CDI #8 TECWRI 2
  • 1. Which law is known as the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012?
A) RA 10173
B) RA 9995
C) RA 10175
D) RA 9484
  • 2. Which law protects personal information and regulates its processing?
A) RA 9995
B) RA 4200
C) RA 10173
D) RA 10175
  • 3. Unauthorized access to another person’s computer system is known as:
A) Cyber-sabotage
B) Illegal Access
C) Cyber-libel
D) Data Interference
  • 4. Which of the following is a violation of RA 10173?
A) Unauthorized fishing activities
B) Stealing personal data without consent
C) Hacking a Wi-Fi password
D) Posting fake news online
  • 5. Cyber-libel under RA 10175 refers to libel committed through:
A) Text messages
B) Personal letters
C) Radio broadcast
D) Computer system or online platform
  • 6. Which is NOT protected under the Data Privacy Act?
A) Anonymous data with no identifiers
B) Statistical raw data with identity
C) Personal information
D) Privileged information
  • 7. Who is the chief implementing agency of RA 10173?
A) PNP-ACG
B) DICT
C) NBI
D) NPC (National Privacy Commission)
  • 8. Cybersex is punishable under:
A) RA 10175
B) RA 9262
C) RA 9208
D) RA 9995
  • 9. Which is considered “computer-related identity theft”?
A) Posting insults online
B) Using another’s personal data without authority
C) Changing online photos
D) Downloading pirated movies
  • 10. The destruction of computer data is called:
A) Illegal access
B) Cyber-libel
C) System interference
D) Data interference
  • 11. RA 10173 applies to personal information processed by:
A) All of the above
B) Private companies
C) Individuals
D) Government agencies
  • 12. Phishing is best described as:
A) Using malware to crash systems
B) Unauthorized CCTV monitoring
C) Tracking IP addresses
D) Fraudulently acquiring personal information
  • 13. Highly sensitive personal information includes:
A) Nickname
B) Age
C) Health information
D) Citizenship
  • 14. Child pornography online is punishable under:
A) RA 9262
B) RA 9165
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9775 and RA 10175
  • 15. “Spoofing” refers to:
A) DNS corruption
B) Destroying data
C) Unauthorized surveillance
D) Using fake identity or email headers
  • 16. The unauthorized alteration of computer data is:
A) Data interference
B) Cyber fraud
C) Computer forgery
D) System interference
  • 17. The use of a computer to commit fraud is punishable under:
A) Device misuse
B) Computer-related offense
C) All of the above
D) Content-related offense
  • 18. The Data Privacy Act primarily protects:
A) Corporate records
B) Rights of data subjects
C) Government databases
D) Digital files
  • 19. Which is NOT required under Data Privacy Act?
A) Data privacy officer
B) Consent for data processing
C) Data retention policy
D) Unlimited free access to data
  • 20. Who is responsible for securing personal data within an organization?
A) All employees
B) Data Privacy Officer
C) IT staff
D) CEO
  • 21. “Digital evidence” refers to information stored or transferred using:
A) Radio
B) Digital devices
C) Newspapers
D) Books
  • 22. A cybercrime search warrant is needed when accessing:
A) Bulletin boards
B) Blogs
C) Public social media posts
D) Private computer files
  • 23. Failing to secure personal information resulting in a data breach is a:
A) All of the above
B) Administrative offense
C) Criminal offense
D) Civil offense
  • 24. Which is an example of “content-related offense”?
A) Child pornography
B) Illegal access
C) Cyber fraud
D) Data interference
  • 25. Under RA 10175, aiding in the commission of a cybercrime results in:
A) Penalty reduction
B) Same penalty as principal
C) No liability
D) Administrative charge
  • 26. RA 9147 is known as:
A) Fisheries Code
B) Clean Air Act
C) Solid Waste Management Act
D) Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act
  • 27. RA 9003 focuses on:
A) Air pollution control
B) Wildlife protection
C) Water pollution
D) Solid waste management
  • 28. RA 8749 regulates:
A) Toxic chemicals
B) Air quality
C) Water quality
D) Mining operations
  • 29. RA 9275 deals with:
A) Clean water regulation
B) Marine wildlife
C) Hazardous waste
D) Clean air regulation
  • 30. The Philippine Fisheries Code prohibits:
A) Using nets
B) Using dynamite in fishing
C) Using bamboo traps
D) Handline fishing
  • 31. Possession of wildlife without permit violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 32. Open dumping is prohibited under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 33. Smoke belching vehicles violate:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 34. Discharging untreated wastewater into rivers violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 35. Which activity violates the Fisheries Code?
A) Harvesting seaweeds
B) Culturing fish in ponds
C) Handline fishing
D) Using fine-mesh nets
  • 36. Burning garbage is prohibited in:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003 and RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 37. Killing endangered species is punishable under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 38. A barangay is required to establish a materials recovery facility (MRF) under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 39. Monitoring air quality is mandated under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 40. Illegal trading of wildlife is punished under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 41. RA 9275 regulates discharges from:
A) Industrial plants
B) All of the above
C) Households
D) Commercial establishments
  • 42. Use of cyanide in fishing violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 43. Operating factories without wastewater treatment is a violation of:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 44. Burning plastics violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003 and RA 8749
C) RA 9147
  • 45. Importation of wildlife without a permit violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 46. River contamination with toxic chemicals violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) Fisheries code
  • 47. Factories emitting excessive black smoke violate:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 48. Anti-littering measures are part of:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 49. Hunting wildlife inside protected areas violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 50. Dumping waste into bodies of water violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) All of the above
  • 51. Fishing within closed seasons violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 9147
  • 52. Hazardous waste disposal is regulated under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 53. Killing critically endangered animals is punishable by:
A) Fine only
B) Community service
C) Administrative penalty only
D) Fine and imprisonment
  • 54. Open burning of household waste violates:
A) RA 8749 and RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 9147
  • 55. Establishments must secure a discharge permit under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 56. Wildlife trafficking involves:
A) Selling domestic dogs
B) Selling aquarium fish
C) Selling endangered wildlife
D) Selling common livestock
  • 57. Health effects from smog relate to violations of:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 58. Drying fish on beaches violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) No law
  • 59. Improper segregation of garbage violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 60. Fishing with explosives violates:
A) Solid Waste Management Act
B) Clean Air Act
C) Fisheries Code
D) Wildlife Act
  • 61. A Cybercrime Search Warrant is issued under:
A) Rules on Cybercrime Warrants
B) NBI guidelines
C) Rules of Court
D) Data Privacy Act
  • 62. Which requires a Cybercrime Warrant?
A) Accessing private emails
B) Interviewing witnesses
C) Checking CCTV
D) Viewing public Facebook posts
  • 63. “Basic incident response” begins with:
A) Seizing devices
B) Arresting suspects
C) Identification of the incident
D) Threat hunting
  • 64. Digital evidence must be collected using:
A) Handwritten notes
B) Forensically sound procedures
C) Verbal descriptions
D) Random methods
  • 65. A write-blocker is used to:
A) Speed up copying
B) Prevent data alteration
C) Delete malicious files
D) Encrypt drives
  • 66. Chain of custody documents:
A) Police assignments
B) Interrogation details
C) Criminal profiles
D) Evidence handling history
  • 67. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Judge’s certification only
B) Verbal permission
C) Consent of suspect
D) Cyber Warrant
  • 68. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Photographing the scene
B) Packing devices
C) Arresting suspects
D) Preventing data alteration
  • 69. Volatile data is found in:
A) Hard drives
B) RAM
C) Memory cards
D) USB drives
  • 70. Which is NOT volatile evidence?
A) Network connections
B) Running processes
C) RAM data
D) Hard drive files
  • 71. Hash values ensure:
A) Data authenticity
B) Network security
C) Data deletion
D) Encryption
  • 72. Imaging a drive creates:
A) Password-protected file
B) Partial copy
C) A complete bit-for-bit copy
D) Compressed folder
  • 73. Emergency disclosure of data by a service provider requires:
A) Imminent danger
B) Executive order
C) Court warrant
D) Subpoena only
  • 74. Evidence is inadmissible if:
A) Properly documented
B) Tampered or altered
C) Acquired legally
D) Authenticated
  • 75. Capturing screenshots of ongoing cybercrime activity is part of:
A) Preservation
B) Collection
C) Examination
D) Analysis
  • 76. Incident containment aims to:
A) Stop further damage
B) Erase malware
C) Arrest hackers
D) Identify motives
  • 77. “Live forensics” is done when the device is:
A) In use / powered on
B) Corrupt
C) Destroyed
D) Turned off
  • 78. Which is NOT part of incident response?
A) Containment
B) Identification
C) Eradication
D) Punishment
  • 79. Search Warrant for Subscriber Information is called:
A) SW-SI
B) SW-CL
C) SW-ARA
D) SW-DI
  • 80. ISP logs are an example of:
A) Non-content data
B) Content data
C) Physical data
D) None
  • 81. Forensic analysis must be done in:
A) Police car
B) Home office
C) Anywhere
D) Laboratory
  • 82. Password cracking should be done using:
A) Social media
B) Forensic tools
C) Brute-force methods
D) Guessing
  • 83. Examination of digital evidence must produce:
A) Reports
B) Deleted data
C) None
D) Altered copies
  • 84. Which is considered digital evidence?
A) Hard drives
B) Cellphones
C) All of these
D) Emails
  • 85. Final phase of incident response:
A) Eradication
B) Lessons learned
C) Recovery
D) Containment
  • 86. Environmental cases use the:
A) Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases
B) Rules of Court
C) Special Penal Laws
D) Civil Code
  • 87. Who may file an environmental complaint?
A) Only government agencies
B) NGOs and citizens
C) Only police
D) Only direct victims
  • 88. Fisheries violations are filed before:
A) Labor courts
B) Regular trial courts
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Family courts
  • 89. Chain of custody is essential for:
A) Water samples
B) Seized explosives
C) All environmental evidence
D) Wildlife evidence
  • 90. Writ of Kalikasan protects:
A) Large-scale environmental rights
B) Property disputes
C) Individuals only
D) Private contracts
  • 91. An MRF must be maintained under:
A) Fisheries Code
B) Clean Water Act
C) RA 9003
D) Clean Air Act
  • 92. Wildlife violations require documents from:
A) DENR
B) DICT
C) DOH
D) DA
  • 93. Water pollution cases are filed under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 94. Evidence for wildlife trafficking includes:
A) Specimens
B) Confiscated cages
C) Transport documents
D) All of the above
  • 95. LGUs must prepare a 10-year solid waste plan under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) Fisheries Code
  • 96. Imprisonment for wildlife killing depends on:
A) Weather condition
B) Age of violator
C) Species classification
D) Municipality type
  • 97. Evidence collection in environmental crimes must follow:
A) No documentation needed
B) Scientific protocols
C) Guesswork
D) Verbal timelines
  • 98. Pollution cases usually require:
A) DNA tests
B) None
C) Lie detector tests
D) Laboratory tests
  • 99. Confiscated explosives in fishing cases are handled by:
A) DENR
B) Bureau of Fisheries
C) DA
D) PNP EOD
  • 100. Final step in filing environmental cases:
A) Arrest
B) Collection only
C) Filing complaint and evidence with prosecutor
D) Laboratory test
Created with That Quiz — the site for test creation and grading in math and other subjects.