A) Centralization B) Evidence-Based Planning C) Unity of Command D) Flexibility
A) Contingency Plan B) Strategic Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Operational Plan
A) Adaptability B) Direction C) Control D) Evaluation
A) Quality Management System B) Performance Governance System (PGS) C) Situational Leadership Model D) Balanced Scorecard
A) Reporting only major crimes B) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security C) Following the same route daily D) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback
A) Operational B) Contingency C) Strategic D) Tactical
A) Organizational participation B) Command authority C) Political alignment D) Efficiency through hierarchy
A) Strategic Plan B) Operational Plan C) Policy Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Through strict adherence to hierarchy B) Through punitive measures for non-performance C) Through centralized command only D) Through measurable and transparent objectives
A) Tactical Plan B) Strategic Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Standing Plan
A) Coordination B) Motivation C) Control D) Command
A) Coordination B) Secrecy C) Decentralization D) Segregation
A) Participative governance B) Centralized supervision C) Authoritarian leadership D) Individual performance only
A) Record disciplinary actions B) Allocate resources for intelligence C) Identify police misconduct D) Measure organizational and individual performance
A) Operations remain classified B) Only top officers make revisions C) Continuous improvement and adaptation D) Plans are fixed and unchangeable
A) Tactical plans focus on national objectives B) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions C) Tactical plans have long-term goals D) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations
A) Strategic Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Operational Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Partnership B) Transformation C) Deterrence D) Accountability
A) It focuses only on leadership goals B) It limits officer discretion C) It measures output and transparency D) It increases bureaucracy
A) Strategic alignment B) Personnel control C) Procedural authority D) Policy compliance
A) Non-graphical indicator B) Statistical modeling C) Thematic mapping D) Spatial regression
A) Random patrols B) Geographic profiling C) Predictive policing D) Social crime mapping
A) Spatial regression B) Thematic mapping C) Hotspot analysis D) Trend analysis
A) Choropleth B) Topographic C) Graphic regression D) Thematic
A) Forecasting public celebrations B) Mapping police jurisdiction borders C) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations D) Determining police salaries
A) Spatial diffusion B) Strategic redeployment C) Randomized control patrol D) Tactical crime mapping
A) It allows speculative conclusions B) It replaces human intelligence C) It focuses solely on statistical data D) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions
A) Temporal analysis B) Spatial regression C) Non-graphical evaluation D) Longitudinal monitoring
A) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences B) Both measure community satisfaction C) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only D) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations
A) Thematic analysis B) Non-graphical indicators C) Spatial mapping D) Predictive simulation
A) Spatial regression B) Area mapping C) Situational correlation D) Environmental regression
A) It eliminates the need for statistics B) It only works for rural areas C) It emphasizes minor crimes only D) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends
A) Non-graphical table B) Dynamic time-series map C) Static hotspot map D) Isoline map
A) Measure administrative efficiency B) Produce non-graphical outputs C) Conduct spatial correlation D) Identify policy gaps
A) Manual charting B) Reactive patrol C) Predictive analytics D) Routine mapping
A) Situation analysis B) Implementation C) Resource allocation D) Feedback
A) Patrol Plan B) Tactical Deployment Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Inter-agency collaboration B) Hierarchical supervision C) Intelligence secrecy D) Operational planning
A) PNP B) NBI C) PCG D) BID
A) Resource control B) Implementation C) Situation analysis D) Risk assessment
A) Coordination B) Initial planning C) Evaluation phase D) Prevention
A) Unity of Direction B) Coordination C) Unity of Command D) Chain of Command
A) Contingency B) Operational C) Tactical D) Strategic
A) Reactive operations B) Partnership policing C) Intelligence gathering D) Command centralization
A) Routine investigation B) Legal enforcement C) Inter-agency synergy D) Jurisdictional independence
A) Safety first B) Efficiency C) Security prioritization D) Proportionality
A) Communication B) Command isolation C) Hierarchical control D) Inter-sectoral coordination
A) Control B) Revision C) Improvement D) Implementation
A) Adaptive planning B) Standardized procedure C) Narrow coordination D) Decentralized control
A) Policy integration B) Strategic alignment C) Objective formulation D) Tactical programming
A) Implementation B) Evaluation C) Testing D) Control
A) Duplication of effort B) Reduced intelligence sharing C) Unified command and coordination D) Increased jurisdictional conflict
A) Task delegation B) Specialization C) Coordination and synchronization D) Chain of command
A) To finalize reports only B) To assign blame for failures C) To celebrate success D) To evaluate performance and identify gaps
A) Coordination plan B) Crisis management C) Information gathering D) Command instruction
A) To deter offenders by stricter laws B) To rely on surveillance alone C) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities D) To increase police presence only
A) Target hardening B) Natural surveillance C) Territorial reinforcement D) Maintenance
A) It replaces human patrols B) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime C) It records officer attendance D) It eliminates crime completely
A) Fences and designated entry points B) Open public plazas C) Dark alleys D) Large, unsupervised spaces
A) Formal control B) Target hardening C) Natural surveillance D) Territorial reinforcement
A) Random patrol B) Traditional mapping C) Data-driven deployment D) Human-based observation
A) Reactive mapping B) Manual plotting C) Static mapping D) Predictive GIS analysis
A) Natural surveillance B) Target hardening C) Maintenance D) Access control
A) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces B) Reducing property lines C) Eliminating open areas D) Increasing police checkpoints
A) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones B) Close all schools temporarily C) Ignore minor crimes D) Conduct random arrests
A) It focuses only on offender data B) It eliminates paperwork C) It measures public satisfaction D) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow
A) Expand commercial property B) Limit police activity C) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety D) Reduce government spending
A) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders B) Reduce manpower C) Replace detectives D) Avoid manual investigation
A) Target hardening B) Crime prevention through design C) Situational design D) Environmental aesthetics
A) Administrative filing B) Predictive precision C) Political decision-making D) Officer scheduling
A) Reducing community involvement B) Replacing leadership functions C) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making D) Eliminating all crimes
A) Narrow blind streets B) Hidden alleys C) Well-lit open spaces D) Isolated parking areas
A) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence B) Economic zoning C) Bureaucratic control D) Population balance
A) Population profiling B) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting C) Statistical sampling D) Demographic analysis
A) Application of data-informed operational planning B) Randomized response strategy C) Traditional guesswork D) Manual data analysis
A) Equal protection B) Double jeopardy C) Due process D) Probable cause
A) Right to privacy B) Right to counsel C) Right to confrontation D) Right against unreasonable detention
A) Stop and Frisk B) Plain View Doctrine C) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree D) Hot Pursuit Doctrine
A) Probable Cause Doctrine B) Doctrine of Implied Consent C) Plain View Doctrine D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Writ of Habeas Corpus B) Rule on Custodial Investigation C) Warrant Clause D) Rule on Evidence
A) RA 6975 (DILG Act) B) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) C) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) D) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons)
A) Search of residence B) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement C) Media exposure D) The suspect’s immediate interrogation
A) Right to privacy B) Right to bail C) Right to confrontation D) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination
A) It involves random vehicle searches B) It targets political groups C) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory D) It is done secretly
A) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine B) Plain View Doctrine C) Consent Search Doctrine D) In flagrante delicto
A) Due process violation B) Civil liability C) Preventive detention D) Non-bailable offense
A) The right to free travel B) The right to speedy trial C) The right to counsel D) The right against unlawful search and seizure
A) Right to privacy B) Right against self-incrimination C) Right to bail D) Right to due process
A) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice B) The arresting officer’s superior C) A witness D) A barangay official
A) Proportionality B) Due process C) Lawful exercise of police power D) Separation of powers
A) Habeas Corpus B) Quo Warranto C) Injunction D) Certiorari
A) Republic Act No. 9165 B) Republic Act No. 7438 C) Republic Act No. 6975 D) Republic Act No. 8551
A) Doctrine of hot pursuit B) Probable cause principle C) Reasonable necessity of means employed D) Plain view rule
A) It can be used as circumstantial evidence B) It is inadmissible due to rights violation C) It is admissible if recorded D) It is valid if the officer signs it
A) Right to privacy B) Right to travel C) Freedom of speech and expression D) Right to silence
A) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 B) Exclusionary rule C) Miranda doctrine D) Rules on Criminal Procedure
A) RA 7438 B) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code C) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code D) RA 8551
A) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy B) Hot Pursuit Doctrine C) Exclusionary Rule D) Presumption of Regularity
A) Article III, Section 2 B) Article II, Section 1 C) Article VI, Section 11 D) Article III, Section 12
A) Public display for transparency B) Summary publicity for deterrence C) Confidentiality and respect for due process D) Police media cooperation |