A) Evidence-Based Planning B) Centralization C) Unity of Command D) Flexibility
A) Administrative Plan B) Operational Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Adaptability B) Direction C) Evaluation D) Control
A) Quality Management System B) Balanced Scorecard C) Situational Leadership Model D) Performance Governance System (PGS)
A) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security B) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback C) Following the same route daily D) Reporting only major crimes
A) Operational B) Tactical C) Strategic D) Contingency
A) Command authority B) Organizational participation C) Efficiency through hierarchy D) Political alignment
A) Strategic Plan B) Policy Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Operational Plan
A) Through measurable and transparent objectives B) Through strict adherence to hierarchy C) Through centralized command only D) Through punitive measures for non-performance
A) Contingency Plan B) Strategic Plan C) Tactical Plan D) Standing Plan
A) Motivation B) Command C) Coordination D) Control
A) Secrecy B) Coordination C) Decentralization D) Segregation
A) Participative governance B) Individual performance only C) Authoritarian leadership D) Centralized supervision
A) Measure organizational and individual performance B) Allocate resources for intelligence C) Identify police misconduct D) Record disciplinary actions
A) Operations remain classified B) Continuous improvement and adaptation C) Only top officers make revisions D) Plans are fixed and unchangeable
A) Tactical plans have long-term goals B) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions C) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations D) Tactical plans focus on national objectives
A) Contingency Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Operational Plan
A) Partnership B) Transformation C) Deterrence D) Accountability
A) It focuses only on leadership goals B) It measures output and transparency C) It increases bureaucracy D) It limits officer discretion
A) Personnel control B) Procedural authority C) Policy compliance D) Strategic alignment
A) Non-graphical indicator B) Thematic mapping C) Statistical modeling D) Spatial regression
A) Social crime mapping B) Random patrols C) Predictive policing D) Geographic profiling
A) Trend analysis B) Spatial regression C) Thematic mapping D) Hotspot analysis
A) Topographic B) Thematic C) Choropleth D) Graphic regression
A) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations B) Determining police salaries C) Forecasting public celebrations D) Mapping police jurisdiction borders
A) Strategic redeployment B) Tactical crime mapping C) Randomized control patrol D) Spatial diffusion
A) It focuses solely on statistical data B) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions C) It allows speculative conclusions D) It replaces human intelligence
A) Spatial regression B) Longitudinal monitoring C) Non-graphical evaluation D) Temporal analysis
A) Both measure community satisfaction B) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations C) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences D) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only
A) Non-graphical indicators B) Thematic analysis C) Predictive simulation D) Spatial mapping
A) Spatial regression B) Situational correlation C) Environmental regression D) Area mapping
A) It only works for rural areas B) It emphasizes minor crimes only C) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends D) It eliminates the need for statistics
A) Static hotspot map B) Dynamic time-series map C) Non-graphical table D) Isoline map
A) Measure administrative efficiency B) Identify policy gaps C) Produce non-graphical outputs D) Conduct spatial correlation
A) Manual charting B) Predictive analytics C) Routine mapping D) Reactive patrol
A) Situation analysis B) Resource allocation C) Feedback D) Implementation
A) Patrol Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Tactical Deployment Plan
A) Intelligence secrecy B) Inter-agency collaboration C) Hierarchical supervision D) Operational planning
A) PCG B) NBI C) BID D) PNP
A) Situation analysis B) Resource control C) Risk assessment D) Implementation
A) Initial planning B) Evaluation phase C) Prevention D) Coordination
A) Coordination B) Chain of Command C) Unity of Direction D) Unity of Command
A) Strategic B) Tactical C) Contingency D) Operational
A) Command centralization B) Reactive operations C) Partnership policing D) Intelligence gathering
A) Jurisdictional independence B) Inter-agency synergy C) Routine investigation D) Legal enforcement
A) Safety first B) Proportionality C) Efficiency D) Security prioritization
A) Hierarchical control B) Inter-sectoral coordination C) Communication D) Command isolation
A) Control B) Improvement C) Revision D) Implementation
A) Adaptive planning B) Decentralized control C) Narrow coordination D) Standardized procedure
A) Strategic alignment B) Tactical programming C) Objective formulation D) Policy integration
A) Implementation B) Control C) Testing D) Evaluation
A) Increased jurisdictional conflict B) Duplication of effort C) Reduced intelligence sharing D) Unified command and coordination
A) Chain of command B) Task delegation C) Coordination and synchronization D) Specialization
A) To finalize reports only B) To celebrate success C) To assign blame for failures D) To evaluate performance and identify gaps
A) Coordination plan B) Crisis management C) Command instruction D) Information gathering
A) To rely on surveillance alone B) To increase police presence only C) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities D) To deter offenders by stricter laws
A) Territorial reinforcement B) Maintenance C) Target hardening D) Natural surveillance
A) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime B) It records officer attendance C) It eliminates crime completely D) It replaces human patrols
A) Fences and designated entry points B) Large, unsupervised spaces C) Open public plazas D) Dark alleys
A) Natural surveillance B) Target hardening C) Formal control D) Territorial reinforcement
A) Human-based observation B) Traditional mapping C) Data-driven deployment D) Random patrol
A) Manual plotting B) Static mapping C) Reactive mapping D) Predictive GIS analysis
A) Access control B) Natural surveillance C) Target hardening D) Maintenance
A) Eliminating open areas B) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces C) Increasing police checkpoints D) Reducing property lines
A) Conduct random arrests B) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones C) Ignore minor crimes D) Close all schools temporarily
A) It measures public satisfaction B) It eliminates paperwork C) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow D) It focuses only on offender data
A) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety B) Expand commercial property C) Reduce government spending D) Limit police activity
A) Avoid manual investigation B) Reduce manpower C) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders D) Replace detectives
A) Situational design B) Target hardening C) Environmental aesthetics D) Crime prevention through design
A) Administrative filing B) Political decision-making C) Predictive precision D) Officer scheduling
A) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making B) Reducing community involvement C) Replacing leadership functions D) Eliminating all crimes
A) Hidden alleys B) Isolated parking areas C) Well-lit open spaces D) Narrow blind streets
A) Population balance B) Bureaucratic control C) Economic zoning D) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence
A) Demographic analysis B) Statistical sampling C) Population profiling D) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting
A) Manual data analysis B) Application of data-informed operational planning C) Traditional guesswork D) Randomized response strategy
A) Double jeopardy B) Probable cause C) Equal protection D) Due process
A) Right against unreasonable detention B) Right to counsel C) Right to confrontation D) Right to privacy
A) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree B) Hot Pursuit Doctrine C) Stop and Frisk D) Plain View Doctrine
A) Probable Cause Doctrine B) Exclusionary Rule C) Doctrine of Implied Consent D) Plain View Doctrine
A) Rule on Evidence B) Rule on Custodial Investigation C) Writ of Habeas Corpus D) Warrant Clause
A) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons) B) RA 6975 (DILG Act) C) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) D) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act)
A) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement B) Search of residence C) The suspect’s immediate interrogation D) Media exposure
A) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination B) Right to privacy C) Right to bail D) Right to confrontation
A) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory B) It targets political groups C) It is done secretly D) It involves random vehicle searches
A) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine B) Plain View Doctrine C) Consent Search Doctrine D) In flagrante delicto
A) Civil liability B) Due process violation C) Non-bailable offense D) Preventive detention
A) The right to speedy trial B) The right to free travel C) The right against unlawful search and seizure D) The right to counsel
A) Right to due process B) Right to bail C) Right against self-incrimination D) Right to privacy
A) A witness B) The arresting officer’s superior C) A barangay official D) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice
A) Due process B) Separation of powers C) Proportionality D) Lawful exercise of police power
A) Habeas Corpus B) Quo Warranto C) Certiorari D) Injunction
A) Republic Act No. 9165 B) Republic Act No. 8551 C) Republic Act No. 7438 D) Republic Act No. 6975
A) Doctrine of hot pursuit B) Reasonable necessity of means employed C) Plain view rule D) Probable cause principle
A) It is inadmissible due to rights violation B) It is admissible if recorded C) It can be used as circumstantial evidence D) It is valid if the officer signs it
A) Right to travel B) Right to silence C) Right to privacy D) Freedom of speech and expression
A) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 B) Exclusionary rule C) Rules on Criminal Procedure D) Miranda doctrine
A) RA 7438 B) RA 8551 C) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code D) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code
A) Presumption of Regularity B) Hot Pursuit Doctrine C) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Article VI, Section 11 B) Article II, Section 1 C) Article III, Section 12 D) Article III, Section 2
A) Confidentiality and respect for due process B) Summary publicity for deterrence C) Police media cooperation D) Public display for transparency |