A) PDEA B) NBI C) PNP D) BFP
A) BFP B) PDEA C) BJMP D) NBI
A) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders B) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities C) Investigate fire-related incidents D) Defend the accused in criminal cases
A) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court B) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court C) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court D) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court
A) BuCor B) BJMP C) PNP D) NBI
A) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases B) Only the rich can access fair trials C) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures D) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement
A) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge B) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport C) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint D) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence
A) Right to remain at home during investigation B) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning C) Right to bail regardless of the offense D) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel
A) Criticizing government policies peacefully B) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation C) Sharing opinions online about political issues D) Expressing religious publicly
A) Writ of Amparo B) Writ of Mandamus C) Writ of Habeas Corpus D) Writ of Prohibition
A) Territoriality B) Generality C) Extraterritoriality D) Prospectivity
A) The act is done without consent B) The act is done by accident C) The act is performed through negligence D) The act is performed with deliberate intent
A) Impossible crime B) Complex crime C) Continuing crime D) Frustrated felony
A) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it B) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act C) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime D) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime
A) Proposal B) Instigation C) Provocation D) Conspiracy
A) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony B) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others C) The offender already begins executing does not agree D) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree
A) Principal B) Instigator C) Accomplice D) Accessory
A) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts B) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony C) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced D) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution
A) The penalty is fine only B) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal C) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro D) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months
A) Frustrated B) Impossible C) Consummated D) Attempted
A) M(below 15 years old)inority B) Insanity C) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong D) Defense of one`s self or rights
A) Exempt from criminal liability B) Liable as an accessory C) Criminally liable as an accomplice D) Criminally liable as a principal
A) Alternative circumstance B) Aggravating circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance D) Justifying circumstance
A) Justifying circumstance B) Aggravating circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation D) Exempting circumstance
A) Justifying circumstance B) Alternative circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance D) Exempting circumstance
A) Escaped of the accused B) Amnesty granted by the government C) Delay of trial D) Filling of an appeal
A) It suspends the criminal liability B) It extinguishes only civil liability C) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability D) It transfers liability to the heirs
A) It is transferred to another jurisdiction B) It is reduced but not removed C) It becomes extinguished D) It is suspended until review
A) Service of sentence B) Prescription of crime C) Conditional pardon D) Death of the offender
A) The offender took advantage of public position B) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation C) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission D) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment
A) Lack of intent to kill B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Absence of weapon used D) Treachery or evident premeditation
A) Killing with cruelty B) Killing by means of poison C) Killing of ones parent D) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances
A) Murder B) Homicide C) Parricide D) infanticide
A) Absence of weapon used B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Treachery or evident premeditation D) Lack of intent to kill
A) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances B) Killing by means of poison C) Killing of one's parent D) Killing with cruelty
A) Homicide B) Murder C) Infanticide D) Parricide
A) Abortion B) Parricide C) Infanticide D) Murder
A) The victim is over 18 and married B) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation C) There is consent and the woman is of legal age D) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse
A) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days B) The injury heals immediately C) The injury causes death D) The injury requires no medical attention
A) Serious physical injuries B) Slight physical injuries C) Less serious physical injuries D) Attempted homicide
A) Illegal discharge of firearm B) Reckless imprudence C) Alarm and scandal D) Attempted homicide
A) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not B) Theft is committed only by strangers C) Robbery requires that the property be of high value D) Both involve taking property with intent to gain
A) Robbery in band B) Estafa C) Brigandage D) Qualified theft
A) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit B) Using force to steal from another C) Damaging property with intent to annoy D) Taking property without violence
A) Grave Threats B) Estafa C) Robbery D) Malicious Mischief
A) Light coercion B) Unlawful arrest C) Grave coercion D) Serious illegal detention
A) Unlawful arrest B) Estafa C) Grave coercion D) Grave threats
A) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant B) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds C) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual D) Detaining a person to secure testimony
A) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas. B) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. C) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. D) PD 532 covers only government vessels.
A) Illegal search B) Arbitrary detention C) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities D) Unlawful arrest
A) Direct bribery B) Infidelity in the custody of documents C) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance D) Malversation of funds
A) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results. B) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform. C) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. D) Enter residences only with a valid warrant
A) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. B) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt. C) An oral statement attacking a person's character. D) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing.
A) There is no difference; both are oral defamation. B) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. C) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. D) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult.
A) Simple slander B) Intriguing against honor C) Slander by deed D) Direct assault
A) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can. B) Both require consent from the offender's parents. C) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. D) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife.
A) Adultery B) Bigamy C) Concubinage D) Illegal marriage
A) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. B) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. C) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases. D) Increase imprisonment for women offenders.
A) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit B) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad C) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution D) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies
A) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government B) Armed rebellion by military officers C) Peaceful protest without violence D) Criticizing the government on social media
A) Frustrated homicide B) Grave coercion C) Physical injuries only D) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries
A) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street. B) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. C) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. D) A store owner posts a sale announcement.
A) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law B) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act C) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act D) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act
A) A witness describing the suspect's face B) The accused posting a confession online C) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime D) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene
A) Weapons recovered during the investigation B) Fingerprints matched in a database C) DNA samples gathered from the victim D) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect
A) Eyewitness pointing at the accused B) Knife left by the suspect C) Signed contract presented in court D) CCTV footage of the incident
A) Demonstrative evidence B) Real or physical evidence C) Testimonial evidence D) Circumstantial evidence
A) Obtained from a private source B) Material and competent C) Based on personal beliefs D) Accepted by the witness
A) Evidence authenticated by expert witness B) Evidence with proper search warrant C) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect D) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Res Gestae Rule C) Best Evidence Rule D) Hearsay Rule
A) Materiality B) Judicial Notice C) Relevance D) Best Evidence
A) Circumstantial evidence B) Judicially noticed facts C) Testimonial evidence D) Documentary evidence
A) Parol evidence B) Opinion rule C) Hearsay rule D) Chain of custody
A) Anytime during arraignment B) Immediately after the pre-trial C) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified D) Only after the judgment is issued
A) Ignore it and argue in closing statements B) Write a letter to the judge later C) File a motion after the case is finished D) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds
A) Its authenticity and relevance B) That it has been posted online C) The popularity of the person who wrote it D) That it came from a government agency only
A) Best Evidence Rule B) Hearsay Rule C) Parol Evidence Rule D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt B) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed C) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility D) Is based entirely on hearsay
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt B) Clear and convincing evidence C) Mere preponderance of evidence D) Substantial evidence
A) Municipal Trial Court (MTC) B) Court of Appeals C) Regional Trial Court (RTC) D) Sandiganbayan
A) Regional Trial Court B) Sandiganbayan C) Municipal Trial Court D) Court of Appeals
A) Municipal Trial Court B) Sandiganbayan C) Court of Appeals D) Regional Trial Court
A) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished. B) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties. C) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. D) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases.
A) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice. B) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused. C) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders. D) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties.
A) The right to set the schedule of hearings. B) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. C) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. D) The right to choose the judge who will try his case.
A) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel. B) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence. C) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial. D) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him.
A) Right against self-incrimination B) Right to due process of law C) Right to preliminary investigation D) Right against double jeopardy
A) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant. B) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. C) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime. D) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause.
A) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. B) Search incident to a lawful arrest. C) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. D) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent.
A) When the suspect has a prior criminal record. B) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses. C) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search. D) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed.
A) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest. B) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip. C) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith. D) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view.
A) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense. B) When the complainant demands it. C) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. D) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court.
A) Arraignment B) Inquest proceeding C) Preliminary investigation D) Trial proper
A) A case where one party is a corporation. B) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua. C) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality. D) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity.
A) Certificate of Appearance B) Certification to File Action C) Certificate of Non-Participation D) Certificate of Compliance
A) The police officer may approve the bail application. B) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. C) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application. D) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong.
A) Dismiss the case automatically. B) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. C) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty. D) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused.
A) To record the plea of the accused. B) To allow the prosecution to amend the information. C) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence. D) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused.
A) Motion for new trial B) Motion to quash C) Demurrer to evidence D) Motion for reconsideration
A) Continue the questioning until the child answers. B) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. C) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. D) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. |