A) Unity of Command B) Centralization C) Evidence-Based Planning D) Flexibility
A) Contingency Plan B) Operational Plan C) Strategic Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Direction B) Control C) Evaluation D) Adaptability
A) Quality Management System B) Performance Governance System (PGS) C) Situational Leadership Model D) Balanced Scorecard
A) Reporting only major crimes B) Following the same route daily C) Preparing alternate routes for VIP security D) Regularly updating patrol schedules based on feedback
A) Tactical B) Strategic C) Contingency D) Operational
A) Efficiency through hierarchy B) Political alignment C) Organizational participation D) Command authority
A) Operational Plan B) Strategic Plan C) Administrative Plan D) Policy Plan
A) Through measurable and transparent objectives B) Through punitive measures for non-performance C) Through strict adherence to hierarchy D) Through centralized command only
A) Contingency Plan B) Strategic Plan C) Tactical Plan D) Standing Plan
A) Coordination B) Motivation C) Command D) Control
A) Segregation B) Decentralization C) Coordination D) Secrecy
A) Centralized supervision B) Participative governance C) Authoritarian leadership D) Individual performance only
A) Identify police misconduct B) Measure organizational and individual performance C) Record disciplinary actions D) Allocate resources for intelligence
A) Only top officers make revisions B) Operations remain classified C) Continuous improvement and adaptation D) Plans are fixed and unchangeable
A) Tactical plans have long-term goals B) Strategic plans deal with day-to-day operations C) Tactical plans translate strategies into immediate actions D) Tactical plans focus on national objectives
A) Administrative Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Operational Plan D) Strategic Plan
A) Accountability B) Partnership C) Deterrence D) Transformation
A) It limits officer discretion B) It focuses only on leadership goals C) It increases bureaucracy D) It measures output and transparency
A) Strategic alignment B) Personnel control C) Policy compliance D) Procedural authority
A) Spatial regression B) Thematic mapping C) Statistical modeling D) Non-graphical indicator
A) Geographic profiling B) Predictive policing C) Social crime mapping D) Random patrols
A) Spatial regression B) Trend analysis C) Thematic mapping D) Hotspot analysis
A) Topographic B) Thematic C) Graphic regression D) Choropleth
A) Mapping police jurisdiction borders B) Identifying areas with high crime concentrations C) Forecasting public celebrations D) Determining police salaries
A) Strategic redeployment B) Tactical crime mapping C) Randomized control patrol D) Spatial diffusion
A) It allows speculative conclusions B) It visualizes patterns that inform operational decisions C) It replaces human intelligence D) It focuses solely on statistical data
A) Temporal analysis B) Non-graphical evaluation C) Longitudinal monitoring D) Spatial regression
A) Geographic profiling focuses on identifying offenders’ probable residences B) Both measure community satisfaction C) Geographic profiling uses non-spatial data only D) Hotspot mapping predicts future crime locations
A) Thematic analysis B) Non-graphical indicators C) Predictive simulation D) Spatial mapping
A) Environmental regression B) Spatial regression C) Area mapping D) Situational correlation
A) It eliminates the need for statistics B) It simplifies resource allocation by visualizing crime trends C) It only works for rural areas D) It emphasizes minor crimes only
A) Isoline map B) Non-graphical table C) Dynamic time-series map D) Static hotspot map
A) Conduct spatial correlation B) Produce non-graphical outputs C) Identify policy gaps D) Measure administrative efficiency
A) Manual charting B) Reactive patrol C) Predictive analytics D) Routine mapping
A) Feedback B) Situation analysis C) Resource allocation D) Implementation
A) Patrol Plan B) Contingency Plan C) Tactical Deployment Plan D) Administrative Plan
A) Inter-agency collaboration B) Operational planning C) Intelligence secrecy D) Hierarchical supervision
A) NBI B) PNP C) PCG D) BID
A) Situation analysis B) Risk assessment C) Resource control D) Implementation
A) Evaluation phase B) Prevention C) Coordination D) Initial planning
A) Unity of Command B) Unity of Direction C) Chain of Command D) Coordination
A) Strategic B) Tactical C) Contingency D) Operational
A) Reactive operations B) Partnership policing C) Intelligence gathering D) Command centralization
A) Routine investigation B) Inter-agency synergy C) Legal enforcement D) Jurisdictional independence
A) Safety first B) Proportionality C) Efficiency D) Security prioritization
A) Communication B) Inter-sectoral coordination C) Command isolation D) Hierarchical control
A) Revision B) Improvement C) Control D) Implementation
A) Standardized procedure B) Decentralized control C) Narrow coordination D) Adaptive planning
A) Strategic alignment B) Tactical programming C) Policy integration D) Objective formulation
A) Control B) Evaluation C) Implementation D) Testing
A) Reduced intelligence sharing B) Duplication of effort C) Unified command and coordination D) Increased jurisdictional conflict
A) Coordination and synchronization B) Chain of command C) Task delegation D) Specialization
A) To finalize reports only B) To celebrate success C) To assign blame for failures D) To evaluate performance and identify gaps
A) Information gathering B) Crisis management C) Command instruction D) Coordination plan
A) To rely on surveillance alone B) To deter offenders by stricter laws C) To increase police presence only D) To redesign public spaces to reduce criminal opportunities
A) Maintenance B) Natural surveillance C) Target hardening D) Territorial reinforcement
A) It records officer attendance B) It eliminates crime completely C) It replaces human patrols D) It visualizes spatial relationships between environment and crime
A) Fences and designated entry points B) Open public plazas C) Large, unsupervised spaces D) Dark alleys
A) Formal control B) Natural surveillance C) Target hardening D) Territorial reinforcement
A) Data-driven deployment B) Traditional mapping C) Human-based observation D) Random patrol
A) Manual plotting B) Reactive mapping C) Predictive GIS analysis D) Static mapping
A) Access control B) Target hardening C) Maintenance D) Natural surveillance
A) Eliminating open areas B) Increasing police checkpoints C) Encouraging community ownership of public spaces D) Reducing property lines
A) Increase patrol visibility in the identified zones B) Ignore minor crimes C) Close all schools temporarily D) Conduct random arrests
A) It measures public satisfaction B) It visually reconstructs the event’s spatial flow C) It focuses only on offender data D) It eliminates paperwork
A) Reduce government spending B) Expand commercial property C) Limit police activity D) Reinforce a sense of ownership and safety
A) Replace detectives B) Avoid manual investigation C) Track spatial-temporal behavior of offenders D) Reduce manpower
A) Crime prevention through design B) Situational design C) Target hardening D) Environmental aesthetics
A) Predictive precision B) Political decision-making C) Administrative filing D) Officer scheduling
A) Allowing real-time tracking and spatial decision-making B) Eliminating all crimes C) Replacing leadership functions D) Reducing community involvement
A) Isolated parking areas B) Narrow blind streets C) Well-lit open spaces D) Hidden alleys
A) Bureaucratic control B) Territorial reinforcement and deterrence C) Population balance D) Economic zoning
A) Statistical sampling B) Temporal-spatial crime forecasting C) Population profiling D) Demographic analysis
A) Randomized response strategy B) Traditional guesswork C) Application of data-informed operational planning D) Manual data analysis
A) Due process B) Equal protection C) Probable cause D) Double jeopardy
A) Right to counsel B) Right against unreasonable detention C) Right to privacy D) Right to confrontation
A) Hot Pursuit Doctrine B) Plain View Doctrine C) Fruit of the Poisonous Tree D) Stop and Frisk
A) Probable Cause Doctrine B) Exclusionary Rule C) Doctrine of Implied Consent D) Plain View Doctrine
A) Rule on Evidence B) Rule on Custodial Investigation C) Warrant Clause D) Writ of Habeas Corpus
A) RA 9165 (Dangerous Drugs Act) B) RA 8551 (PNP Reform Act) C) RA 7438 (Rights of Arrested Persons) D) RA 6975 (DILG Act)
A) Documentation of surrender and rights advisement B) The suspect’s immediate interrogation C) Media exposure D) Search of residence
A) Right to bail B) Right to confrontation C) Right to counsel and against self-incrimination D) Right to privacy
A) It targets political groups B) It involves random vehicle searches C) It is done secretly D) It is properly supervised and non-discriminatory
A) In flagrante delicto B) Consent Search Doctrine C) Exigent Circumstance Doctrine D) Plain View Doctrine
A) Due process violation B) Non-bailable offense C) Civil liability D) Preventive detention
A) The right to free travel B) The right against unlawful search and seizure C) The right to counsel D) The right to speedy trial
A) Right against self-incrimination B) Right to privacy C) Right to due process D) Right to bail
A) The arresting officer’s superior B) A barangay official C) An independent counsel of the suspect’s choice D) A witness
A) Lawful exercise of police power B) Separation of powers C) Proportionality D) Due process
A) Quo Warranto B) Habeas Corpus C) Certiorari D) Injunction
A) Republic Act No. 9165 B) Republic Act No. 6975 C) Republic Act No. 8551 D) Republic Act No. 7438
A) Reasonable necessity of means employed B) Plain view rule C) Probable cause principle D) Doctrine of hot pursuit
A) It is inadmissible due to rights violation B) It is admissible if recorded C) It can be used as circumstantial evidence D) It is valid if the officer signs it
A) Right to travel B) Right to privacy C) Right to silence D) Freedom of speech and expression
A) Exclusionary rule B) Rules on Criminal Procedure C) Miranda doctrine D) Chain of custody rule under RA 9165
A) RA 7438 B) Article 125 of the Revised Penal Code C) RA 8551 D) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code
A) Hot Pursuit Doctrine B) Exclusionary Rule C) Presumption of Regularity D) Doctrine of Double Jeopardy
A) Article III, Section 2 B) Article II, Section 1 C) Article III, Section 12 D) Article VI, Section 11
A) Public display for transparency B) Police media cooperation C) Confidentiality and respect for due process D) Summary publicity for deterrence |