A) NBI B) PNP C) PDEA D) BFP
A) NBI B) PDEA C) BJMP D) BFP
A) Defend the accused in criminal cases B) Investigate fire-related incidents C) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders D) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities
A) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court B) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court C) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court D) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court
A) PNP B) BuCor C) BJMP D) NBI
A) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases B) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures C) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement D) Only the rich can access fair trials
A) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint B) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence C) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport D) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge
A) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel B) Right to remain at home during investigation C) Right to bail regardless of the offense D) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning
A) Criticizing government policies peacefully B) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation C) Sharing opinions online about political issues D) Expressing religious publicly
A) Writ of Habeas Corpus B) Writ of Prohibition C) Writ of Mandamus D) Writ of Amparo
A) Prospectivity B) Generality C) Territoriality D) Extraterritoriality
A) The act is performed through negligence B) The act is done without consent C) The act is done by accident D) The act is performed with deliberate intent
A) Complex crime B) Frustrated felony C) Continuing crime D) Impossible crime
A) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it B) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime C) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime D) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act
A) Instigation B) Proposal C) Provocation D) Conspiracy
A) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others B) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony C) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree D) The offender already begins executing does not agree
A) Principal B) Accomplice C) Accessory D) Instigator
A) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts B) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced C) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony D) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution
A) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal B) The penalty is fine only C) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months D) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro
A) Impossible B) Attempted C) Frustrated D) Consummated
A) Insanity B) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong C) M(below 15 years old)inority D) Defense of one`s self or rights
A) Criminally liable as an accomplice B) Liable as an accessory C) Criminally liable as a principal D) Exempt from criminal liability
A) Alternative circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance C) Justifying circumstance D) Aggravating circumstance
A) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation B) Aggravating circumstance C) Exempting circumstance D) Justifying circumstance
A) Exempting circumstance B) Justifying circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance D) Alternative circumstance
A) Escaped of the accused B) Filling of an appeal C) Delay of trial D) Amnesty granted by the government
A) It extinguishes only civil liability B) It suspends the criminal liability C) It transfers liability to the heirs D) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability
A) It is suspended until review B) It becomes extinguished C) It is reduced but not removed D) It is transferred to another jurisdiction
A) Service of sentence B) Conditional pardon C) Death of the offender D) Prescription of crime
A) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission B) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation C) The offender took advantage of public position D) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment
A) Relationship between the offender and victim B) Treachery or evident premeditation C) Absence of weapon used D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing with cruelty B) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances C) Killing of ones parent D) Killing by means of poison
A) Parricide B) Murder C) infanticide D) Homicide
A) Treachery or evident premeditation B) Absence of weapon used C) Lack of intent to kill D) Relationship between the offender and victim
A) Killing with cruelty B) Killing of one's parent C) Killing by means of poison D) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances
A) Murder B) Infanticide C) Homicide D) Parricide
A) Parricide B) Murder C) Infanticide D) Abortion
A) There is consent and the woman is of legal age B) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation C) The victim is over 18 and married D) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse
A) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days B) The injury heals immediately C) The injury causes death D) The injury requires no medical attention
A) Attempted homicide B) Serious physical injuries C) Less serious physical injuries D) Slight physical injuries
A) Illegal discharge of firearm B) Alarm and scandal C) Reckless imprudence D) Attempted homicide
A) Theft is committed only by strangers B) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not C) Both involve taking property with intent to gain D) Robbery requires that the property be of high value
A) Robbery in band B) Qualified theft C) Brigandage D) Estafa
A) Damaging property with intent to annoy B) Taking property without violence C) Using force to steal from another D) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit
A) Estafa B) Grave Threats C) Malicious Mischief D) Robbery
A) Unlawful arrest B) Grave coercion C) Serious illegal detention D) Light coercion
A) Estafa B) Grave coercion C) Unlawful arrest D) Grave threats
A) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual B) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds C) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant D) Detaining a person to secure testimony
A) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas. B) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. C) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. D) PD 532 covers only government vessels.
A) Unlawful arrest B) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities C) Arbitrary detention D) Illegal search
A) Malversation of funds B) Direct bribery C) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance D) Infidelity in the custody of documents
A) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform. B) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. C) Enter residences only with a valid warrant D) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results.
A) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing. B) An oral statement attacking a person's character. C) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt. D) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame.
A) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. B) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult. C) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. D) There is no difference; both are oral defamation.
A) Direct assault B) Slander by deed C) Simple slander D) Intriguing against honor
A) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. B) Both require consent from the offender's parents. C) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. D) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can.
A) Concubinage B) Adultery C) Illegal marriage D) Bigamy
A) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. B) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. C) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. D) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases.
A) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad B) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution C) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit D) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies
A) Criticizing the government on social media B) Armed rebellion by military officers C) Peaceful protest without violence D) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government
A) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries B) Grave coercion C) Physical injuries only D) Frustrated homicide
A) A store owner posts a sale announcement. B) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. C) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street. D) A police officer directs traffic in a public area.
A) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act B) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law C) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act D) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act
A) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime B) The accused posting a confession online C) A witness describing the suspect's face D) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene
A) Fingerprints matched in a database B) DNA samples gathered from the victim C) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect D) Weapons recovered during the investigation
A) Eyewitness pointing at the accused B) CCTV footage of the incident C) Signed contract presented in court D) Knife left by the suspect
A) Circumstantial evidence B) Real or physical evidence C) Demonstrative evidence D) Testimonial evidence
A) Material and competent B) Based on personal beliefs C) Accepted by the witness D) Obtained from a private source
A) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect B) Evidence authenticated by expert witness C) Evidence with proper search warrant D) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search
A) Best Evidence Rule B) Exclusionary Rule C) Hearsay Rule D) Res Gestae Rule
A) Judicial Notice B) Materiality C) Best Evidence D) Relevance
A) Documentary evidence B) Testimonial evidence C) Judicially noticed facts D) Circumstantial evidence
A) Chain of custody B) Opinion rule C) Parol evidence D) Hearsay rule
A) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified B) Anytime during arraignment C) Immediately after the pre-trial D) Only after the judgment is issued
A) File a motion after the case is finished B) Write a letter to the judge later C) Ignore it and argue in closing statements D) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds
A) Its authenticity and relevance B) That it has been posted online C) That it came from a government agency only D) The popularity of the person who wrote it
A) Parol Evidence Rule B) Best Evidence Rule C) Exclusionary Rule D) Hearsay Rule
A) Is based entirely on hearsay B) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt C) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed D) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility
A) Clear and convincing evidence B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt C) Substantial evidence D) Mere preponderance of evidence
A) Municipal Trial Court (MTC) B) Sandiganbayan C) Court of Appeals D) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
A) Court of Appeals B) Regional Trial Court C) Sandiganbayan D) Municipal Trial Court
A) Municipal Trial Court B) Sandiganbayan C) Court of Appeals D) Regional Trial Court
A) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished. B) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases. C) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. D) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties.
A) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties. B) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice. C) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders. D) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused.
A) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. B) The right to set the schedule of hearings. C) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. D) The right to choose the judge who will try his case.
A) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. B) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence. C) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel. D) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial.
A) Right to preliminary investigation B) Right to due process of law C) Right against double jeopardy D) Right against self-incrimination
A) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant. B) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause. C) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. D) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime.
A) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. B) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. C) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. D) Search incident to a lawful arrest.
A) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. B) When the suspect has a prior criminal record. C) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses. D) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search.
A) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. B) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip. C) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest. D) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith.
A) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense. B) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. C) When the complainant demands it. D) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court.
A) Preliminary investigation B) Trial proper C) Inquest proceeding D) Arraignment
A) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua. B) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity. C) A case where one party is a corporation. D) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality.
A) Certificate of Non-Participation B) Certificate of Appearance C) Certificate of Compliance D) Certification to File Action
A) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. B) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application. C) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong. D) The police officer may approve the bail application.
A) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty. B) Dismiss the case automatically. C) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. D) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused.
A) To allow the prosecution to amend the information. B) To record the plea of the accused. C) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. D) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence.
A) Demurrer to evidence B) Motion for reconsideration C) Motion to quash D) Motion for new trial
A) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. B) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. C) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. D) Continue the questioning until the child answers. |