A) Evidence-Based Planning B) Flexibility C) Centralization D) Unity of Command
A) Operational Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Adaptability B) Direction C) Control D) Evaluation
A) Situational Leadership Model B) Performance Governance System (PGS) C) Balanced Scorecard D) Quality Management System
A) Following the same route daily B) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback C) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security D) Reporting only major crimes
A) Strategic B) Contingency C) Operational D) Tactical
A) Organizational participation B) Command authority C) Efficiency through hierarchy D) Political alignment
A) Strategic Plan B) Policy Plan C) Operational Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Through measurable and transparent objectives B) Through strict adherence to hierarchy C) Through punitive measures for non-performance D) Through centralized command only
A) Strategic Plan B) Standing Plan C) Tactical Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Command B) Control C) Motivation D) Coordination
A) Decentralization B) Segregation C) Secrecy D) Coordination
A) Authoritarian leadership B) Individual performance only C) Participative governance D) Centralized supervision
A) Measure organizational and individual performance B) Identify police misconduct C) Record disciplinary actions D) Allocate resources for intelligence
A) Only top officers make revisions B) Plans are fixed and unchangeable C) Continuous improvement and adaptation D) Operations remain classified
A) Tactical plans focus on national objectives B) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions C) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations D) Tactical plans have long-term goals
A) Strategic Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Operational Plan
A) Deterrence B) Partnership C) Transformation D) Accountability
A) It focuses only on leadership goals B) It measures output and transparency C) It limits officer discretion D) It increases bureaucracy
A) Personnel control B) Strategic alignment C) Policy compliance D) Procedural authority
A) Non-graphical indicator B) Statistical modeling C) Thematic mapping D) Spatial regression
A) Predictive policing B) Random patrols C) Geographic profiling D) Social crime mapping
A) Hotspot analysis B) Trend analysis C) Thematic mapping D) Spatial regression
A) Thematic B) Choropleth C) Topographic D) Graphic regression
A) Determining police salaries B) Mapping police jurisdiction borders C) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations D) Forecasting public celebrations
A) Spatial diffusion B) Randomized control patrol C) Tactical crime mapping D) Strategic redeployment
A) It allows speculative conclusions B) It replaces human intelligence C) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions D) It focuses solely on statistical data
A) Spatial regression B) Longitudinal monitoring C) Temporal analysis D) Non-graphical evaluation
A) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only B) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences C) Both measure community satisfaction D) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations
A) Spatial mapping B) Predictive simulation C) Non-graphical indicators D) Thematic analysis
A) Area mapping B) Environmental regression C) Situational correlation D) Spatial regression
A) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends B) It only works for rural areas C) It emphasizes minor crimes only D) It eliminates the need for statistics
A) Isoline map B) Static hotspot map C) Dynamic time-series map D) Non-graphical table
A) Identify policy gaps B) Conduct spatial correlation C) Produce non-graphical outputs D) Measure administrative efficiency
A) Routine mapping B) Manual charting C) Reactive patrol D) Predictive analytics
A) Situation analysis B) Resource allocation C) Implementation D) Feedback
A) Patrol Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Tactical Deployment Plan
A) Inter-agency collaboration B) Hierarchical supervision C) Intelligence secrecy D) Operational planning
A) BID B) NBI C) PCG D) PNP
A) Implementation B) Resource control C) Risk assessment D) Situation analysis
A) Prevention B) Evaluation phase C) Coordination D) Initial planning
A) Unity of Command B) Unity of Direction C) Coordination D) Chain of Command
A) Contingency B) Operational C) Tactical D) Strategic
A) Command centralization B) Partnership policing C) Reactive operations D) Intelligence gathering
A) Routine investigation B) Inter-agency synergy C) Jurisdictional independence D) Legal enforcement
A) Safety first B) Efficiency C) Proportionality D) Security prioritization
A) Command isolation B) Inter-sectoral coordination C) Hierarchical control D) Communication
A) Control B) Implementation C) Revision D) Improvement
A) Narrow coordination B) Decentralized control C) Standardized procedure D) Adaptive planning
A) Policy integration B) Strategic alignment C) Tactical programming D) Objective formulation
A) Control B) Implementation C) Testing D) Evaluation
A) Reduced intelligence sharing B) Duplication of effort C) Increased jurisdictional conflict D) Unified command and coordination
A) Coordination and synchronization B) Chain of command C) Task delegation D) Specialization
A) To evaluate performance and identify gaps B) To finalize reports only C) To celebrate success D) To assign blame for failures
A) Command instruction B) Crisis management C) Coordination plan D) Information gathering
A) To deter offenders by stricter laws B) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities C) To increase police presence only D) To rely on surveillance alone
A) Territorial reinforcement B) Maintenance C) Natural surveillance D) Target hardening
A) It eliminates crime completely B) It replaces human patrols C) It records officer attendance D) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime
A) Open public plazas B) Dark alleys C) Large, unsupervised spaces D) Fences and designated entry points
A) Formal control B) Natural surveillance C) Territorial reinforcement D) Target hardening
A) Human-based observation B) Random patrol C) Data-driven deployment D) Traditional mapping
A) Static mapping B) Manual plotting C) Predictive GIS analysis D) Reactive mapping
A) Target hardening B) Access control C) Natural surveillance D) Maintenance
A) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces B) Reducing property lines C) Increasing police checkpoints D) Eliminating open areas
A) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones B) Conduct random arrests C) Close all schools temporarily D) Ignore minor crimes
A) It measures public satisfaction B) It eliminates paperwork C) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow D) It focuses only on offender data
A) Limit police activity B) Expand commercial property C) Reduce government spending D) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety
A) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders B) Replace detectives C) Reduce manpower D) Avoid manual investigation
A) Crime prevention through design B) Situational design C) Target hardening D) Environmental aesthetics
A) Predictive precision B) Officer scheduling C) Administrative filing D) Political decision-making
A) Reducing community involvement B) Replacing leadership functions C) Eliminating all crimes D) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making
A) Hidden alleys B) Well-lit open spaces C) Isolated parking areas D) Narrow blind streets
A) Bureaucratic control B) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence C) Population balance D) Economic zoning
A) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting B) Demographic analysis C) Statistical sampling D) Population profiling
A) Randomized response strategy B) Traditional guesswork C) Manual data analysis D) Application of data-informed operational planning
A) Due process B) Double jeopardy C) Equal protection D) Probable cause
A) Right against unreasonable detention B) Right to confrontation C) Right to counsel D) Right to privacy
A) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree B) Hot Pursuit Doctrine C) Stop and Frisk D) Plain View Doctrine
A) Probable Cause Doctrine B) Exclusionary Rule C) Plain View Doctrine D) Doctrine of Implied Consent
A) Warrant Clause B) Rule on Custodial Investigation C) Rule on Evidence D) Writ of Habeas Corpus
A) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) B) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) C) RA 6975 (DILG Act) D) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons)
A) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement B) Media exposure C) Search of residence D) The suspect’s immediate interrogation
A) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination B) Right to bail C) Right to privacy D) Right to confrontation
A) It is done secretly B) It targets political groups C) It involves random vehicle searches D) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory
A) In flagrante delicto B) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine C) Consent Search Doctrine D) Plain View Doctrine
A) Due process violation B) Civil liability C) Preventive detention D) Non-bailable offense
A) The right to free travel B) The right to counsel C) The right to speedy trial D) The right against unlawful search and seizure
A) Right against self-incrimination B) Right to privacy C) Right to due process D) Right to bail
A) A barangay official B) A witness C) The arresting officer’s superior D) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice
A) Due process B) Lawful exercise of police power C) Separation of powers D) Proportionality
A) Habeas Corpus B) Certiorari C) Injunction D) Quo Warranto
A) Republic Act No. 7438 B) Republic Act No. 6975 C) Republic Act No. 8551 D) Republic Act No. 9165
A) Probable cause principle B) Plain view rule C) Doctrine of hot pursuit D) Reasonable necessity of means employed
A) It is admissible if recorded B) It can be used as circumstantial evidence C) It is inadmissible due to rights violation D) It is valid if the officer signs it
A) Freedom of speech and expression B) Right to privacy C) Right to silence D) Right to travel
A) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 B) Exclusionary rule C) Miranda doctrine D) Rules on Criminal Procedure
A) RA 7438 B) RA 8551 C) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code D) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Presumption of Regularity C) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy D) Hot Pursuit Doctrine
A) Article III, Section 12 B) Article VI, Section 11 C) Article II, Section 1 D) Article III, Section 2
A) Summary publicity for deterrence B) Police media cooperation C) Confidentiality and respect for due process D) Public display for transparency |