Cevide 2
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Material and voluntary
B) Relevant and competent
C) Competent and credible
D) Relevant and material
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
B) Confuse the issue
C) Disprove all evidence
D) Support witness credibility only
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Demonstrative evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Oral evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) The highest order of evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) The weakest form of proof
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Statements given by witnesses under oath
B) Objects presented to the court
C) Documentary proof
D) Circumstantial demonstration
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Submission of any copy
B) Oral testimony of document contents
C) Hearsay testimony
D) Presentation of the original document
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Written contracts
B) Oral contracts
C) Electronic communications
D) Testimonies only
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Witness testimony
B) Written documents presented in court
C) Oral declarations
D) Objects and materials
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Admissions apply to all
B) Confidential evidence is protected
C) Hearsay statements are valid
D) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Silence is never an admission
B) Only verbal admissions are valid
C) Failure to deny implies consent
D) Applies only to written statements
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Prove innocence by silence
B) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
C) Avoid cross-examination
D) Withhold testimony
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Common interest
B) Lack of relevance
C) Mutual understanding
D) Confidentiality and public policy
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only if both spouses testify
B) Only if requested by prosecution
C) During or after marriage
D) Only before marriage
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) By any relative
B) After marriage
C) Only while the marriage subsists
D) Before marriage
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) A child from testifying against parents
B) Teachers from testifying
C) Parents from testifying against neighbors
D) Priests from testifying
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
B) Gossip about religious leaders
C) Public confessions
D) Anonymous statements
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Prevent medical records in court
B) Disallow expert witnesses
C) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
D) Protect hospital reputation
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Hearsay rule
B) Parol rule
C) Original document rule
D) Competency rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Relevant and properly identified
B) Cited by counsel
C) Based on speculation
D) Emotional
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made after survival
B) Written by another person
C) Made casually before death
D) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Neutral and quiet
B) Unavailable
C) Competent and legally qualified
D) Authorized by both parties
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
B) Is related to the accused
C) Can read and write
D) Is intelligent only
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
B) Declaration against interest
C) Testimony about another’s guilt
D) Privileged statement
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Admission made in casual conversation
B) Admission made in court pleadings
C) Statement made to police
D) Out-of-court statement
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Confession under oath
B) Admission made out of court
C) Testimony made in trial
D) Statement by a judge
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Only police officers to testify
B) Any legally qualified person to testify
C) No minors as witnesses
D) Only victims to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They are court employees
B) They are relatives
C) They have special knowledge or skill
D) They have personal knowledge
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
B) Age of samples
C) Court preference
D) Source reliability only
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Anonymous
B) Made under torture
C) Forced
D) Oral or informal
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Quantity of witnesses
B) Strength of documents
C) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
D) Public opinion
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
B) Always admissible
C) Based on rumor
D) Allowed if written
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Shorten the trial
B) Admit all statements
C) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
D) Support confessions
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Dying declaration
B) Opinion testimony
C) Character evidence
D) Cross-examination
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Extra-judicial admission
B) Confession
C) Judicial admission
D) Privileged declaration
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Acceptable
B) Inadmissible
C) Valid if recorded
D) Considered documentary evidence
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Support credibility
B) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
C) Indicate intent
D) Show motive
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Integrity of physical evidence
B) Witness credibility
C) Speedy trial
D) Admissibility of confessions
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Lies under oath
B) Refuses to testify
C) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
D) Lacks knowledge
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The prosecution
B) The witness
C) The defense
D) The judge
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Substantial evidence
B) Probable cause
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Preponderance of evidence
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Parol Evidence Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Judicial declaration
B) Dying Declaration
C) Admission
D) Dying Inside to Hold you
E) Confession
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Judge Nono
B) Expert
C) Judge
D) Witness
E) Complainant
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Credibility
B) Competency
C) Reliability
D) Intelligence
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Parol Evidence Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Marital Privilege
B) Parental Privilege
C) Priest Privilege
D) Physician Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Client-Lawyer Privilege
B) Parental Privilege
C) Marital Privilege
D) Professional Privilege
E) Physician-Patient Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Spousal Privilege
B) Priest-Penitent Privilege
C) Teacher-Student Privilege
D) Spiritual Privilege
E) Doctor-Patient Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Exa Sec To
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
E) Best Evidence Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Opinion Rule
B) Declaration Against Interest
C) Admission by Silence
D) Parol rule evidence
E) Dying against declaration
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) False
B) True
C) Maybe
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) True
B) False
C) Maybe
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Depende
B) Yes comback
C) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
D) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
E) No comback
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
B) personal diary
C) A company's internal memo
D) an email exchange between private citizens
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
B) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
C) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
D) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It is only used to impeach a witness.
B) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
C) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
D) It is always inadmissible in court.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
B) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
C) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
D) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
B) They are never admissible in court.
C) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
D) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
B) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
C) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
D) All of the above
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
B) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
C) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
D) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
B) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
C) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
D) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
B) Private contracts between individuals
C) Internal memos of a private company.
D) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A list of items sold in a store.
B) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
C) A list of businesses registered with the government.
D) A catalog of products for sale online.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A grocery list kept in personal records
B) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
C) A private diary entry
D) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
E) A handwritten letter between two individuals
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
B) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
C) Personal letters exchanged between friends
D) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
E) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) notary public
B) Only the document creator
C) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
D) The court judge
E) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
B) Notarization of the document by an attorney
C) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
D) Notarization of the document by an attorney
E) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was found in a government office
B) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
C) It was sent by registered mail
D) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
E) It was signed in front of a notary public
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It has been lost for more than 30 years
B) It was signed by an unknown individual
C) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
D) It has been altered in any way
E) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) A certified handwriting analyst
B) Any witness who has seen the person write before
C) Only the person whose handwriting it is
D) A government official
E) Any witness who has seen the person write before
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Having read similar documents before
B) Seeing the person write only once
C) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
D) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
E) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Private evidence needing verification
B) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
C) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
D) Inadmissible unless notarized
E) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
B) Notarized within the Philippines
C) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
D) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
E) Verified by at least two witnesses
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
B) None of the above
C) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
D) The copy is a public document
E) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) Any individual who has access to the document
B)   The head of a department
C) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
D) A private individual designated by the parties involved
E) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) Only with permission from the president
B) For personal inspection by the document owner
C) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
D) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
E) When the office is undergoing renovations
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) A private notary
B) An authorized public official
C) Any individual who owns the document
D) Any court officer
E) An authorized public official
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
B) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
C) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
D) To make it available for historical records
E) To allow easy access to the public
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
B) If the agreement is more than five years old.
C) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
D) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
E) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
B) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
C) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
D) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
E) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
B) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
C) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
D) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
E) By prioritizing the first provision.
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The general provisions should always prevail.
B) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
C) The particular provisions should always prevail.
D) The court should disregard both provisions.
E) The particular provisions should always prevail.
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
B) Without regard to any external factors.
C) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
D) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
E) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
B) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
C) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
D) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
E) According to their primary and general meaning only.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The term that appears first.
B) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
C) The latter of the two terms.
D) The latter of the two terms
E) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it contains legal jargon only.
B) When it is written in ordinary language.
C) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
D) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
E) When both parties request an interpreter.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
B) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
C) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
D) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
E) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Existence, termination, power, and loss
B) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
C) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
D) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
B) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
C) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
D) Investigations, trials, and appeals
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Real evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By a witness who can identify the subject
B) By comparing it to other photographs
C) By a forensic expert's analysis
D) By the photographer's testimony
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Evaluating the weight of evidence
B) Assessing the credibility of a witness
C) Determining the admissibility of evidence
D) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To determine the cause of death
B) To verify the authenticity of evidence
C) To examine the crime scene
D) To identify the accused
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