A) PDEA B) PNP C) NBI D) BFP
A) BJMP B) PDEA C) BFP D) NBI
A) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders B) Investigate fire-related incidents C) Defend the accused in criminal cases D) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities
A) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court B) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court C) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court D) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court
A) NBI B) PNP C) BuCor D) BJMP
A) Only the rich can access fair trials B) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement C) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases D) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures
A) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge B) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport C) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint D) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence
A) Right to bail regardless of the offense B) Right to remain at home during investigation C) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning D) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel
A) Sharing opinions online about political issues B) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation C) Expressing religious publicly D) Criticizing government policies peacefully
A) Writ of Amparo B) Writ of Mandamus C) Writ of Prohibition D) Writ of Habeas Corpus
A) Generality B) Extraterritoriality C) Prospectivity D) Territoriality
A) The act is done without consent B) The act is performed with deliberate intent C) The act is done by accident D) The act is performed through negligence
A) Complex crime B) Impossible crime C) Continuing crime D) Frustrated felony
A) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime B) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime C) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act D) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it
A) Conspiracy B) Provocation C) Proposal D) Instigation
A) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree B) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony C) The offender already begins executing does not agree D) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others
A) Accomplice B) Instigator C) Accessory D) Principal
A) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced B) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution C) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony D) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts
A) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal B) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro C) The penalty is fine only D) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months
A) Frustrated B) Consummated C) Attempted D) Impossible
A) M(below 15 years old)inority B) Defense of one`s self or rights C) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong D) Insanity
A) Criminally liable as an accomplice B) Exempt from criminal liability C) Criminally liable as a principal D) Liable as an accessory
A) Justifying circumstance B) Alternative circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance D) Aggravating circumstance
A) Exempting circumstance B) Justifying circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation D) Aggravating circumstance
A) Alternative circumstance B) Mitigating circumstance C) Exempting circumstance D) Justifying circumstance
A) Filling of an appeal B) Escaped of the accused C) Amnesty granted by the government D) Delay of trial
A) It suspends the criminal liability B) It extinguishes only civil liability C) It transfers liability to the heirs D) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability
A) It is transferred to another jurisdiction B) It is suspended until review C) It is reduced but not removed D) It becomes extinguished
A) Death of the offender B) Service of sentence C) Conditional pardon D) Prescription of crime
A) The offender took advantage of public position B) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation C) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission D) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment
A) Relationship between the offender and victim B) Lack of intent to kill C) Treachery or evident premeditation D) Absence of weapon used
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances C) Killing of ones parent D) Killing with cruelty
A) infanticide B) Murder C) Parricide D) Homicide
A) Treachery or evident premeditation B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Lack of intent to kill D) Absence of weapon used
A) Killing by means of poison B) Killing of one's parent C) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances D) Killing with cruelty
A) Murder B) Parricide C) Homicide D) Infanticide
A) Parricide B) Murder C) Abortion D) Infanticide
A) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse B) The victim is over 18 and married C) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation D) There is consent and the woman is of legal age
A) The injury requires no medical attention B) The injury causes death C) The injury heals immediately D) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days
A) Attempted homicide B) Slight physical injuries C) Less serious physical injuries D) Serious physical injuries
A) Alarm and scandal B) Reckless imprudence C) Illegal discharge of firearm D) Attempted homicide
A) Both involve taking property with intent to gain B) Robbery requires that the property be of high value C) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not D) Theft is committed only by strangers
A) Brigandage B) Estafa C) Qualified theft D) Robbery in band
A) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit B) Taking property without violence C) Damaging property with intent to annoy D) Using force to steal from another
A) Robbery B) Grave Threats C) Malicious Mischief D) Estafa
A) Grave coercion B) Light coercion C) Serious illegal detention D) Unlawful arrest
A) Estafa B) Grave threats C) Grave coercion D) Unlawful arrest
A) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant B) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds C) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual D) Detaining a person to secure testimony
A) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. B) PD 532 covers only government vessels. C) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. D) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas.
A) Illegal search B) Arbitrary detention C) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities D) Unlawful arrest
A) Direct bribery B) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance C) Infidelity in the custody of documents D) Malversation of funds
A) Enter residences only with a valid warrant B) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results. C) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. D) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform.
A) An oral statement attacking a person's character. B) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. C) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing. D) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt.
A) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. B) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. C) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult. D) There is no difference; both are oral defamation.
A) Intriguing against honor B) Slander by deed C) Simple slander D) Direct assault
A) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can. B) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. C) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. D) Both require consent from the offender's parents.
A) Illegal marriage B) Bigamy C) Concubinage D) Adultery
A) Increase imprisonment for women offenders. B) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. C) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. D) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases.
A) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit B) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies C) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad D) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution
A) Armed rebellion by military officers B) Criticizing the government on social media C) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government D) Peaceful protest without violence
A) Physical injuries only B) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries C) Frustrated homicide D) Grave coercion
A) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street. B) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. C) A police officer directs traffic in a public area. D) A store owner posts a sale announcement.
A) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act B) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act C) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law D) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act
A) A witness describing the suspect's face B) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene C) The accused posting a confession online D) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime
A) Weapons recovered during the investigation B) DNA samples gathered from the victim C) Fingerprints matched in a database D) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect
A) Knife left by the suspect B) Eyewitness pointing at the accused C) CCTV footage of the incident D) Signed contract presented in court
A) Real or physical evidence B) Demonstrative evidence C) Circumstantial evidence D) Testimonial evidence
A) Based on personal beliefs B) Material and competent C) Accepted by the witness D) Obtained from a private source
A) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search B) Evidence with proper search warrant C) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect D) Evidence authenticated by expert witness
A) Res Gestae Rule B) Exclusionary Rule C) Hearsay Rule D) Best Evidence Rule
A) Materiality B) Relevance C) Judicial Notice D) Best Evidence
A) Judicially noticed facts B) Testimonial evidence C) Documentary evidence D) Circumstantial evidence
A) Chain of custody B) Opinion rule C) Parol evidence D) Hearsay rule
A) Anytime during arraignment B) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified C) Immediately after the pre-trial D) Only after the judgment is issued
A) Write a letter to the judge later B) File a motion after the case is finished C) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds D) Ignore it and argue in closing statements
A) That it came from a government agency only B) That it has been posted online C) Its authenticity and relevance D) The popularity of the person who wrote it
A) Parol Evidence Rule B) Hearsay Rule C) Exclusionary Rule D) Best Evidence Rule
A) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed B) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt C) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility D) Is based entirely on hearsay
A) Substantial evidence B) Mere preponderance of evidence C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt D) Clear and convincing evidence
A) Regional Trial Court (RTC) B) Court of Appeals C) Sandiganbayan D) Municipal Trial Court (MTC)
A) Court of Appeals B) Sandiganbayan C) Municipal Trial Court D) Regional Trial Court
A) Sandiganbayan B) Regional Trial Court C) Court of Appeals D) Municipal Trial Court
A) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases. B) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties. C) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. D) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished.
A) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused. B) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties. C) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice. D) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders.
A) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. B) The right to set the schedule of hearings. C) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. D) The right to choose the judge who will try his case.
A) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial. B) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. C) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence. D) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel.
A) Right to preliminary investigation B) Right against self-incrimination C) Right against double jeopardy D) Right to due process of law
A) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. B) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime. C) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant. D) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause.
A) Search incident to a lawful arrest. B) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. C) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. D) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court.
A) When the suspect has a prior criminal record. B) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search. C) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. D) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses.
A) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest. B) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip. C) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. D) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith.
A) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. B) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court. C) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense. D) When the complainant demands it.
A) Trial proper B) Preliminary investigation C) Arraignment D) Inquest proceeding
A) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality. B) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity. C) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua. D) A case where one party is a corporation.
A) Certification to File Action B) Certificate of Appearance C) Certificate of Compliance D) Certificate of Non-Participation
A) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong. B) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application. C) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. D) The police officer may approve the bail application.
A) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused. B) Dismiss the case automatically. C) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty. D) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead.
A) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence. B) To allow the prosecution to amend the information. C) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused. D) To record the plea of the accused.
A) Motion to quash B) Motion for reconsideration C) Motion for new trial D) Demurrer to evidence
A) Continue the questioning until the child answers. B) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. C) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. D) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. |