A) Evidence-Based Planning B) Centralization C) Unity of Command D) Flexibility
A) Operational Plan B) Strategic Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Adaptability B) Evaluation C) Control D) Direction
A) Quality Management System B) Balanced Scorecard C) Performance Governance System (PGS) D) Situational Leadership Model
A) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback B) Following the same route daily C) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security D) Reporting only major crimes
A) Contingency B) Strategic C) Operational D) Tactical
A) Efficiency through hierarchy B) Organizational participation C) Command authority D) Political alignment
A) Operational Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Policy Plan
A) Through centralized command only B) Through punitive measures for non-performance C) Through measurable and transparent objectives D) Through strict adherence to hierarchy
A) Contingency Plan B) Standing Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Tactical Plan
A) Command B) Control C) Coordination D) Motivation
A) Secrecy B) Segregation C) Decentralization D) Coordination
A) Centralized supervision B) Individual performance only C) Participative governance D) Authoritarian leadership
A) Identify police misconduct B) Allocate resources for intelligence C) Record disciplinary actions D) Measure organizational and individual performance
A) Plans are fixed and unchangeable B) Continuous improvement and adaptation C) Only top officers make revisions D) Operations remain classified
A) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations B) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions C) Tactical plans focus on national objectives D) Tactical plans have long-term goals
A) Administrative Plan B) Operational Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Deterrence B) Transformation C) Accountability D) Partnership
A) It focuses only on leadership goals B) It limits officer discretion C) It measures output and transparency D) It increases bureaucracy
A) Procedural authority B) Policy compliance C) Strategic alignment D) Personnel control
A) Statistical modeling B) Non-graphical indicator C) Spatial regression D) Thematic mapping
A) Predictive policing B) Geographic profiling C) Social crime mapping D) Random patrols
A) Thematic mapping B) Spatial regression C) Hotspot analysis D) Trend analysis
A) Choropleth B) Topographic C) Thematic D) Graphic regression
A) Mapping police jurisdiction borders B) Forecasting public celebrations C) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations D) Determining police salaries
A) Spatial diffusion B) Strategic redeployment C) Tactical crime mapping D) Randomized control patrol
A) It replaces human intelligence B) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions C) It allows speculative conclusions D) It focuses solely on statistical data
A) Longitudinal monitoring B) Temporal analysis C) Spatial regression D) Non-graphical evaluation
A) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations B) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences C) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only D) Both measure community satisfaction
A) Thematic analysis B) Predictive simulation C) Spatial mapping D) Non-graphical indicators
A) Area mapping B) Spatial regression C) Environmental regression D) Situational correlation
A) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends B) It only works for rural areas C) It eliminates the need for statistics D) It emphasizes minor crimes only
A) Non-graphical table B) Static hotspot map C) Dynamic time-series map D) Isoline map
A) Conduct spatial correlation B) Produce non-graphical outputs C) Identify policy gaps D) Measure administrative efficiency
A) Manual charting B) Routine mapping C) Predictive analytics D) Reactive patrol
A) Resource allocation B) Implementation C) Situation analysis D) Feedback
A) Administrative Plan B) Patrol Plan C) Tactical Deployment Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Intelligence secrecy B) Inter-agency collaboration C) Operational planning D) Hierarchical supervision
A) BID B) NBI C) PNP D) PCG
A) Resource control B) Risk assessment C) Implementation D) Situation analysis
A) Prevention B) Initial planning C) Evaluation phase D) Coordination
A) Unity of Command B) Coordination C) Unity of Direction D) Chain of Command
A) Operational B) Strategic C) Tactical D) Contingency
A) Reactive operations B) Intelligence gathering C) Command centralization D) Partnership policing
A) Jurisdictional independence B) Legal enforcement C) Inter-agency synergy D) Routine investigation
A) Safety first B) Proportionality C) Efficiency D) Security prioritization
A) Command isolation B) Inter-sectoral coordination C) Hierarchical control D) Communication
A) Control B) Revision C) Implementation D) Improvement
A) Adaptive planning B) Standardized procedure C) Decentralized control D) Narrow coordination
A) Policy integration B) Strategic alignment C) Objective formulation D) Tactical programming
A) Evaluation B) Implementation C) Control D) Testing
A) Unified command and coordination B) Increased jurisdictional conflict C) Duplication of effort D) Reduced intelligence sharing
A) Chain of command B) Task delegation C) Specialization D) Coordination and synchronization
A) To finalize reports only B) To evaluate performance and identify gaps C) To celebrate success D) To assign blame for failures
A) Crisis management B) Coordination plan C) Information gathering D) Command instruction
A) To increase police presence only B) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities C) To rely on surveillance alone D) To deter offenders by stricter laws
A) Territorial reinforcement B) Maintenance C) Natural surveillance D) Target hardening
A) It eliminates crime completely B) It records officer attendance C) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime D) It replaces human patrols
A) Fences and designated entry points B) Large, unsupervised spaces C) Dark alleys D) Open public plazas
A) Territorial reinforcement B) Formal control C) Natural surveillance D) Target hardening
A) Random patrol B) Human-based observation C) Traditional mapping D) Data-driven deployment
A) Static mapping B) Manual plotting C) Reactive mapping D) Predictive GIS analysis
A) Natural surveillance B) Maintenance C) Target hardening D) Access control
A) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces B) Increasing police checkpoints C) Eliminating open areas D) Reducing property lines
A) Ignore minor crimes B) Close all schools temporarily C) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones D) Conduct random arrests
A) It eliminates paperwork B) It focuses only on offender data C) It measures public satisfaction D) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow
A) Reduce government spending B) Limit police activity C) Expand commercial property D) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety
A) Reduce manpower B) Avoid manual investigation C) Replace detectives D) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders
A) Environmental aesthetics B) Target hardening C) Crime prevention through design D) Situational design
A) Administrative filing B) Officer scheduling C) Political decision-making D) Predictive precision
A) Reducing community involvement B) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making C) Eliminating all crimes D) Replacing leadership functions
A) Hidden alleys B) Isolated parking areas C) Narrow blind streets D) Well-lit open spaces
A) Bureaucratic control B) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence C) Population balance D) Economic zoning
A) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting B) Population profiling C) Statistical sampling D) Demographic analysis
A) Application of data-informed operational planning B) Traditional guesswork C) Manual data analysis D) Randomized response strategy
A) Probable cause B) Equal protection C) Double jeopardy D) Due process
A) Right to counsel B) Right to confrontation C) Right to privacy D) Right against unreasonable detention
A) Stop and Frisk B) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree C) Plain View Doctrine D) Hot Pursuit Doctrine
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Plain View Doctrine C) Probable Cause Doctrine D) Doctrine of Implied Consent
A) Writ of Habeas Corpus B) Rule on Evidence C) Rule on Custodial Investigation D) Warrant Clause
A) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons) B) RA 6975 (DILG Act) C) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) D) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act)
A) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement B) Media exposure C) Search of residence D) The suspect’s immediate interrogation
A) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination B) Right to confrontation C) Right to bail D) Right to privacy
A) It is done secretly B) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory C) It targets political groups D) It involves random vehicle searches
A) Plain View Doctrine B) In flagrante delicto C) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine D) Consent Search Doctrine
A) Preventive detention B) Non-bailable offense C) Due process violation D) Civil liability
A) The right to speedy trial B) The right against unlawful search and seizure C) The right to counsel D) The right to free travel
A) Right to privacy B) Right against self-incrimination C) Right to due process D) Right to bail
A) The arresting officer’s superior B) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice C) A barangay official D) A witness
A) Due process B) Lawful exercise of police power C) Proportionality D) Separation of powers
A) Injunction B) Habeas Corpus C) Certiorari D) Quo Warranto
A) Republic Act No. 8551 B) Republic Act No. 6975 C) Republic Act No. 7438 D) Republic Act No. 9165
A) Plain view rule B) Reasonable necessity of means employed C) Doctrine of hot pursuit D) Probable cause principle
A) It is admissible if recorded B) It is valid if the officer signs it C) It can be used as circumstantial evidence D) It is inadmissible due to rights violation
A) Right to privacy B) Freedom of speech and expression C) Right to travel D) Right to silence
A) Rules on Criminal Procedure B) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 C) Exclusionary rule D) Miranda doctrine
A) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code B) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code C) RA 7438 D) RA 8551
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Hot Pursuit Doctrine C) Presumption of Regularity D) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy
A) Article III, Section 12 B) Article II, Section 1 C) Article VI, Section 11 D) Article III, Section 2
A) Summary publicity for deterrence B) Police media cooperation C) Confidentiality and respect for due process D) Public display for transparency |