Introduction to Cybercrime and Environmental Law

1. Under R.A. 10173 (Data Privacy Act), which act constitutes a violation when a law enforcement officer unlawfully discloses personal data collected during an investigation without consent or legal basis?

A) Collecting data with proper warrants, as it aligns with public interest.
B) Unauthorized disclosure of sensitive personal information, breaching privacy rights and security principles.
C) Unauthorized disclosure of sensitive personal information, breaching privacy rights and security principles.
D) Storing data securely for future reference, without immediate use.
E) Processing data for legitimate law enforcement purposes, provided safeguards are in place.

2. In R.A. 10175 (Cybercrime Prevention Act), which act constitutes a violation involving the unauthorized access to computer systems for espionage purposes?

A) Hacking into government databases to steal classified information, constituting cyber espionage.
B) Sharing public information online without malice.
C) Accessing systems with owner consent for maintenance.
D) Using encryption for personal data protection
E) Hacking into government databases to steal classified information, constituting cyber espionage.

3. Under the Philippine Fisheries Code of 1998 (R.A. 8550), which act constitutes a violation when dynamite is used to catch fish in municipal waters?

A) Employing destructive methods like explosives, destroying habitats and violating conservation rules.
B) Reporting catch volumes to local authorities.
C) Employing destructive methods like explosives, destroying habitats and violating conservation rules.
D) Using sustainable fishing gear like nets in designated areas.
E) Harvesting seaweed for aquaculture purposes.

4. In R.A. 9147 (Wildlife Act), which act constitutes a violation involving the illegal trade of endangered species like Philippine eagles?

A) Educating the public on wildlife preservation
B) Educating the public on wildlife preservation
C) Selling or transporting endangered wildlife without permits, threatening biodiversity.
D) Breeding protected species in captivity for conservation
E) Selling or transporting endangered wildlife without permits, threatening biodiversity.

5. Under R.A. 9003 (Solid Waste Management Act), which act constitutes a violation when industrial waste is dumped in open areas without segregation?

A) Collecting waste for composting programs.
B) Improper disposal of hazardous waste, polluting land and violating segregation mandates.
C) Improper disposal of hazardous waste, polluting land and violating segregation mandates.
D) Educating communities on waste reduction.
E) Recycling materials in designated facilities.

6. In R.A. 8749 (Clean Air Act), which act constitutes a violation when a factory emits pollutants exceeding emission standards without permits?

A) Reporting emissions to environmental agencies.
B) Releasing excessive pollutants into the atmosphere, violating emission limits and health standards.
C) Using renewable energy sources for operations.
D) Installing air quality monitoring devices.
E) Releasing excessive pollutants into the atmosphere, violating emission limits and health standards.

7. Under R.A. 9275 (Clean Water Act), which act constitutes a violation when untreated sewage is discharged into rivers without permits?

A) Treating wastewater before release into bodies of water.
B) Discharging pollutants directly into waterways, breaching water quality standards.
C) Discharging pollutants directly into waterways, breaching water quality standards.
D) Implementing watershed management plans.
E) Monitoring water quality in protected areas.

8. Under R.A. 10173, which act constitutes a violation when a law enforcement database is hacked, leading to unauthorized data processing?

A) Unauthorized processing or alteration of personal data, compromising privacy.
B) Unauthorized processing or alteration of personal data, compromising privacy.
C) Encrypting data for security purposes.
D) Obtaining consent for data collection
E) Deleting outdated records securely

9. In R.A. 10175, which act constitutes a violation involving the creation and distribution of child pornography online?

A) Using social media for lawful advocacy
B) Encrypting communications for privacy.
C) Producing or distributing child sexual abuse material, constituting a severe cybercrime.
D) Producing or distributing child sexual abuse material, constituting a severe cybercrime.
E) Sharing educational content on internet safety.

10. Under the Fisheries Code, which act constitutes a violation when commercial fishing occurs in marine sanctuaries without authorization?

A) Implementing community-based fisheries management.
B) Conducting research in protected areas with permits.
C) Fishing in no-take zones, destroying marine biodiversity.
D) Fishing in no-take zones, destroying marine biodiversity.
E) Reporting illegal activities to authorities.

11. In R.A. 9147, which act constitutes a violation involving the destruction of critical habitats for wildlife?

A) Monitoring wildlife populations.
B) Clearing forests for development, endangering species and violating habitat protection.
C) Restoring degraded habitats legally.
D) Establishing eco-tourism zones.
E) Clearing forests for development, endangering species and violating habitat protection.

12. Under R.A. 9003, which act constitutes a violation when open burning of waste is conducted in residential areas?

A) Burning waste openly, releasing toxins and violating anti-burning provisions.
B) Composting organic waste properly.
C) Burning waste openly, releasing toxins and violating anti-burning provisions.
D) Segregating waste for recycling.
E) Educating on waste segregation.

13. In R.A. 8749, which act constitutes a violation when vehicles operate without emission testing in urban zones?

A) Reporting vehicle maintenance.
B) Retrofitting vehicles with emission controls.
C) Using public transportation to reduce emissions.
D) Operating without valid emission compliance certificates, contributing to air pollution.
E) Operating without valid emission compliance certificates, contributing to air pollution.

14. Under R.A. 9275, which act constitutes a violation when industrial effluents are released into coastal waters without treatment?

A) Discharging untreated pollutants, degrading marine ecosystems.
B) Treating wastewater before release into bodies of water.
C) Discharging untreated pollutants, degrading marine ecosystems.
D) Monitoring effluent quality.
E) Implementing pollution prevention plans.

15. Under R.A. 10173, which act constitutes a violation when personal data is collected without informing the data subject?

A) Limiting data retention periods.
B) Providing privacy notices as required.
C) Obtaining consent for processing.
D) Collecting data surreptitiously, breaching transparency principles.
E) Collecting data surreptitiously, breaching transparency principles.

16. In R.A. 10175, which act constitutes a violation involving identity theft through online fraud?

A) Verifying identities securely.
B) Stealing personal information for fraudulent purposes, constituting cybercrime.
C) Stealing personal information for fraudulent purposes, constituting cybercrime.
D) Sharing public profiles online.
E) Using secure authentication.

17. Under the Fisheries Code, which act constitutes a violation when cyanide is used in fishing operations?

A) Applying poisons to stun fish, harming ecosystems.
B) Monitoring fish stocks.
C) Applying poisons to stun fish, harming ecosystems.
D) Using non-toxic methods for aquaculture.
E) Enforcing fishing bans.

18. In R.A. 9147, which act constitutes a violation involving poaching endangered animals for trophies?

A) Killing protected species illegally, threatening populations.
B) Promoting anti-poaching campaigns.
C) Killing protected species illegally, threatening populations.
D) Conducting wildlife censuses.
E) Hunting with permits in controlled areas

19. Under R.A. 9003, which act constitutes a violation when hazardous waste is mixed with regular municipal waste?

A) Recycling hazardous materials.
B) Mixing wastes improperly, increasing pollution risks.
C) Storing hazardous waste separately.
D) Mixing wastes improperly, increasing pollution risks.
E) Reporting waste generation.

20. In R.A. 8749, which act constitutes a violation when smoke-belching vehicles are allowed to operate unchecked?

A) Permitting excessive smoke emissions, violating air quality rules.
B) Monitoring air pollution levels.
C) Permitting excessive smoke emissions, violating air quality rules.
D) Promoting electric vehicles
E) Enforcing emission standards.

21. Under R.A. 9275, which act constitutes a violation when oil spills occur from ships without cleanup?

A) Failing to contain and remediate oil discharges, polluting water bodies
B) Implementing spill prevention measures
C) Using biodegradable oils
D) Failing to contain and remediate oil discharges, polluting water bodies
E) Reporting spills immediately

22. Under R.A. 10173, which act constitutes a violation when data is retained beyond necessary periods?

A) Obtaining consent for retention.
B) Auditing data inventories.
C) Excessive retention without justification, breaching minimization principles
D) Deleting data after use.
E) Excessive retention without justification, breaching minimization principles

23. In R.A. 10175, which act constitutes a violation involving libelous online posts?

A) Expressing opinions freely.
B) Using anonymous accounts legally.
C) Publishing defamatory content online, constituting cyber libel.
D) Fact-checking information
E) Publishing defamatory content online, constituting cyber libel.

24. Under the Fisheries Code, which act constitutes a violation when fishing beyond allowable catch limits?

A) Reporting catches accurately
B) Using selective gear
C) Adhering to quotas.
D) Exceeding limits, leading to overfishing.
E) Exceeding limits, leading to overfishing.

25. In R.A. 9147, which act constitutes a violation involving illegal logging in wildlife reserves?

A) Cutting trees in protected areas, destroying habitats.
B) Cutting trees in protected areas, destroying habitats.
C) Reforestation efforts.
D) Enforcing logging bans.
E) Sustainable logging with permits.

26. During a cybercrime investigation, an officer collects a suspect’s laptop without a warrant, citing urgency to prevent data deletion. Under the Rules on Cybercrime Warrants, which is the most proper legal justification for this action?

A) Exigent circumstances justify warrantless seizure if evidence is at risk of destruction.
B) The officer’s authority under RA 10175 supersedes all other laws.
C) Warrant is unnecessary for digital evidence.
D) Consent of the suspect is implied during cybercrime operations.
E) Exigent circumstances justify warrantless seizure if evidence is at risk of destruction.

27. Which type of warrant is specifically used to authorize the collection of computer data from an online account?

A) Warrant to Examine Computer Data (WECD)
B) Warrant to Search, Seize, and Examine Computer Data (WSSECD)
C) Warrant to Disclose Computer Data (WDCD)
D) Warrant to Disclose Computer Data (WDCD)
E) Warrant to Intercept Computer Data (WICD)

28. In the chain of custody for digital evidence, which step ensures the authenticity of the evidence during trial?

A) Electronic signature by the prosecutor
B) Use of the latest antivirus software
C) Presentation by the arresting officer
D) Proper labeling and sealing of the storage device
E) Proper labeling and sealing of the storage device

29. Which of the following best differentiates a Warrant to Intercept Computer Data (WICD) from a Warrant to Examine Computer Data (WECD)?

A) WICD applies to physical devices; WECD applies to social media accounts
B) WECD is issued only by the DOJ; WICD is issued by courts.
C) WICD Involves real-time data interception; WECD involves stored data examination.
D) WICD Involves real-time data interception; WECD involves stored data examination.
E) Both are identical under RA 10175.

30. A police cyber investigator copies the contents of a USB drive using personal software. The hash value changes after copying. What is the most likely procedural error?

A) Improper use of forensic imaging tools
B) Improper use of forensic imaging tools
C) Lack of data backup
D) Absence of a search warrant
E) Failure to decrypt the files

31. Which rule primarily governs the admissibility of digital evidence in Philippine courts?

A) Rule 115, Rules of Criminal Procedure
B) Rule on Electronic Evidence (A.M. No. 01-7-01-SC)
C) Evidence Act of 1989
D) Rule on Cybercrime Warrants (A.M. No. 17-11-03-SC)
E) Rule on Electronic Evidence (A.M. No. 01-7-01-SC)

32. Which best describes the scope of the Warrant to Search, Seize, and Examine Computer Data (WSSECD)?

A) Limited only to physical seizure of hardware.
B) Combines the authority to search, seize, and examine physical and digital evidence.
C) Used exclusively for interception of live chats.
D) Applies only to social media posts.
E) Combines the authority to search, seize, and examine physical and digital evidence.

33. A cybercrime warrant was issued for a desktop computer but law enforcers also seized a tablet found near it. Which principle determines if such seizure is valid?

A) Adverse inference rule
B) Plain view doctrine
C) Fruit of the poisonous tree
D) Exclusionary rule
E) Plain view doctrine

34. In the digital chain of custody, the first person to receive and mark the evidence is known as the:

A) First responder
B) Evidence analyst
C) Evidence originator
D) First responder
E) Evidence custodian

35. When a court determines authenticity of digital evidence, it mainly requires proof of:

A) The reliability of the data source and integrity of the process used
B) The volume of data stored
C) The encryption software used
D) The reliability of the data source and integrity of the process used
E) The number of digital copies produced

36. If an officer seizes a smartphone without isolating it from the network, what risk is most likely to compromise the investigation?

A) Device encryption failure
B) Remote wiping or alteration of data
C) Delay in data extraction
D) Increase in battery temperature
E) Remote wiping or alteration of data

37. The hash value in digital forensics functions primarily to:

A) Translate binary codes to text
B) Encrypt the data for security
C) Verify that data has not been altered
D) Compress the file for storage
E) Verify that data has not been altered

38. Which statement about incident response is most accurate?

A) It is optional if a warrant has been issued.
B) It involves detection, containment, eradication, and recovery.
C) It involves detection, containment, eradication, and recovery.
D) It excludes coordination with service providers.
E) It starts only after evidence collection.

39. When law enforcement requests user data from an ISP, which warrant is required?

A) WDCD
B) WECD
C) WICD
D) WDCD
E) WSSECD

40. An officer extracts only partial logs from a computer due to limited time. During trial, the defense argues incompleteness. What principle governs admissibility here?

A) Best evidence rule
B) Best evidence rule
C) Chain of custody rule
D) Res gestae rule
E) Plain view rule

41. The primary goal of incident response in cybercrime is to:

A) Immediately prosecute the offender.
B) Delete malicious data.
C) Contain the incident while preserving evidence integrity.
D) Disconnect all systems permanently.
E) Contain the incident while preserving evidence integrity.

42. A law enforcement agent fails to record the serial number of a seized device. What is compromised?

A) Chain of custody documentation
B) Jurisdiction of the court
C) Chain of custody documentation
D) Admissibility under RA 10175
E) Authority of the warrant

43. When must a Warrant to Intercept Computer Data be executed after issuance?

A) Within one (1) year
B) Within ten (10) days from issuance, unless extended by the court
C) Within twenty (20) days
D) Immediately and without limit
E) Within ten (10) days from issuance, unless extended by the court

44. Under the Rule on Electronic Evidence, how may the authenticity of an electronic document be proven?

A) By submission of printed copies.
B) By certification from the ISP.
C) By digital signature or other security procedures proving identity.
D) By digital signature or other security procedures proving identity.
E) By oral testimony of a witness alone.

45. Which among the following is NOT a valid type of Cybercrime Warrant under A.M. No. 17-11-03-SC?

A) Warrant to Block Access
B) Warrant to Disclose Computer Data
C) Warrant to Intercept Computer Data
D) Warrant to Delete Computer Data
E) Warrant to Delete Computer Data

46. What procedural safeguard must be followed when presenting digital evidence in court?

A) Certification by a foreign expert.
B) Maintenance of chain of custody with documentation and signatures.
C) Inclusion of suspect’s consent form.
D) Maintenance of chain of custody with documentation and signatures.
E) Submission of encrypted files only.

47. A seized laptop was analyzed without a forensic image. What is the evidentiary consequence?

A) Automatically admissible if signed by investigator.
B) Potential inadmissibility due to alteration risk.
C) No consequence if warrant exists.
D) Accepted as secondary evidence.
E) Potential inadmissibility due to alteration risk.

48. Which situation demonstrates improper execution of a cybercrime warrant?

A) Submitting the report within ten days.
B) Seizing a USB found in plain view.
C) Accessing unrelated folders outside the warrant’s scope.
D) Accessing unrelated folders outside the warrant’s scope.
E) Hashing all collected data.

49. Digital evidence presented in court must satisfy which three criteria for admissibility?

A) Reliability, importance, and format
B) Quantity, quality, and accessibility
C) Consent, jurisdiction, and value
D) Relevance, authenticity, and integrity
E) Relevance, authenticity, and integrity

50. If the evidence was obtained through an invalid cybercrime warrant, which doctrine applies to exclude it?

A) De minimis rule
B) Exclusionary clause exception
C) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
D) Plain view doctrine
E) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine

51. Under the Philippine Fisheries Code of 1998, when filing a case for illegal fishing, the law enforcement officer must first conduct a preliminary investigation. Analyze the procedural step of gathering evidence during this phase and evaluate its importance in ensuring a successful prosecution. Which of the following best describes the officer's obligation to document chain of custody for seized fishing gear?

A) The officer must photograph and label the gear but not seal it.
B) The officer must establish a complete chain of custody to prevent tampering, ensuring evidentiary integrity.
C) The officer must establish a complete chain of custody to prevent tampering, ensuring evidentiary integrity.
D) Documentation is only required if the suspect confesses
E) Documentation is optional if the gear is perishable.

52. Evaluate the procedure for filing a complaint under the Fisheries Code when a violation involves dynamite fishing. If the officer determines probable cause after inspection, what is the next evaluative step in deciding whether to proceed to court, and why is this step essential for resource protection?

A) Assess environmental impact to prioritize cases affecting marine ecosystems.
B) Assess environmental impact to prioritize cases affecting marine ecosystems.
C) Immediately arrest the violator without further evaluation
D) Dismiss the case if the violator offers compensation.
E) Transfer the case to a non-governmental organization.

53. In filing cases under the Fisheries Code for unauthorized aquaculture, explain the role of coordination with the Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic Resources (BFAR) during the investigation phase. Evaluate how this coordination enhances procedural effectiveness in multi-agency enforcement.

A) BFAR provides technical expertise, improving evidence accuracy and case strength.
B) Coordination only involves sharing suspect information.
C) It delays the process by requiring additional approvals.
D) Coordination is unnecessary as local officers handle all aspects.
E) BFAR provides technical expertise, improving evidence accuracy and case strength.

54. Analyze the procedure for seizing fish catch in violation of size limits under the Fisheries Code. Evaluate the officer's discretion in deciding whether to destroy perishable evidence versus preserving it, and explain the legal implications of this choice.

A) The officer has no discretion; all evidence must be preserved
B) Destruction is always mandatory to avoid spoilage.
C) Preservation is preferred, but destruction is allowed with documentation to maintain chain of custody.
D) Destruction requires court approval first.
E) Preservation is preferred, but destruction is allowed with documentation to maintain chain of custody.

55. Evaluate the timeline for filing a case after detecting a Fisheries Code violation, such as illegal trawling. Explain why adhering to a 48-hour rule for preliminary reports strengthens the procedure's integrity and outcomes.

A) It allows indefinite delays for complex cases.
B) The rule is flexible and not strictly enforced.
C) It ensures timely evidence collection, preventing loss and upholding accountability.
D) It ensures timely evidence collection, preventing loss and upholding accountability.
E) The rule applies only to minor violations.

56. In filing environmental cases under the Fisheries Code for coral reef destruction, analyze the requirement for environmental impact assessment during investigation. Evaluate its contribution to the overall procedure's robustness in proving culpability.

A) Assessment delays filing unnecessarily.
B) It provides scientific basis, enhancing evidential weight and judicial outcomes.
C) It is only for civil, not criminal, cases.
D) Assessment is optional and not required for filing.
E) It provides scientific basis, enhancing evidential weight and judicial outcomes.

57. Explain the procedure for involving barangay officials in Fisheries Code violations like poaching. Evaluate the effectiveness of this participatory approach in community-based enforcement and its impact on case resolution.

A) It facilitates local cooperation, improving detection and resolution rates.
B) Officials only witness arrests.
C) It complicates procedures without benefits.
D) Barangay involvement is mandatory for all cases.
E) It facilitates local cooperation, improving detection and resolution rates.

58. Analyze the procedural requirement for issuing a notice of violation under the Fisheries Code before formal filing. Evaluate its role in promoting compliance versus punitive action, and explain potential drawbacks in enforcement.

A) It allows violators to correct behavior, balancing deterrence with rehabilitation.
B) Notice delays prosecution indefinitely
C) It allows violators to correct behavior, balancing deterrence with rehabilitation.
D) It is mandatory for all violations without exceptions.
E) Notice is issued only after arrest.

59. Evaluate the procedure for consolidating multiple Fisheries Code violations in a single case, such as combined illegal fishing and habitat destruction. Explain how this consolidation affects evidentiary analysis and judicial efficiency.

A) It streamlines evidence presentation, reducing court time and strengthening linkages.
B) Consolidation only applies to civil penalties.
C) It requires separate filings for each violation.
D) Consolidation is prohibited to avoid complexity
E) It streamlines evidence presentation, reducing court time and strengthening linkages.

60. In the context of the Fisheries Code, analyze the post-filing procedure for monitoring compliance after a case is filed. Evaluate its importance in preventing recidivism and ensuring long-term environmental protection.

A) It is handled solely by the court.
B) Monitoring occurs only during trial.
C) It involves follow-up inspections, deterring future violations through accountability.
D) Monitoring is optional and not enforced.
E) It involves follow-up inspections, deterring future violations through accountability.

61. Under R.A. 9147, analyze the initial step in filing a case for illegal wildlife trade, involving seizure of endangered species. Evaluate the officer's duty to consult with the Department of Environment and Natural Resources (DENR) and its impact on procedural accuracy.

A) DENR expertise ensures proper identification, enhancing case validity.
B) Consultation only involves paperwork.
C) It requires approval before any action.
D) Consultation is optional for routine seizures.
E) DENR expertise ensures proper identification, enhancing case validity.

62. Evaluate the procedure for documenting wildlife confiscation under the Wildlife Act. Explain how photographic and video evidence strengthens admissibility and evaluates the procedure's role in combating poaching networks.

A) It is unnecessary if the animal is alive.
B) Visual evidence provides irrefutable proof, aiding in network disruption.
C) Visual evidence provides irrefutable proof, aiding in network disruption.
D) Documentation is limited to written reports
E) Documentation delays seizure.

63. Analyze the coordination with Protected Area Management Boards (PAMBs) in filing Wildlife Act cases for habitat encroachment. Evaluate this step's effectiveness in integrating local governance and its implications for case outcomes.

A) It complicates jurisdiction.
B) Coordination leverages local knowledge, improving detection and resolution.
C) PAMBs only approve permits.
D) PAMBs have no role in enforcement.
E) Coordination leverages local knowledge, improving detection and resolution

64. Evaluate the timeline for filing a complaint after wildlife seizure under R.A. 9147. Explain the rationale for a 72-hour filing rule and its evaluation in maintaining evidence integrity.

A) The rule is discretionary.
B) It applies only to dead specimens.
C) It prevents evidence degradation, ensuring timely prosecution.
D) Filing can be delayed indefinitely
E) It prevents evidence degradation, ensuring timely prosecution.

65. In filing cases for illegal possession of wildlife products, analyze the requirement for forensic analysis. Evaluate its contribution to proving intent and the procedure's overall robustness.

A) It establishes origin and illegality, strengthening culpability.
B) It only identifies species.
C) It establishes origin and illegality, strengthening culpability.
D) Analysis is optional for common species
E) Analysis requires court order first.

66. Explain the procedure for involving NGOs in Wildlife Act enforcement. Evaluate the benefits and potential conflicts in this participatory approach for filing cases.

A) They provide resources, enhancing capacity but risking bias.
B) Involvement is mandatory.
C) NGOs only handle rehabilitation.
D) NGOs are excluded from procedures.
E) They provide resources, enhancing capacity but risking bias.

67. Analyze the post-seizure procedure for wildlife rehabilitation under R.A. 9147. Evaluate its integration into case filing and impact on judicial outcomes.

A) Rehabilitation is not required.
B) It delays prosecution.
C) It ensures animal welfare, potentially influencing plea deals.
D) It ensures animal welfare, potentially influencing plea deals.
E) Rehabilitation is separate from filing.

68. Evaluate the procedure for assessing penalties in Wildlife Act cases. Explain how environmental impact evaluation influences filing decisions and promotes deterrence.

A) Impact assessment tailors penalties, deterring severe violations.
B) Impact assessment tailors penalties, deterring severe violations.
C) Assessment is post-trial
D) Penalties are fixed.
E) It only considers economic loss

69. Analyze the role of chain of custody in Wildlife Act seizures. Evaluate its necessity in preventing tampering and ensuring procedural integrity.

A) Custody is court-managed
B) Custody is informal
C) It applies only to live animals
D) Strict documentation maintains evidence reliability
E) Strict documentation maintains evidence reliability

70. Evaluate the procedure for filing joint cases with other agencies under R.A. 9147. Explain its effectiveness in addressing cross-border wildlife trafficking

A) Joint cases are rare
B) Joint filing is prohibited
C) It complicates jurisdiction
D) It pools resources, improving transnational enforcement
E) It pools resources, improving transnational enforcement

71. Under R.A. 9003, analyze the procedure for inspecting illegal dumpsites. Evaluate the officer's use of sampling in evidence gathering and its role in proving violations.

A) It provides representative evidence, strengthening cases
B) It only identifies waste types
C) It provides representative evidence, strengthening cases
D) Sampling is unnecessary
E) Sampling requires lab approval

72. Evaluate the filing procedure for non-compliance with waste segregation under the Act. Explain the notice-to-comply step and its evaluative impact on voluntary correction.

A) Notice is issued post-arrest
B) It promotes compliance, reducing litigation
C) Notice is punitive
D) It promotes compliance, reducing litigation
E) It is mandatory for all cases.

73. Analyze coordination with local government units (LGUs) in filing Solid Waste Act cases. Evaluate its effectiveness in decentralized enforcement

A) Coordination ensures local implementation, improving outcomes
B) LGUs only issue permits.
C) Coordination ensures local implementation, improving outcomes
D) LGUs have no role
E) It creates overlaps

74. Evaluate the timeline for reporting violations under R.A. 9003. Explain the 24-hour rule's rationale and its evaluation in evidence preservation

A) Reporting can be delayed
B) It applies to minor issues only
C) It ensures prompt action, maintaining integrity
D) It ensures prompt action, maintaining integrity
E) The rule is flexible

75. Analyze the procedure for seizing hazardous waste. Evaluate documentation requirements and their impact on admissibility.

A) Documentation is minimal
B) Detailed records ensure evidentiary strength
C) Seizure requires court order
D) Documentation is post-seizure
E) Detailed records ensure evidentiary strength

76. Explain the role of environmental monitoring in filing cases. Evaluate its contribution to ongoing compliance under the Act.

A) Monitoring delays filing.
B) It detects violations early, aiding prevention
C) It detects violations early, aiding prevention
D) It is court-ordered
E) Monitoring is optional

77. Evaluate the procedure for involving waste generators in corrective actions. Explain its evaluative role in case resolution.

A) It complicates procedures
B) Generators are not involved
C) Generators only pay fines
D) Involvement encourages responsibility, resolving issues
E) Involvement encourages responsibility, resolving issues

78. Analyze chain of custody for waste samples. Evaluate its necessity in forensic analysis and procedural integrity

A) Custody is lab-managed
B) It applies to non-hazardous waste only
C) Strict tracking prevents contamination
D) Strict tracking prevents contamination
E) Custody is informal

79. Evaluate the filing of cases for illegal waste transport. Explain the inspection protocol and its impact on proving intent

A) Protocol establishes violations, strengthening cases
B) Inspections are random
C) They delay transport
D) Protocol establishes violations, strengthening cases
E) Inspections require permits

80. Analyze post-filing monitoring under R.A. 9003. Evaluate its role in preventing recidivism and long-term waste management

A) It ensures sustained compliance
B) It is handled by courts
C) It ensures sustained compliance
D) Monitoring occurs during trial
E) Monitoring is not required

81. During a cybercrime investigation, an officer collects a suspect’s laptop without a warrant, citing urgency to prevent data deletion. Under the Rules on Cybercrime Warrants, which is the most proper legal justification for this action?

A) Exigent circumstances justify warrantless seizure if evidence is at risk of destruction
B) Exigent circumstances justify warrantless seizure if evidence is at risk of destruction
C) Consent of the suspect is implied during cybercrime operations
D) Warrant is unnecessary for digital evidence
E) The officer’s authority under RA 10175 supersedes all other laws

82. Which type of warrant is specifically used to authorize the collection of computer data from an online account?

A) Warrant to Examine Computer Data (WECD)
B) Warrant to Disclose Computer Data (WDCD)
C) Warrant to Search, Seize, and Examine Computer Data (WSSECD)
D) Warrant to Intercept Computer Data (WICD)
E) Warrant to Disclose Computer Data (WDCD)

83. In the chain of custody for digital evidence, which step ensures the authenticity of the evidence during trial?

A) Proper labeling and sealing of the storage device
B) Proper labeling and sealing of the storage device
C) Presentation by the arresting officer
D) Use of the latest antivirus software
E) Electronic signature by the prosecutor

84. Which of the following best differentiates a Warrant to Intercept Computer Data (WICD) from a Warrant to Examine Computer Data (WECD)?

A) WECD is issued only by the DOJ; WICD is issued by courts
B) WICD applies to physical devices; WECD applies to social media accounts
C) WICD involves real-time data interception; WECD involves stored data examination.
D) WICD involves real-time data interception; WECD involves stored data examination.
E) Both are identical under RA 10175

85. A police cyber investigator copies the contents of a USB drive using personal software. The hash value changes after copying. What is the most likely procedural error?

A) Failure to decrypt the files
B) Improper use of forensic imaging tools
C) Improper use of forensic imaging tools
D) Lack of data backup
E) Absence of a search warrant

86. Which rule primarily governs the admissibility of digital evidence in Philippine courts?

A) Rule on Electronic Evidence (A.M. No. 01-7-01-SC)
B) Rule on Electronic Evidence (A.M. No. 01-7-01-SC)
C) Rule on Cybercrime Warrants (A.M. No. 17-11-03-SC)
D) Rule 115, Rules of Criminal Procedure
E) Evidence Act of 1989

87. Which best describes the scope of the Warrant to Search, Seize, and Examine Computer Data (WSSECD)?

A) Combines the authority to search, seize, and examine physical and digital evidence.
B) Limited only to physical seizure of hardware
C) Applies only to social media posts
D) Used exclusively for interception of live chats
E) Combines the authority to search, seize, and examine physical and digital evidence.

88. A cybercrime warrant was issued for a desktop computer but law enforcers also seized a tablet found near it. Which principle determines if such seizure is valid?

A) Exclusionary rule
B) Fruit of the poisonous tree
C) Plain view doctrine
D) Adverse inference rule
E) Plain view doctrine

89. In the digital chain of custody, the first person to receive and mark the evidence is known as the:

A) Evidence analyst
B) First responder
C) Evidence originator
D) Evidence custodian
E) First responder

90. When a court determines authenticity of digital evidence, it mainly requires proof of:

A) The reliability of the data source and integrity of the process used
B) The number of digital copies produced
C) The reliability of the data source and integrity of the process used
D) The encryption software used
E) The volume of data stored

91. If an officer seizes a smartphone without isolating it from the network, what risk is most likely to compromise the investigation?

A) Increase in battery temperature
B) Remote wiping or alteration of data
C) Device encryption failure
D) Remote wiping or alteration of data
E) Delay in data extraction

92. The hash value in digital forensics functions primarily to:

A) Translate binary codes to text
B) Verify that data has not been altered
C) Encrypt the data for security
D) Compress the file for storage
E) Verify that data has not been altered

93. Which statement about incident response is most accurate?

A) It is optional if a warrant has been issued
B) It starts only after evidence collection
C) It involves detection, containment, eradication, and recovery
D) It involves detection, containment, eradication, and recovery
E) It excludes coordination with service providers

94. When law enforcement requests user data from an ISP, which warrant is required?

A) WECD
B) WICD
C) WDCD
D) WDCD
E) WSSECD

95. An officer extracts only partial logs from a computer due to limited time. During trial, the defense argues incompleteness. What principle governs admissibility here?

A) Plain view rule
B) Best evidence rule
C) Best evidence rule
D) Chain of custody rule
E) Res gestae rule

96. The primary goal of incident response in cybercrime is to:

A) Contain the incident while preserving evidence integrity.
B) Disconnect all systems permanently
C) Contain the incident while preserving evidence integrity.
D) Delete malicious data
E) Immediately prosecute the offender

97. A law enforcement agent fails to record the serial number of a seized device. What is compromised?

A) Chain of custody documentation
B) Jurisdiction of the court
C) Authority of the warrant
D) Chain of custody documentation
E) Admissibility under RA 10175

98. When must a Warrant to Intercept Computer Data be executed after issuance?

A) Within twenty (20) days
B) Immediately and without limit
C) Within ten (10) days from issuance, unless extended by the court
D) Within one (1) year
E) Within ten (10) days from issuance, unless extended by the court

99. Under the Rule on Electronic Evidence, how may the authenticity of an electronic document be proven?

A) By submission of printed copies
B) By digital signature or other security procedures proving identity
C) By oral testimony of a witness alone
D) By digital signature or other security procedures proving identity
E) By certification from the ISP

100. Which among the following is NOT a valid type of Cybercrime Warrant under A.M. No. 17-11-03-SC?

A) Warrant to Delete Computer Data
B) Warrant to Block Access
C) Warrant to Disclose Computer Data
D) Warrant to Delete Computer Data
E) Warrant to Intercept Computer Data

Created with That Quiz — where test making and test taking are made easy for math and other subject areas.