Diagnosis of HIV/AIDS - Quiz
Diagnosis of HIV AIDS
  • 1. What bodily fluids can HIV tests detect the virus in?
A) Saliva, mucus, or blood plasma
B) Urine, sweat, or saliva
C) Serum, saliva, or urine
D) Sweat, tears, or serum
  • 2. What components can HIV tests detect?
A) DNA, proteins, or antibodies
B) RNA, hormones, or antibodies
C) Antibodies, antigens, or RNA
D) Antigens, enzymes, or cells
  • 3. What is the threshold CD4+ T cell count for an AIDS diagnosis?
A) Below 500 cells per μL
B) Below 300 cells per μL
C) Below 100 cells per μL
D) Below 200 cells per μL
  • 4. What is the median duration of the eclipse period?
A) 18 days
B) 1 day
C) 11.5 days
D) 200 days
  • 5. What is the median window period for antibody/antigen testing?
A) 2.5 million days
B) 18 days
C) 200 days
D) 11.5 days
  • 6. What does test sensitivity measure?
A) The number of antibodies present in the serum
B) The time it takes to detect the virus
C) Percentage of results that are positive when HIV is present
D) Percentage of results that are negative when HIV is absent
  • 7. What does test specificity measure?
A) Percentage of results that are positive when HIV is present
B) The duration of the eclipse period
C) The ability of a test to identify RNA
D) Percentage of results that are negative when HIV is not present
  • 8. What is a false positive result?
A) Test incorrectly indicates HIV is absent in an infected person
B) Test correctly identifies a non-infected person
C) Test incorrectly indicates HIV is present in a non-infected person
D) Test fails to detect the virus during the window period
  • 9. What is a false negative result?
A) Test incorrectly indicates HIV is present in a non-infected person
B) Test incorrectly indicates HIV is absent in an infected person
C) Test fails due to hypergammaglobulinemia
D) Test correctly identifies an infected person
  • 10. Which of these is a potential cause of false positive HIV results?
A) The window period
B) Autoimmune diseases
C) The eclipse period
D) High CD4+ T cell counts
  • 11. What is the primary cause of most false negative results?
A) Nonspecific reactions
B) The window period
C) Hypergammaglobulinemia
D) Systemic lupus erythematosus
  • 12. Why is high sensitivity required for blood donor screening?
A) To reduce the cost of testing
B) To ensure HIV is detected if present
C) To shorten the eclipse period
D) To identify autoimmune diseases
  • 13. What combined testing do blood banks in Western countries use?
A) Only nucleic acid tests
B) Antibody, antigen, and nucleic acid tests
C) Only antibody tests
D) Only antigen tests
  • 14. How many new HIV infections did the WHO estimate resulted from inadequate blood screening as of 2000?
A) 11.5 million
B) 2.5 million
C) 200,000
D) 1 million
  • 15. What does the FDA require for screening donated blood in the US?
A) Combination of antibody testing (EIA) and nucleic acid testing (NAT)
B) Only antibody testing (EIA)
C) Visual inspection of blood samples
D) Only nucleic acid testing (NAT)
  • 16. What was the risk of transfusion-acquired HIV in the US as of 2001?
A) Approximately one in 11.5 million
B) Approximately one in 2.5 million
C) Approximately one in 1 million
D) Approximately one in 18 million
  • 17. What is the eclipse period?
A) A period starting from exposure in which no test can detect HIV
B) The time required for CD4+ cells to drop below 200
C) The time between exposure and positive antibody test
D) A clinical condition of immunosuppression
  • 18. Which HIV types does the FDA require donated blood to be screened for?
A) HIV-1, HIV-2, and HIV-3
B) HIV-1 and HIV-2
C) Only HIV-1
D) Only HIV-2
  • 19. What is the definition of AIDS based on clinical conditions?
A) Development of an AIDS-defining clinical condition
B) A CD4+ T cell count above 500 cells per μL
C) A positive test result during the eclipse period
D) Presence of nonspecific reactions in the blood
  • 20. Which method is used for the initial HIV antibody test in the United States?
A) Polymerase chain reaction
B) Rapid antibody strip test
C) ELISA
D) Western blot
  • 21. According to the UNAIDS/WHO policy, HIV testing must be conducted with what?
A) Public notification
B) Compulsory treatment
C) Mandatory reporting to police
D) Informed consent
  • 22. Which condition is required for individuals who test positive for HIV according to ethical principles?
A) Automatic insurance enrollment
B) Immediate quarantine
C) Mandatory workplace notification
D) Accompanied by counseling
  • 23. What is the primary method of identification in anonymous HIV testing?
A) A fingerprint
B) A social security number
C) A medical record ID
D) A number
  • 24. What is the CDC recommended age range for voluntary routine HIV testing?
A) 16–60
B) 18–65
C) 12–70
D) 13–64
  • 25. What percentage of HIV-infected individuals were estimated to be unaware of their status in 2006?
A) 5%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 10%
  • 26. Which state was the first to require that hospitals offer HIV tests to all patients between 13 and 64?
A) New York
B) Texas
C) California
D) Florida
  • 27. What percentage of people have detectable antibodies by two months after HIV exposure?
A) 90%
B) 99%
C) 50%
D) 75%
  • 28. Can an infected person transmit HIV during the window period?
A) Only after the window period ends
B) Yes
C) Only if symptoms are present
D) No
  • 29. What does ELISA stand for?
A) Enzyme-level immune system analysis
B) Extended linkage internal serum assay
C) Enhanced laboratory immunological screening assay
D) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
  • 30. How much is the serum diluted in an ELISA test?
A) 100-fold
B) 400-fold
C) 200-fold
D) 1000-fold
  • 31. What is the most controversial aspect of the ELISA test?
A) The time taken for analysis
B) The storage of HIV antigens
C) The cost of the reagents
D) Determining the cut-off point
  • 32. Which institution produced the ELISA test dongle?
A) Stanford University
B) Columbia University
C) Harvard University
D) Oxford University
  • 33. How long does the ELISA dongle take to analyze a blood sample?
A) Five minutes
B) Fifteen minutes
C) Thirty minutes
D) One hour
  • 34. In Western blot, what is used to level the electrical charge of proteins?
A) Sodium lauryl sulfate
B) Cellulose acetate
C) Recombinant DNA
D) Secondary antibody enzyme
  • 35. What is the result called if less than the required number of viral bands are detected in a Western blot?
A) Equivocal-positive
B) Indeterminate
C) Inconclusive failure
D) False negative
  • 36. What does the term RIBA stand for?
A) Recombinant immunoblot assay
B) Radioactive immunoblot analysis
C) Recombinant internal biological assay
D) Rapid immunosorbent blot assay
  • 37. If an indeterminate Western blot result persists for how long does it suggest it is not due to HIV?
A) One year
B) One month
C) Six months
D) Three months
  • 38. What does a person with an indeterminate result need to do?
A) Ignore the result
B) Perform a blood transfusion
C) Get retested
D) Start HIV medication immediately
  • 39. Which disease, besides HIV, can the ELISA dongle detect?
A) Hepatitis C
B) Malaria
C) Syphilis
D) Tuberculosis
  • 40. For which population has the positive predictive value of Rapid Antibody Tests not been evaluated?
A) Low-risk populations
B) High-risk populations
C) Patients with acute symptoms
D) Populations in endemic areas
  • 41. What is required for the statistical validation of rapid HIV test results?
A) A physician's observation only
B) Multi-test algorithms
C) A single rapid test
D) A patient's self-report
  • 42. What should be done if a rapid HIV test result is positive?
A) Confirm the result using the western blot
B) Ignore the result as a false positive
C) Start HIV treatment immediately
D) Retest using the same rapid test kit
  • 43. What test must be used in the US to confirm an ELISA positive result before reporting it as 'positive'?
A) Western blot
B) A rapid combination antigen/antibody test
C) A second ELISA test
D) A blood cell count
  • 44. What happens to the rate of false positives when ELISA is combined with a western blot?
A) The rate increases significantly
B) The rate remains unchanged
C) The rate becomes unpredictable
D) The rate becomes extremely low
  • 45. What should an individual with an inconclusive test do?
A) Stop all future testing
B) Assume they are HIV positive
C) Be re-tested at a later date
D) Assume they are HIV negative
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