A) NBI B) PNP C) BFP D) PDEA
A) PDEA B) NBI C) BFP D) BJMP
A) Conduct preliminary investigations and prosecute offenders B) Guard prisoners in correctional facilities C) Investigate fire-related incidents D) Defend the accused in criminal cases
A) Court of Appeals - Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court B) Municipal Trial Court - Regional Trial Court - Supreme Court C) Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court - Court of Appelas - Supreme Court D) Supreme Court - Court of Appeals - Regional Trial Court - Municipal Trial Court
A) PNP B) BuCor C) NBI D) BJMP
A) Every person is given an opportunity to be heard and defend themselves before judgement B) Law enforcement can arrest without warrants in all cases C) The government can punish anyone without legal procedures D) Only the rich can access fair trials
A) Police conduct a search with a valid warrant issued by a judge B) Police enter a house without a warrant and without consent to look for evidence C) Customs officers inspect luggage at the airport D) A person consents to a bag inspection at a security checkpoint
A) Right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel B) Right to remain at home during investigation C) Right to refuse all kinds of police questioning D) Right to bail regardless of the offense
A) Posting false and malicious statements that damage another person`s reputation B) Expressing religious publicly C) Criticizing government policies peacefully D) Sharing opinions online about political issues
A) Writ of Prohibition B) Writ of Amparo C) Writ of Mandamus D) Writ of Habeas Corpus
A) Extraterritoriality B) Generality C) Prospectivity D) Territoriality
A) The act is performed with deliberate intent B) The act is performed through negligence C) The act is done by accident D) The act is done without consent
A) Complex crime B) Frustrated felony C) Impossible crime D) Continuing crime
A) A person who helps in planning but not executing the crime B) A person cooperates in the execution of a crime by another without taking direct part in it C) A person who takes direct part in the execution of the criminal act D) A person who assists in hiding the body of the victim after the crime
A) Conspiracy B) Proposal C) Provocation D) Instigation
A) The offender already begins executing does not agree B) One person decides to commit a felony without informing others C) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony D) One person proposes to another the execution of a felony but the other does not agree
A) Accessory B) Instigator C) Principal D) Accomplice
A) The offender desists voluntarily before performing all acts of execution B) The offender performs all acts necessary for its accomplishment and the felony is produced C) The offender has commenced the commission of a felony directly by overt acts D) The offender performs all acts of execution but does not accomplish the felony
A) The penalty is imprisonment of less than 6 months B) The penalty is death, reclusion perpetua, or reclusion temporal C) The penalty is arresto menor or destierro D) The penalty is fine only
A) Attempted B) Frustrated C) Impossible D) Consummated
A) Insanity B) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong C) M(below 15 years old)inority D) Defense of one`s self or rights
A) Criminally liable as an accomplice B) Liable as an accessory C) Exempt from criminal liability D) Criminally liable as a principal
A) Justifying circumstance B) Aggravating circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance D) Alternative circumstance
A) Exempting circumstance B) Justifying circumstance C) Mitigating circumstance due to passion or obfuscation D) Aggravating circumstance
A) Mitigating circumstance B) Exempting circumstance C) Justifying circumstance D) Alternative circumstance
A) Filling of an appeal B) Escaped of the accused C) Delay of trial D) Amnesty granted by the government
A) It transfers liability to the heirs B) It suspends the criminal liability C) It extinguishes only civil liability D) It totally extinguishes criminal and civil liability
A) It is suspended until review B) It is transferred to another jurisdiction C) It is reduced but not removed D) It becomes extinguished
A) Death of the offender B) Prescription of crime C) Conditional pardon D) Service of sentence
A) The crime is committed at nighttime to facilitate its commission B) The offender is below 18 years old but above 15 and acted with discernment C) The offender committed the crime with evident premeditation D) The offender took advantage of public position
A) Lack of intent to kill B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Treachery or evident premeditation D) Absence of weapon used
A) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances B) Killing of ones parent C) Killing by means of poison D) Killing with cruelty
A) Murder B) Homicide C) infanticide D) Parricide
A) Treachery or evident premeditation B) Relationship between the offender and victim C) Lack of intent to kill D) Absence of weapon used
A) Killing with cruelty B) Killing of one's parent C) Killing of another person without qualifying circumstances D) Killing by means of poison
A) Parricide B) Infanticide C) Homicide D) Murder
A) Murder B) Abortion C) Parricide D) Infanticide
A) Both parties agreed to sexual intercourse B) A man has carnal knowledge of a woman through force, threat, or intimidation C) The victim is over 18 and married D) There is consent and the woman is of legal age
A) The injury incapacitates the victim for more than 30 days B) The injury heals immediately C) The injury requires no medical attention D) The injury causes death
A) Serious physical injuries B) Less serious physical injuries C) Slight physical injuries D) Attempted homicide
A) Illegal discharge of firearm B) Attempted homicide C) Reckless imprudence D) Alarm and scandal
A) Robbery requires that the property be of high value B) Robbery is committed with violence or intimidation; theft is not C) Theft is committed only by strangers D) Both involve taking property with intent to gain
A) Robbery in band B) Qualified theft C) Estafa D) Brigandage
A) Taking property without violence B) Defrauding another by abuse of confidence or deceit C) Using force to steal from another D) Damaging property with intent to annoy
A) Robbery B) Grave Threats C) Malicious Mischief D) Estafa
A) Grave coercion B) Light coercion C) Serious illegal detention D) Unlawful arrest
A) Grave threats B) Unlawful arrest C) Estafa D) Grave coercion
A) Detaining a person to secure testimony B) Arresting a suspect under a valid warrant C) Detaining a person by a public officer without legal grounds D) Detaining a person without lawful cause by a private individual
A) RPC piracy applies to ships in ports, not in high seas. B) RPC covers both air and land piracy, while PD 532 covers only sea piracy. C) RPC piracy applies only to foreign vessels, while PD 532 applies to all vessels, including those within Philippine waters. D) PD 532 covers only government vessels.
A) Unlawful arrest B) Arbitrary detention C) Illegal search D) Delay in the delivery of detained persons to judicial authorities
A) Infidelity in the custody of documents B) Direct bribery C) Malversation of funds D) Infidelity in the custody of prisoners through connivance
A) Enter homes if the suspect is known to live there, even without a warrant. B) Enter residences only with a valid warrant C) Conduct search operations anytime for faster results. D) Allow entry as long as the officer is in uniform.
A) False accusation that harms another's reputation through writing. B) A defamatory act done in public to cause dishonor, discredit, or contempt. C) A malicious rumor intended to cause shame. D) An oral statement attacking a person's character.
A) There is no difference; both are oral defamation. B) Intriguing against honor consists of maliciously spreading rumors to harm another's reputation, while slander by deed is a physical act that causes dishonor. C) Intriguing against honor is by act, while slander by deed is by speech. D) Intriguing against honor involves spreading gossip; slander by deed involves written insult.
A) Slander by deed B) Direct assault C) Simple slander D) Intriguing against honor
A) Both crimes can be prosecuted by the State even without complaint. B) Both require public complaint, but adultery may be filed only by the husband, and concubinage only by the wife. C) In adultery, only the husband can file a case; in concubinage, anyone can. D) Both require consent from the offender's parents.
A) Adultery B) Illegal marriage C) Concubinage D) Bigamy
A) Promote awareness of marital rights and responsibilities. B) Decriminalize all adultery and concubinage cases. C) Encourage private settlements to avoid shame. D) Increase imprisonment for women offenders.
A) Recruiting persons for lawful employment abroad B) Sending domestic helpers abroad through legal agencies C) Recruiting, transporting, or harboring persons through coercion for exploitation or prostitution D) Hiring a worker with a valid work permit
A) Peaceful protest without violence B) Armed rebellion by military officers C) Acts intended to cause death or serious injury to persons to intimidate the public or government D) Criticizing the government on social media
A) Hazing resulting in serious physical injuries B) Grave coercion C) Frustrated homicide D) Physical injuries only
A) A teacher scolds a student for cheating. B) A man catcalls a woman walking on the street. C) A store owner posts a sale announcement. D) A police officer directs traffic in a public area.
A) RA 11479 - Anti-Terrorism Act B) RA 11053 - Anti-Hazing Law C) RA 10364 - Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act D) RA 11313 - Safe Spaces Act
A) A witness describing the suspect's face B) A video footage showing the suspect committing the crime C) The accused posting a confession online D) A fingerprint lifted from the crime scene
A) DNA samples gathered from the victim B) Statements from a witness who saw the suspect C) Weapons recovered during the investigation D) Fingerprints matched in a database
A) Signed contract presented in court B) CCTV footage of the incident C) Eyewitness pointing at the accused D) Knife left by the suspect
A) Demonstrative evidence B) Real or physical evidence C) Testimonial evidence D) Circumstantial evidence
A) Based on personal beliefs B) Accepted by the witness C) Obtained from a private source D) Material and competent
A) Evidence with proper search warrant B) Evidence voluntarily given by suspect C) Evidence authenticated by expert witness D) Evidence gathered through warrantless and unjustified search
A) Exclusionary Rule B) Res Gestae Rule C) Best Evidence Rule D) Hearsay Rule
A) Judicial Notice B) Best Evidence C) Relevance D) Materiality
A) Circumstantial evidence B) Judicially noticed facts C) Testimonial evidence D) Documentary evidence
A) Chain of custody B) Opinion rule C) Parol evidence D) Hearsay rule
A) Anytime during arraignment B) After a witness has testified or when the evidence is identified C) Only after the judgment is issued D) Immediately after the pre-trial
A) File a motion after the case is finished B) Ignore it and argue in closing statements C) Write a letter to the judge later D) Make a timely objection stating specific legal grounds
A) That it came from a government agency only B) Its authenticity and relevance C) The popularity of the person who wrote it D) That it has been posted online
A) Parol Evidence Rule B) Exclusionary Rule C) Hearsay Rule D) Best Evidence Rule
A) Creates suspicion that a crime may have been committed B) Is based entirely on hearsay C) Is presented by multiple witnesses regardless of credibility D) Produces moral certainty of the accused's guilt beyond reasonable doubt
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt B) Clear and convincing evidence C) Substantial evidence D) Mere preponderance of evidence
A) Municipal Trial Court (MTC) B) Sandiganbayan C) Regional Trial Court (RTC) D) Court of Appeals
A) Court of Appeals B) Municipal Trial Court C) Regional Trial Court D) Sandiganbayan
A) Sandiganbayan B) Regional Trial Court C) Court of Appeals D) Municipal Trial Court
A) It determines the jurisdiction of courts in civil cases. B) It refers to the set of rules governing evidence in administrative cases. C) It governs the steps or process by which a person accused of a crime is investigated, prosecuted, tried, and punished. D) It is the law that defines crimes and prescribes penalties.
A) To establish an orderly method for prosecuting offenders. B) To ensure the protection of the rights of the accused. C) To promote fair and speedy administration of justice. D) To determine what acts constitute crimes and their penalties.
A) The right to choose the judge who will try his case. B) The right to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. C) The right to decide what evidence the prosecution may present. D) The right to set the schedule of hearings.
A) No, because it violates the right to speedy trial. B) Yes, because the accused has the right to confront the witnesses against him. C) No, because arraignment must precede the presentation of evidence. D) Yes, if the accused waives his right to counsel.
A) Right against self-incrimination B) Right to due process of law C) Right to preliminary investigation D) Right against double jeopardy
A) Arrest made during a random checkpoint without probable cause. B) Arrest based on a tip from an anonymous informant. C) Arrest made one day after the crime, based on witness description. D) Arrest made when the suspect was caught in the act of committing a crime.
A) Search made with a valid warrant issued by a competent court. B) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. C) Search conducted in a private home without a warrant or consent. D) Search incident to a lawful arrest.
A) When there is probable cause personally determined by the judge after examination under oath of the complainant and witnesses. B) When a person refuses to submit to a checkpoint search. C) When the police officer suspects that a crime is about to be committed. D) When the suspect has a prior criminal record.
A) The search is valid because the drugs were found in plain view. B) The search is valid because the police acted in good faith. C) The search is invalid because there was no valid warrant or lawful arrest. D) The search is valid since there was probable cause based on the anonymous tip.
A) When the penalty prescribed is at least 4 years and 2 months imprisonment, regardless of fine. B) When the complainant demands it. C) When the accused is caught in the act of committing the offense. D) When the case is filed directly before the Municipal Trial Court.
A) Trial proper B) Inquest proceeding C) Arraignment D) Preliminary investigation
A) A crime involving government employees acting in their official capacity. B) A case where one party is a corporation. C) A criminal case punishable by imprisonment not exceeding 1 year or fine not exceeding P5,000, and both parties reside in the same city or municipality. D) A case involving offenses punishable by reclusion perpetua.
A) Certificate of Non-Participation B) Certificate of Appearance C) Certificate of Compliance D) Certification to File Action
A) Bail shall automatically be granted if he files an application. B) The prosecutor can decide whether to grant bail. C) The court must conduct a hearing to determine whether evidence of guilt is strong. D) The police officer may approve the bail application.
A) Dismiss the case automatically. B) Postpone the arraignment until the accused agrees to plead. C) Consider the accused as having pleaded guilty. D) Enter a plea of "not guilty" for the accused.
A) To simplify and expedite the trial by identifying issues and evidence. B) To record the plea of the accused. C) To allow the prosecution to amend the information. D) To determine the guilt or innocence of the accused.
A) Motion for new trial B) Motion for reconsideration C) Motion to quash D) Demurrer to evidence
A) Allow the child to rest and resume later in a child-friendly environment. B) Continue the questioning until the child answers. C) Dismiss the child as incompetent to testify. D) Disallow further questioning to protect the accused's rights. |