CDI #8 TECWRI 2
  • 1. Which law is known as the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012?
A) RA 10173
B) RA 9484
C) RA 10175
D) RA 9995
  • 2. Which law protects personal information and regulates its processing?
A) RA 9995
B) RA 10175
C) RA 4200
D) RA 10173
  • 3. Unauthorized access to another person’s computer system is known as:
A) Data Interference
B) Cyber-libel
C) Illegal Access
D) Cyber-sabotage
  • 4. Which of the following is a violation of RA 10173?
A) Unauthorized fishing activities
B) Posting fake news online
C) Stealing personal data without consent
D) Hacking a Wi-Fi password
  • 5. Cyber-libel under RA 10175 refers to libel committed through:
A) Personal letters
B) Computer system or online platform
C) Radio broadcast
D) Text messages
  • 6. Which is NOT protected under the Data Privacy Act?
A) Personal information
B) Privileged information
C) Anonymous data with no identifiers
D) Statistical raw data with identity
  • 7. Who is the chief implementing agency of RA 10173?
A) DICT
B) NPC (National Privacy Commission)
C) NBI
D) PNP-ACG
  • 8. Cybersex is punishable under:
A) RA 9262
B) RA 10175
C) RA 9208
D) RA 9995
  • 9. Which is considered “computer-related identity theft”?
A) Using another’s personal data without authority
B) Changing online photos
C) Downloading pirated movies
D) Posting insults online
  • 10. The destruction of computer data is called:
A) System interference
B) Cyber-libel
C) Illegal access
D) Data interference
  • 11. RA 10173 applies to personal information processed by:
A) Individuals
B) All of the above
C) Government agencies
D) Private companies
  • 12. Phishing is best described as:
A) Using malware to crash systems
B) Tracking IP addresses
C) Unauthorized CCTV monitoring
D) Fraudulently acquiring personal information
  • 13. Highly sensitive personal information includes:
A) Age
B) Health information
C) Citizenship
D) Nickname
  • 14. Child pornography online is punishable under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9262
C) RA 9165
D) RA 9775 and RA 10175
  • 15. “Spoofing” refers to:
A) DNS corruption
B) Unauthorized surveillance
C) Destroying data
D) Using fake identity or email headers
  • 16. The unauthorized alteration of computer data is:
A) System interference
B) Data interference
C) Computer forgery
D) Cyber fraud
  • 17. The use of a computer to commit fraud is punishable under:
A) Content-related offense
B) Device misuse
C) Computer-related offense
D) All of the above
  • 18. The Data Privacy Act primarily protects:
A) Digital files
B) Rights of data subjects
C) Government databases
D) Corporate records
  • 19. Which is NOT required under Data Privacy Act?
A) Consent for data processing
B) Data privacy officer
C) Data retention policy
D) Unlimited free access to data
  • 20. Who is responsible for securing personal data within an organization?
A) Data Privacy Officer
B) All employees
C) CEO
D) IT staff
  • 21. “Digital evidence” refers to information stored or transferred using:
A) Radio
B) Newspapers
C) Digital devices
D) Books
  • 22. A cybercrime search warrant is needed when accessing:
A) Private computer files
B) Public social media posts
C) Blogs
D) Bulletin boards
  • 23. Failing to secure personal information resulting in a data breach is a:
A) Criminal offense
B) All of the above
C) Administrative offense
D) Civil offense
  • 24. Which is an example of “content-related offense”?
A) Cyber fraud
B) Data interference
C) Child pornography
D) Illegal access
  • 25. Under RA 10175, aiding in the commission of a cybercrime results in:
A) No liability
B) Same penalty as principal
C) Administrative charge
D) Penalty reduction
  • 26. RA 9147 is known as:
A) Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act
B) Fisheries Code
C) Solid Waste Management Act
D) Clean Air Act
  • 27. RA 9003 focuses on:
A) Water pollution
B) Solid waste management
C) Wildlife protection
D) Air pollution control
  • 28. RA 8749 regulates:
A) Toxic chemicals
B) Mining operations
C) Air quality
D) Water quality
  • 29. RA 9275 deals with:
A) Marine wildlife
B) Clean water regulation
C) Hazardous waste
D) Clean air regulation
  • 30. The Philippine Fisheries Code prohibits:
A) Using bamboo traps
B) Using dynamite in fishing
C) Handline fishing
D) Using nets
  • 31. Possession of wildlife without permit violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 32. Open dumping is prohibited under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 33. Smoke belching vehicles violate:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 34. Discharging untreated wastewater into rivers violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 35. Which activity violates the Fisheries Code?
A) Handline fishing
B) Using fine-mesh nets
C) Harvesting seaweeds
D) Culturing fish in ponds
  • 36. Burning garbage is prohibited in:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003 and RA 8749
  • 37. Killing endangered species is punishable under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 38. A barangay is required to establish a materials recovery facility (MRF) under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 39. Monitoring air quality is mandated under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 40. Illegal trading of wildlife is punished under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 41. RA 9275 regulates discharges from:
A) All of the above
B) Commercial establishments
C) Households
D) Industrial plants
  • 42. Use of cyanide in fishing violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 8749
  • 43. Operating factories without wastewater treatment is a violation of:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 44. Burning plastics violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003 and RA 8749
C) RA 9147
  • 45. Importation of wildlife without a permit violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 46. River contamination with toxic chemicals violates:
A) Fisheries code
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 47. Factories emitting excessive black smoke violate:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 48. Anti-littering measures are part of:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 49. Hunting wildlife inside protected areas violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 50. Dumping waste into bodies of water violates:
A) All of the above
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 51. Fishing within closed seasons violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) Fisheries Code
  • 52. Hazardous waste disposal is regulated under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 53. Killing critically endangered animals is punishable by:
A) Fine only
B) Community service
C) Administrative penalty only
D) Fine and imprisonment
  • 54. Open burning of household waste violates:
A) RA 8749 and RA 9003
B) Fisheries Code
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 55. Establishments must secure a discharge permit under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 56. Wildlife trafficking involves:
A) Selling endangered wildlife
B) Selling domestic dogs
C) Selling common livestock
D) Selling aquarium fish
  • 57. Health effects from smog relate to violations of:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 58. Drying fish on beaches violates:
A) RA 8749
B) Fisheries Code
C) No law
D) RA 9003
  • 59. Improper segregation of garbage violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 60. Fishing with explosives violates:
A) Clean Air Act
B) Fisheries Code
C) Solid Waste Management Act
D) Wildlife Act
  • 61. A Cybercrime Search Warrant is issued under:
A) Rules on Cybercrime Warrants
B) Rules of Court
C) Data Privacy Act
D) NBI guidelines
  • 62. Which requires a Cybercrime Warrant?
A) Accessing private emails
B) Checking CCTV
C) Interviewing witnesses
D) Viewing public Facebook posts
  • 63. “Basic incident response” begins with:
A) Arresting suspects
B) Identification of the incident
C) Threat hunting
D) Seizing devices
  • 64. Digital evidence must be collected using:
A) Forensically sound procedures
B) Handwritten notes
C) Verbal descriptions
D) Random methods
  • 65. A write-blocker is used to:
A) Prevent data alteration
B) Encrypt drives
C) Speed up copying
D) Delete malicious files
  • 66. Chain of custody documents:
A) Criminal profiles
B) Interrogation details
C) Evidence handling history
D) Police assignments
  • 67. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Judge’s certification only
B) Verbal permission
C) Consent of suspect
D) Cyber Warrant
  • 68. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Preventing data alteration
B) Arresting suspects
C) Packing devices
D) Photographing the scene
  • 69. Volatile data is found in:
A) RAM
B) USB drives
C) Memory cards
D) Hard drives
  • 70. Which is NOT volatile evidence?
A) Hard drive files
B) Network connections
C) RAM data
D) Running processes
  • 71. Hash values ensure:
A) Encryption
B) Data authenticity
C) Network security
D) Data deletion
  • 72. Imaging a drive creates:
A) Password-protected file
B) Partial copy
C) Compressed folder
D) A complete bit-for-bit copy
  • 73. Emergency disclosure of data by a service provider requires:
A) Court warrant
B) Imminent danger
C) Executive order
D) Subpoena only
  • 74. Evidence is inadmissible if:
A) Properly documented
B) Acquired legally
C) Tampered or altered
D) Authenticated
  • 75. Capturing screenshots of ongoing cybercrime activity is part of:
A) Analysis
B) Collection
C) Preservation
D) Examination
  • 76. Incident containment aims to:
A) Erase malware
B) Identify motives
C) Arrest hackers
D) Stop further damage
  • 77. “Live forensics” is done when the device is:
A) In use / powered on
B) Corrupt
C) Destroyed
D) Turned off
  • 78. Which is NOT part of incident response?
A) Eradication
B) Containment
C) Identification
D) Punishment
  • 79. Search Warrant for Subscriber Information is called:
A) SW-SI
B) SW-DI
C) SW-ARA
D) SW-CL
  • 80. ISP logs are an example of:
A) Non-content data
B) Content data
C) Physical data
D) None
  • 81. Forensic analysis must be done in:
A) Anywhere
B) Home office
C) Laboratory
D) Police car
  • 82. Password cracking should be done using:
A) Social media
B) Forensic tools
C) Brute-force methods
D) Guessing
  • 83. Examination of digital evidence must produce:
A) Altered copies
B) Deleted data
C) None
D) Reports
  • 84. Which is considered digital evidence?
A) Emails
B) Hard drives
C) Cellphones
D) All of these
  • 85. Final phase of incident response:
A) Eradication
B) Containment
C) Recovery
D) Lessons learned
  • 86. Environmental cases use the:
A) Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases
B) Rules of Court
C) Civil Code
D) Special Penal Laws
  • 87. Who may file an environmental complaint?
A) Only direct victims
B) Only government agencies
C) Only police
D) NGOs and citizens
  • 88. Fisheries violations are filed before:
A) Labor courts
B) Sandiganbayan
C) Regular trial courts
D) Family courts
  • 89. Chain of custody is essential for:
A) Wildlife evidence
B) All environmental evidence
C) Water samples
D) Seized explosives
  • 90. Writ of Kalikasan protects:
A) Private contracts
B) Individuals only
C) Property disputes
D) Large-scale environmental rights
  • 91. An MRF must be maintained under:
A) Clean Air Act
B) Fisheries Code
C) RA 9003
D) Clean Water Act
  • 92. Wildlife violations require documents from:
A) DA
B) DENR
C) DICT
D) DOH
  • 93. Water pollution cases are filed under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 94. Evidence for wildlife trafficking includes:
A) Confiscated cages
B) All of the above
C) Transport documents
D) Specimens
  • 95. LGUs must prepare a 10-year solid waste plan under:
A) RA 9003
B) Fisheries Code
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 96. Imprisonment for wildlife killing depends on:
A) Weather condition
B) Age of violator
C) Species classification
D) Municipality type
  • 97. Evidence collection in environmental crimes must follow:
A) Scientific protocols
B) No documentation needed
C) Verbal timelines
D) Guesswork
  • 98. Pollution cases usually require:
A) DNA tests
B) Lie detector tests
C) Laboratory tests
D) None
  • 99. Confiscated explosives in fishing cases are handled by:
A) Bureau of Fisheries
B) PNP EOD
C) DENR
D) DA
  • 100. Final step in filing environmental cases:
A) Collection only
B) Laboratory test
C) Arrest
D) Filing complaint and evidence with prosecutor
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