The highest order of evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Objects presented to the court
B) Documentary proof
C) Statements given by witnesses under oath
D) Circumstantial demonstration
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Oral testimony of document contents
B) Submission of any copy
C) Presentation of the original document
D) Hearsay testimony
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Testimonies only
B) Oral contracts
C) Written contracts
D) Electronic communications
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Witness testimony
B) Oral declarations
C) Objects and materials
D) Written documents presented in court
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Hearsay statements are valid
B) Confidential evidence is protected
C) Admissions apply to all
D) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Only verbal admissions are valid
B) Silence is never an admission
C) Failure to deny implies consent
D) Applies only to written statements
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Withhold testimony
B) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
C) Prove innocence by silence
D) Avoid cross-examination
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Lack of relevance
B) Confidentiality and public policy
C) Common interest
D) Mutual understanding
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only if requested by prosecution
B) Only before marriage
C) During or after marriage
D) Only if both spouses testify
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) After marriage
B) By any relative
C) Only while the marriage subsists
D) Before marriage
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) A child from testifying against parents
B) Priests from testifying
C) Parents from testifying against neighbors
D) Teachers from testifying
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Gossip about religious leaders
B) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
C) Public confessions
D) Anonymous statements
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Protect hospital reputation
B) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
C) Prevent medical records in court
D) Disallow expert witnesses
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Hearsay rule
B) Parol rule
C) Competency rule
D) Original document rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Emotional
B) Relevant and properly identified
C) Cited by counsel
D) Based on speculation
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made after survival
B) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
C) Made casually before death
D) Written by another person
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Unavailable
B) Competent and legally qualified
C) Authorized by both parties
D) Neutral and quiet
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Is intelligent only
B) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
C) Is related to the accused
D) Can read and write
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Privileged statement
B) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
C) Declaration against interest
D) Testimony about another’s guilt
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Statement made to police
B) Admission made in casual conversation
C) Admission made in court pleadings
D) Out-of-court statement
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Statement by a judge
B) Admission made out of court
C) Testimony made in trial
D) Confession under oath
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Only police officers to testify
B) Only victims to testify
C) No minors as witnesses
D) Any legally qualified person to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They have special knowledge or skill
B) They are relatives
C) They are court employees
D) They have personal knowledge
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Source reliability only
B) Court preference
C) Age of samples
D) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Made under torture
B) Forced
C) Anonymous
D) Oral or informal
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Strength of documents
B) Quantity of witnesses
C) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
D) Public opinion
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Allowed if written
B) Based on rumor
C) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
D) Always admissible
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Admit all statements
B) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
C) Support confessions
D) Shorten the trial
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Cross-examination
B) Dying declaration
C) Opinion testimony
D) Character evidence
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Judicial admission
B) Extra-judicial admission
C) Privileged declaration
D) Confession
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Considered documentary evidence
B) Valid if recorded
C) Acceptable
D) Inadmissible
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Show motive
B) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
C) Support credibility
D) Indicate intent
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Speedy trial
B) Integrity of physical evidence
C) Witness credibility
D) Admissibility of confessions
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Refuses to testify
B) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
C) Lacks knowledge
D) Lies under oath
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The defense
B) The prosecution
C) The judge
D) The witness
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Preponderance of evidence
C) Probable cause
D) Substantial evidence
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Res Inter Alios Acta
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Judicial declaration
B) Admission
C) Dying Inside to Hold you
D) Dying Declaration
E) Confession
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Witness
B) Expert
C) Judge Nono
D) Judge
E) Complainant
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Reliability
B) Competency
C) Intelligence
D) Credibility
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Parental Privilege
B) Marital Privilege
C) Priest Privilege
D) Physician Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Marital Privilege
B) Physician-Patient Privilege
C) Professional Privilege
D) Client-Lawyer Privilege
E) Parental Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Priest-Penitent Privilege
B) Doctor-Patient Privilege
C) Teacher-Student Privilege
D) Spiritual Privilege
E) Spousal Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
E) Exa Sec To
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Opinion Rule
B) Parol rule evidence
C) Admission by Silence
D) Dying against declaration
E) Declaration Against Interest
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Yes comback
B) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
C) Depende
D) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
E) No comback
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) personal diary
B) A company's internal memo
C) an email exchange between private citizens
D) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
B) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
C) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
D) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It is always inadmissible in court.
B) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
C) It is only used to impeach a witness.
D) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
B) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
C) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
D) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are never admissible in court.
B) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
C) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
D) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
B) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
C) All of the above
D) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
B) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
C) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
D) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
B) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
C) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
D) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Internal memos of a private company.
B) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
C) Private contracts between individuals
D) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
B) A catalog of products for sale online.
C) A list of businesses registered with the government.
D) A list of items sold in a store.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
B) A private diary entry
C) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
D) A handwritten letter between two individuals
E) A grocery list kept in personal records
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Personal letters exchanged between friends
B) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
C) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
D) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
E) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
B) Only the document creator
C) The court judge
D) notary public
E) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
B) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
C) Notarization of the document by an attorney
D) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
E) Notarization of the document by an attorney
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was sent by registered mail
B) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
C) It was signed in front of a notary public
D) It was found in a government office
E) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
B) It was signed by an unknown individual
C) It has been altered in any way
D) It has been lost for more than 30 years
E) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) Any witness who has seen the person write before
B) A certified handwriting analyst
C) Any witness who has seen the person write before
D) Only the person whose handwriting it is
E) A government official
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
B) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
C) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
D) Seeing the person write only once
E) Having read similar documents before
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Inadmissible unless notarized
B) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
C) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
D) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
E) Private evidence needing verification
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
B) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
C) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
D) Notarized within the Philippines
E) Verified by at least two witnesses
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) The copy is a public document
B) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
C) None of the above
D) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
E) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
B) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
C) Any individual who has access to the document
D) A private individual designated by the parties involved
E)   The head of a department
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
B) Only with permission from the president
C) When the office is undergoing renovations
D) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
E) For personal inspection by the document owner
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) An authorized public official
B) An authorized public official
C) A private notary
D) Any individual who owns the document
E) Any court officer
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
B) To make it available for historical records
C) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
D) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
E) To allow easy access to the public
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
B) If the agreement is more than five years old.
C) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
D) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
E) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
B) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
C) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
D) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
E) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
B) By prioritizing the first provision.
C) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
D) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
E) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
B) The general provisions should always prevail.
C) The court should disregard both provisions.
D) The particular provisions should always prevail.
E) The particular provisions should always prevail.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
B) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
C) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
D) Without regard to any external factors.
E) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) According to their primary and general meaning only.
B) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
C) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
D) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
E) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
B) The latter of the two terms
C) The term that appears first.
D) The latter of the two terms.
E) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
B) When it contains legal jargon only.
C) When it is written in ordinary language.
D) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
E) When both parties request an interpreter.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
B) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
C) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
D) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
E) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
B) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
C) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
D) Existence, termination, power, and loss
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Investigations, trials, and appeals
B) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
C) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
D) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Real evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By comparing it to other photographs
B) By the photographer's testimony
C) By a forensic expert's analysis
D) By a witness who can identify the subject
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
B) Evaluating the weight of evidence
C) Assessing the credibility of a witness
D) Determining the admissibility of evidence
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To verify the authenticity of evidence
B) To identify the accused
C) To examine the crime scene
D) To determine the cause of death
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