A) Unity of Command B) Evidence-Based Planning C) Centralization D) Flexibility
A) Contingency Plan B) Operational Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Adaptability B) Evaluation C) Control D) Direction
A) Situational Leadership Model B) Quality Management System C) Performance Governance System (PGS) D) Balanced Scorecard
A) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback B) Reporting only major crimes C) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security D) Following the same route daily
A) Strategic B) Operational C) Tactical D) Contingency
A) Efficiency through hierarchy B) Organizational participation C) Political alignment D) Command authority
A) Strategic Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Policy Plan D) Operational Plan
A) Through measurable and transparent objectives B) Through centralized command only C) Through strict adherence to hierarchy D) Through punitive measures for non-performance
A) Contingency Plan B) Standing Plan C) Tactical Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Command B) Coordination C) Control D) Motivation
A) Coordination B) Decentralization C) Secrecy D) Segregation
A) Participative governance B) Authoritarian leadership C) Centralized supervision D) Individual performance only
A) Record disciplinary actions B) Allocate resources for intelligence C) Measure organizational and individual performance D) Identify police misconduct
A) Operations remain classified B) Only top officers make revisions C) Plans are fixed and unchangeable D) Continuous improvement and adaptation
A) Tactical plans focus on national objectives B) Tactical plans have long-term goals C) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions D) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations
A) Administrative Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Operational Plan
A) Accountability B) Deterrence C) Transformation D) Partnership
A) It limits officer discretion B) It measures output and transparency C) It increases bureaucracy D) It focuses only on leadership goals
A) Procedural authority B) Strategic alignment C) Policy compliance D) Personnel control
A) Thematic mapping B) Statistical modeling C) Non-graphical indicator D) Spatial regression
A) Predictive policing B) Random patrols C) Geographic profiling D) Social crime mapping
A) Hotspot analysis B) Thematic mapping C) Spatial regression D) Trend analysis
A) Choropleth B) Topographic C) Thematic D) Graphic regression
A) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations B) Determining police salaries C) Mapping police jurisdiction borders D) Forecasting public celebrations
A) Randomized control patrol B) Spatial diffusion C) Tactical crime mapping D) Strategic redeployment
A) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions B) It focuses solely on statistical data C) It allows speculative conclusions D) It replaces human intelligence
A) Non-graphical evaluation B) Temporal analysis C) Longitudinal monitoring D) Spatial regression
A) Both measure community satisfaction B) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only C) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations D) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences
A) Predictive simulation B) Non-graphical indicators C) Spatial mapping D) Thematic analysis
A) Situational correlation B) Area mapping C) Environmental regression D) Spatial regression
A) It emphasizes minor crimes only B) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends C) It eliminates the need for statistics D) It only works for rural areas
A) Dynamic time-series map B) Static hotspot map C) Isoline map D) Non-graphical table
A) Measure administrative efficiency B) Identify policy gaps C) Produce non-graphical outputs D) Conduct spatial correlation
A) Predictive analytics B) Manual charting C) Reactive patrol D) Routine mapping
A) Implementation B) Feedback C) Resource allocation D) Situation analysis
A) Contingency Plan B) Patrol Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Tactical Deployment Plan
A) Hierarchical supervision B) Intelligence secrecy C) Inter-agency collaboration D) Operational planning
A) NBI B) PNP C) BID D) PCG
A) Situation analysis B) Risk assessment C) Resource control D) Implementation
A) Evaluation phase B) Initial planning C) Prevention D) Coordination
A) Unity of Command B) Chain of Command C) Unity of Direction D) Coordination
A) Operational B) Tactical C) Strategic D) Contingency
A) Partnership policing B) Reactive operations C) Command centralization D) Intelligence gathering
A) Legal enforcement B) Jurisdictional independence C) Routine investigation D) Inter-agency synergy
A) Proportionality B) Security prioritization C) Safety first D) Efficiency
A) Communication B) Inter-sectoral coordination C) Command isolation D) Hierarchical control
A) Control B) Implementation C) Revision D) Improvement
A) Adaptive planning B) Standardized procedure C) Decentralized control D) Narrow coordination
A) Tactical programming B) Policy integration C) Objective formulation D) Strategic alignment
A) Control B) Testing C) Evaluation D) Implementation
A) Reduced intelligence sharing B) Increased jurisdictional conflict C) Unified command and coordination D) Duplication of effort
A) Chain of command B) Specialization C) Task delegation D) Coordination and synchronization
A) To finalize reports only B) To assign blame for failures C) To evaluate performance and identify gaps D) To celebrate success
A) Information gathering B) Crisis management C) Coordination plan D) Command instruction
A) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities B) To deter offenders by stricter laws C) To increase police presence only D) To rely on surveillance alone
A) Territorial reinforcement B) Maintenance C) Natural surveillance D) Target hardening
A) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime B) It replaces human patrols C) It records officer attendance D) It eliminates crime completely
A) Open public plazas B) Large, unsupervised spaces C) Dark alleys D) Fences and designated entry points
A) Natural surveillance B) Formal control C) Target hardening D) Territorial reinforcement
A) Human-based observation B) Random patrol C) Traditional mapping D) Data-driven deployment
A) Manual plotting B) Reactive mapping C) Static mapping D) Predictive GIS analysis
A) Natural surveillance B) Maintenance C) Target hardening D) Access control
A) Eliminating open areas B) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces C) Reducing property lines D) Increasing police checkpoints
A) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones B) Conduct random arrests C) Ignore minor crimes D) Close all schools temporarily
A) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow B) It eliminates paperwork C) It measures public satisfaction D) It focuses only on offender data
A) Expand commercial property B) Reduce government spending C) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety D) Limit police activity
A) Replace detectives B) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders C) Avoid manual investigation D) Reduce manpower
A) Target hardening B) Environmental aesthetics C) Crime prevention through design D) Situational design
A) Officer scheduling B) Predictive precision C) Political decision-making D) Administrative filing
A) Replacing leadership functions B) Eliminating all crimes C) Reducing community involvement D) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making
A) Isolated parking areas B) Well-lit open spaces C) Narrow blind streets D) Hidden alleys
A) Economic zoning B) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence C) Bureaucratic control D) Population balance
A) Demographic analysis B) Population profiling C) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting D) Statistical sampling
A) Application of data-informed operational planning B) Manual data analysis C) Traditional guesswork D) Randomized response strategy
A) Equal protection B) Probable cause C) Due process D) Double jeopardy
A) Right to privacy B) Right to confrontation C) Right to counsel D) Right against unreasonable detention
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Hot Pursuit Doctrine C) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree D) Stop and Frisk
A) Doctrine of Implied Consent B) Plain View Doctrine C) Exclusionary Rule D) Probable Cause Doctrine
A) Rule on Evidence B) Rule on Custodial Investigation C) Warrant Clause D) Writ of Habeas Corpus
A) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) B) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons) C) RA 6975 (DILG Act) D) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act)
A) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement B) Search of residence C) Media exposure D) The suspect’s immediate interrogation
A) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination B) Right to bail C) Right to privacy D) Right to confrontation
A) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory B) It involves random vehicle searches C) It is done secretly D) It targets political groups
A) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine B) Plain View Doctrine C) In flagrante delicto D) Consent Search Doctrine
A) Due process violation B) Preventive detention C) Non-bailable offense D) Civil liability
A) The right to speedy trial B) The right to counsel C) The right against unlawful search and seizure D) The right to free travel
A) Right against self-incrimination B) Right to privacy C) Right to due process D) Right to bail
A) The arresting officer’s superior B) A witness C) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice D) A barangay official
A) Proportionality B) Separation of powers C) Lawful exercise of police power D) Due process
A) Injunction B) Quo Warranto C) Habeas Corpus D) Certiorari
A) Republic Act No. 6975 B) Republic Act No. 9165 C) Republic Act No. 7438 D) Republic Act No. 8551
A) Doctrine of hot pursuit B) Plain view rule C) Reasonable necessity of means employed D) Probable cause principle
A) It is inadmissible due to rights violation B) It can be used as circumstantial evidence C) It is admissible if recorded D) It is valid if the officer signs it
A) Right to privacy B) Freedom of speech and expression C) Right to travel D) Right to silence
A) Exclusionary rule B) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 C) Miranda doctrine D) Rules on Criminal Procedure
A) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code B) RA 8551 C) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code D) RA 7438
A) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy B) Presumption of Regularity C) Exclusionary Rule D) Hot Pursuit Doctrine
A) Article III, Section 12 B) Article VI, Section 11 C) Article II, Section 1 D) Article III, Section 2
A) Confidentiality and respect for due process B) Summary publicity for deterrence C) Police media cooperation D) Public display for transparency |