A) Flexibility B) Unity of Command C) Centralization D) Evidence-Based Planning
A) Operational Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Direction B) Control C) Adaptability D) Evaluation
A) Situational Leadership Model B) Quality Management System C) Balanced Scorecard D) Performance Governance System (PGS)
A) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback B) Following the same route daily C) Reporting only major crimes D) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security
A) Tactical B) Operational C) Strategic D) Contingency
A) Organizational participation B) Command authority C) Political alignment D) Efficiency through hierarchy
A) Strategic Plan B) Policy Plan C) Operational Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Through centralized command only B) Through measurable and transparent objectives C) Through punitive measures for non-performance D) Through strict adherence to hierarchy
A) Contingency Plan B) Strategic Plan C) Tactical Plan D) Standing Plan
A) Motivation B) Command C) Coordination D) Control
A) Decentralization B) Coordination C) Segregation D) Secrecy
A) Participative governance B) Individual performance only C) Authoritarian leadership D) Centralized supervision
A) Measure organizational and individual performance B) Identify police misconduct C) Record disciplinary actions D) Allocate resources for intelligence
A) Continuous improvement and adaptation B) Operations remain classified C) Plans are fixed and unchangeable D) Only top officers make revisions
A) Tactical plans have long-term goals B) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations C) Tactical plans focus on national objectives D) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions
A) Operational Plan B) Strategic Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Contingency Plan
A) Deterrence B) Accountability C) Partnership D) Transformation
A) It increases bureaucracy B) It measures output and transparency C) It limits officer discretion D) It focuses only on leadership goals
A) Policy compliance B) Strategic alignment C) Procedural authority D) Personnel control
A) Thematic mapping B) Spatial regression C) Statistical modeling D) Non-graphical indicator
A) Random patrols B) Social crime mapping C) Predictive policing D) Geographic profiling
A) Spatial regression B) Thematic mapping C) Trend analysis D) Hotspot analysis
A) Choropleth B) Thematic C) Graphic regression D) Topographic
A) Mapping police jurisdiction borders B) Determining police salaries C) Forecasting public celebrations D) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations
A) Strategic redeployment B) Spatial diffusion C) Tactical crime mapping D) Randomized control patrol
A) It allows speculative conclusions B) It replaces human intelligence C) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions D) It focuses solely on statistical data
A) Spatial regression B) Temporal analysis C) Non-graphical evaluation D) Longitudinal monitoring
A) Both measure community satisfaction B) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences C) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only D) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations
A) Thematic analysis B) Spatial mapping C) Predictive simulation D) Non-graphical indicators
A) Spatial regression B) Area mapping C) Environmental regression D) Situational correlation
A) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends B) It only works for rural areas C) It emphasizes minor crimes only D) It eliminates the need for statistics
A) Isoline map B) Static hotspot map C) Non-graphical table D) Dynamic time-series map
A) Produce non-graphical outputs B) Conduct spatial correlation C) Identify policy gaps D) Measure administrative efficiency
A) Manual charting B) Predictive analytics C) Routine mapping D) Reactive patrol
A) Resource allocation B) Implementation C) Situation analysis D) Feedback
A) Patrol Plan B) Administrative Plan C) Contingency Plan D) Tactical Deployment Plan
A) Hierarchical supervision B) Inter-agency collaboration C) Intelligence secrecy D) Operational planning
A) PCG B) NBI C) PNP D) BID
A) Resource control B) Implementation C) Risk assessment D) Situation analysis
A) Initial planning B) Coordination C) Evaluation phase D) Prevention
A) Chain of Command B) Unity of Command C) Unity of Direction D) Coordination
A) Strategic B) Tactical C) Contingency D) Operational
A) Command centralization B) Partnership policing C) Intelligence gathering D) Reactive operations
A) Legal enforcement B) Routine investigation C) Jurisdictional independence D) Inter-agency synergy
A) Proportionality B) Safety first C) Security prioritization D) Efficiency
A) Inter-sectoral coordination B) Communication C) Hierarchical control D) Command isolation
A) Control B) Implementation C) Revision D) Improvement
A) Standardized procedure B) Narrow coordination C) Adaptive planning D) Decentralized control
A) Objective formulation B) Tactical programming C) Policy integration D) Strategic alignment
A) Control B) Evaluation C) Implementation D) Testing
A) Reduced intelligence sharing B) Increased jurisdictional conflict C) Duplication of effort D) Unified command and coordination
A) Chain of command B) Specialization C) Coordination and synchronization D) Task delegation
A) To finalize reports only B) To celebrate success C) To evaluate performance and identify gaps D) To assign blame for failures
A) Coordination plan B) Crisis management C) Command instruction D) Information gathering
A) To deter offenders by stricter laws B) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities C) To rely on surveillance alone D) To increase police presence only
A) Territorial reinforcement B) Natural surveillance C) Target hardening D) Maintenance
A) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime B) It records officer attendance C) It replaces human patrols D) It eliminates crime completely
A) Dark alleys B) Open public plazas C) Fences and designated entry points D) Large, unsupervised spaces
A) Target hardening B) Formal control C) Territorial reinforcement D) Natural surveillance
A) Traditional mapping B) Human-based observation C) Data-driven deployment D) Random patrol
A) Reactive mapping B) Manual plotting C) Static mapping D) Predictive GIS analysis
A) Target hardening B) Access control C) Natural surveillance D) Maintenance
A) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces B) Increasing police checkpoints C) Eliminating open areas D) Reducing property lines
A) Ignore minor crimes B) Close all schools temporarily C) Conduct random arrests D) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones
A) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow B) It focuses only on offender data C) It eliminates paperwork D) It measures public satisfaction
A) Reduce government spending B) Limit police activity C) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety D) Expand commercial property
A) Reduce manpower B) Replace detectives C) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders D) Avoid manual investigation
A) Target hardening B) Environmental aesthetics C) Situational design D) Crime prevention through design
A) Administrative filing B) Political decision-making C) Predictive precision D) Officer scheduling
A) Replacing leadership functions B) Reducing community involvement C) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making D) Eliminating all crimes
A) Isolated parking areas B) Well-lit open spaces C) Narrow blind streets D) Hidden alleys
A) Bureaucratic control B) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence C) Economic zoning D) Population balance
A) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting B) Demographic analysis C) Population profiling D) Statistical sampling
A) Manual data analysis B) Traditional guesswork C) Application of data-informed operational planning D) Randomized response strategy
A) Probable cause B) Double jeopardy C) Due process D) Equal protection
A) Right to counsel B) Right against unreasonable detention C) Right to privacy D) Right to confrontation
A) Hot Pursuit Doctrine B) Stop and Frisk C) Plain View Doctrine D) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree
A) Plain View Doctrine B) Doctrine of Implied Consent C) Exclusionary Rule D) Probable Cause Doctrine
A) Rule on Custodial Investigation B) Rule on Evidence C) Warrant Clause D) Writ of Habeas Corpus
A) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons) B) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) C) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) D) RA 6975 (DILG Act)
A) Search of residence B) Media exposure C) The suspect’s immediate interrogation D) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement
A) Right to privacy B) Right to confrontation C) Right to bail D) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination
A) It targets political groups B) It is done secretly C) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory D) It involves random vehicle searches
A) Consent Search Doctrine B) In flagrante delicto C) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine D) Plain View Doctrine
A) Due process violation B) Non-bailable offense C) Civil liability D) Preventive detention
A) The right to counsel B) The right to speedy trial C) The right to free travel D) The right against unlawful search and seizure
A) Right to bail B) Right against self-incrimination C) Right to due process D) Right to privacy
A) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice B) A witness C) A barangay official D) The arresting officer’s superior
A) Proportionality B) Due process C) Separation of powers D) Lawful exercise of police power
A) Quo Warranto B) Certiorari C) Injunction D) Habeas Corpus
A) Republic Act No. 9165 B) Republic Act No. 8551 C) Republic Act No. 6975 D) Republic Act No. 7438
A) Reasonable necessity of means employed B) Plain view rule C) Doctrine of hot pursuit D) Probable cause principle
A) It is admissible if recorded B) It is valid if the officer signs it C) It is inadmissible due to rights violation D) It can be used as circumstantial evidence
A) Freedom of speech and expression B) Right to travel C) Right to privacy D) Right to silence
A) Miranda doctrine B) Rules on Criminal Procedure C) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165 D) Exclusionary rule
A) RA 7438 B) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code C) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code D) RA 8551
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Hot Pursuit Doctrine C) Presumption of Regularity D) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy
A) Article II, Section 1 B) Article III, Section 12 C) Article VI, Section 11 D) Article III, Section 2
A) Public display for transparency B) Confidentiality and respect for due process C) Police media cooperation D) Summary publicity for deterrence |