(TEAM1)-MCQ-(AREA1) CRIMLAW1 CM4K TAGONGAN - Quiz
  • 1. 1. What is the principal law governing crimes and penalties in the Philippines?
A) Revised Penal Code
B) Rules of Court
C) Constitution
D) Revised Penal Code
E) Civil Code
  • 2. 2. The Revised Penal Code was enacted through
A) R.A. No. 10951
B) R.A. No. 10592
C) Act No. 3326
D) Act No. 3815
E) Act No. 3815
  • 3. 3. The Revised Penal Code took effect on
A) January 1, 1932
B) July 1, 1933
C) July 1, 1932
D) July 1, 1932
E) January 1, 1930
  • 4. 4. Article 2 of the Revised Penal Code primarily deals with
A) Conspiracy
B) Territorial application of the Code
C) Criminal negligence
D) Penalties
E) Territorial application of the Cod
  • 5. 5. Which of the following is generally NOT covered by the territorial application of the
    Revised Penal Code?
A) Crimes committed within Philippine territory
B) Crimes committed on Philippine ships or airships
C) Crimes committed in Philippine territory by foreigners
D) Crimes committed outside the Philippines by Philippine citizens in all circumstances
E) Crimes committed outside the Philippines by Philippine citizens in all circumstances
  • 6. 6. Felonies are acts or omissions punishable by law that are committed through
A) Mistake only
B) Intent only
C) Dolo or culpa
D) Dolo or culpa
E) Negligence only
  • 7. 7. Dolo refers to
A) Accident
B) Ignorance
C) Malice or deliberate intent
D) Malice or deliberate intent
E) Negligence
  • 8. 8. Culpa refers to
A) Treachery
B) Conspiracy
C) Intentional wrongdoing
D) Negligence or imprudence
E) Negligence or imprudence
  • 9. 9. Which principle means that there is no crime when there is no law punishing the act?
A) Nullum crimen, nulla poena sine lege
B) Nullum crimen, nulla poena sine lege
C) Double jeopardy
D) Presumption of innocence
E) Res judicata
  • 10. 10. Criminal liability generally arises from
A) Acts or omissions defined and punished by law
B) Mere suspicion
C) Acts or omissions defined and punished by law
D) Immoral thoughts
E) Thoughts alone
  • 11. 11. Felonies are classified according to their gravity as
A) Major, moderate, minor
B) Grave, less grave, and light
C) Capital, ordinary, minor
D) Criminal, civil, administrative
E) Grave, less grave, and light
  • 12. 12. A light felony is generally one punishable by
A) Reclusion perpetua
B) Prisión mayor
C) Arresto menor or a fine within the statutory threshold
D) Reclusion temporal
E) Arresto menor or a fine within the statutory threshold
  • 13. 13. Under R.A. No. 10951, a fine is considered a light penalty when it is
A) Less than ₱40,000
B) Exactly ₱40,000
C) Less than ₱40,000
D) More than ₱1,200,000
E) More than ₱40,000
  • 14. 14. A fine exceeding ₱1,200,000 is considered
A) Light
B) Correctional
C) Afflictive
D) Afflictive
E) Accessory
  • 15. 15. A fine of ₱500,000 is generally classified as
A) Capital
B) Correctional
C) Light
D) B.Correctional
E) Afflictive
  • 16. 16. A felony committed by means of dolo requires:
A) Negligence
B) Intent
C) Intent
D) Accident
E) Mistake
  • 17. 17. A felony committed by means of culpa is characterized by:
A) Treachery
B) Malice
C) Deliberate intent
D) Negligence, imprudence, or lack of precaution
E) Negligence, imprudence, or lack of precaution
  • 18. 18. Which is an example of an intentional felony?
A) Damage caused by unavoidable accident
B) Murder committed deliberately
C) Injury caused without negligence
D) Reckless imprudence resulting in homicide
E) Murder committed deliberately
  • 19. 19. Which is an example of a culpable felony?
A) Reckless imprudence resulting in homicide
B) Reckless imprudence resulting in homicide
C) Robbery
D) Murder
E) Theft
  • 20. 20. Criminal intent is generally essential in crimes committed through:
A) Fortuitous event
B) Dolo
C) Accident
D) Culpa
E) Dolo
  • 21. 21. An impossible crime exists when the act performed would be an offense against:
A) Persons only
B) Public order only
C) Property only
D) Persons or property, but accomplishment is inherently impossible or the means are inadequate
E) Persons or property, but accomplishment is inherently impossible or the means are inadequate
  • 22. 22. Which is NOT an element of an impossible crime?
A) Accomplishment was inherently impossible or the means inadequate
B) The offender successfully completed the intended crime
C) The offender successfully completed the intended crime
D) The act would ordinarily constitute an offense against persons or property
E) The act was done with evil intent
  • 23. 23. The stages of execution of a felony are:
A) Planned, attempted, completed
B) Attempted, frustrated, consummated
C) Attempted, frustrated, consummated
D) Initiated, continuing, completed
E) Preparatory, attempted, completed
  • 24. 24. A felony is consummated when:
A) The offender performs some acts of execution
B) The offender merely plans the crime
C) All elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present
D) The offender begins execution
E) All elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present
  • 25. 25. A felony is frustrated when:
A) The offender performs all acts of execution but the felony is not produced due to causes independent of his will
B) The offender does nothing
C) The felony is completed
D) The offender merely plans the crime
E) The offender performs all acts of execution but the felony is not produced due to causes independent of his will
  • 26. 26. In an attempted felony, the offender:
A) Performs overt acts but does not perform all acts of execution
B) Completes the crime
C) Performs all acts of execution
D) Abandons the crime before any overt act
E) Performs overt acts but does not perform all acts of execution
  • 27. 27. Which stages are generally punished less severely than the consummated stage?
A) Both attempted and frustrated
B) Both attempted and frustrated
C) Frustrated only
D) Attempted only
E) Neither
  • 28. 28. The impossible crime is considered a:
A) Consummated felony
B) Separate offense under Article 4
C) Civil offense only
D) Separate offense under Article
E) Light felony in every case
  • 29. 29. Preparatory acts are generally:
A) Always considered attempted felonies
B) Always punishable
C) Never punishable under any law
D) Not punishable as the intended felony unless independently criminalized
E) Not punishable as the intended felony unless independently criminalized
  • 30. 30. A person fires a gun at another intending to kill him, but the bullet misses and no
    injury occurs. If the offender commenced execution but did not perform all acts
    necessary, this may constitute:
A) Consummated homicide
B) Frustrated homicide
C) Impossible crime automatically
D) Attempted homicide
E) Attempted homicide
  • 31. 31. Conspiracy exists when:
A) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony
B) Two or more persons merely know each other
C) Two persons accidentally commit the same offense
D) Two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony
E) One person thinks about committing a felony
  • 32. 32. As a general rule, conspiracy is:
A) Punishable only in light felonies
B) Always punishable
C) Never relevant to criminal liability
D) Not punishable unless the law specially provides
E) Not punishable unless the law specially provides
  • 33. 33. Proposal to commit a felony exists when:
A) A crime has already been consummated
B) A person who has decided to commit a felony proposes its execution to another person
C) Two persons accidentally meet
D) A person decides alone to commit a crime
E) A person who has decided to commit a felony proposes its execution to another person
  • 34. 34. Conspiracy may be established through:
A) Circumstantial evidence showing a common purpose and concerted action
B) Confession only
C) Express agreement only
D) Written agreement only
E) Circumstantial evidence showing a common purpose and concerted action
  • 35. 35. When conspiracy is established in a felony, the conspirators generally become:
A) Principals
B) Principals
C) Accessories only
D) Accomplices automatically in all cases
E) Civilly liable only
  • 36. 36. Under Article 4, criminal liability may arise from:
A) Thoughts alone
B) Lawful acts only
C) A felonious act resulting in a wrongful consequence different from that intended
D) A felonious act resulting in a wrongful consequence different from that intended
E) Purely accidental acts without negligence
  • 37. 37. The rule el que es causa de la causa es causa del mal causado means:
A) The cause of the cause is the cause of the evil caused
B) No one is liable for another's act
C) Only direct perpetrators are liable
D) Ignorance excuses everyone
E) The cause of the cause is the cause of the evil caused
  • 38. 38. A person who commits an intentional felony is generally liable for:
A) Civil liability only
B) The natural and logical consequences of his felonious act, subject to law
C) The natural and logical consequences of his felonious act, subject to law
D) Only the precise result he intended
E) No consequences beyond his intention
  • 39. 39.Aberratio ictus refers to:
A) Accident
B) Mistake in identity
C) Mistake of law
D) Mistake in blow
E) Mistake in blow
  • 40. 40. Error in personae means:
A) Mistake in motive
B) Mistake in the weapon
C) Mistake in law
D) Mistake in identity of the victim
E) Mistake in identity of the victim
  • 41. 41.Praeter intentionem refers to:
A) Consequence more serious than that intended
B) Consequence more serious than that intended
C) Accident without negligence
D) Mistake in location
E) Mistake in identity
  • 42. 42. Which circumstance may mitigate criminal liability when properly established?
A) Treachery
B) Praeter intentionem
C) Recidivism
D) Praeter intentionem
E) Evident premeditation
  • 43. 43. A person intends to kill A but mistakenly kills B. This is an example of:
A) Aberratio ictus
B) Error in personae
C) Impossible crime
D) Praeter intentionem
E) Error in personae
  • 44. 44. A person aims at A but the bullet hits B instead. This is generally called:
A) Conspiracy
B) Aberratio ictus
C) Praeter intentionem
D) Aberratio ictus
E) Error in personae
  • 45. 45. A person intends only to cause slight physical injury but unexpectedly causes death.
    This may involve:
A) Praeter intentionem
B) Conspiracy
C) Aberratio ictus
D) Praeter intentionem
E) Error in personae
  • 46. 46. Which is a justifying circumstance under Article 11?
A) Self-defense
B) Self-defense
C) Treachery
D) Voluntary surrender
E) Recidivism
  • 47. 47. The basic elements of self-defense include unlawful aggression, reasonable
    necessity of the means employed, and:
A) Voluntary surrender
B) Conspiracy
C) Lack of sufficient provocation by the defender
D) Lack of sufficient provocation by the defender
E) Previous conviction
  • 48. 48. The indispensable element of self-defense is:
A) Motive
B) Treachery
C) Unlawful aggression
D) Unlawful aggression
E) Premeditation
  • 49. 49. If there is no unlawful aggression, there can generally be no:
A) Alibi
B) Recidivism
C) Self-defense
D) Self-defense
E) Conspiracy
  • 50. 50. Defense of relatives requires, among other things:
A) Prior conviction of the aggressor
B) Unlawful aggression
C) Unlawful aggression
D) Recidivism
E) Treachery
  • 51. 51. Defense of strangers may be invoked when the defender is not induced by:
A) Revenge, resentment, or other evil motive
B) Necessity
C) Fear
D) Good faith
E) Revenge, resentment, or other evil motive
  • 52. 52. A person acts in defense of property. Under the law, the use of force must still be:
A) Punishable in every case
B) Always unlimited
C) Reasonably necessary under the circumstances
D) Reasonably necessary under the circumstances
E) Automatically deadly
  • 53. 53. State of necessity may justify an act when the person causing the lesser injury:
A) Intended to commit a felony
B) Was a habitual delinquent
C) Was not acting with evil motive and the statutory requirements are met
D) Was motivated by revenge
E) Was not acting with evil motive and the statutory requirements are met
  • 54. 54. Fulfillment of duty or lawful exercise of a right is a:
A) Justifying circumstance
B) Aggravating circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Alternative circumstance
E) Justifying circumstance
  • 55. 55. A person who exceeds the limits of a justifying circumstance may incur:
A) No liability under any circumstances
B) Civil liability only
C) Liability, subject to the applicable rules
D) Liability, subject to the applicable rules
E) Automatic acquittal
  • 56. 56. Which is generally an exempting circumstance?
A) Insanity under the circumstances provided by law
B) Recidivism
C) Insanity under the circumstances provided by law
D) Evident premeditation
E) Treachery
  • 57. 57. Insanity may exempt an accused when the person was:
A) Emotionally upset
B) Merely angry
C) Mentally incapable of understanding the nature or significance of the act at the time ofits commission, under the legal standard
D) Mentally incapable of understanding the nature or significance of the act at the time of its commission, under the legal standard
E) Drunk
  • 58. 58. Minority may affect criminal liability under:
A) Article 100 only
B) Article 1 only
C) Article 12 and special laws applicable to minors
D) Article 12 and special laws applicable to minors
E) Article 25 only
  • 59. 59. A person who acts under irresistible force may be:
A) Automatically an accessory
B) Exempt from criminal liability if the legal requirements are present
C) Exempt from criminal liability if the legal requirements are present
D) Always aggravating
E) Always mitigating only
  • 60. 60. Uncontrollable fear may exempt a person when the fear is:
A) Based solely on embarrassment
B) Real, imminent, and sufficiently compelling under the law
C) Merely inconvenient
D) Real, imminent, and sufficiently compelling under the law
E) Imaginary
  • 61. 61. An accident may exempt a person when the act was:
A) Performed recklessly
B) Performed with negligence
C) Felonious and intentional
D) Lawful, performed with due care, and without fault or intent
E) Lawful, performed with due care, and without fault or intent
  • 62. 62. A person acting under an irresistible force is exempt because the person's act lacks:
A) Voluntariness required for criminal responsibility
B) A weapon
C) A victim
D) Voluntariness required for criminal responsibility
E) A motive
  • 63. 63. Which is a mitigating circumstance?
A) Treachery
B) Voluntary surrender
C) Evident premeditation
D) Voluntary surrender
E) Recidivism
  • 64. 64. Voluntary surrender requires that the offender:
A) Spontaneously submit to a person in authority or agent and acknowledge the offense or surrender under the legal requirements
B) Deny the offense
C) Be arrested after a long chase
D) Hide from authorities
E) Spontaneously submit to a person in authority or agent and acknowledge the offense or surrender under the legal requirements
  • 65. 65. Voluntary surrender is generally considered:
A) Mitigating
B) Justifying
C) Exempting
D) Mitigating
E) Aggravating
  • 66. 66. Plea of guilty is mitigating when:
A) Made before the prosecution begins presenting evidence, under the legal requirements
B) Made after presentation of all prosecution evidence
C) Made during appeal only
D) Made only after conviction
E) Made before the prosecution begins presenting evidence, under the legal requirements
  • 67. 67. Treachery is also known as:
A) Reiteracion
B) Alevosia
C) Alevosia
D) Recidivism
E) Passion
  • 68. 68. Treachery exists when the offender:
A) Voluntarily surrenders
B) Commits the offense through negligence
C) Uses means that ensure execution without risk to himself arising from the defense theoffended party might makeActs in self-defense
D) Uses means that ensure execution without risk to himself arising from the defense the offended party might make
  • 69. 69. Evident premeditation relates primarily to:
A) The victim's provocation
B) The offender's prior determination to commit the crime
C) The offender's prior determination to commit the crime
D) The offender's voluntary surrender
E) The offender's intoxication
  • 70. 70. Recidivism exists when the offender:
A) Has never been convicted
B) Commits a crime through negligence
C) Has previously been convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code
D) Is a first-time offender
E) Has previously been convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code
  • 71. 71. Which is an aggravating circumstance?
A) Plea of guilty
B) Voluntary surrender
C) Treachery
D) Minority
E) Treachery
  • 72. 72. Which circumstance may be considered an alternative circumstance?
A) Relationship
B) Relationship
C) Treachery
D) Evident premeditation
E) Recidivism
  • 73. 73. Intoxication is generally:
A) Always mitigating
B) Mitigating if not habitual or subsequent and if the legal requirements are met; aggravating when habitual or intentional
C) Mitigating if not habitual or subsequent and if the legal requirements are met; aggravating when habitual or intentional
D) Always exempting
E) Always aggravating
  • 74. 74. Passion or obfuscation may be:
A) Mitigating
B) Exempting
C) Justifying
D) Mitigating
E) Aggravating
  • 75. 75. Ignorance of the law is generally:
A) A justifying circumstance
B) An aggravating circumstance
C) Not an excuse from compliance with penal laws
D) An excuse from criminal liability
E) Not an excuse from compliance with penal laws
  • 76. 76. Under Article 16, persons criminally liable for grave and less grave felonies may
    include:
A) Victims only
B) Judges only
C) Witnesses only
D) Principals, accomplices, and accessories
E) Principals, accomplices, and accessories
  • 77. 77. The person who directly takes part in the execution of a felony is generally a:
A) Accomplice
B) Accessory
C) Witness
D) Principal
E) Principal
  • 78. 78. A principal by inducement is one who:
A) Receives stolen property without knowledge
B) Directly induces another to commit the felony, with the inducement being the determining cause
C) Helps conceal the crime afterward
D) Merely knows about the crime
E) Directly induces another to commit the felony, with the inducement being the determining cause
  • 79. 79. A principal by indispensable cooperation is one whose cooperation:
A) Occurs only after the crime
B) Is unnecessary
C) Is indispensable to the commission of the offense
D) Is indispensable to the commission of the offense
E) Is purely accidental
  • 80. 80. An accomplice is one who:
A) Helps the offender after the crime only
B) Participates before or during the commission of the crime by previous or simultaneous acts, but is not a principal
C) Is the victim
D) Participates before or during the commission of the crime by previous or simultaneous acts, but is not a principal
E) Merely knows the offender
  • 81. 81. An accessory participates:
A) After the crime, under circumstances specified by law
B) After the crime, under circumstances specified by law
C) Only through negligence
D) During the crime only
E) Before the crime only
  • 82. 82. Which is an example of an accessory act?
A) Accidentally meeting the offender
B) Profiting from the effects of the crime with the knowledge specified by law
C) Refusing to testify
D) Merely witnessing the crime
E) Profiting from the effects of the crime with the knowledge specified by law
  • 83. 83.An accessory who harbors or conceals the principal may incur liability when:
A) He is completely unaware of the crime
B) The statutory conditions are present
C) He is the victim
D) He acts under lawful authority
E) The statutory conditions are present
  • 84. 84. As a general rule, certain relatives specified in Article 20 may be exempt from
    accessory liability, subject to:
A) Exceptions provided by law
B) Civil Code provisions only
C) No exceptions
D) Automatic imprisonment
E) Exceptions provided by law
  • 85. 85. The liability of principals, accomplices, and accessories is:
A) Always exactly the same
B) Determined by the police officer
C) Distinguished according to their participation and the law
D) Distinguished according to their participation and the law
E) Determined solely by the victim
  • 86. 86. Which is a principal penalty under the Revised Penal Code?
A) Reclusion perpetua
B) Confiscation
C) Reclusion perpetua
D) Civil indemnity
E) Costs
  • 87. 87. Which is an accessory penalty?
A) Perpetual or temporary absolute disqualification
B) Perpetual or temporary absolute disqualification
C) Prisión mayor
D) Reclusion temporal
E) Arresto mayor
  • 88. 88. The principal penalties are classified as:
A) Afflictive, correctional, and light, among other classifications provided by law
B) Monetary only
C) Criminal and constitutional
D) Civil and administrative only
E) Afflictive, correctional, and light, among other classifications provided by law
  • 89. 89. Reclusion perpetua is classified as:
A) Afflictive
B) Correctional
C) Municipal
D) Afflictive
E) Light
  • 90. 90.Prisión correctional is generally classified as:
A) Afflictive
B) Light
C) Capital
D) Correctional
E) Correctional
  • 91. 91. Arresto menor is generally classified as:
A) Capital
B) Light
C) Light
D) Correctional
E) Afflictive
  • 92. 92. The duration of prisión mayor is:
A) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
B) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
C) 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
D) 20 years and 1 day to 40 years
E) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
  • 93. 93. The duration of reclusion temporal is generally:
A) 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
B) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
C) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
D) 20 years and 1 day to 40 years
E) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
  • 94. 94. The duration of prisión correctional is generally:
A) 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
B) 12 years and 1 day to 20 years
C) 6 years and 1 day to 12 years
D) month and 1 day to 6 months
E) 6 months and 1 day to 6 years
  • 95. 95. The three periods of divisible penalties are:
A) Ordinary, special, extraordinary
B) First, second, third
C) Minimum, medium, maximum
D) Low, middle, high
E) Minimum, medium, maximum
  • 96. 96. Under the three-fold rule, the maximum duration of the convict's imprisonment shallnot exceed:
A) Twice the most severe penalty
B) Three times the length of time corresponding to the most severe penalty imposed
C) Ten years in all cases
D) Three times the length of time corresponding to the most severe penalty imposed
E) Five times the shortest penalty
  • 97. 97. The three-fold rule is subject to a maximum limit of:
A) 40 years
B) 40 years
C) 50 years
D) 30 years
E) 20 years
  • 98. 98.Which is a mode of total extinction of criminal liability?
A) Commutation
B) Conditional pardon
C) Death of the accused, as to personal penalties, subject to the law
D) Death of the accused, as to personal penalties, subject to the law
E) Good conduct allowance
  • 99. 99. Which is a mode of partial extinction of criminal liability under Article 94?
A) Conditional pardon
B) Acquittal
C) Death of the offender
D) Prescription of the crime
E) Conditional pardon
  • 100. 100. Under R.A. No. 10592, good-conduct time allowance may result in:
A) Deduction from the period of imprisonment
B) Cancellation of the conviction
C) Automatic acquittal
D) Erasure of the criminal record
E) Deduction from the period of imprisonment
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