A) Evidence-Based Planning B) Unity of Command C) Flexibility D) Centralization
A) Strategic Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Operational Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Direction B) Adaptability C) Control D) Evaluation
A) Situational Leadership Model B) Quality Management System C) Balanced Scorecard D) Performance Governance System (PGS)
A) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback B) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security C) Reporting only major crimes D) Following the same route daily
A) Operational B) Tactical C) Contingency D) Strategic
A) Organizational participation B) Efficiency through hierarchy C) Command authority D) Political alignment
A) Operational Plan B) Policy Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Through centralized command only B) Through strict adherence to hierarchy C) Through measurable and transparent objectives D) Through punitive measures for non-performance
A) Standing Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Tactical Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Control B) Coordination C) Command D) Motivation
A) Segregation B) Secrecy C) Decentralization D) Coordination
A) Individual performance only B) Authoritarian leadership C) Participative governance D) Centralized supervision
A) Identify police misconduct B) Allocate resources for intelligence C) Measure organizational and individual performance D) Record disciplinary actions
A) Operations remain classified B) Only top officers make revisions C) Continuous improvement and adaptation D) Plans are fixed and unchangeable
A) Tactical plans focus on national objectives B) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations C) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions D) Tactical plans have long-term goals
A) Contingency Plan B) Strategic Plan C) Operational Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Partnership B) Transformation C) Deterrence D) Accountability
A) It limits officer discretion B) It focuses only on leadership goals C) It increases bureaucracy D) It measures output and transparency
A) Strategic alignment B) Personnel control C) Procedural authority D) Policy compliance
A) Statistical modeling B) Thematic mapping C) Spatial regression D) Non-graphical indicator
A) Geographic profiling B) Social crime mapping C) Predictive policing D) Random patrols
A) Hotspot analysis B) Trend analysis C) Spatial regression D) Thematic mapping
A) Choropleth B) Graphic regression C) Topographic D) Thematic
A) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations B) Mapping police jurisdiction borders C) Determining police salaries D) Forecasting public celebrations
A) Strategic redeployment B) Spatial diffusion C) Tactical crime mapping D) Randomized control patrol
A) It replaces human intelligence B) It allows speculative conclusions C) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions D) It focuses solely on statistical data
A) Longitudinal monitoring B) Temporal analysis C) Spatial regression D) Non-graphical evaluation
A) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences B) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations C) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only D) Both measure community satisfaction
A) Spatial mapping B) Predictive simulation C) Non-graphical indicators D) Thematic analysis
A) Spatial regression B) Environmental regression C) Situational correlation D) Area mapping
A) It only works for rural areas B) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends C) It emphasizes minor crimes only D) It eliminates the need for statistics
A) Isoline map B) Static hotspot map C) Non-graphical table D) Dynamic time-series map
A) Produce non-graphical outputs B) Conduct spatial correlation C) Identify policy gaps D) Measure administrative efficiency
A) Reactive patrol B) Predictive analytics C) Routine mapping D) Manual charting
A) Situation analysis B) Implementation C) Feedback D) Resource allocation
A) Patrol Plan B) Tactical Deployment Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Intelligence secrecy B) Operational planning C) Inter-agency collaboration D) Hierarchical supervision
A) NBI B) PCG C) PNP D) BID
A) Risk assessment B) Resource control C) Situation analysis D) Implementation
A) Initial planning B) Coordination C) Prevention D) Evaluation phase
A) Chain of Command B) Unity of Direction C) Unity of Command D) Coordination
A) Operational B) Strategic C) Contingency D) Tactical
A) Reactive operations B) Intelligence gathering C) Command centralization D) Partnership policing
A) Legal enforcement B) Jurisdictional independence C) Inter-agency synergy D) Routine investigation
A) Proportionality B) Efficiency C) Security prioritization D) Safety first
A) Inter-sectoral coordination B) Hierarchical control C) Command isolation D) Communication
A) Control B) Improvement C) Implementation D) Revision
A) Narrow coordination B) Adaptive planning C) Standardized procedure D) Decentralized control
A) Policy integration B) Strategic alignment C) Tactical programming D) Objective formulation
A) Evaluation B) Control C) Implementation D) Testing
A) Duplication of effort B) Unified command and coordination C) Reduced intelligence sharing D) Increased jurisdictional conflict
A) Coordination and synchronization B) Chain of command C) Specialization D) Task delegation
A) To finalize reports only B) To assign blame for failures C) To celebrate success D) To evaluate performance and identify gaps
A) Command instruction B) Crisis management C) Information gathering D) Coordination plan
A) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities B) To deter offenders by stricter laws C) To rely on surveillance alone D) To increase police presence only
A) Maintenance B) Target hardening C) Territorial reinforcement D) Natural surveillance
A) It records officer attendance B) It replaces human patrols C) It eliminates crime completely D) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime
A) Dark alleys B) Large, unsupervised spaces C) Fences and designated entry points D) Open public plazas
A) Territorial reinforcement B) Formal control C) Natural surveillance D) Target hardening
A) Data-driven deployment B) Human-based observation C) Traditional mapping D) Random patrol
A) Manual plotting B) Reactive mapping C) Predictive GIS analysis D) Static mapping
A) Natural surveillance B) Maintenance C) Target hardening D) Access control
A) Eliminating open areas B) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces C) Reducing property lines D) Increasing police checkpoints
A) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones B) Ignore minor crimes C) Close all schools temporarily D) Conduct random arrests
A) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow B) It measures public satisfaction C) It eliminates paperwork D) It focuses only on offender data
A) Expand commercial property B) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety C) Limit police activity D) Reduce government spending
A) Avoid manual investigation B) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders C) Reduce manpower D) Replace detectives
A) Crime prevention through design B) Target hardening C) Situational design D) Environmental aesthetics
A) Administrative filing B) Officer scheduling C) Predictive precision D) Political decision-making
A) Reducing community involvement B) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making C) Replacing leadership functions D) Eliminating all crimes
A) Isolated parking areas B) Hidden alleys C) Well-lit open spaces D) Narrow blind streets
A) Economic zoning B) Bureaucratic control C) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence D) Population balance
A) Population profiling B) Statistical sampling C) Demographic analysis D) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting
A) Manual data analysis B) Application of data-informed operational planning C) Randomized response strategy D) Traditional guesswork
A) Equal protection B) Probable cause C) Due process D) Double jeopardy
A) Right to confrontation B) Right to privacy C) Right against unreasonable detention D) Right to counsel
A) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree B) Plain View Doctrine C) Hot Pursuit Doctrine D) Stop and Frisk
A) Doctrine of Implied Consent B) Exclusionary Rule C) Plain View Doctrine D) Probable Cause Doctrine
A) Rule on Evidence B) Warrant Clause C) Rule on Custodial Investigation D) Writ of Habeas Corpus
A) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) B) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) C) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons) D) RA 6975 (DILG Act)
A) Search of residence B) The suspect’s immediate interrogation C) Media exposure D) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement
A) Right to confrontation B) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination C) Right to bail D) Right to privacy
A) It involves random vehicle searches B) It is done secretly C) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory D) It targets political groups
A) Consent Search Doctrine B) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine C) Plain View Doctrine D) In flagrante delicto
A) Due process violation B) Preventive detention C) Civil liability D) Non-bailable offense
A) The right to speedy trial B) The right to counsel C) The right against unlawful search and seizure D) The right to free travel
A) Right to bail B) Right to privacy C) Right to due process D) Right against self-incrimination
A) A barangay official B) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice C) The arresting officer’s superior D) A witness
A) Proportionality B) Lawful exercise of police power C) Due process D) Separation of powers
A) Certiorari B) Quo Warranto C) Injunction D) Habeas Corpus
A) Republic Act No. 8551 B) Republic Act No. 9165 C) Republic Act No. 6975 D) Republic Act No. 7438
A) Reasonable necessity of means employed B) Doctrine of hot pursuit C) Probable cause principle D) Plain view rule
A) It is valid if the officer signs it B) It is admissible if recorded C) It is inadmissible due to rights violation D) It can be used as circumstantial evidence
A) Right to travel B) Freedom of speech and expression C) Right to privacy D) Right to silence
A) Exclusionary rule B) Miranda doctrine C) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 D) Rules on Criminal Procedure
A) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code B) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code C) RA 7438 D) RA 8551
A) Presumption of Regularity B) Exclusionary Rule C) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy D) Hot Pursuit Doctrine
A) Article VI, Section 11 B) Article III, Section 12 C) Article III, Section 2 D) Article II, Section 1
A) Confidentiality and respect for due process B) Public display for transparency C) Summary publicity for deterrence D) Police media cooperation |