CDI #8 TECWRI 2
  • 1. Which law is known as the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012?
A) RA 10173
B) RA 9995
C) RA 10175
D) RA 9484
  • 2. Which law protects personal information and regulates its processing?
A) RA 10175
B) RA 10173
C) RA 4200
D) RA 9995
  • 3. Unauthorized access to another person’s computer system is known as:
A) Cyber-sabotage
B) Cyber-libel
C) Data Interference
D) Illegal Access
  • 4. Which of the following is a violation of RA 10173?
A) Stealing personal data without consent
B) Hacking a Wi-Fi password
C) Unauthorized fishing activities
D) Posting fake news online
  • 5. Cyber-libel under RA 10175 refers to libel committed through:
A) Personal letters
B) Text messages
C) Radio broadcast
D) Computer system or online platform
  • 6. Which is NOT protected under the Data Privacy Act?
A) Anonymous data with no identifiers
B) Personal information
C) Statistical raw data with identity
D) Privileged information
  • 7. Who is the chief implementing agency of RA 10173?
A) DICT
B) NPC (National Privacy Commission)
C) PNP-ACG
D) NBI
  • 8. Cybersex is punishable under:
A) RA 9208
B) RA 9995
C) RA 9262
D) RA 10175
  • 9. Which is considered “computer-related identity theft”?
A) Posting insults online
B) Using another’s personal data without authority
C) Downloading pirated movies
D) Changing online photos
  • 10. The destruction of computer data is called:
A) Illegal access
B) System interference
C) Cyber-libel
D) Data interference
  • 11. RA 10173 applies to personal information processed by:
A) Private companies
B) Individuals
C) All of the above
D) Government agencies
  • 12. Phishing is best described as:
A) Unauthorized CCTV monitoring
B) Using malware to crash systems
C) Tracking IP addresses
D) Fraudulently acquiring personal information
  • 13. Highly sensitive personal information includes:
A) Nickname
B) Health information
C) Age
D) Citizenship
  • 14. Child pornography online is punishable under:
A) RA 9165
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9262
D) RA 9775 and RA 10175
  • 15. “Spoofing” refers to:
A) Unauthorized surveillance
B) Destroying data
C) DNS corruption
D) Using fake identity or email headers
  • 16. The unauthorized alteration of computer data is:
A) Computer forgery
B) Data interference
C) System interference
D) Cyber fraud
  • 17. The use of a computer to commit fraud is punishable under:
A) Computer-related offense
B) Content-related offense
C) All of the above
D) Device misuse
  • 18. The Data Privacy Act primarily protects:
A) Rights of data subjects
B) Government databases
C) Corporate records
D) Digital files
  • 19. Which is NOT required under Data Privacy Act?
A) Data retention policy
B) Consent for data processing
C) Unlimited free access to data
D) Data privacy officer
  • 20. Who is responsible for securing personal data within an organization?
A) CEO
B) All employees
C) Data Privacy Officer
D) IT staff
  • 21. “Digital evidence” refers to information stored or transferred using:
A) Radio
B) Books
C) Digital devices
D) Newspapers
  • 22. A cybercrime search warrant is needed when accessing:
A) Blogs
B) Private computer files
C) Public social media posts
D) Bulletin boards
  • 23. Failing to secure personal information resulting in a data breach is a:
A) Civil offense
B) Criminal offense
C) Administrative offense
D) All of the above
  • 24. Which is an example of “content-related offense”?
A) Child pornography
B) Illegal access
C) Data interference
D) Cyber fraud
  • 25. Under RA 10175, aiding in the commission of a cybercrime results in:
A) Penalty reduction
B) Administrative charge
C) Same penalty as principal
D) No liability
  • 26. RA 9147 is known as:
A) Solid Waste Management Act
B) Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act
C) Fisheries Code
D) Clean Air Act
  • 27. RA 9003 focuses on:
A) Wildlife protection
B) Water pollution
C) Solid waste management
D) Air pollution control
  • 28. RA 8749 regulates:
A) Water quality
B) Toxic chemicals
C) Mining operations
D) Air quality
  • 29. RA 9275 deals with:
A) Marine wildlife
B) Hazardous waste
C) Clean water regulation
D) Clean air regulation
  • 30. The Philippine Fisheries Code prohibits:
A) Using bamboo traps
B) Using nets
C) Handline fishing
D) Using dynamite in fishing
  • 31. Possession of wildlife without permit violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 32. Open dumping is prohibited under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 33. Smoke belching vehicles violate:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 34. Discharging untreated wastewater into rivers violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 35. Which activity violates the Fisheries Code?
A) Using fine-mesh nets
B) Handline fishing
C) Culturing fish in ponds
D) Harvesting seaweeds
  • 36. Burning garbage is prohibited in:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9003 and RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 37. Killing endangered species is punishable under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 38. A barangay is required to establish a materials recovery facility (MRF) under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 39. Monitoring air quality is mandated under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 40. Illegal trading of wildlife is punished under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 41. RA 9275 regulates discharges from:
A) Industrial plants
B) Commercial establishments
C) All of the above
D) Households
  • 42. Use of cyanide in fishing violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) Fisheries Code
  • 43. Operating factories without wastewater treatment is a violation of:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 44. Burning plastics violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003 and RA 8749
C) RA 9275
  • 45. Importation of wildlife without a permit violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 46. River contamination with toxic chemicals violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) Fisheries code
  • 47. Factories emitting excessive black smoke violate:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 48. Anti-littering measures are part of:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 49. Hunting wildlife inside protected areas violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 50. Dumping waste into bodies of water violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) All of the above
  • 51. Fishing within closed seasons violates:
A) RA 9147
B) Fisheries Code
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 52. Hazardous waste disposal is regulated under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 53. Killing critically endangered animals is punishable by:
A) Fine and imprisonment
B) Fine only
C) Community service
D) Administrative penalty only
  • 54. Open burning of household waste violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749 and RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 55. Establishments must secure a discharge permit under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 56. Wildlife trafficking involves:
A) Selling domestic dogs
B) Selling common livestock
C) Selling endangered wildlife
D) Selling aquarium fish
  • 57. Health effects from smog relate to violations of:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 58. Drying fish on beaches violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) No law
D) Fisheries Code
  • 59. Improper segregation of garbage violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 60. Fishing with explosives violates:
A) Wildlife Act
B) Fisheries Code
C) Clean Air Act
D) Solid Waste Management Act
  • 61. A Cybercrime Search Warrant is issued under:
A) Rules of Court
B) Data Privacy Act
C) Rules on Cybercrime Warrants
D) NBI guidelines
  • 62. Which requires a Cybercrime Warrant?
A) Checking CCTV
B) Accessing private emails
C) Viewing public Facebook posts
D) Interviewing witnesses
  • 63. “Basic incident response” begins with:
A) Identification of the incident
B) Threat hunting
C) Arresting suspects
D) Seizing devices
  • 64. Digital evidence must be collected using:
A) Verbal descriptions
B) Random methods
C) Handwritten notes
D) Forensically sound procedures
  • 65. A write-blocker is used to:
A) Speed up copying
B) Encrypt drives
C) Delete malicious files
D) Prevent data alteration
  • 66. Chain of custody documents:
A) Evidence handling history
B) Criminal profiles
C) Interrogation details
D) Police assignments
  • 67. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Consent of suspect
B) Verbal permission
C) Judge’s certification only
D) Cyber Warrant
  • 68. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Arresting suspects
B) Photographing the scene
C) Preventing data alteration
D) Packing devices
  • 69. Volatile data is found in:
A) Memory cards
B) Hard drives
C) USB drives
D) RAM
  • 70. Which is NOT volatile evidence?
A) Hard drive files
B) Network connections
C) RAM data
D) Running processes
  • 71. Hash values ensure:
A) Network security
B) Encryption
C) Data deletion
D) Data authenticity
  • 72. Imaging a drive creates:
A) A complete bit-for-bit copy
B) Partial copy
C) Password-protected file
D) Compressed folder
  • 73. Emergency disclosure of data by a service provider requires:
A) Executive order
B) Imminent danger
C) Court warrant
D) Subpoena only
  • 74. Evidence is inadmissible if:
A) Acquired legally
B) Properly documented
C) Authenticated
D) Tampered or altered
  • 75. Capturing screenshots of ongoing cybercrime activity is part of:
A) Collection
B) Examination
C) Analysis
D) Preservation
  • 76. Incident containment aims to:
A) Arrest hackers
B) Identify motives
C) Erase malware
D) Stop further damage
  • 77. “Live forensics” is done when the device is:
A) In use / powered on
B) Corrupt
C) Destroyed
D) Turned off
  • 78. Which is NOT part of incident response?
A) Eradication
B) Containment
C) Punishment
D) Identification
  • 79. Search Warrant for Subscriber Information is called:
A) SW-DI
B) SW-ARA
C) SW-SI
D) SW-CL
  • 80. ISP logs are an example of:
A) None
B) Content data
C) Non-content data
D) Physical data
  • 81. Forensic analysis must be done in:
A) Anywhere
B) Home office
C) Police car
D) Laboratory
  • 82. Password cracking should be done using:
A) Social media
B) Forensic tools
C) Brute-force methods
D) Guessing
  • 83. Examination of digital evidence must produce:
A) None
B) Reports
C) Deleted data
D) Altered copies
  • 84. Which is considered digital evidence?
A) Emails
B) Cellphones
C) All of these
D) Hard drives
  • 85. Final phase of incident response:
A) Eradication
B) Containment
C) Recovery
D) Lessons learned
  • 86. Environmental cases use the:
A) Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases
B) Civil Code
C) Rules of Court
D) Special Penal Laws
  • 87. Who may file an environmental complaint?
A) Only police
B) NGOs and citizens
C) Only direct victims
D) Only government agencies
  • 88. Fisheries violations are filed before:
A) Labor courts
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Regular trial courts
D) Family courts
  • 89. Chain of custody is essential for:
A) Wildlife evidence
B) Seized explosives
C) Water samples
D) All environmental evidence
  • 90. Writ of Kalikasan protects:
A) Private contracts
B) Individuals only
C) Property disputes
D) Large-scale environmental rights
  • 91. An MRF must be maintained under:
A) RA 9003
B) Clean Air Act
C) Clean Water Act
D) Fisheries Code
  • 92. Wildlife violations require documents from:
A) DENR
B) DICT
C) DOH
D) DA
  • 93. Water pollution cases are filed under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 94. Evidence for wildlife trafficking includes:
A) All of the above
B) Specimens
C) Transport documents
D) Confiscated cages
  • 95. LGUs must prepare a 10-year solid waste plan under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) Fisheries Code
  • 96. Imprisonment for wildlife killing depends on:
A) Weather condition
B) Species classification
C) Municipality type
D) Age of violator
  • 97. Evidence collection in environmental crimes must follow:
A) No documentation needed
B) Scientific protocols
C) Verbal timelines
D) Guesswork
  • 98. Pollution cases usually require:
A) Laboratory tests
B) None
C) Lie detector tests
D) DNA tests
  • 99. Confiscated explosives in fishing cases are handled by:
A) DENR
B) PNP EOD
C) Bureau of Fisheries
D) DA
  • 100. Final step in filing environmental cases:
A) Filing complaint and evidence with prosecutor
B) Arrest
C) Laboratory test
D) Collection only
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