A) Court of Appeals B) MTC C) RTC D) Sandiganbayan
A) Sandiganbayan B) MTC C) Court of Appeals D) Supreme Court
A) Court of Appeals B) Supreme Court C) MTC D) RTC
A) RTC B) MTC C) Sandiganbayan D) Supreme Court
A) RTC B) Court of Appeals C) MTC D) Barangay Justice System
A) Sandiganbayan B) MTC C) RTC D) Supreme Court
A) MTC B) Court of Appeals C) Sandiganbayan D) RTC
A) Court of Appeals B) Supreme Court C) RTC D) MTC
A) Sandiganbayan B) RTC (Family Court) C) MTC D) Court of Appeals
A) Court of Appeals B) RTC C) Supreme Court D) MTC
A) Steps by which the State prosecutes violations of law B) Administrative penalties C) Arbitration procedures D) Civil litigation procedures
A) Assess whether probable cause exists to file a case B) Conduct trial C) Determine guilt D) Impose penalties
A) A prosecutor’s opinion B) Mere suspicion C) A reasonable belief that an offense has been committed D) Absolute proof of guilt
A) Evaluates mitigating circumstances B) Informs the accused of the charges and receives the plea C) Conducts mandatory mediation D) Decides on evidence admissibility
A) File an information B) Place the accused under lawful custody C) Conduct preliminary investigation Answer: C D) Initiate a complaint
A) Guarantee an acquittal B) Ensure the accused appears in court C) Replace detention with probation D) Reduce the penalty upon conviction
A) Can negotiate penalties B) May be tried immediately C) Can escape detention D) Is protected from coercion and uninformed waivers
A) Witness names only B) The acts complained of and the law violated C) Proposed punishment D) Accused’s personal opinion
A) All evidence is admissible B) Confessions are always valid C) Witnesses may be excluded D) Evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible
A) Trial procedure B) Validity of the complaint or information C) Credibility of witnesses D) Judgment
A) Being tried again for the same offense after acquittal B) Bail denial C) Civil suits D) Multiple fines
A) Defense is always last B) Witnesses appear first C) The State carries the burden of proof D) Judge instructs them
A) Public interest B) Evidence presented and the applicable law C) Prosecutor’s opinion D) Defense preference
A) Drafting the decision B) Filing appeals C) Enforcing the final penalty imposed by the court D) Reviewing evidence
A) Valid if officer believes crime might occur B) Valid only if a warrant follows within 24 hours C) Invalid because no element of in flagrante delicto is present D) Valid because suspicion is enough
A) Invalid because future acts do not justify warrantless arrest B) Valid as long as informant is reliable C) Valid if suspect previously had a record D) Valid if the suspect is known in the community
A) Valid because purpose is clear B) Valid only if the search happens immediately C) Invalid due to lack of particularity D) Valid if approved by a judge
A) Valid if within the same barangay B) Valid if officers believe evidence is inside C) Valid only if consent is implied D) Invalid because a warrant is limited to its specific location
A) Valid if the checkpoint is authorized B) Valid because checkpoints allow all searches C) Invalid because only visual inspection is allowed D) Valid if the driver appears nervous
A) Invalid because theft is not a serious crime B) Valid only if homeowner consents C) Invalid if suspect hides for more than 30 minutes D) Valid as hot pursuit allows warrantless entry
A) Valid because it is still hot pursuit B) Valid if the offense is grave C) Invalid because personal knowledge of the officer is lacking D) Valid if suspect tries to flee
A) Valid because instinct may justify action B) Valid if the suspect was still awake C) Invalid because warrantless home arrests require urgent necessity D) Valid if officers are experienced
A) Invalid because nighttime service requires express authorization B) Valid if officers announce their identity C) Valid since the warrant is lawful D) Valid if probable cause existed
A) Valid because officers maintain public order B) Invalid because not all ordinances justify custodial arrest C) Invalid unless confirmed by a barangay official D) Valid only if the area has a curfew
A) Valid under plain view doctrine if immediately incriminating B) Invalid because laptops are unrelated to firearms search C) Valid only if owner does not object D) Valid if digital crimes are later discovered
A) Invalid because no overt act showing involvement was observed B) Valid because one person was a suspect C) Valid if both individuals knew each other D) Valid because association is enough
A) Valid if evidence is eventually found B) Invalid if consent did not expressly include closed compartments C) Valid because consent is presumed broad D) Valid if search is within the same house
A) Invalid only when done by non-uniformed personnel B) Valid only if the driver is alone C) Valid if checkpoint is legal D) Invalid because such intrusive searches require probable cause
A) Preliminary investigation filing B) Inquest review C) Barangay mediation D) Motion for reconsideration
A) Judicial dispute resolution B) Police arbitration C) Court-annexed mediation D) Barangay Justice System
A) Summary trial B) Pre-trial conference C) Judicial affidavit rule D) Inquest proceeding
A) Prosecutorial endorsement B) Automatic judicial referral C) Certification to File Action D) Direct filing privilege
A) Proper if the case involves a barangay referral B) Proper if evidence is patently insufficient C) Improper because counter-affidavits are always required D) Proper only if the defense requests it
A) Correct only for capital offenses B) Incorrect because only courts may release suspects C) Incorrect because suspects must stay under custody D) Correct when warrantless arrest is invalid
A) Valid if the complainant has legal counsel B) Invalid because it must first undergo Katarungang Pambarangay conciliation C) Invalid only when the accused refuses mediation D) Valid because slander is a private crime
A) Acceptable; the respondent may rely solely on legal arguments B) Acceptable if endorsed by the barangay C) Improper; failure to submit counter-affidavits waives the right to rebut evidence D) Acceptable only if complainant’s affidavit is weak
A) Invalid unless arbitrators are present B) Valid only after three scheduled hearings C) Invalid because mediation must be completed D) Valid because non-appearance is ground for issuance
A) Invalid unless witness examination happens B) Valid because clarificatory hearings are discretionary C) Invalid because hearings are always mandatory D) Valid only if the accused waives rights
A) Invalid because offenses requiring PI must go through the prosecutor B) Valid if the accused is detained C) Valid if police have personal knowledge D) Valid when barangay endorsement is unavailable
A) Valid if the barangay issues certification B) Invalid because the offense is not covered by warrantless arrest rules C) Valid if the arresting officer is a barangay official D) Valid as long as the suspect admits guilt
A) To release the accused permanently B) To reduce the penalty C) To excuse the crime D) To ensure the accused appears in court
A) Judge dismisses the case B) Bail is automatically granted C) Trial begins immediately D) Pre-trial and preparation for trial are scheduled
A) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence B) Assign a prosecutor C) Decide on civil liabilities D) Schedule judgment
A) Witnesses must speak first B) Judge requires opening statements C) Burden of proof lies with the State D) Defense cannot start immediately
A) Proper only if complainant objects B) Improper because bail is a matter of right C) Proper because bail is discretionary D) Proper if the accused lacks counsel
A) Valid since arraignment is formal B) Invalid because counsel is mandatory unless properly waived C) Valid if the accused understood the charge D) Valid if court is overloaded
A) Defense must postpone B) Case must be dismissed C) Court may impose sanctions and proceed as justice requires D) Court requires accused to present evidence
A) Valid if evidence is strong B) Valid if prosecutor agrees C) Invalid because the judge must ensure voluntariness and full understanding D) Valid if freely made
A) Acceptable if affidavits are complete B) Invalid; only the court decides after hearing C) Acceptable; prosecutors determine guilt D) Acceptable if case involves moral turpitude
A) Valid if both parties agree B) Valid in minor offenses C) Invalid; violates right to full cross-examination D) Valid for efficiency
A) Improper; motion to quash must be resolved first B) Proper only if accused insists C) Proper if judge wants to expedite D) Proper; arraignment must always proceed
A) Proper only if offense is light B) Improper; prosecution consent is essential C) Proper; court has full authority D) Proper if defense offers restitution
A) Valid if witness is material B) Valid; court may accept additional evidence anytime C) Valid if trial is almost finished D) Invalid; violates due process and right to rebut
A) Valid to shorten trial B) Valid only if counsel agrees C) Valid if prosecution evidence is strong D) Grossly improper; violates right to present evidence
A) Hearsay objection B) Cross-examination C) Proper direct examination considering age D) Improper leading
A) Force the witness B) Ignore and proceed C) Allow short breaks and comforting assistance D) Dismiss the witness
A) Required to expedite trial B) Always permitted C) Always prohibited D) Generally improper, except for hostile or child witnesses
A) During direct examination B) During cross-examination C) Only during rebuttal D) Only for expert witnesses
A) Leading question B) Hearsay C) Proper direct examination strategy D) Improper narrative
A) Violation of impartiality B) Accommodation for child witnesses C) Leading questioning D) Improper testimony
A) Improper leading B) Hearsay C) Cross-examination strategy D) Direct examination
A) Improper if done in court B) Direct examination C) Cross-examination D) Rebuttal evidence
A) Cross-examination B) Refreshing memory (proper) C) Reading testimony verbatim (improper) D) Leading question
A) Proper accommodation to enhance understanding B) Cross-examination tactic C) Improper demonstration D) Leading question
A) Cross-examination B) Proper direct examination C) Leading question D) Hearsay
A) Hearsay evidence B) Improper impeachment C) Cross-examination technique D) Direct examination
A) Leading question B) Proper accommodation for child witness protection C) Cross-examination violation D) Improper
A) Proper direct examination B) Cross-examination C) Leading questions D) Hearsay
A) Pre-trial conference B) Direct examination C) Cross-examination D) Preliminary investigation
A) Cross-examination violation B) Improper coaching C) Leading question D) Proper witness protection and accommodation
A) Guarantee acquittal B) Ensure accused appears during trial C) Reduce penalty D) Replace detention with probation
A) Pre-trial is scheduled B) Case dismissed C) Trial begins immediately D) Bail granted automatically
A) Decide civil liabilities B) Schedule judgment C) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence D) Assign a prosecutor
A) Procedural technicalities B) Judge’s discretion C) Witness’s memory, perception, and credibility D) Prosecutor’s theory
A) Facilitate understanding and protect them from trauma B) Influence testimony C) Replace direct questioning D) Make trial faster
A) Suggest answers to witnesses B) Test credibility and impeach statements C) Violate rights D) Accelerate trial
A) Closed-ended questions only B) Leading questions only C) Hearsay questions D) Open-ended questions
A) Support witness credibility B) Challenge witness credibility C) Confirm hearsay D) End trial
A) Leading questions B) Replacing witness C) Oral suggestion D) Reviewing documents or reports to recall facts
A) Introducing new evidence without notice B) Testing witness statements and credibility C) Unlimited questioning without relevance D) Skipping procedural rules
A) Violate impartiality B) Avoid cross-examination C) Influence verdict D) Protect emotional well-being
A) Voluntariness and understanding B) Guilt C) Sentence reduction D) Plea bargaining
A) Verdict announcement B) Trial starts immediately C) Witness selection only D) Clarification of issues, marking of evidence, and plea bargaining
A) Trial on the merits B) Informing accused of charges and receiving plea C) Bail denial D) Evidence evaluation
A) Ordinance requires detention B) In flagrante delicto or hot pursuit C) Accused looks guilty D) Officer has mere suspicion
A) Consent is given B) Evidence is in plain view and exigent circumstances exist C) Any officer orders it D) Officer feels probable cause
A) Case is dismissed B) Bail is granted C) Suspect is arrested without warrant and brought to prosecutor within 12 hours D) Pre-trial is conducted
A) Sentence B) Probable cause C) Bail amount D) Guilt
A) Collect fines B) Conduct arrest C) Replace courts D) Settle disputes amicably before filing in courts
A) Age-appropriate, understandable, and trauma-sensitive methods B) Hearsay evidence C) Leading questions only D) Coercion |