A) BFP B) NBI C) PDEA D) PNP
A) BJMP B) PDEA C) NBI D) BFP
A) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders B) Defend the accused in criminal cases C) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities D) Investigate fire-related incidents
A) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court B) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court C) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court D) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court
A) BuCor B) NBI C) PNP D) BJMP
A) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures B) Only the rich can access fair trials C) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement D) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases
A) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence B) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport C) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint D) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge
A) Right to remain at home during investigation B) Right to bail regardless of the offense C) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning D) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel
A) Expressing religious publicly B) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation C) Criticizing government policies peacefully D) Sharing opinions online about political issues
A) Writ of Prohibition B) Writ of Mandamus C) Writ of Habeas Corpus D) Writ of Amparo
A) Territoriality B) Extraterritoriality C) Generality D) Prospectivity
A) The act is done without consent B) The act is performed through negligence C) The act is done by accident D) The act is performed with deliberate intent
A) Complex crime B) Continuing crime C) Frustrated felony D) Impossible crime
A) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it B) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime C) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime D) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act
A) Proposal B) Instigation C) Provocation D) Conspiracy
A) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony B) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others C) The offender already begins executing does not agree D) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree
A) Instigator B) Accessory C) Accomplice D) Principal
A) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony B) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced C) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts D) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution
A) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal B) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro C) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months D) The penalty is fine only
A) Frustrated B) Attempted C) Consummated D) Impossible
A) M(below 15 years old)inority B) Defense of one`s self or rights C) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong D) Insanity
A) Exempt from criminal liability B) Criminally liable as an accomplice C) Liable as an accessory D) Criminally liable as a principal
A) Alternative circumstance B) Justifying circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance D) Aggravating circumstance
A) Aggravating circumstance B) Exempting circumstance C) Justifying circumstance D) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation
A) Mitigating circumstance B) Justifying circumstance C) Alternative circumstance D) Exempting circumstance
A) Filling of an appeal B) Escaped of the accused C) Amnesty granted by the government D) Delay of trial
A) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability B) It suspends the criminal liability C) It extinguishes only civil liability D) It transfers liability to the heirs
A) It is reduced but not removed B) It is transferred to another jurisdiction C) It becomes extinguished D) It is suspended until review
A) Conditional pardon B) Prescription of crime C) Service of sentence D) Death of the offender
A) The offender took advantage of public position B) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment C) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation D) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission
A) Relationship between the offender and victim B) Treachery or evident premeditation C) Lack of intent to kill D) Absence of weapon used
A) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances B) Killing with cruelty C) Killing by means of poison D) Killing of ones parent
A) infanticide B) Murder C) Homicide D) Parricide
A) Lack of intent to kill B) Absence of weapon used C) Relationship between the offender and victim D) Treachery or evident premeditation
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances C) Killing of one's parent D) Killing with cruelty
A) Murder B) Homicide C) Infanticide D) Parricide
A) Parricide B) Murder C) Infanticide D) Abortion
A) There is consent and the woman is of legal age B) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse C) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation D) The victim is over 18 and married
A) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days B) The injury heals immediately C) The injury causes death D) The injury requires no medical attention
A) Slight physical injuries B) Serious physical injuries C) Less serious physical injuries D) Attempted homicide
A) Reckless imprudence B) Illegal discharge of firearm C) Attempted homicide D) Alarm and scandal
A) Robbery requires that the property be of high value B) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not C) Both involve taking property with intent to gain D) Theft is committed only by strangers
A) Brigandage B) Robbery in band C) Estafa D) Qualified theft
A) Taking property without violence B) Using force to steal from another C) Damaging property with intent to annoy D) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit
A) Grave Threats B) Malicious Mischief C) Robbery D) Estafa
A) Serious illegal detention B) Unlawful arrest C) Light coercion D) Grave coercion
A) Grave coercion B) Unlawful arrest C) Estafa D) Grave threats
A) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual B) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant C) Detaining a person to secure testimony D) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds
A) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. B) PD 532 covers only government vessels. C) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. D) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas.
A) Illegal search B) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities C) Arbitrary detention D) Unlawful arrest
A) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance B) Malversation of funds C) Infidelity in the custody of documents D) Direct bribery
A) Enter residences only with a valid warrant B) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. C) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform. D) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results.
A) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. B) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt. C) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing. D) An oral statement attacking a person's character.
A) There is no difference; both are oral defamation. B) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. C) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. D) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult.
A) Simple slander B) Direct assault C) Intriguing against honor D) Slander by deed
A) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. B) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can. C) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. D) Both require consent from the offender's parents.
A) Adultery B) Concubinage C) Bigamy D) Illegal marriage
A) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. B) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases. C) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. D) Increase imprisonment for women offenders.
A) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution B) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies C) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad D) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit
A) Peaceful protest without violence B) Armed rebellion by military officers C) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government D) Criticizing the government on social media
A) Frustrated homicide B) Physical injuries only C) Grave coercion D) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries
A) A store owner posts a sale announcement. B) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. C) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. D) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street.
A) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act B) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act C) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act D) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law
A) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene B) The accused posting a confession online C) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime D) A witness describing the suspect's face
A) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect B) DNA samples gathered from the victim C) Fingerprints matched in a database D) Weapons recovered during the investigation
A) Knife left by the suspect B) CCTV footage of the incident C) Eyewitness pointing at the accused D) Signed contract presented in court
A) Real or physical evidence B) Demonstrative evidence C) Circumstantial evidence D) Testimonial evidence
A) Material and competent B) Obtained from a private source C) Based on personal beliefs D) Accepted by the witness
A) Evidence with proper search warrant B) Evidence authenticated by expert witness C) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect D) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Res Gestae Rule C) Best Evidence Rule D) Hearsay Rule
A) Materiality B) Relevance C) Judicial Notice D) Best Evidence
A) Judicially noticed facts B) Documentary evidence C) Testimonial evidence D) Circumstantial evidence
A) Opinion rule B) Chain of custody C) Hearsay rule D) Parol evidence
A) Immediately after the pre-trial B) Only after the judgment is issued C) Anytime during arraignment D) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified
A) Ignore it and argue in closing statements B) File a motion after the case is finished C) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds D) Write a letter to the judge later
A) The popularity of the person who wrote it B) Its authenticity and relevance C) That it came from a government agency only D) That it has been posted online
A) Hearsay Rule B) Best Evidence Rule C) Parol Evidence Rule D) Exclusionary Rule
A) Is based entirely on hearsay B) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed C) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility D) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt B) Clear and convincing evidence C) Substantial evidence D) Mere preponderance of evidence
A) Regional Trial Court (RTC) B) Court of Appeals C) Sandiganbayan D) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
A) Court of Appeals B) Sandiganbayan C) Regional Trial Court D) Municipal Trial Court
A) Regional Trial Court B) Sandiganbayan C) Municipal Trial Court D) Court of Appeals
A) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties. B) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished. C) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases. D) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases.
A) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders. B) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused. C) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties. D) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice.
A) The right to set the schedule of hearings. B) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. C) The right to choose the judge who will try his case. D) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel.
A) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial. B) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence. C) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. D) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel.
A) Right against self-incrimination B) Right to preliminary investigation C) Right to due process of law D) Right against double jeopardy
A) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime. B) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. C) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant. D) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause.
A) Search incident to a lawful arrest. B) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. C) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. D) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent.
A) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. B) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses. C) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search. D) When the suspect has a prior criminal record.
A) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest. B) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. C) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip. D) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith.
A) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. B) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense. C) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court. D) When the complainant demands it.
A) Arraignment B) Preliminary investigation C) Trial proper D) Inquest proceeding
A) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality. B) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua. C) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity. D) A case where one party is a corporation.
A) Certification to File Action B) Certificate of Compliance C) Certificate of Non-Participation D) Certificate of Appearance
A) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application. B) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. C) The police officer may approve the bail application. D) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong.
A) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused. B) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. C) Dismiss the case automatically. D) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty.
A) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence. B) To record the plea of the accused. C) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. D) To allow the prosecution to amend the information.
A) Demurrer to evidence B) Motion to quash C) Motion for new trial D) Motion for reconsideration
A) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. B) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. C) Continue the questioning until the child answers. D) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. |