CDI #8 TECWRI 2
  • 1. Which law is known as the Cybercrime Prevention Act of 2012?
A) RA 9995
B) RA 9484
C) RA 10173
D) RA 10175
  • 2. Which law protects personal information and regulates its processing?
A) RA 10173
B) RA 10175
C) RA 9995
D) RA 4200
  • 3. Unauthorized access to another person’s computer system is known as:
A) Data Interference
B) Illegal Access
C) Cyber-sabotage
D) Cyber-libel
  • 4. Which of the following is a violation of RA 10173?
A) Stealing personal data without consent
B) Unauthorized fishing activities
C) Hacking a Wi-Fi password
D) Posting fake news online
  • 5. Cyber-libel under RA 10175 refers to libel committed through:
A) Text messages
B) Computer system or online platform
C) Radio broadcast
D) Personal letters
  • 6. Which is NOT protected under the Data Privacy Act?
A) Privileged information
B) Statistical raw data with identity
C) Anonymous data with no identifiers
D) Personal information
  • 7. Who is the chief implementing agency of RA 10173?
A) PNP-ACG
B) DICT
C) NPC (National Privacy Commission)
D) NBI
  • 8. Cybersex is punishable under:
A) RA 9208
B) RA 9995
C) RA 10175
D) RA 9262
  • 9. Which is considered “computer-related identity theft”?
A) Using another’s personal data without authority
B) Downloading pirated movies
C) Posting insults online
D) Changing online photos
  • 10. The destruction of computer data is called:
A) System interference
B) Data interference
C) Illegal access
D) Cyber-libel
  • 11. RA 10173 applies to personal information processed by:
A) All of the above
B) Private companies
C) Government agencies
D) Individuals
  • 12. Phishing is best described as:
A) Tracking IP addresses
B) Using malware to crash systems
C) Fraudulently acquiring personal information
D) Unauthorized CCTV monitoring
  • 13. Highly sensitive personal information includes:
A) Citizenship
B) Age
C) Health information
D) Nickname
  • 14. Child pornography online is punishable under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9262
C) RA 9165
D) RA 9775 and RA 10175
  • 15. “Spoofing” refers to:
A) Destroying data
B) Using fake identity or email headers
C) DNS corruption
D) Unauthorized surveillance
  • 16. The unauthorized alteration of computer data is:
A) Cyber fraud
B) Computer forgery
C) System interference
D) Data interference
  • 17. The use of a computer to commit fraud is punishable under:
A) All of the above
B) Computer-related offense
C) Device misuse
D) Content-related offense
  • 18. The Data Privacy Act primarily protects:
A) Rights of data subjects
B) Digital files
C) Corporate records
D) Government databases
  • 19. Which is NOT required under Data Privacy Act?
A) Consent for data processing
B) Unlimited free access to data
C) Data privacy officer
D) Data retention policy
  • 20. Who is responsible for securing personal data within an organization?
A) IT staff
B) Data Privacy Officer
C) CEO
D) All employees
  • 21. “Digital evidence” refers to information stored or transferred using:
A) Radio
B) Digital devices
C) Newspapers
D) Books
  • 22. A cybercrime search warrant is needed when accessing:
A) Private computer files
B) Blogs
C) Public social media posts
D) Bulletin boards
  • 23. Failing to secure personal information resulting in a data breach is a:
A) Administrative offense
B) Criminal offense
C) Civil offense
D) All of the above
  • 24. Which is an example of “content-related offense”?
A) Cyber fraud
B) Child pornography
C) Illegal access
D) Data interference
  • 25. Under RA 10175, aiding in the commission of a cybercrime results in:
A) Same penalty as principal
B) Administrative charge
C) No liability
D) Penalty reduction
  • 26. RA 9147 is known as:
A) Clean Air Act
B) Wildlife Resources Conservation and Protection Act
C) Fisheries Code
D) Solid Waste Management Act
  • 27. RA 9003 focuses on:
A) Wildlife protection
B) Water pollution
C) Air pollution control
D) Solid waste management
  • 28. RA 8749 regulates:
A) Water quality
B) Air quality
C) Mining operations
D) Toxic chemicals
  • 29. RA 9275 deals with:
A) Clean water regulation
B) Clean air regulation
C) Marine wildlife
D) Hazardous waste
  • 30. The Philippine Fisheries Code prohibits:
A) Using bamboo traps
B) Using nets
C) Handline fishing
D) Using dynamite in fishing
  • 31. Possession of wildlife without permit violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 32. Open dumping is prohibited under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 33. Smoke belching vehicles violate:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 34. Discharging untreated wastewater into rivers violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 35. Which activity violates the Fisheries Code?
A) Handline fishing
B) Harvesting seaweeds
C) Culturing fish in ponds
D) Using fine-mesh nets
  • 36. Burning garbage is prohibited in:
A) RA 9003 and RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9147
  • 37. Killing endangered species is punishable under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 38. A barangay is required to establish a materials recovery facility (MRF) under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 39. Monitoring air quality is mandated under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9003
  • 40. Illegal trading of wildlife is punished under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 8749
  • 41. RA 9275 regulates discharges from:
A) Commercial establishments
B) Industrial plants
C) All of the above
D) Households
  • 42. Use of cyanide in fishing violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 43. Operating factories without wastewater treatment is a violation of:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 44. Burning plastics violates:
A) RA 9003 and RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9275
  • 45. Importation of wildlife without a permit violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9275
  • 46. River contamination with toxic chemicals violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) Fisheries code
D) RA 9003
  • 47. Factories emitting excessive black smoke violate:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 48. Anti-littering measures are part of:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9275
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9003
  • 49. Hunting wildlife inside protected areas violates:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 9147
  • 50. Dumping waste into bodies of water violates:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) All of the above
D) RA 8749
  • 51. Fishing within closed seasons violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 52. Hazardous waste disposal is regulated under:
A) RA 9275
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 8749
  • 53. Killing critically endangered animals is punishable by:
A) Fine and imprisonment
B) Administrative penalty only
C) Fine only
D) Community service
  • 54. Open burning of household waste violates:
A) Fisheries Code
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749 and RA 9003
D) RA 9147
  • 55. Establishments must secure a discharge permit under:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9147
C) RA 9003
D) RA 9275
  • 56. Wildlife trafficking involves:
A) Selling endangered wildlife
B) Selling aquarium fish
C) Selling common livestock
D) Selling domestic dogs
  • 57. Health effects from smog relate to violations of:
A) RA 8749
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9147
D) RA 9275
  • 58. Drying fish on beaches violates:
A) No law
B) Fisheries Code
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 59. Improper segregation of garbage violates:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9275
C) RA 8749
D) RA 9003
  • 60. Fishing with explosives violates:
A) Clean Air Act
B) Wildlife Act
C) Solid Waste Management Act
D) Fisheries Code
  • 61. A Cybercrime Search Warrant is issued under:
A) Rules of Court
B) Rules on Cybercrime Warrants
C) Data Privacy Act
D) NBI guidelines
  • 62. Which requires a Cybercrime Warrant?
A) Interviewing witnesses
B) Checking CCTV
C) Viewing public Facebook posts
D) Accessing private emails
  • 63. “Basic incident response” begins with:
A) Seizing devices
B) Arresting suspects
C) Threat hunting
D) Identification of the incident
  • 64. Digital evidence must be collected using:
A) Random methods
B) Handwritten notes
C) Forensically sound procedures
D) Verbal descriptions
  • 65. A write-blocker is used to:
A) Encrypt drives
B) Delete malicious files
C) Speed up copying
D) Prevent data alteration
  • 66. Chain of custody documents:
A) Interrogation details
B) Police assignments
C) Evidence handling history
D) Criminal profiles
  • 67. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Cyber Warrant
B) Judge’s certification only
C) Consent of suspect
D) Verbal permission
  • 68. Seizure of digital evidence requires:
A) Preventing data alteration
B) Packing devices
C) Photographing the scene
D) Arresting suspects
  • 69. Volatile data is found in:
A) Memory cards
B) Hard drives
C) USB drives
D) RAM
  • 70. Which is NOT volatile evidence?
A) RAM data
B) Running processes
C) Network connections
D) Hard drive files
  • 71. Hash values ensure:
A) Data authenticity
B) Data deletion
C) Encryption
D) Network security
  • 72. Imaging a drive creates:
A) Partial copy
B) Password-protected file
C) A complete bit-for-bit copy
D) Compressed folder
  • 73. Emergency disclosure of data by a service provider requires:
A) Subpoena only
B) Executive order
C) Imminent danger
D) Court warrant
  • 74. Evidence is inadmissible if:
A) Authenticated
B) Acquired legally
C) Tampered or altered
D) Properly documented
  • 75. Capturing screenshots of ongoing cybercrime activity is part of:
A) Examination
B) Collection
C) Preservation
D) Analysis
  • 76. Incident containment aims to:
A) Arrest hackers
B) Stop further damage
C) Erase malware
D) Identify motives
  • 77. “Live forensics” is done when the device is:
A) Turned off
B) Destroyed
C) Corrupt
D) In use / powered on
  • 78. Which is NOT part of incident response?
A) Eradication
B) Punishment
C) Containment
D) Identification
  • 79. Search Warrant for Subscriber Information is called:
A) SW-DI
B) SW-ARA
C) SW-CL
D) SW-SI
  • 80. ISP logs are an example of:
A) None
B) Non-content data
C) Content data
D) Physical data
  • 81. Forensic analysis must be done in:
A) Laboratory
B) Police car
C) Home office
D) Anywhere
  • 82. Password cracking should be done using:
A) Social media
B) Guessing
C) Forensic tools
D) Brute-force methods
  • 83. Examination of digital evidence must produce:
A) Altered copies
B) None
C) Reports
D) Deleted data
  • 84. Which is considered digital evidence?
A) Emails
B) Hard drives
C) All of these
D) Cellphones
  • 85. Final phase of incident response:
A) Recovery
B) Eradication
C) Containment
D) Lessons learned
  • 86. Environmental cases use the:
A) Special Penal Laws
B) Civil Code
C) Rules of Court
D) Rules of Procedure for Environmental Cases
  • 87. Who may file an environmental complaint?
A) NGOs and citizens
B) Only direct victims
C) Only government agencies
D) Only police
  • 88. Fisheries violations are filed before:
A) Sandiganbayan
B) Regular trial courts
C) Labor courts
D) Family courts
  • 89. Chain of custody is essential for:
A) All environmental evidence
B) Water samples
C) Wildlife evidence
D) Seized explosives
  • 90. Writ of Kalikasan protects:
A) Large-scale environmental rights
B) Individuals only
C) Property disputes
D) Private contracts
  • 91. An MRF must be maintained under:
A) Clean Air Act
B) RA 9003
C) Clean Water Act
D) Fisheries Code
  • 92. Wildlife violations require documents from:
A) DOH
B) DENR
C) DA
D) DICT
  • 93. Water pollution cases are filed under:
A) RA 9147
B) RA 9003
C) RA 9275
D) RA 8749
  • 94. Evidence for wildlife trafficking includes:
A) Transport documents
B) All of the above
C) Confiscated cages
D) Specimens
  • 95. LGUs must prepare a 10-year solid waste plan under:
A) RA 9003
B) RA 8749
C) RA 9275
D) Fisheries Code
  • 96. Imprisonment for wildlife killing depends on:
A) Age of violator
B) Species classification
C) Weather condition
D) Municipality type
  • 97. Evidence collection in environmental crimes must follow:
A) Verbal timelines
B) Guesswork
C) Scientific protocols
D) No documentation needed
  • 98. Pollution cases usually require:
A) DNA tests
B) Lie detector tests
C) Laboratory tests
D) None
  • 99. Confiscated explosives in fishing cases are handled by:
A) DA
B) DENR
C) PNP EOD
D) Bureau of Fisheries
  • 100. Final step in filing environmental cases:
A) Collection only
B) Filing complaint and evidence with prosecutor
C) Arrest
D) Laboratory test
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