IRREGULAR_CLJ
  • 1. Which agency is primarily responsible for maintaining peace and order and ensuring public safety in the Philippines?
A) PDEA
B) NBI
C) PNP
D) BFP
  • 2. The agency tasked with investigating major crimes and serving as the National Bureau of Investigation in the Philippines is:
A) BJMP
B) NBI
C) PDEA
D) BFP
  • 3. The prosecutor`s main duty in the criminal justice system is to:
A) Investigate fire-related incidents
B) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities
C) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders
D) Defend the accused in criminal cases
  • 4. Which of the following correctly describes the hierarchy of courts in the Philippines from lowest to highest?
A) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court
B) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court
C) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court
D) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court
  • 5. Which correctional agency is responsible for the safekeeping and rehabilitation of national prisoners (sentenced to more than 3 years)?
A) BJMP
B) PNP
C) NBI
D) BuCor
  • 6. The principle of due process of law ensures that:
A) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures
B) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement
C) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases
D) Only the rich can access fair trials
  • 7. Which situation violates the right against unreasonable search and seizure?
A) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence
B) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint
C) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport
D) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge
  • 8. Which of the following rights must be read to a suspect before custodial interrogation under the Constitution?
A) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel
B) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning
C) Right to remain at home during investigation
D) Right to bail regardless of the offense
  • 9. Which of the following is NOT protected under the the right to privacy and freedom of speech?
A) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation
B) Sharing opinions online about political issues
C) Expressing religious publicly
D) Criticizing government policies peacefully
  • 10. Which judicial remedy is filed to protect a person whose right to life, liberty, or security is threatened or violated by unlawful acts of authorities?
A) Writ of Amparo
B) Writ of Mandamus
C) Writ of Habeas Corpus
D) Writ of Prohibition
  • 11. Which of the following best describes the characteristic of criminal law that means it cannot be applied retroactively unless it is favorable to the accused?
A) Prospectivity
B) Generality
C) Territoriality
D) Extraterritoriality
  • 12. A felony is committed with dolo when:
A) The act is done without consent
B) The act is done by accident
C) The act is performed with deliberate intent
D) The act is performed through negligence
  • 13. When a person commits two or more crimes by a single act, such as killing and robber, it is known as:
A) Frustrated felony
B) Continuing crime
C) Impossible crime
D) Complex crime
  • 14. Who among the following is considered a principal by direct participation?
A) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime
B) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime
C) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it
D) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act
  • 15. When two or more persons agree to commit a felony and decide to commit it, it is called:
A) Instigation
B) Provocation
C) Proposal
D) Conspiracy
  • 16. A proposal to commit a felony exists when:
A) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others
B) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree
C) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony
D) The offender already begins executing does not agree
  • 17. A person who, after the commission of a crime, helps the offender escape arrest without prior promise is a/an:
A) Accomplice
B) Instigator
C) Principal
D) Accessory
  • 18. The felony is consummated when:
A) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony
B) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts
C) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced
D) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution
  • 19. A crime is considered grave when:
A) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal
B) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro
C) The penalty is fine only
D) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months
  • 20. When the offender performs all acts of execution which would produce the felony as a consequence but the crime is not produced by reasons independent of his will, the felony is:
A) Consummated
B) Attempted
C) Impossible
D) Frustrated
  • 21. Which of the following is a justifying circumstance under Article 11 of the Revised Penal Code?
A) Insanity
B) Defense of one`s self or rights
C) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong
D) M(below 15 years old)inority
  • 22. A person who commits a crime while asleep and unconscious is:
A) Liable as an accessory
B) Criminally liable as an accomplice
C) Exempt from criminal liability
D) Criminally liable as a principal
  • 23. When an offender commits a crime in the dwelling of the offended party, it is considered:
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Aggravating circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Alternative circumstance
  • 24. When a husband surprises his wife in the act of adultery and kills one of them in the act, it is:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation
C) Exempting circumstance
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 25. The relationship between the offended party and the offender, such as being spouses or relatives, is considered:
A) Alternative circumstance
B) Exempting circumstance
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 26. Under Article 89 of the Revised Penal Code, which of the following extinguishes criminal liability?
A) Delay of trial
B) Amnesty granted by the government
C) Escaped of the accused
D) Filling of an appeal
  • 27. The death of the offender before final judgment has what effect on his criminal liability?
A) It transfers liability to the heirs
B) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability
C) It suspends the criminal liability
D) It extinguishes only civil liability
  • 28. When a convicted person completes the service of his sentence, what happens to his criminal liability?
A) It is suspended until review
B) It is transferred to another jurisdiction
C) It becomes extinguished
D) It is reduced but not removed
  • 29. Which of the following is a mode of partial extinction of criminal liability?
A) Death of the offender
B) Service of sentence
C) Prescription of crime
D) Conditional pardon
  • 30. Which of the following is a mitigating circumstance?
A) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment
B) The offender took advantage of public position
C) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation
D) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission
  • 31. Which of the following is a qualifying circumtance that elevates homicide to murder?
A) Treachery or evident premeditation
B) Absence of weapon used
C) Relationship between the offender and victim
D) Lack of intent to kill
  • 32. Which of the following best defines the crime homicide under the Revised Penal Code?
A) Killing by means of poison
B) Killing with cruelty
C) Killing of ones parent
D) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances
  • 33. A kills his biological mother intentionally. What crime has committed?
A) Parricide
B) Homicide
C) Murder
D) infanticide
  • 34. Which of the following is a qualifying circumstance that elevates homicide to murder?
A) Absence of weapon used
B) Treachery or evident premeditation
C) Relationship between the offender and victim
D) Lack of intent to kill
  • 35. Which of the following best defines the crime of homicide under the Revised Penal Code?
A) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances
B) Killing by means of poison
C) Killing with cruelty
D) Killing of one's parent
  • 36. A kills his biological mother intentionally. What crime has he committed?
A) Parricide
B) Homicide
C) Infanticide
D) Murder
  • 37. What crime is committed when a newly born child less than three days old is killed by his own mother to conceal her dishonor?
A) Parricide
B) Murder
C) Abortion
D) Infanticide
  • 38. Under Article 266-A of the Revised Penal Code, rape is committed when?
A) The victim is over 18 and married
B) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse
C) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation
D) There is consent and the woman is of legal age
  • 39. Which of the following is an element of serious physical injuries under Article 263?
A) The injury requires no medical attention
B) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days
C) The injury causes death
D) The injury heals immediately
  • 40. If the victim is incapacitated for work for less than 10 days, what crime is committed?
A) Attempted homicide
B) Serious physical injuries
C) Less serious physical injuries
D) Slight physical injuries
  • 41. A person fires his gun at another without intent to kill but with intent to intimidate. What crime is committed?
A) Illegal discharge of firearm
B) Alarm and scandal
C) Attempted homicide
D) Reckless imprudence
  • 42. What distinguishes theft from robbery under the Revised
    Penal Code?
A) Both involve taking property with intent to gain
B) Robbery requires that the property be of high value
C) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not
D) Theft is committed only by strangers
  • 43. A group of armed men roams the highway to rob passengers of their valuables. What crime is committed?
A) Qualified theft
B) Brigandage
C) Estafa
D) Robbery in band
  • 44. Which of the following best defines estafa?
A) Using force to steal from another
B) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit
C) Damaging property with intent to annoy
D) Taking property without violence
  • 45. A person deliberately destroys another person's car windshield out of anger. What crime has been committed?
A) Malicious Mischief
B) Grave Threats
C) Estafa
D) Robbery
  • 46. A private individual forcibly detains another person for three days without legal grounds. What crime is committed?
A) Light coercion
B) Unlawful arrest
C) Serious illegal detention
D) Grave coercion
  • 47. A person forces another to sign a document against his will through intimidation. What crime is committed?
A) Unlawful arrest
B) Grave threats
C) Estafa
D) Grave coercion
  • 48. Under Article 267 of the Revised Penal Code, which of the following best defines arbitrary detention?
A) Detaining a person to secure testimony
B) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual
C) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds
D) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant
  • 49. What is the main distinction between piracy under the RPC (Art. 122) and piracy under PD
    532?
A) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy.
B) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters.
C) PD 532 covers only government vessels.
D) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas.
  • 50. A police officer detained a person overnight for questioning even without a complaint or warrant. What crime did he commit?
A) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities
B) Illegal search
C) Unlawful arrest
D) Arbitrary detention
  • 51. A jail guard allowed a prisoner to temporarily leave the jail to attend a personal affair in exchange for money. What felony did he commit?
A) Infidelity in the custody of documents
B) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance
C) Direct bribery
D) Malversation of funds
  • 52. If you were to design a training module for law enforcers, what key preventive measure would you emphasize to avoid committing violation of domicile during operations?
A) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform.
B) Enter residences only with a valid warrant
C) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant.
D) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results.
  • 53. Which of the following best defines slander by deed under the Revised Penal Code?
A) An oral statement attacking a person's character.
B) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame.
C) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt.
D) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing.
  • 54. How does intriguing against honor differ from slander by deed?
A) There is no difference; both are oral defamation.
B) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult.
C) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor.
D) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech.
  • 55. A man slaps his wife's alleged lover in front of a crowd to shame him. What crime is committed?
A) Simple slander
B) Slander by deed
C) Direct assault
D) Intriguing against honor
  • 56. In adultery and concubinage, what key difference exists in terms of the offended party's role?
A) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can.
B) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife.
C) Both require consent from the offender's parents.
D) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint.
  • 57. A married man secretly marries another woman while the first marriage is still valid.
    What felony is committed?
A) Concubinage
B) Adultery
C) Illegal marriage
D) Bigamy
  • 58. If tasked to draft a policy recommendation to reduce crimes against chastity, which measure best supports prevention?
A) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame.
B) Increase imprisonment for women offenders.
C) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities.
D) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases.
  • 59. Which of the following is a punishable act under the Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act (RA
    9208 as amended by RA 10364)?
A) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad
B) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit
C) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies
D) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution
  • 60. Under the Anti-Terrorism Act of 2020 (RA 11479), which act constitutes terrorism?
A) Peaceful protest without violence
B) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government
C) Armed rebellion by military officers
D) Criticizing the government on social media
  • 61. A fraternity conducts an initiation rite where a neophyte suffers serious injuries due to paddling. What crime is committed under RA 11053 (Anti-Hazing Law of 2018)?
A) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries
B) Physical injuries only
C) Grave coercion
D) Frustrated homicide
  • 62. Which of the following situations violates the Safe Spaces Act (RA 11313)?
A) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street.
B) A teacher scolds a student for cheating.
C) A police officer directs traffic in a public area.
D) A store owner posts a sale announcement.
  • 63. Among the following laws, which best protects women and children from sexual exploitation and human trafficking?
A) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act
B) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act
C) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law
D) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act
  • 64. Which of the following is considered real (physical) evidence used to identify a suspect?
A) A witness describing the suspect's face
B) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene
C) The accused posting a confession online
D) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime
  • 65. Testimonial identity evidence refers to:
A) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect
B) Fingerprints matched in a database
C) DNA samples gathered from the victim
D) Weapons recovered during the investigation
  • 66. Which of the following is classified as documentary evidence in a criminal case?
A) Knife left by the suspect
B) Eyewitness pointing at the accused
C) CCTV footage of the incident
D) Signed contract presented in court
  • 67. What type of evidence involves information given by a witness through speech or written statement?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Demonstrative evidence
C) Real or physical evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 68. For evidence to be admissible, it must be relevant and______.
A) Based on personal beliefs
B) Accepted by the witness
C) Obtained from a private source
D) Material and competent
  • 69. Which evidence is considered inadmissible because it was obtained illegally?
A) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect
B) Evidence authenticated by expert witness
C) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search
D) Evidence with proper search warrant
  • 70. The rule that ensures only legally obtained evidence is admitted in court is known as the ____.
A) Hearsay Rule
B) Res Gestae Rule
C) Exclusionary Rule
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 71. Evidence must be directly connected to the issue being tried. This requirement refers to _____.
A) Relevance
B) Best Evidence
C) Materiality
D) Judicial Notice
  • 72. Which type of evidence must be authenticated to prove it is what it claims to be before it is admitted?
A) Documentary evidence
B) Judicially noticed facts
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 73. If evidence was altered or tampered with, it may be excluded because it violates which rule?
A) Chain of custody
B) Opinion rule
C) Hearsay rule
D) Parol evidence
  • 74. When should a party formally offer evidence during a criminal trial for it to be admitted?
A) Anytime during arraignment
B) Only after the judgment is issued
C) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified
D) Immediately after the pre-trial
  • 75. What is the proper immediate action of the opposing counsel if they believe the evidence being offered violates a rule of admissibility?
A) File a motion after the case is finished
B) Ignore it and argue in closing statements
C) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds
D) Write a letter to the judge later
  • 76. Before a documentary evidence can be admitted in court, what must first be established?
A) The popularity of the person who wrote it
B) That it came from a government agency only
C) Its authenticity and relevance
D) That it has been posted online
  • 77. What rule requires the original document to be produced in court when the content of the document is being questioned?
A) Exclusionary Rule
B) Hearsay Rule
C) Best Evidence Rule
D) Parol Evidence Rule
  • 78. Evidence is considered sufficient when it ____.
A) Is based entirely on hearsay
B) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt
C) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed
D) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility
  • 79. What standard of proof is required in criminal cases to establish sufficiency of evidence for conviction?
A) Substantial evidence
B) Clear and convincing evidence
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Mere preponderance of evidence
  • 80. Which court has exclusive original jurisdiction over all criminal cases not falling within the jurisdiction of any other court, tribunal, or body?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
C) Court of Appeals
D) Regional Trial Court (RTC)
  • 81. A barangay captain is charged with malversation of public funds in relation to his position. Which court has jurisdiction over the case?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Court of Appeals
C) Municipal Trial Court
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 82. A person is charged with theft where the value of the property stolen is P18,000. The offense was committed in a municipality where no Metropolitan Trial Court exists. Which court has jurisdiction?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Court of Appeals
D) Municipal Trial Court
  • 83. Which of the following best defines criminal procedure?
A) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties.
B) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases.
C) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished.
D) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases.
  • 84. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of criminal procedure?
A) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused.
B) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice.
C) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties.
D) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders.
  • 85. Which of the following is a fundamental right of the accused during trial under Rule 115 of the Rules of Criminal Procedure?
A) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present.
B) The right to choose the judge who will try his case.
C) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel.
D) The right to set the schedule of hearings.
  • 86. An accused demands that the prosecution present all its evidence before he is arraigned.
    Can the demand be granted?
A) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence.
B) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial.
C) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him.
D) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel.
  • 87. During trial, the defense counsel was absent and the court proceeded to receive evidence for the prosecution without assigning a public attorney. What right of the accused was violated?
A) Right to preliminary investigation
B) Right against self-incrimination
C) Right against double jeopardy
D) Right to due process of law
  • 88. Which of the following is a valid warrantless arrest under Rule 113, Section 5 of the Rules of Criminal Procedure?
A) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime.
B) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause.
C) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description.
D) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant.
  • 89. Which of the following violates the rule on lawful search and seizure?
A) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court.
B) Search incident to a lawful arrest.
C) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent.
D) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent.
  • 90. When may a search warrant be lawfully issued?
A) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search.
B) When the suspect has a prior criminal record.
C) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed.
D) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses.
  • 91. Police officers, without a warrant, entered the house of a suspect after receiving information from an anonymous tip that illegal drugs were being sold inside. They conducted a search and found shabu in plain view on a table. As a criminologist, evaluate the legality of the search and seizure.
A) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip.
B) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest.
C) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith.
D) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view.
  • 92. When is a preliminary investigation required before the filing of a criminal complaint or information?
A) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense.
B) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine.
C) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court.
D) When the complainant demands it.
  • 93. An accused was arrested without a warrant for committing a crime in flagrante delicto.
    What proceeding must be conducted before filing the case in court?
A) Inquest proceeding
B) Preliminary investigation
C) Arraignment
D) Trial proper
  • 94. Which of the following cases must first pass through the Barangay Justice System before being filed in court?
A) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality.
B) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua.
C) A case where one party is a corporation.
D) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity.
  • 95. If the parties in a barangay dispute fail to reach an amicable settlement, what must the Punong Barangay or Lupon Secretary issue before the case can be filed in court?
A) Certificate of Non-Participation
B) Certificate of Compliance
C) Certificate of Appearance
D) Certification to File Action
  • 96. Juan was arrested for a non-bailable offense. He insists on applying for bail. As a criminologist, what is the proper procedure?
A) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application.
B) The police officer may approve the bail application.
C) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail.
D) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong.
  • 97. During arraignment, the accused refused to enter a plea. What should the court do?
A) Dismiss the case automatically.
B) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused.
C) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead.
D) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty.
  • 98. During pre-trial, both parties agreed to a stipulation of facts and marking of evidence.
    What is the main purpose of this stage?
A) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence.
B) To allow the prosecution to amend the information.
C) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused.
D) To record the plea of the accused.
  • 99. During trial, the accused moved for dismissal after the prosecution rested its case, claiming that the evidence was insufficient. What motion is proper?
A) Demurrer to evidence
B) Motion to quash
C) Motion for reconsideration
D) Motion for new trial
  • 100. A 10-year-old child witness is being cross-examined by the defense. The child begins to cry and cannot continue. What should the court do under the Rule on Examination of a Child Witness (A.M. No.
    004-07-SC)?
A) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights.
B) Continue the questioning until the child answers.
C) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify.
D) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment.
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