Cevide 2
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Relevant and competent
B) Material and voluntary
C) Relevant and material
D) Competent and credible
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Confuse the issue
B) Disprove all evidence
C) Support witness credibility only
D) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Object evidence
B) Secondary evidence
C) Oral evidence
D) Demonstrative evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) The highest order of evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) The weakest form of proof
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Statements given by witnesses under oath
B) Circumstantial demonstration
C) Objects presented to the court
D) Documentary proof
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Presentation of the original document
B) Oral testimony of document contents
C) Submission of any copy
D) Hearsay testimony
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Testimonies only
B) Oral contracts
C) Written contracts
D) Electronic communications
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Witness testimony
B) Oral declarations
C) Written documents presented in court
D) Objects and materials
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Confidential evidence is protected
B) Hearsay statements are valid
C) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
D) Admissions apply to all
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Silence is never an admission
B) Failure to deny implies consent
C) Applies only to written statements
D) Only verbal admissions are valid
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
B) Avoid cross-examination
C) Prove innocence by silence
D) Withhold testimony
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Mutual understanding
B) Confidentiality and public policy
C) Lack of relevance
D) Common interest
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only before marriage
B) During or after marriage
C) Only if both spouses testify
D) Only if requested by prosecution
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) By any relative
B) Before marriage
C) Only while the marriage subsists
D) After marriage
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) Parents from testifying against neighbors
B) Priests from testifying
C) A child from testifying against parents
D) Teachers from testifying
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Anonymous statements
B) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
C) Gossip about religious leaders
D) Public confessions
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
B) Disallow expert witnesses
C) Protect hospital reputation
D) Prevent medical records in court
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Parol rule
B) Competency rule
C) Hearsay rule
D) Original document rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Based on speculation
B) Relevant and properly identified
C) Cited by counsel
D) Emotional
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Written by another person
B) Made casually before death
C) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
D) Made after survival
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Authorized by both parties
B) Neutral and quiet
C) Competent and legally qualified
D) Unavailable
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Is related to the accused
B) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
C) Can read and write
D) Is intelligent only
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Declaration against interest
B) Privileged statement
C) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
D) Testimony about another’s guilt
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Out-of-court statement
B) Admission made in court pleadings
C) Statement made to police
D) Admission made in casual conversation
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Confession under oath
B) Admission made out of court
C) Statement by a judge
D) Testimony made in trial
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Only victims to testify
B) Any legally qualified person to testify
C) Only police officers to testify
D) No minors as witnesses
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They have special knowledge or skill
B) They are court employees
C) They are relatives
D) They have personal knowledge
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Source reliability only
B) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
C) Court preference
D) Age of samples
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Anonymous
B) Forced
C) Oral or informal
D) Made under torture
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Quantity of witnesses
B) Strength of documents
C) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
D) Public opinion
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Always admissible
B) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
C) Allowed if written
D) Based on rumor
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Admit all statements
B) Support confessions
C) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
D) Shorten the trial
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Character evidence
B) Opinion testimony
C) Dying declaration
D) Cross-examination
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Privileged declaration
B) Extra-judicial admission
C) Confession
D) Judicial admission
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Acceptable
B) Considered documentary evidence
C) Valid if recorded
D) Inadmissible
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Indicate intent
B) Show motive
C) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
D) Support credibility
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Witness credibility
B) Speedy trial
C) Admissibility of confessions
D) Integrity of physical evidence
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Lacks knowledge
B) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
C) Refuses to testify
D) Lies under oath
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The defense
B) The judge
C) The witness
D) The prosecution
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Preponderance of evidence
C) Substantial evidence
D) Probable cause
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Res Inter Alios Acta
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Judicial declaration
B) Dying Inside to Hold you
C) Confession
D) Dying Declaration
E) Admission
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Expert
B) Judge
C) Judge Nono
D) Witness
E) Complainant
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Intelligence
B) Reliability
C) Competency
D) Credibility
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta
B) Parol Evidence Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Physician Privilege
B) Priest Privilege
C) Parental Privilege
D) Marital Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Client-Lawyer Privilege
B) Physician-Patient Privilege
C) Parental Privilege
D) Marital Privilege
E) Professional Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Spiritual Privilege
B) Teacher-Student Privilege
C) Doctor-Patient Privilege
D) Priest-Penitent Privilege
E) Spousal Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Exa Sec To
C) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
E) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Dying against declaration
B) Opinion Rule
C) Declaration Against Interest
D) Admission by Silence
E) Parol rule evidence
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Depende
B) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
C) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
D) No comback
E) Yes comback
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) A company's internal memo
B) personal diary
C) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
D) an email exchange between private citizens
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
B) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
C) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
D) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
B) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
C) It is always inadmissible in court.
D) It is only used to impeach a witness.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
B) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
C) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
D) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are never admissible in court.
B) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
C) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
D) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
B) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
C) All of the above
D) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
B) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
C) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
D) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
B) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
C) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
D) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Private contracts between individuals
B) Internal memos of a private company.
C) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
D) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A list of businesses registered with the government.
B) A list of items sold in a store.
C) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
D) A catalog of products for sale online.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
B) A private diary entry
C) A handwritten letter between two individuals
D) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
E) A grocery list kept in personal records
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
B) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
C) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
D) Personal letters exchanged between friends
E) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) Only the document creator
B) notary public
C) The court judge
D) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
E) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
B) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
C) Notarization of the document by an attorney
D) Notarization of the document by an attorney
E) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was signed in front of a notary public
B) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
C) It was sent by registered mail
D) It was found in a government office
E) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It has been lost for more than 30 years
B) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
C) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
D) It has been altered in any way
E) It was signed by an unknown individual
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) Only the person whose handwriting it is
B) Any witness who has seen the person write before
C) Any witness who has seen the person write before
D) A government official
E) A certified handwriting analyst
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Seeing the person write only once
B) Having read similar documents before
C) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
D) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
E) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
B) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
C) Private evidence needing verification
D) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
E) Inadmissible unless notarized
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
B) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
C) Notarized within the Philippines
D) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
E) Verified by at least two witnesses
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
B) The copy is a public document
C) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
D) None of the above
E) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A)   The head of a department
B) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
C) A private individual designated by the parties involved
D) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
E) Any individual who has access to the document
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) For personal inspection by the document owner
B) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
C) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
D) Only with permission from the president
E) When the office is undergoing renovations
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) Any court officer
B) An authorized public official
C) A private notary
D) An authorized public official
E) Any individual who owns the document
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To allow easy access to the public
B) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
C) To make it available for historical records
D) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
E) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If the agreement is more than five years old.
B) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
C) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
D) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
E) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
B) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
C) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
D) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
E) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
B) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
C) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
D) By prioritizing the first provision.
E) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
B) The court should disregard both provisions.
C) The general provisions should always prevail.
D) The particular provisions should always prevail.
E) The particular provisions should always prevail.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
B) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
C) Without regard to any external factors.
D) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
E) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) According to their primary and general meaning only.
B) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
C) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
D) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
E) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The term that appears first.
B) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
C) The latter of the two terms
D) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
E) The latter of the two terms.
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it contains legal jargon only.
B) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
C) When both parties request an interpreter.
D) When it is written in ordinary language.
E) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
B) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
C) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
D) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
E) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
B) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
C) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
D) Existence, termination, power, and loss
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
B) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
C) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
D) Investigations, trials, and appeals
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Real evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By a witness who can identify the subject
B) By the photographer's testimony
C) By comparing it to other photographs
D) By a forensic expert's analysis
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
B) Assessing the credibility of a witness
C) Determining the admissibility of evidence
D) Evaluating the weight of evidence
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To determine the cause of death
B) To identify the accused
C) To examine the crime scene
D) To verify the authenticity of evidence
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