CDI #8 TECWRI 2
  • 1. Which law is known as the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012?
A) RA 10175
B) RA 9484
C) RA 10173
D) RA 9995
  • 2. Which law protects personal information and regulates its processing?
A) RA 10175
B) RA 10173
C) RA 9995
D) RA 4200
  • 3. Unauthorized access to another person’s computer system is known as:
A) Illegal Access
B) Cyber-libel
C) Data Interference
D) Cyber-sabotage
  • 4. Which of the following is a violation of RA 10173?
A) Posting fake news online
B) Stealing personal data without consent
C) Hacking a Wi-Fi password
D) Unauthorized fishing activities
  • 5. Cyber-libel under RA 10175 refers to libel committed through:
A) Computer system or online platform
B) Text messages
C) Radio broadcast
D) Personal letters
  • 6. Which is NOT protected under the Data Privacy Act?
A) Personal information
B) Anonymous data with no identifiers
C) Statistical raw data with identity
D) Privileged information
  • 7. Who is the chief implementing agency of RA 10173?
A) PNP-ACG
B) NBI
C) NPC (National Privacy Commission)
D) DICT
  • 8. Cybersex is punishable under:
A) RA 10175
B) RA 9995
C) RA 9208
D) RA 9262
  • 9. Which is considered “computer-related identity theft”?
A) Using another’s personal data without authority
B) Changing online photos
C) Downloading pirated movies
D) Posting insults online
  • 10. The destruction of computer data is called:
A) Cyber-libel
B) Data interference
C) System interference
D) Illegal access
  • 11. RA 10173 applies to personal information processed by:
A) Government agencies
B) Private companies
C) All of the above
D) Individuals
  • 12. Phishing is best described as:
A) Tracking IP addresses
B) Fraudulently acquiring personal information
C) Using malware to crash systems
D) Unauthorized CCTV monitoring
  • 13. Highly sensitive personal information includes:
A) Citizenship
B) Nickname
C) Age
D) Health information
  • 14. Child pornography online is punishable under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9262
C) RA 9775 and RA 10175
D) RA 9165
  • 15. “Spoofing” refers to:
A) Using fake identity or email headers
B) Unauthorized surveillance
C) Destroying data
D) DNS corruption
  • 16. The unauthorized alteration of computer data is:
A) System interference
B) Data interference
C) Computer forgery
D) Cyber fraud
  • 17. The use of a computer to commit fraud is punishable under:
A) Computer-related offense
B) Content-related offense
C) Device misuse
D) All of the above
  • 18. The Data Privacy Act primarily protects:
A) Corporate records
B) Government databases
C) Rights of data subjects
D) Digital files
  • 19. Which is NOT required under Data Privacy Act?
A) Unlimited free access to data
B) Data retention policy
C) Data privacy officer
D) Consent for data processing
  • 20. Who is responsible for securing personal data within an organization?
A) IT staff
B) Data Privacy Officer
C) All employees
D) CEO
  • 21. “Digital evidence” refers to information stored or transferred using:
A) Books
B) Radio
C) Digital devices
D) Newspapers
  • 22. A cybercrime search warrant is needed when accessing:
A) Blogs
B) Private computer files
C) Bulletin boards
D) Public social media posts
  • 23. Failing to secure personal information resulting in a data breach is a:
A) Civil offense
B) All of the above
C) Criminal offense
D) Administrative offense
  • 24. Which is an example of “content-related offense”?
A) Data interference
B) Cyber fraud
C) Child pornography
D) Illegal access
  • 25. Under RA 10175, aiding in the commission of a cybercrime results in:
A) Same penalty as principal
B) No liability
C) Penalty reduction
D) Administrative charge
  • 26. RA 9147 is known as:
A) Fisheries Code
B) Clean Air Act
C) Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act
D) Solid Waste Management Act
  • 27. RA 9003 focuses on:
A) Air pollution control
B) Water pollution
C) Solid waste management
D) Wildlife protection
  • 28. RA 8749 regulates:
A) Toxic chemicals
B) Water quality
C) Mining operations
D) Air quality
  • 29. RA 9275 deals with:
A) Hazardous waste
B) Clean air regulation
C) Marine wildlife
D) Clean water regulation
  • 30. The Philippine Fisheries Code prohibits:
A) Using bamboo traps
B) Using nets
C) Handline fishing
D) Using dynamite in fishing
  • 31. Possession of wildlife without permit violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 32. Open dumping is prohibited under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 33. Smoke belching vehicles violate:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 34. Discharging untreated wastewater into rivers violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 35. Which activity violates the Fisheries Code?
A) Culturing fish in ponds
B) Harvesting seaweeds
C) Handline fishing
D) Using fine-mesh nets
  • 36. Burning garbage is prohibited in:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003 and RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 37. Killing endangered species is punishable under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 38. A barangay is required to establish a materials recovery facility (MRF) under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 39. Monitoring air quality is mandated under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 40. Illegal trading of wildlife is punished under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 41. RA 9275 regulates discharges from:
A) Industrial plants
B) All of the above
C) Households
D) Commercial establishments
  • 42. Use of cyanide in fishing violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) Fisheries Code
  • 43. Operating factories without wastewater treatment is a violation of:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 44. Burning plastics violates:
A) RA 9003 and RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
  • 45. Importation of wildlife without a permit violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 46. River contamination with toxic chemicals violates:
A) Fisheries code
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 47. Factories emitting excessive black smoke violate:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 48. Anti-littering measures are part of:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 49. Hunting wildlife inside protected areas violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 50. Dumping waste into bodies of water violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) All of the above
  • 51. Fishing within closed seasons violates:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) Fisheries Code
  • 52. Hazardous waste disposal is regulated under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 53. Killing critically endangered animals is punishable by:
A) Fine only
B) Community service
C) Fine and imprisonment
D) Administrative penalty only
  • 54. Open burning of household waste violates:
A) RA 8749 and RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) Fisheries Code
D) RA 9275
  • 55. Establishments must secure a discharge permit under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 56. Wildlife trafficking involves:
A) Selling domestic dogs
B) Selling endangered wildlife
C) Selling aquarium fish
D) Selling common livestock
  • 57. Health effects from smog relate to violations of:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 58. Drying fish on beaches violates:
A) No law
B) Fisheries Code
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 59. Improper segregation of garbage violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 60. Fishing with explosives violates:
A) Wildlife Act
B) Clean Air Act
C) Fisheries Code
D) Solid Waste Management Act
  • 61. A Cybercrime Search Warrant is issued under:
A) Rules on Cybercrime Warrants
B) NBI guidelines
C) Rules of Court
D) Data Privacy Act
  • 62. Which requires a Cybercrime Warrant?
A) Checking CCTV
B) Interviewing witnesses
C) Accessing private emails
D) Viewing public Facebook posts
  • 63. “Basic incident response” begins with:
A) Arresting suspects
B) Threat hunting
C) Identification of the incident
D) Seizing devices
  • 64. Digital evidence must be collected using:
A) Handwritten notes
B) Random methods
C) Forensically sound procedures
D) Verbal descriptions
  • 65. A write-blocker is used to:
A) Speed up copying
B) Encrypt drives
C) Delete malicious files
D) Prevent data alteration
  • 66. Chain of custody documents:
A) Police assignments
B) Criminal profiles
C) Interrogation details
D) Evidence handling history
  • 67. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Consent of suspect
B) Cyber Warrant
C) Judge’s certification only
D) Verbal permission
  • 68. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Preventing data alteration
B) Arresting suspects
C) Photographing the scene
D) Packing devices
  • 69. Volatile data is found in:
A) USB drives
B) Hard drives
C) Memory cards
D) RAM
  • 70. Which is NOT volatile evidence?
A) RAM data
B) Network connections
C) Running processes
D) Hard drive files
  • 71. Hash values ensure:
A) Network security
B) Data authenticity
C) Data deletion
D) Encryption
  • 72. Imaging a drive creates:
A) Compressed folder
B) Partial copy
C) A complete bit-for-bit copy
D) Password-protected file
  • 73. Emergency disclosure of data by a service provider requires:
A) Imminent danger
B) Executive order
C) Court warrant
D) Subpoena only
  • 74. Evidence is inadmissible if:
A) Acquired legally
B) Properly documented
C) Authenticated
D) Tampered or altered
  • 75. Capturing screenshots of ongoing cybercrime activity is part of:
A) Preservation
B) Analysis
C) Examination
D) Collection
  • 76. Incident containment aims to:
A) Arrest hackers
B) Erase malware
C) Identify motives
D) Stop further damage
  • 77. “Live forensics” is done when the device is:
A) Corrupt
B) Turned off
C) Destroyed
D) In use / powered on
  • 78. Which is NOT part of incident response?
A) Punishment
B) Identification
C) Containment
D) Eradication
  • 79. Search Warrant for Subscriber Information is called:
A) SW-DI
B) SW-ARA
C) SW-CL
D) SW-SI
  • 80. ISP logs are an example of:
A) Content data
B) None
C) Non-content data
D) Physical data
  • 81. Forensic analysis must be done in:
A) Laboratory
B) Police car
C) Home office
D) Anywhere
  • 82. Password cracking should be done using:
A) Forensic tools
B) Brute-force methods
C) Guessing
D) Social media
  • 83. Examination of digital evidence must produce:
A) Deleted data
B) Reports
C) Altered copies
D) None
  • 84. Which is considered digital evidence?
A) Hard drives
B) Cellphones
C) Emails
D) All of these
  • 85. Final phase of incident response:
A) Recovery
B) Lessons learned
C) Containment
D) Eradication
  • 86. Environmental cases use the:
A) Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases
B) Special Penal Laws
C) Civil Code
D) Rules of Court
  • 87. Who may file an environmental complaint?
A) Only direct victims
B) Only police
C) Only government agencies
D) NGOs and citizens
  • 88. Fisheries violations are filed before:
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Regular trial courts
C) Labor courts
D) Family courts
  • 89. Chain of custody is essential for:
A) Wildlife evidence
B) All environmental evidence
C) Water samples
D) Seized explosives
  • 90. Writ of Kalikasan protects:
A) Private contracts
B) Large-scale environmental rights
C) Property disputes
D) Individuals only
  • 91. An MRF must be maintained under:
A) RA 9003
B) Clean Water Act
C) Fisheries Code
D) Clean Air Act
  • 92. Wildlife violations require documents from:
A) DICT
B) DA
C) DOH
D) DENR
  • 93. Water pollution cases are filed under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 94. Evidence for wildlife trafficking includes:
A) Specimens
B) Confiscated cages
C) Transport documents
D) All of the above
  • 95. LGUs must prepare a 10-year solid waste plan under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) Fisheries Code
  • 96. Imprisonment for wildlife killing depends on:
A) Species classification
B) Municipality type
C) Age of violator
D) Weather condition
  • 97. Evidence collection in environmental crimes must follow:
A) Guesswork
B) No documentation needed
C) Verbal timelines
D) Scientific protocols
  • 98. Pollution cases usually require:
A) DNA tests
B) Laboratory tests
C) Lie detector tests
D) None
  • 99. Confiscated explosives in fishing cases are handled by:
A) DA
B) PNP EOD
C) DENR
D) Bureau of Fisheries
  • 100. Final step in filing environmental cases:
A) Collection only
B) Arrest
C) Filing complaint and evidence with prosecutor
D) Laboratory test
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