A) BFP B) NBI C) PDEA D) PNP
A) BJMP B) NBI C) PDEA D) BFP
A) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders B) Defend the accused in criminal cases C) Investigate fire-related incidents D) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities
A) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court B) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court C) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court D) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court
A) BuCor B) NBI C) BJMP D) PNP
A) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement B) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases C) Only the rich can access fair trials D) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures
A) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint B) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence C) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport D) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge
A) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning B) Right to remain at home during investigation C) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel D) Right to bail regardless of the offense
A) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation B) Sharing opinions online about political issues C) Expressing religious publicly D) Criticizing government policies peacefully
A) Writ of Amparo B) Writ of Mandamus C) Writ of Prohibition D) Writ of Habeas Corpus
A) Territoriality B) Generality C) Extraterritoriality D) Prospectivity
A) The act is done by accident B) The act is done without consent C) The act is performed through negligence D) The act is performed with deliberate intent
A) Continuing crime B) Complex crime C) Impossible crime D) Frustrated felony
A) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime B) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act C) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it D) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime
A) Conspiracy B) Proposal C) Provocation D) Instigation
A) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others B) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree C) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony D) The offender already begins executing does not agree
A) Accomplice B) Instigator C) Principal D) Accessory
A) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony B) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution C) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced D) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts
A) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal B) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months C) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro D) The penalty is fine only
A) Frustrated B) Attempted C) Impossible D) Consummated
A) M(below 15 years old)inority B) Defense of one`s self or rights C) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong D) Insanity
A) Liable as an accessory B) Criminally liable as a principal C) Criminally liable as an accomplice D) Exempt from criminal liability
A) Mitigating circumstance B) Alternative circumstance C) Aggravating circumstance D) Justifying circumstance
A) Justifying circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation C) Exempting circumstance D) Aggravating circumstance
A) Mitigating circumstance B) Exempting circumstance C) Justifying circumstance D) Alternative circumstance
A) Filling of an appeal B) Delay of trial C) Escaped of the accused D) Amnesty granted by the government
A) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability B) It transfers liability to the heirs C) It suspends the criminal liability D) It extinguishes only civil liability
A) It is suspended until review B) It is reduced but not removed C) It becomes extinguished D) It is transferred to another jurisdiction
A) Death of the offender B) Service of sentence C) Prescription of crime D) Conditional pardon
A) The offender took advantage of public position B) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation C) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission D) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment
A) Relationship between the offender and victim B) Lack of intent to kill C) Treachery or evident premeditation D) Absence of weapon used
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances C) Killing with cruelty D) Killing of ones parent
A) Parricide B) infanticide C) Murder D) Homicide
A) Treachery or evident premeditation B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Absence of weapon used D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing of one's parent C) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances D) Killing with cruelty
A) Infanticide B) Homicide C) Murder D) Parricide
A) Murder B) Parricide C) Abortion D) Infanticide
A) The victim is over 18 and married B) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse C) There is consent and the woman is of legal age D) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation
A) The injury requires no medical attention B) The injury heals immediately C) The injury causes death D) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days
A) Serious physical injuries B) Less serious physical injuries C) Slight physical injuries D) Attempted homicide
A) Alarm and scandal B) Attempted homicide C) Illegal discharge of firearm D) Reckless imprudence
A) Robbery requires that the property be of high value B) Both involve taking property with intent to gain C) Theft is committed only by strangers D) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not
A) Robbery in band B) Qualified theft C) Estafa D) Brigandage
A) Using force to steal from another B) Damaging property with intent to annoy C) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit D) Taking property without violence
A) Grave Threats B) Malicious Mischief C) Robbery D) Estafa
A) Serious illegal detention B) Unlawful arrest C) Grave coercion D) Light coercion
A) Grave threats B) Estafa C) Unlawful arrest D) Grave coercion
A) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds B) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual C) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant D) Detaining a person to secure testimony
A) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. B) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas. C) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. D) PD 532 covers only government vessels.
A) Arbitrary detention B) Unlawful arrest C) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities D) Illegal search
A) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance B) Direct bribery C) Malversation of funds D) Infidelity in the custody of documents
A) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform. B) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. C) Enter residences only with a valid warrant D) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results.
A) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. B) An oral statement attacking a person's character. C) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing. D) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt.
A) There is no difference; both are oral defamation. B) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. C) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult. D) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech.
A) Direct assault B) Simple slander C) Intriguing against honor D) Slander by deed
A) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. B) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can. C) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. D) Both require consent from the offender's parents.
A) Bigamy B) Illegal marriage C) Concubinage D) Adultery
A) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. B) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. C) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. D) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases.
A) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit B) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad C) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution D) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies
A) Armed rebellion by military officers B) Criticizing the government on social media C) Peaceful protest without violence D) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government
A) Grave coercion B) Frustrated homicide C) Physical injuries only D) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries
A) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. B) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. C) A store owner posts a sale announcement. D) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street.
A) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act B) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law C) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act D) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act
A) A witness describing the suspect's face B) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene C) The accused posting a confession online D) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime
A) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect B) Weapons recovered during the investigation C) DNA samples gathered from the victim D) Fingerprints matched in a database
A) CCTV footage of the incident B) Eyewitness pointing at the accused C) Signed contract presented in court D) Knife left by the suspect
A) Testimonial evidence B) Real or physical evidence C) Demonstrative evidence D) Circumstantial evidence
A) Material and competent B) Accepted by the witness C) Based on personal beliefs D) Obtained from a private source
A) Evidence authenticated by expert witness B) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search C) Evidence with proper search warrant D) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Best Evidence Rule C) Res Gestae Rule D) Hearsay Rule
A) Best Evidence B) Relevance C) Materiality D) Judicial Notice
A) Circumstantial evidence B) Testimonial evidence C) Judicially noticed facts D) Documentary evidence
A) Parol evidence B) Hearsay rule C) Chain of custody D) Opinion rule
A) Immediately after the pre-trial B) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified C) Anytime during arraignment D) Only after the judgment is issued
A) Ignore it and argue in closing statements B) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds C) File a motion after the case is finished D) Write a letter to the judge later
A) The popularity of the person who wrote it B) That it has been posted online C) Its authenticity and relevance D) That it came from a government agency only
A) Best Evidence Rule B) Exclusionary Rule C) Parol Evidence Rule D) Hearsay Rule
A) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed B) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility C) Is based entirely on hearsay D) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt B) Substantial evidence C) Clear and convincing evidence D) Mere preponderance of evidence
A) Court of Appeals B) Regional Trial Court (RTC) C) Sandiganbayan D) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
A) Municipal Trial Court B) Regional Trial Court C) Sandiganbayan D) Court of Appeals
A) Municipal Trial Court B) Sandiganbayan C) Regional Trial Court D) Court of Appeals
A) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished. B) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases. C) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties. D) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases.
A) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders. B) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties. C) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice. D) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused.
A) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. B) The right to set the schedule of hearings. C) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. D) The right to choose the judge who will try his case.
A) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. B) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial. C) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel. D) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence.
A) Right to preliminary investigation B) Right against self-incrimination C) Right to due process of law D) Right against double jeopardy
A) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime. B) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause. C) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant. D) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description.
A) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. B) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. C) Search incident to a lawful arrest. D) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent.
A) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses. B) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search. C) When the suspect has a prior criminal record. D) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed.
A) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip. B) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest. C) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. D) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith.
A) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. B) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court. C) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense. D) When the complainant demands it.
A) Preliminary investigation B) Inquest proceeding C) Trial proper D) Arraignment
A) A case where one party is a corporation. B) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity. C) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality. D) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua.
A) Certificate of Non-Participation B) Certificate of Compliance C) Certificate of Appearance D) Certification to File Action
A) The police officer may approve the bail application. B) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. C) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application. D) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong.
A) Dismiss the case automatically. B) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused. C) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty. D) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead.
A) To record the plea of the accused. B) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence. C) To allow the prosecution to amend the information. D) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused.
A) Motion for new trial B) Motion for reconsideration C) Demurrer to evidence D) Motion to quash
A) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. B) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. C) Continue the questioning until the child answers. D) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. |