Cevide 2
  • 1. For evidence to be admissible, it must be:
A) Relevant and competent
B) Relevant and material
C) Competent and credible
D) Material and voluntary
  • 2. Collateral matters are admissible when they tend to:
A) Disprove all evidence
B) Support witness credibility only
C) Confuse the issue
D) Establish probability or improbability of a fact in issue
  • 3. Real evidence is also called:
A) Secondary evidence
B) Demonstrative evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Oral evidence
  • 4. Real evidence is considered
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) The weakest form of proof
D) The highest order of evidence
  • 5. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Circumstantial demonstration
B) Objects presented to the court
C) Documentary proof
D) Statements given by witnesses under oath
  • 6. The “best evidence rule” requires
A) Presentation of the original document
B) Hearsay testimony
C) Submission of any copy
D) Oral testimony of document contents
  • 7. Parol evidence rule applies to:
A) Testimonies only
B) Oral contracts
C) Electronic communications
D) Written contracts
  • 8. Documentary evidence refers to
A) Written documents presented in court
B) Oral declarations
C) Witness testimony
D) Objects and materials
  • 9. The “Res inter alios acta” rule means
A) Hearsay statements are valid
B) Admissions apply to all
C) Confidential evidence is protected
D) Acts of others cannot prejudice another
  • 10. Admission by silence means:
A) Failure to deny implies consent
B) Silence is never an admission
C) Applies only to written statements
D) Only verbal admissions are valid
  • 11. The “Mercy Rule” allows an accused to:
A) Withhold testimony
B) Prove good moral character pertinent to the offense
C) Prove innocence by silence
D) Avoid cross-examination
  • 12. Privileged communication is based on
A) Mutual understanding
B) Lack of relevance
C) Confidentiality and public policy
D) Common interest
  • 13. Marital privilege applies:
A) Only if requested by prosecution
B) Only if both spouses testify
C) During or after marriage
D) Only before marriage
  • 14. Spousal immunity can be invoked:
A) Before marriage
B) After marriage
C) By any relative
D) Only while the marriage subsists
  • 15. Filial privilege prevents:
A) Priests from testifying
B) Parents from testifying against neighbors
C) Teachers from testifying
D) A child from testifying against parents
  • 16. The priest-penitent privilege protects:
A) Anonymous statements
B) Confessions made in confidence during religious discipline
C) Public confessions
D) Gossip about religious leaders
  • 17. Physician-patient privilege aims to:
A) Disallow expert witnesses
B) Prevent medical records in court
C) Encourage full disclosure for treatment
D) Protect hospital reputation
  • 18. The “Best Evidence Rule” is also called:
A) Parol rule
B) Hearsay rule
C) Competency rule
D) Original document rule
  • 19. Demonstrative evidence is admissible
A) Emotional
B) Based on speculation
C) Cited by counsel
D) Relevant and properly identified
  • 20. Dying declaration is admissible only if:
A) Made casually before death
B) Made after survival
C) Made in anticipation of death about its cause or circumstances
D) Written by another person
  • 21. A witness must be:
A) Competent and legally qualified
B) Unavailable
C) Neutral and quiet
D) Authorized by both parties
  • 22. A competent witness is one who:
A) Can perceive, recollect, and communicate
B) Is intelligent only
C) Is related to the accused
D) Can read and write
  • 23. Confession refers to:
A) Testimony about another’s guilt
B) Declaration against interest
C) Recognition of guilt in a criminal case
D) Privileged statement
  • 24. Judicial admission is:
A) Admission made in court pleadings
B) Out-of-court statement
C) Statement made to police
D) Admission made in casual conversation
  • 25. An “extra-judicial admission” is:
A) Testimony made in trial
B) Confession under oath
C) Admission made out of court
D) Statement by a judge
  • 26. The rule of competency allows:
A) Only victims to testify
B) Only police officers to testify
C) No minors as witnesses
D) Any legally qualified person to testify
  • 27. Expert witnesses may testify if:
A) They have special knowledge or skill
B) They have personal knowledge
C) They are court employees
D) They are relatives
  • 28. DNA evidence is evaluated based on
A) Proper collection, handling, and analysis
B) Court preference
C) Source reliability only
D) Age of samples
  • 29. A confession is valid even if:
A) Anonymous
B) Oral or informal
C) Made under torture
D) Forced
  • 30. The “totality of circumstances” test evaluates:
A) Public opinion
B) The certainty and reliability of witness identification
C) Quantity of witnesses
D) Strength of documents
  • 31. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Inadmissible unless covered by exceptions
B) Based on rumor
C) Always admissible
D) Allowed if written
  • 32. The rule against hearsay aims to:
A) Support confessions
B) Admit all statements
C) Shorten the trial
D) Exclude unreliable secondhand statements
  • 33. An example of hearsay exception is
A) Dying declaration
B) Character evidence
C) Opinion testimony
D) Cross-examination
  • 34. An admission made under oath in another case is called:
A) Judicial admission
B) Privileged declaration
C) Confession
D) Extra-judicial admission
  • 35. A confession obtained through coercion is:
A) Inadmissible
B) Considered documentary evidence
C) Valid if recorded
D) Acceptable
  • 36. Character evidence is generally inadmissible to
A) Prove conduct on a specific occasion
B) Support credibility
C) Indicate intent
D) Show motive
  • 37. The "chain of custody" ensures:
A) Speedy trial
B) Witness credibility
C) Admissibility of confessions
D) Integrity of physical evidence
  • 38. A hostile witness is one who:
A) Refuses to testify
B) Lacks knowledge
C) Lies under oath
D) Shows bias or hostility toward the party calling him
  • 39. The burden of proof lies with:
A) The prosecution
B) The defense
C) The judge
D) The witness
  • 40. The quantum of proof in criminal cases is:
A) Substantial evidence
B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Probable cause
D) Preponderance of evidence
  • 41. The rule that requires the original document to be presented is:
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Parol Evidence Rule
C) Hearsay Rule
D) Res Inter Alios Acta
  • 42. A statement made in anticipation of death is
A) Judicial declaration
B) Dying Declaration
C) Confession
D) Dying Inside to Hold you
E) Admission
  • 43. A person who gives evidence in court is called:
A) Expert
B) Complainant
C) Judge Nono
D) Judge
E) Witness
  • 44. The ability of a witness to observe and communicate is called:
A) Intelligence
B) Reliability
C) Credibility
D) Competency
  • 45. The rule preventing the use of oral statements to modify a written contract is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Hearsay Rule
  • 46. A privilege preventing testimony between husband and wife is called:
A) Physician Privilege
B) Priest Privilege
C) Parental Privilege
D) Marital Privilege
  • 47. The privilege protecting communications between doctor and patient is:
A) Physician-Patient Privilege
B) Marital Privilege
C) Parental Privilege
D) Professional Privilege
E) Client-Lawyer Privilege
  • 48. The privilege that protects religious confessions is:
A) Spiritual Privilege
B) Priest-Penitent Privilege
C) Spousal Privilege
D) Teacher-Student Privilege
E) Doctor-Patient Privilege
  • 49. The rule stating that the acts of others cannot prejudice a person is:
A) Res Inter Alios Acta Rule
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Parol Evidence Rule
D) Exa Sec To
E) Hearsay Rule
  • 50. The rule allowing statements made against one’s own interest to be admissible is:
A) Parol rule evidence
B) Dying against declaration
C) Declaration Against Interest
D) Admission by Silence
E) Opinion Rule
  • 51. Collateral matters are never admissible.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 52. A confession can be oral or written.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 53. The original document rule is the same as the best evidence rule.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 54. Privileged communications promote public policy and confidentiality.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 55. Hearsay evidence is generally admissible.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 56. An oath is required for every witness before testifying.
A) Maybe
B) True
C) False
  • 57. A dying declaration must relate to the cause or circumstances of death.
A) Maybe
B) False
C) True
  • 58. Expert witnesses must rely only on personal knowledge
A) False
B) Maybe
C) True
  • 59. Spousal immunity can still apply after divorce.
A) True
B) Maybe
C) False
  • 60. Do you think my greatest love shall be mine again?
A) Yes comback
B) Depende
C) No comback
D) Wala na tol wag kana umasa
E) Gusto may mag mahal pero ayaw mag move on aray mo! Alam mo ha
  • 61. which of the following is considered a public or official record under Rule 130?
A) a birth certificate issued by the local by the local civil registrar
B) personal diary
C) an email exchange between private citizens
D) A company's internal memo
  • 62. what does the "mercy rule" generally refer to in the context of character evidence of a victim's good character.
A) The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
B) the rule allowing the evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crime
C) the rule allowing evidence of a defendant's good character to show they are unlikely to have committed the crim The rule prohibiting any character evidence in court
D) The rule allowing evidence of a witness's merciful nature.
  • 63. What is the primary characteristic of "character as circumstantial evidence
A) It directly proves a key fact in the case.
B) It is always inadmissible in court.
C) It suggests a person acted in a certain way based on their general disposition.
D) It is only used to impeach a witness.
  • 64. Which of the following best describes the "res inter alios acta rule"
A) All evidence, regardless of its source, is admissible as long as it is relevant.
B) Evidence related to transactions or occurrences involving third parties is generally inadmissible.
C) Only documentary evidence is subject to this rule.
D) Evidence is admissible only if it directly involves the parties in the current case.
  • 65. What is the significance of "learned treatises" in legal evidence?
A) They are always admissible as direct evidence.
B) They can be used to cross-examine expert witnesses.
C) They are never admissible in court.
D) They are only relevant in medical malpractice cases
  • 66. When is "opinion rule" applicable in court?
A) All of the above
B) When a witness speculates without factual basis.
C) When a lay witness offers opinions based on common knowledge.
D) When an expert witness provides scientific or technical opinions.
  • 67. What is the primary purpose of the "reported testimony rule"
A) To permit the use of testimony given in a prior proceeding under certain conditions
B) To encourage witnesses to report crimes.
C) To allow hearsay evidence without any limitations.
D) To exclude all prior testimonies from being admitted in court.
  • 68. Which of the following scenarios involves "character as direct evidence"?
A) Offering evidence of a person's character when character is an essential element of a claim or defense.
B) Introducing evidence of a defendant's violent tendencies to suggest they committed assault.
C) Presenting evidence of a person's honesty to show they are a credible witness.
D) Showing a person's reputation for recklessness to prove negligence.
  • 69. What types of records are typically covered under "public or official records"
A) Private contracts between individuals
B) Government agency documents available for public inspection.
C) Personal letters stored in a government archive.
D) Internal memos of a private company.
  • 70. What is a "commercial list" as it pertains to evidence?
A) A compilation of data used in a specific industry.
B) A list of businesses registered with the government.
C) A list of items sold in a store.
D) A catalog of products for sale online.
  • 71. 1.
    Which of the following is considered a public document?
A) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
B) A private diary entry
C) A document acknowledged before a notary, excluding wills and testaments
D) A grocery list kept in personal records
E) A handwritten letter between two individuals
  • 72. 2.
    Public documents include:
A) Private records not required by law to be entered as public records
B) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
C) Unacknowledged documents between private parties
D) Records of official acts by foreign countries’ sovereign authorities
E) Personal letters exchanged between friends
  • 73. : Proof of Private Documents

    3.
    Before a private document can be admitted as evidence, due execution and authenticity must be proved by:
A) The court judge
B) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
C) Only the document creator
D) Anyone who saw the document created or signed
E) notary public
  • 74. 4.
    Which of the following is NOT a valid method to prove a private document’s authenticity?
A) Testimony from an individual who recognizes the signature or handwriting
B) Evidence establishing that the document is genuine and free from suspicion
C) Testimony from someone who saw the document created
D) Notarization of the document by an attorney
E) Notarization of the document by an attorney
  • 75. 5.
    Additional evidence of authenticity is not required for a private document if:
A) It was sent by registered mail
B) It was found in a government office
C) A. It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
D) A.      It is over 30 years old and found in the place it would naturally be kept
E) It was signed in front of a notary public
  • 76. 6.
    A private document may not require additional proof of authenticity if:
A) It has been altered in any way
B) It was signed by an unknown individual
C) It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
D) It has been lost for more than 30 years
E) C. It has remained in its usual place for over 30 years without suspicion of tampering
  • 77. 7.
    The genuineness of handwriting may be proved by:
A) A government official
B) Any witness who has seen the person write before
C) A certified handwriting analyst
D) Only the person whose handwriting it is
E) Any witness who has seen the person write before
  • 78. 8.
    Which of the following can establish a witness’s knowledge of handwriting?
A) Comparing the handwriting with an unrelated sample
B) Seeing the person write only once
C) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
D) Having read similar documents before
E) Watching the person write on multiple occasions and becoming familiar with it
  • 79. 9.
    In court, public documents are considered:
A) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
B) Secondary evidence needing corroboration
C) Prima facie evidence of stated facts
D) Private evidence needing verification
E) Inadmissible unless notarized
  • 80. 10.
    For foreign public records to be admissible in Philippine courts, they must be:
A) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
B) Accompanied by a seal of the foreign country
C) Notarized within the Philippines
D) Verified by at least two witnesses
E) Certified by an embassy or consul if there’s no treaty
  • 81. 11.
    An attestation of a copy must state:
A) None of the above
B) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
C) That the copy is certified by the Supreme Court
D) The copy is a public document
E) The copy is an accurate copy of the original or specific part
  • 82. 12.
    Who is authorized to provide the attestation of a document?
A) Any individual who has access to the document
B) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
C)   The head of a department
D) The officer with legal custody of the document or their deputy
E) A private individual designated by the parties involved
  • 83. 13.
    A public record may be removed from the office in which it is kept:
A) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
B) If there’s a pending court case requiring its inspection
C) For personal inspection by the document owner
D) When the office is undergoing renovations
E) Only with permission from the president
  • 84. 14.
    Who is authorized to prepare a public record of a private document?
A) An authorized public official
B) A private notary
C) An authorized public official
D) Any individual who owns the document
E) Any court officer
  • 85. 15.
    Why might a private document be entered as a public record?
A) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
B) To fulfill a requirement by private individuals
C) To provide prima facie evidence of its authenticity in legal proceedings
D) To make it available for historical records
E) To allow easy access to the public
  • 86. 16. In which of the following cases can a party present evidence to modify, explain, or add to a written agreement?
A) If the agreement has been signed by both parties.D. If the agreement is more than five years old.
B) If one party changes their mind about the agreement terms
C) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
D) If the agreement is more than five years old.
E) If there is a verified pleading showing ambiguity, mistake, or failure to express intent.
  • 87. 17. According to the legal meaning rule, how should the language of a writing be interpreted?
A) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
B) According to the most common understanding of the terms.
C) According to the location where it was executed, unless intended otherwise.
D) According to the strictest legal definition possible.
E) According to the intention of the parties, regardless of location.
  • 88. 18. When an instrumet has multiple provisions or particulars, how should it be construed?
A) By ignoring any contradictory provisions.
B) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
C) By giving effect to all provisions, if possible.
D) By prioritizing the first provision.
E) By asking the parties to clarify the meaning
  • 89. 19. How should conflicting general and particular provisions in an instrument be interpreted?
A) The particular provisions should always prevail.
B) The particular provisions should always prevail.
C) The general provisions should always prevail.
D) The court should disregard both provisions.
E) The general intent of the document should be rewritten
  • 90. 20. How should a document be interpreted in relation to the circumstances of its creation?
A) According to the personal preferences of the judge.
B) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
C) Only by the literal meaning of the words used.
D) Without regard to any external factors.
E) By considering the situation of the subject and the parties.
  • 91. 21. If terms in a document have a peculiar signification, how should they be interpreted?
A) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
B) By disregarding any peculiar or technical significance.
C) According to their technical or special meaning, if known by the parties.
D) According to their primary and general meaning only.
E) Based on the judge’s interpretation alone.
  • 92. 22. When an instrument contains contradictory terms, which should be preferred?
A) The latter of the two terms
B) The latter of the two terms.
C) The term with the most support from outside evidence.
D) The term that aligns with the intent of one party.
E) The term that appears first.
  • 93. 23. When might experts or interpreters be needed to explain a written instrument?
A) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language.
B) When it is difficult to decipher or in an unfamiliar language
C) When both parties request an interpreter.
D) When it is written in ordinary language.
E) When it contains legal jargon only.
  • 94. 24.If an agreement term is understood differently by each party, which interpretation should prevail?
A) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
B) The interpretation most beneficial to the party in breach of the agreement.
C) The interpretation least favorable to the party who proposed the term.
D) The interpretation most favorable to the party for whom the provision was made.
E) The interpretation that both parties initially agreed upon.
  • 95. What are the four conditions required for a litigant to produce evidence in court?
A) Personal knowledge, perception, recollection, and narration
B) Relevance, materiality, admissibility, and competency
C) Existence, termination, power, and loss
D) Authenticity, reliability, credibility, and weight
  • 96. What are the three channels through which tribunals acquire information for their decisions?
A) Witnesses, documents, and inspection
B) Testimony, exhibits, and arguments
C) Pleadings, motions, and evidence
D) Investigations, trials, and appeals
  • 97. What is the highest order of evidence?
A) Documentary evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Real evidence
  • 98. How is a photograph typically authenticated?
A) By a witness who can identify the subject
B) By a forensic expert's analysis
C) By the photographer's testimony
D) By comparing it to other photographs
  • 99. What is the "totality of circumstances" test used for?
A) Evaluating the weight of evidence
B) Assessing the credibility of a witness
C) Determining the admissibility of evidence
D) Identifying the perpetrator of a crime
  • 100. What is the purpose of an ocular inspection?
A) To identify the accused
B) To examine the crime scene
C) To determine the cause of death
D) To verify the authenticity of evidence
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