CDI #8 TECWRI 2
  • 1. Which law is known as the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012?
A) RA 10173
B) RA 9484
C) RA 9995
D) RA 10175
  • 2. Which law protects personal information and regulates its processing?
A) RA 10173
B) RA 4200
C) RA 10175
D) RA 9995
  • 3. Unauthorized access to another person’s computer system is known as:
A) Data Interference
B) Cyber-sabotage
C) Cyber-libel
D) Illegal Access
  • 4. Which of the following is a violation of RA 10173?
A) Unauthorized fishing activities
B) Stealing personal data without consent
C) Posting fake news online
D) Hacking a Wi-Fi password
  • 5. Cyber-libel under RA 10175 refers to libel committed through:
A) Text messages
B) Radio broadcast
C) Computer system or online platform
D) Personal letters
  • 6. Which is NOT protected under the Data Privacy Act?
A) Anonymous data with no identifiers
B) Statistical raw data with identity
C) Personal information
D) Privileged information
  • 7. Who is the chief implementing agency of RA 10173?
A) DICT
B) NBI
C) PNP-ACG
D) NPC (National Privacy Commission)
  • 8. Cybersex is punishable under:
A) RA 9208
B) RA 9262
C) RA 9995
D) RA 10175
  • 9. Which is considered “computer-related identity theft”?
A) Posting insults online
B) Changing online photos
C) Downloading pirated movies
D) Using another’s personal data without authority
  • 10. The destruction of computer data is called:
A) Cyber-libel
B) Illegal access
C) System interference
D) Data interference
  • 11. RA 10173 applies to personal information processed by:
A) Individuals
B) All of the above
C) Private companies
D) Government agencies
  • 12. Phishing is best described as:
A) Using malware to crash systems
B) Fraudulently acquiring personal information
C) Unauthorized CCTV monitoring
D) Tracking IP addresses
  • 13. Highly sensitive personal information includes:
A) Citizenship
B) Health information
C) Age
D) Nickname
  • 14. Child pornography online is punishable under:
A) RA 9775 and RA 10175
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9262
D) RA 9165
  • 15. “Spoofing” refers to:
A) Destroying data
B) Unauthorized surveillance
C) DNS corruption
D) Using fake identity or email headers
  • 16. The unauthorized alteration of computer data is:
A) Cyber fraud
B) System interference
C) Data interference
D) Computer forgery
  • 17. The use of a computer to commit fraud is punishable under:
A) All of the above
B) Device misuse
C) Computer-related offense
D) Content-related offense
  • 18. The Data Privacy Act primarily protects:
A) Rights of data subjects
B) Government databases
C) Corporate records
D) Digital files
  • 19. Which is NOT required under Data Privacy Act?
A) Consent for data processing
B) Data retention policy
C) Unlimited free access to data
D) Data privacy officer
  • 20. Who is responsible for securing personal data within an organization?
A) IT staff
B) All employees
C) Data Privacy Officer
D) CEO
  • 21. “Digital evidence” refers to information stored or transferred using:
A) Digital devices
B) Radio
C) Books
D) Newspapers
  • 22. A cybercrime search warrant is needed when accessing:
A) Bulletin boards
B) Private computer files
C) Blogs
D) Public social media posts
  • 23. Failing to secure personal information resulting in a data breach is a:
A) All of the above
B) Criminal offense
C) Civil offense
D) Administrative offense
  • 24. Which is an example of “content-related offense”?
A) Illegal access
B) Cyber fraud
C) Data interference
D) Child pornography
  • 25. Under RA 10175, aiding in the commission of a cybercrime results in:
A) No liability
B) Same penalty as principal
C) Administrative charge
D) Penalty reduction
  • 26. RA 9147 is known as:
A) Clean Air Act
B) Solid Waste Management Act
C) Fisheries Code
D) Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act
  • 27. RA 9003 focuses on:
A) Solid waste management
B) Air pollution control
C) Water pollution
D) Wildlife protection
  • 28. RA 8749 regulates:
A) Toxic chemicals
B) Mining operations
C) Water quality
D) Air quality
  • 29. RA 9275 deals with:
A) Hazardous waste
B) Marine wildlife
C) Clean air regulation
D) Clean water regulation
  • 30. The Philippine Fisheries Code prohibits:
A) Using dynamite in fishing
B) Using bamboo traps
C) Handline fishing
D) Using nets
  • 31. Possession of wildlife without permit violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 32. Open dumping is prohibited under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 33. Smoke belching vehicles violate:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 8749
  • 34. Discharging untreated wastewater into rivers violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 35. Which activity violates the Fisheries Code?
A) Handline fishing
B) Using fine-mesh nets
C) Harvesting seaweeds
D) Culturing fish in ponds
  • 36. Burning garbage is prohibited in:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9003 and RA 8749
D) RA 8749
  • 37. Killing endangered species is punishable under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 38. A barangay is required to establish a materials recovery facility (MRF) under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 39. Monitoring air quality is mandated under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 40. Illegal trading of wildlife is punished under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 41. RA 9275 regulates discharges from:
A) All of the above
B) Commercial establishments
C) Industrial plants
D) Households
  • 42. Use of cyanide in fishing violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 43. Operating factories without wastewater treatment is a violation of:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 44. Burning plastics violates:
A) RA 9003 and RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
  • 45. Importation of wildlife without a permit violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 46. River contamination with toxic chemicals violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) Fisheries code
D) RA 9003
  • 47. Factories emitting excessive black smoke violate:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 48. Anti-littering measures are part of:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 49. Hunting wildlife inside protected areas violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 50. Dumping waste into bodies of water violates:
A) RA 9003
B) All of the above
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 51. Fishing within closed seasons violates:
A) RA 9003
B) Fisheries Code
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 52. Hazardous waste disposal is regulated under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 53. Killing critically endangered animals is punishable by:
A) Community service
B) Administrative penalty only
C) Fine and imprisonment
D) Fine only
  • 54. Open burning of household waste violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749 and RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) Fisheries Code
  • 55. Establishments must secure a discharge permit under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 56. Wildlife trafficking involves:
A) Selling common livestock
B) Selling aquarium fish
C) Selling domestic dogs
D) Selling endangered wildlife
  • 57. Health effects from smog relate to violations of:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 58. Drying fish on beaches violates:
A) RA 9003
B) No law
C) RA 8749
D) Fisheries Code
  • 59. Improper segregation of garbage violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 60. Fishing with explosives violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) Solid Waste Management Act
C) Wildlife Act
D) Clean Air Act
  • 61. A Cybercrime Search Warrant is issued under:
A) Rules of Court
B) Data Privacy Act
C) NBI guidelines
D) Rules on Cybercrime Warrants
  • 62. Which requires a Cybercrime Warrant?
A) Interviewing witnesses
B) Accessing private emails
C) Viewing public Facebook posts
D) Checking CCTV
  • 63. “Basic incident response” begins with:
A) Seizing devices
B) Identification of the incident
C) Threat hunting
D) Arresting suspects
  • 64. Digital evidence must be collected using:
A) Random methods
B) Handwritten notes
C) Forensically sound procedures
D) Verbal descriptions
  • 65. A write-blocker is used to:
A) Encrypt drives
B) Speed up copying
C) Prevent data alteration
D) Delete malicious files
  • 66. Chain of custody documents:
A) Evidence handling history
B) Police assignments
C) Interrogation details
D) Criminal profiles
  • 67. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Consent of suspect
B) Cyber Warrant
C) Judge’s certification only
D) Verbal permission
  • 68. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Packing devices
B) Preventing data alteration
C) Photographing the scene
D) Arresting suspects
  • 69. Volatile data is found in:
A) RAM
B) Hard drives
C) USB drives
D) Memory cards
  • 70. Which is NOT volatile evidence?
A) Running processes
B) Network connections
C) Hard drive files
D) RAM data
  • 71. Hash values ensure:
A) Encryption
B) Network security
C) Data authenticity
D) Data deletion
  • 72. Imaging a drive creates:
A) Password-protected file
B) A complete bit-for-bit copy
C) Compressed folder
D) Partial copy
  • 73. Emergency disclosure of data by a service provider requires:
A) Court warrant
B) Executive order
C) Subpoena only
D) Imminent danger
  • 74. Evidence is inadmissible if:
A) Acquired legally
B) Properly documented
C) Authenticated
D) Tampered or altered
  • 75. Capturing screenshots of ongoing cybercrime activity is part of:
A) Analysis
B) Collection
C) Preservation
D) Examination
  • 76. Incident containment aims to:
A) Arrest hackers
B) Stop further damage
C) Identify motives
D) Erase malware
  • 77. “Live forensics” is done when the device is:
A) In use / powered on
B) Corrupt
C) Destroyed
D) Turned off
  • 78. Which is NOT part of incident response?
A) Eradication
B) Containment
C) Punishment
D) Identification
  • 79. Search Warrant for Subscriber Information is called:
A) SW-SI
B) SW-ARA
C) SW-CL
D) SW-DI
  • 80. ISP logs are an example of:
A) Non-content data
B) Physical data
C) Content data
D) None
  • 81. Forensic analysis must be done in:
A) Home office
B) Police car
C) Anywhere
D) Laboratory
  • 82. Password cracking should be done using:
A) Brute-force methods
B) Forensic tools
C) Social media
D) Guessing
  • 83. Examination of digital evidence must produce:
A) Deleted data
B) None
C) Altered copies
D) Reports
  • 84. Which is considered digital evidence?
A) All of these
B) Cellphones
C) Emails
D) Hard drives
  • 85. Final phase of incident response:
A) Lessons learned
B) Containment
C) Eradication
D) Recovery
  • 86. Environmental cases use the:
A) Special Penal Laws
B) Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases
C) Rules of Court
D) Civil Code
  • 87. Who may file an environmental complaint?
A) Only government agencies
B) NGOs and citizens
C) Only police
D) Only direct victims
  • 88. Fisheries violations are filed before:
A) Labor courts
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Regular trial courts
D) Family courts
  • 89. Chain of custody is essential for:
A) Seized explosives
B) All environmental evidence
C) Water samples
D) Wildlife evidence
  • 90. Writ of Kalikasan protects:
A) Private contracts
B) Large-scale environmental rights
C) Property disputes
D) Individuals only
  • 91. An MRF must be maintained under:
A) Clean Water Act
B) RA 9003
C) Clean Air Act
D) Fisheries Code
  • 92. Wildlife violations require documents from:
A) DOH
B) DENR
C) DA
D) DICT
  • 93. Water pollution cases are filed under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 94. Evidence for wildlife trafficking includes:
A) Specimens
B) Transport documents
C) Confiscated cages
D) All of the above
  • 95. LGUs must prepare a 10-year solid waste plan under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) Fisheries Code
  • 96. Imprisonment for wildlife killing depends on:
A) Age of violator
B) Species classification
C) Municipality type
D) Weather condition
  • 97. Evidence collection in environmental crimes must follow:
A) Verbal timelines
B) No documentation needed
C) Scientific protocols
D) Guesswork
  • 98. Pollution cases usually require:
A) Laboratory tests
B) None
C) Lie detector tests
D) DNA tests
  • 99. Confiscated explosives in fishing cases are handled by:
A) DA
B) PNP EOD
C) DENR
D) Bureau of Fisheries
  • 100. Final step in filing environmental cases:
A) Laboratory test
B) Filing complaint and evidence with prosecutor
C) Arrest
D) Collection only
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