A) MTC B) RTC C) Sandiganbayan D) Court of Appeals
A) Court of Appeals B) Supreme Court C) Sandiganbayan D) MTC
A) MTC B) Court of Appeals C) Supreme Court D) RTC
A) MTC B) Supreme Court C) Sandiganbayan D) RTC
A) Barangay Justice System B) RTC C) Court of Appeals D) MTC
A) RTC B) Supreme Court C) MTC D) Sandiganbayan
A) MTC B) RTC C) Sandiganbayan D) Court of Appeals
A) Court of Appeals B) MTC C) RTC D) Supreme Court
A) RTC (Family Court) B) Sandiganbayan C) Court of Appeals D) MTC
A) MTC B) Supreme Court C) Court of Appeals D) RTC
A) Civil litigation procedures B) Steps by which the State prosecutes violations of law C) Arbitration procedures D) Administrative penalties
A) Determine guilt B) Assess whether probable cause exists to file a case C) Conduct trial D) Impose penalties
A) Mere suspicion B) A prosecutor’s opinion C) Absolute proof of guilt D) A reasonable belief that an offense has been committed
A) Informs the accused of the charges and receives the plea B) Decides on evidence admissibility C) Conducts mandatory mediation D) Evaluates mitigating circumstances
A) Conduct preliminary investigation Answer: C B) Initiate a complaint C) File an information D) Place the accused under lawful custody
A) Replace detention with probation B) Guarantee an acquittal C) Reduce the penalty upon conviction D) Ensure the accused appears in court
A) Can negotiate penalties B) Is protected from coercion and uninformed waivers C) May be tried immediately D) Can escape detention
A) Accused’s personal opinion B) Proposed punishment C) The acts complained of and the law violated D) Witness names only
A) Evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible B) Confessions are always valid C) All evidence is admissible D) Witnesses may be excluded
A) Judgment B) Credibility of witnesses C) Trial procedure D) Validity of the complaint or information
A) Civil suits B) Multiple fines C) Bail denial D) Being tried again for the same offense after acquittal
A) Defense is always last B) Witnesses appear first C) Judge instructs them D) The State carries the burden of proof
A) Defense preference B) Public interest C) Prosecutor’s opinion D) Evidence presented and the applicable law
A) Drafting the decision B) Enforcing the final penalty imposed by the court C) Filing appeals D) Reviewing evidence
A) Valid because suspicion is enough B) Valid only if a warrant follows within 24 hours C) Valid if officer believes crime might occur D) Invalid because no element of in flagrante delicto is present
A) Valid as long as informant is reliable B) Valid if suspect previously had a record C) Invalid because future acts do not justify warrantless arrest D) Valid if the suspect is known in the community
A) Invalid due to lack of particularity B) Valid because purpose is clear C) Valid only if the search happens immediately D) Valid if approved by a judge
A) Valid only if consent is implied B) Invalid because a warrant is limited to its specific location C) Valid if within the same barangay D) Valid if officers believe evidence is inside
A) Invalid because only visual inspection is allowed B) Valid because checkpoints allow all searches C) Valid if the checkpoint is authorized D) Valid if the driver appears nervous
A) Valid only if homeowner consents B) Valid as hot pursuit allows warrantless entry C) Invalid because theft is not a serious crime D) Invalid if suspect hides for more than 30 minutes
A) Valid because it is still hot pursuit B) Valid if the offense is grave C) Invalid because personal knowledge of the officer is lacking D) Valid if suspect tries to flee
A) Valid if officers are experienced B) Valid if the suspect was still awake C) Valid because instinct may justify action D) Invalid because warrantless home arrests require urgent necessity
A) Valid since the warrant is lawful B) Valid if probable cause existed C) Invalid because nighttime service requires express authorization D) Valid if officers announce their identity
A) Invalid unless confirmed by a barangay official B) Invalid because not all ordinances justify custodial arrest C) Valid because officers maintain public order D) Valid only if the area has a curfew
A) Valid if digital crimes are later discovered B) Valid only if owner does not object C) Invalid because laptops are unrelated to firearms search D) Valid under plain view doctrine if immediately incriminating
A) Valid because one person was a suspect B) Valid if both individuals knew each other C) Valid because association is enough D) Invalid because no overt act showing involvement was observed
A) Invalid if consent did not expressly include closed compartments B) Valid because consent is presumed broad C) Valid if evidence is eventually found D) Valid if search is within the same house
A) Valid only if the driver is alone B) Invalid only when done by non-uniformed personnel C) Invalid because such intrusive searches require probable cause D) Valid if checkpoint is legal
A) Motion for reconsideration B) Inquest review C) Preliminary investigation filing D) Barangay mediation
A) Court-annexed mediation B) Barangay Justice System C) Judicial dispute resolution D) Police arbitration
A) Judicial affidavit rule B) Summary trial C) Inquest proceeding D) Pre-trial conference
A) Certification to File Action B) Automatic judicial referral C) Direct filing privilege D) Prosecutorial endorsement
A) Proper if evidence is patently insufficient B) Proper if the case involves a barangay referral C) Improper because counter-affidavits are always required D) Proper only if the defense requests it
A) Correct when warrantless arrest is invalid B) Correct only for capital offenses C) Incorrect because only courts may release suspects D) Incorrect because suspects must stay under custody
A) Invalid because it must first undergo Katarungang Pambarangay conciliation B) Invalid only when the accused refuses mediation C) Valid because slander is a private crime D) Valid if the complainant has legal counsel
A) Acceptable if endorsed by the barangay B) Acceptable; the respondent may rely solely on legal arguments C) Acceptable only if complainant’s affidavit is weak D) Improper; failure to submit counter-affidavits waives the right to rebut evidence
A) Invalid unless arbitrators are present B) Invalid because mediation must be completed C) Valid only after three scheduled hearings D) Valid because non-appearance is ground for issuance
A) Invalid because hearings are always mandatory B) Invalid unless witness examination happens C) Valid only if the accused waives rights D) Valid because clarificatory hearings are discretionary
A) Valid if the accused is detained B) Valid if police have personal knowledge C) Valid when barangay endorsement is unavailable D) Invalid because offenses requiring PI must go through the prosecutor
A) Valid if the arresting officer is a barangay official B) Valid if the barangay issues certification C) Invalid because the offense is not covered by warrantless arrest rules D) Valid as long as the suspect admits guilt
A) To reduce the penalty B) To ensure the accused appears in court C) To excuse the crime D) To release the accused permanently
A) Trial begins immediately B) Judge dismisses the case C) Bail is automatically granted D) Pre-trial and preparation for trial are scheduled
A) Schedule judgment B) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence C) Assign a prosecutor D) Decide on civil liabilities
A) Defense cannot start immediately B) Judge requires opening statements C) Burden of proof lies with the State D) Witnesses must speak first
A) Proper if the accused lacks counsel B) Proper only if complainant objects C) Improper because bail is a matter of right D) Proper because bail is discretionary
A) Valid if the accused understood the charge B) Valid if court is overloaded C) Invalid because counsel is mandatory unless properly waived D) Valid since arraignment is formal
A) Court may impose sanctions and proceed as justice requires B) Court requires accused to present evidence C) Defense must postpone D) Case must be dismissed
A) Valid if evidence is strong B) Valid if freely made C) Valid if prosecutor agrees D) Invalid because the judge must ensure voluntariness and full understanding
A) Acceptable if case involves moral turpitude B) Acceptable if affidavits are complete C) Acceptable; prosecutors determine guilt D) Invalid; only the court decides after hearing
A) Valid for efficiency B) Valid in minor offenses C) Valid if both parties agree D) Invalid; violates right to full cross-examination
A) Proper if judge wants to expedite B) Improper; motion to quash must be resolved first C) Proper; arraignment must always proceed D) Proper only if accused insists
A) Proper if defense offers restitution B) Proper; court has full authority C) Proper only if offense is light D) Improper; prosecution consent is essential
A) Valid; court may accept additional evidence anytime B) Invalid; violates due process and right to rebut C) Valid if trial is almost finished D) Valid if witness is material
A) Grossly improper; violates right to present evidence B) Valid if prosecution evidence is strong C) Valid to shorten trial D) Valid only if counsel agrees
A) Improper leading B) Proper direct examination considering age C) Cross-examination D) Hearsay objection
A) Force the witness B) Dismiss the witness C) Ignore and proceed D) Allow short breaks and comforting assistance
A) Always prohibited B) Required to expedite trial C) Always permitted D) Generally improper, except for hostile or child witnesses
A) Only for expert witnesses B) Only during rebuttal C) During cross-examination D) During direct examination
A) Leading question B) Hearsay C) Improper narrative D) Proper direct examination strategy
A) Accommodation for child witnesses B) Violation of impartiality C) Leading questioning D) Improper testimony
A) Direct examination B) Improper leading C) Cross-examination strategy D) Hearsay
A) Rebuttal evidence B) Direct examination C) Cross-examination D) Improper if done in court
A) Refreshing memory (proper) B) Leading question C) Reading testimony verbatim (improper) D) Cross-examination
A) Proper accommodation to enhance understanding B) Cross-examination tactic C) Improper demonstration D) Leading question
A) Proper direct examination B) Hearsay C) Leading question D) Cross-examination
A) Improper impeachment B) Hearsay evidence C) Cross-examination technique D) Direct examination
A) Leading question B) Cross-examination violation C) Proper accommodation for child witness protection D) Improper
A) Cross-examination B) Hearsay C) Proper direct examination D) Leading questions
A) Pre-trial conference B) Direct examination C) Cross-examination D) Preliminary investigation
A) Cross-examination violation B) Proper witness protection and accommodation C) Leading question D) Improper coaching
A) Guarantee acquittal B) Replace detention with probation C) Ensure accused appears during trial D) Reduce penalty
A) Bail granted automatically B) Trial begins immediately C) Case dismissed D) Pre-trial is scheduled
A) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence B) Decide civil liabilities C) Schedule judgment D) Assign a prosecutor
A) Prosecutor’s theory B) Judge’s discretion C) Witness’s memory, perception, and credibility D) Procedural technicalities
A) Make trial faster B) Replace direct questioning C) Facilitate understanding and protect them from trauma D) Influence testimony
A) Violate rights B) Test credibility and impeach statements C) Accelerate trial D) Suggest answers to witnesses
A) Hearsay questions B) Open-ended questions C) Closed-ended questions only D) Leading questions only
A) Confirm hearsay B) Support witness credibility C) End trial D) Challenge witness credibility
A) Leading questions B) Reviewing documents or reports to recall facts C) Oral suggestion D) Replacing witness
A) Skipping procedural rules B) Testing witness statements and credibility C) Unlimited questioning without relevance D) Introducing new evidence without notice
A) Protect emotional well-being B) Avoid cross-examination C) Violate impartiality D) Influence verdict
A) Voluntariness and understanding B) Sentence reduction C) Guilt D) Plea bargaining
A) Trial starts immediately B) Witness selection only C) Verdict announcement D) Clarification of issues, marking of evidence, and plea bargaining
A) Informing accused of charges and receiving plea B) Evidence evaluation C) Trial on the merits D) Bail denial
A) In flagrante delicto or hot pursuit B) Accused looks guilty C) Officer has mere suspicion D) Ordinance requires detention
A) Evidence is in plain view and exigent circumstances exist B) Officer feels probable cause C) Any officer orders it D) Consent is given
A) Pre-trial is conducted B) Case is dismissed C) Suspect is arrested without warrant and brought to prosecutor within 12 hours D) Bail is granted
A) Sentence B) Bail amount C) Probable cause D) Guilt
A) Collect fines B) Settle disputes amicably before filing in courts C) Replace courts D) Conduct arrest
A) Age-appropriate, understandable, and trauma-sensitive methods B) Hearsay evidence C) Coercion D) Leading questions only |