CLJ6-CPCTES
  • 1. A case involving qualified theft with an amount of ₱1,300,000 is filed. Which court has original jurisdiction?
A) RTC
B) MTC
C) Sandiganbayan
D) Court of Appeals
  • 2. A city prosecutor elevates an appeal on a dismissal order of the RTC in a criminal case. Which court reviews it?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Supreme Court
C) Sandiganbayan
D) MTC
  • 3. An accused challenges the constitutionality of a search warrant issued by the RTC. Which court has authority to resolve the petition?
A) MTC
B) RTC
C) Supreme Court
D) Court of Appeals
  • 4. A barangay official is charged with violation of the Anti-Graft and Corrupt Practices Act. Which court tries the case?
A) RTC
B) MTC
C) Supreme Court
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 5. A civil action for damages amounting to ₱250,000 arising from a vehicular accident in a province is filed. Where should it be filed?
A) MTC
B) Barangay Justice System
C) Court of Appeals
D) RTC
  • 6. An accused petitions for bail after being charged with a capital offense. Which court determines the bail application?
A) Supreme Court
B) MTC
C) Sandiganbayan
D) RTC
  • 7. A petition for writ of amparo is filed against military personnel. Where is the proper venue?
A) MTC
B) Sandiganbayan
C) RTC
D) Court of Appeals
  • 8. A foreign corporation sues a local company for contractual disputes. Which court hears the case initially?
A) Supreme Court
B) RTC
C) Court of Appeals
D) MTC
  • 9. A party seeks annulment of marriage. Which court has jurisdiction?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) RTC (Family Court)
C) MTC
D) Court of Appeals
  • 10. A motion for reconsideration of a Sandiganbayan decision is denied. Where is the next legal remedy filed?
A) Court of Appeals
B) MTC
C) RTC
D) Supreme Court
  • 11. Criminal procedure primarily governs which aspect of the justice process?
A) Arbitration procedures
B) Steps by which the State prosecutes violations of law
C) Administrative penalties
D) Civil litigation procedures
  • 12. The purpose of a preliminary investigation is mainly to:
A) Determine guilt
B) Conduct trial
C) Impose penalties
D) Assess whether probable cause exists to file a case
  • 13. The concept of “probable cause” in criminal procedure refers to?
A) Mere suspicion
B) A reasonable belief that an offense has been committed
C) Absolute proof of guilt
D) A prosecutor’s opinion
  • 14. Arraignment is the stage where the court?
A) Conducts mandatory mediation
B) Informs the accused of the charges and receives the plea
C) Decides on evidence admissibility
D) Evaluates mitigating circumstances
  • 15. The purpose of a warrant of arrest is to:
A) Initiate a complaint
B) Place the accused under lawful custody
C) File an information
D) Conduct preliminary investigation Answer: C
  • 16. Bail primarily serves to:
A) Reduce the penalty upon conviction
B) Replace detention with probation
C) Guarantee an acquittal
D) Ensure the accused appears in court
  • 17. The right to counsel during custodial investigation ensures that the accused:
A) Can negotiate penalties
B) Can escape detention
C) May be tried immediately
D) Is protected from coercion and uninformed waivers
  • 18. The information filed by the prosecutor must contain:
A) Proposed punishment
B) The acts complained of and the law violated
C) Accused’s personal opinion
D) Witness names only
  • 19. The exclusionary rule in criminal procedure means that:
A) Witnesses may be excluded
B) All evidence is admissible
C) Confessions are always valid
D) Evidence obtained illegally is inadmissible
  • 20. A motion to quash challenges the:
A) Trial procedure
B) Judgment
C) Credibility of witnesses
D) Validity of the complaint or information
  • 21. The concept of “double jeopardy” protects an accused from:
A) Bail denial
B) Being tried again for the same offense after acquittal
C) Civil suits
D) Multiple fines
  • 22. During trial, the prosecution presents evidence first because:
A) Defense is always last
B) Witnesses appear first
C) The State carries the burden of proof
D) Judge instructs them
  • 23. The judgment in a criminal case must be based on:
A) Public interest
B) Prosecutor’s opinion
C) Evidence presented and the applicable law
D) Defense preference
  • 24. The execution of judgment in criminal procedure refers to:
A) Reviewing evidence
B) Filing appeals
C) Enforcing the final penalty imposed by the court
D) Drafting the decision
  • 25. Police officers arrested a suspect after he “acted suspiciously” but committed no overt act. Analyze the arrest.
A) Invalid because no element of in flagrante delicto is present
B) Valid only if a warrant follows within 24 hours
C) Valid because suspicion is enough
D) Valid if officer believes crime might occur
  • 26. Officers arrest a suspect after a reliable informant claims the suspect “might transport drugs tomorrow.” Assess the legality.
A) Valid if the suspect is known in the community
B) Valid as long as informant is reliable
C) Valid if suspect previously had a record
D) Invalid because future acts do not justify warrantless arrest
  • 27. A search warrant states “illegal drugs and related contraband.” Evaluate the warrant.
A) Valid because purpose is clear
B) Valid if approved by a judge
C) Invalid due to lack of particularity
D) Valid only if the search happens immediately
  • 28. Police conduct a search of a house using a warrant issued for a different address. Evaluate the action.
A) Valid if officers believe evidence is inside
B) Invalid because a warrant is limited to its specific location
C) Valid only if consent is implied
D) Valid if within the same barangay
  • 29. During a checkpoint, officers search all closed bags inside a vehicle without probable cause. Assess the search.
A) Invalid because only visual inspection is allowed
B) Valid because checkpoints allow all searches
C) Valid if the checkpoint is authorized
D) Valid if the driver appears nervous
  • 30. Officers enter a residence without a warrant because a suspect ran inside after committing theft. Analyze the entry.
A) Valid only if homeowner consents
B) Invalid if suspect hides for more than 30 minutes
C) Invalid because theft is not a serious crime
D) Valid as hot pursuit allows warrantless entry
  • 31. Police arrest a suspect hours after a crime based only on a vague description from a bystander. Evaluate the arrest.
A) Invalid because personal knowledge of the officer is lacking
B) Valid if suspect tries to flee
C) Valid because it is still hot pursuit
D) Valid if the offense is grave
  • 32. Officers arrest a man inside his home without a warrant, claiming they “felt something was wrong.” Evaluate the arrest.
A) Valid because instinct may justify action
B) Valid if the suspect was still awake
C) Valid if officers are experienced
D) Invalid because warrantless home arrests require urgent necessity
  • 33. A valid warrant is served at 1:00 a.m. despite no justification for nighttime service. Evaluate the service.
A) Valid if officers announce their identity
B) Valid if probable cause existed
C) Valid since the warrant is lawful
D) Invalid because nighttime service requires express authorization
  • 34. Police arrest a person for loitering in a public place at night, claiming it is a crime. Assess the arrest.
A) Invalid because not all ordinances justify custodial arrest
B) Valid only if the area has a curfew
C) Invalid unless confirmed by a barangay official
D) Valid because officers maintain public order
  • 35. Officers seize laptops during a search for firearms. Evaluate the seizure.
A) Valid under plain view doctrine if immediately incriminating
B) Valid only if owner does not object
C) Valid if digital crimes are later discovered
D) Invalid because laptops are unrelated to firearms search
  • 36. During a warrantless arrest in flagrante delicto, police only saw the suspect talking to a person involved in a crime. Analyze the procedure.
A) Valid if both individuals knew each other
B) Invalid because no overt act showing involvement was observed
C) Valid because association is enough
D) Valid because one person was a suspect
  • 37. Police search a locked drawer during a consented search of a living room. The homeowner did not specify limits. Evaluate the search.
A) Valid because consent is presumed broad
B) Valid if search is within the same house
C) Valid if evidence is eventually found
D) Invalid if consent did not expressly include closed compartments
  • 38. Officers conduct a full-body search of a driver at a checkpoint without any suspicious behavior. Evaluate the action.
A) Valid if checkpoint is legal
B) Valid only if the driver is alone
C) Invalid because such intrusive searches require probable cause
D) Invalid only when done by non-uniformed personnel
  • 39. A complainant submits a sworn statement and evidence to the prosecutor’s office for a criminal offense. What procedural stage is being initiated?
A) Barangay mediation
B) Preliminary investigation filing
C) Motion for reconsideration
D) Inquest review
  • 40. A barangay captain attempts conciliation between neighbors involved in a minor physical injury case. Which mechanism is being used?
A) Judicial dispute resolution
B) Court-annexed mediation
C) Police arbitration
D) Barangay Justice System
  • 41. A suspect arrested without a warrant is brought before the prosecutor within 12 hours. What proceeding must commence?
A) Pre-trial conference
B) Judicial affidavit rule
C) Inquest proceeding
D) Summary trial
  • 42. A party files a criminal complaint directly with the MTC after failing to settle at the barangay level. Which requirement has been met?
A) Automatic judicial referral
B) Direct filing privilege
C) Prosecutorial endorsement
D) Certification to File Action
  • 43. A prosecutor dismisses a complaint for lack of probable cause without requiring counter-affidavits. Analyze the action.
A) Improper because counter-affidavits are always required
B) Proper if the case involves a barangay referral
C) Proper only if the defense requests it
D) Proper if evidence is patently insufficient
  • 44. An inquest officer orders the release of a suspect and converts the inquest into a regular preliminary investigation. Evaluate this decision.
A) Correct when warrantless arrest is invalid
B) Incorrect because suspects must stay under custody
C) Incorrect because only courts may release suspects
D) Correct only for capital offenses
  • 45. A complaint involving slander is filed directly with the prosecutor without barangay conciliation. Assess the filing.
A) Invalid only when the accused refuses mediation
B) Invalid because it must first undergo Katarungang Pambarangay conciliation
C) Valid because slander is a private crime
D) Valid if the complainant has legal counsel
  • 46. During preliminary investigation, the respondent refuses to submit counter-affidavits but asks for outright dismissal. Evaluate this action.
A) Acceptable; the respondent may rely solely on legal arguments
B) Acceptable only if complainant’s affidavit is weak
C) Improper; failure to submit counter-affidavits waives the right to rebut evidence
D) Acceptable if endorsed by the barangay
  • 47. A barangay issues a Certification to File Action even though parties refuse to appear at mediation. Analyze the issuance.
A) Valid because non-appearance is ground for issuance
B) Invalid unless arbitrators are present
C) Valid only after three scheduled hearings
D) Invalid because mediation must be completed
  • 48. A prosecutor conducts preliminary investigation solely based on affidavits without clarificatory hearings. Evaluate the procedure.
A) Invalid because hearings are always mandatory
B) Invalid unless witness examination happens
C) Valid only if the accused waives rights
D) Valid because clarificatory hearings are discretionary
  • 49. Police file a criminal complaint directly in court for a crime requiring preliminary investigation. Assess the filing.
A) Valid when barangay endorsement is unavailable
B) Valid if police have personal knowledge
C) Valid if the accused is detained
D) Invalid because offenses requiring PI must go through the prosecutor
  • 50. A suspect is arrested without warrant for an offense punishable only by a fine. Evaluate the arrest.
A) Valid as long as the suspect admits guilt
B) Invalid because the offense is not covered by warrantless arrest rules
C) Valid if the barangay issues certification
D) Valid if the arresting officer is a barangay official
  • 51. Bail is filed for an accused in a non-capital offense. Which is the primary purpose?
A) To excuse the crime
B) To release the accused permanently
C) To ensure the accused appears in court
D) To reduce the penalty
  • 52. During arraignment, the accused pleads “not guilty.” What happens next?
A) Judge dismisses the case
B) Pre-trial and preparation for trial are scheduled
C) Trial begins immediately
D) Bail is automatically granted
  • 53. Pre-trial in criminal cases primarily aims to:
A) Schedule judgment
B) Assign a prosecutor
C) Decide on civil liabilities
D) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence
  • 54. During trial, the prosecution must present its evidence first because:
A) Witnesses must speak first
B) Burden of proof lies with the State
C) Defense cannot start immediately
D) Judge requires opening statements
  • 55. A judge refuses to hear a petition for bail in a non-capital offense and requires the accused to remain detained. Analyze the judge’s action.
A) Proper only if complainant objects
B) Proper because bail is discretionary
C) Proper if the accused lacks counsel
D) Improper because bail is a matter of right
  • 56. The court arraigned an accused without counsel and without valid waiver. Evaluate the arraignment.
A) Invalid because counsel is mandatory unless properly waived
B) Valid since arraignment is formal
C) Valid if the accused understood the charge
D) Valid if court is overloaded
  • 57. Pre-trial is scheduled, but the prosecution fails to appear without justification. What should occur?
A) Court requires accused to present evidence
B) Defense must postpone
C) Case must be dismissed
D) Court may impose sanctions and proceed as justice requires
  • 58. A judge accepts a guilty plea to a serious offense without conducting a searching inquiry. Assess the plea.
A) Valid if prosecutor agrees
B) Valid if freely made
C) Invalid because the judge must ensure voluntariness and full understanding
D) Valid if evidence is strong
  • 59. The defense requests a bail hearing, but prosecution claims it is unnecessary because they “believe evidence of guilt is strong.” Evaluate.
A) Invalid; only the court decides after hearing
B) Acceptable if affidavits are complete
C) Acceptable if case involves moral turpitude
D) Acceptable; prosecutors determine guilt
  • 60. During trial, the judge restricts cross-examination to “two questions per witness.” Assess.
A) Invalid; violates right to full cross-examination
B) Valid for efficiency
C) Valid if both parties agree
D) Valid in minor offenses
  • 61. The accused was arraigned before the resolution of a pending motion to quash. Evaluate.
A) Proper; arraignment must always proceed
B) Proper if judge wants to expedite
C) Proper only if accused insists
D) Improper; motion to quash must be resolved first
  • 62. Court approves plea bargaining even though prosecution objects. Assess.
A) Improper; prosecution consent is essential
B) Proper; court has full authority
C) Proper if defense offers restitution
D) Proper only if offense is light
  • 63. Prosecution introduces a new witness after resting, without giving defense time to prepare. Evaluate.
A) Valid if witness is material
B) Valid if trial is almost finished
C) Invalid; violates due process and right to rebut
D) Valid; court may accept additional evidence anytime
  • 64. During trial, judge repeatedly prevents defense from presenting witnesses, claiming they are “unnecessary.” Evaluate.
A) Valid only if counsel agrees
B) Valid if prosecution evidence is strong
C) Grossly improper; violates right to present evidence
D) Valid to shorten trial
  • 65. During direct examination, a prosecutor asks a child witness simple, age-appropriate questions. This illustrates:
A) Improper leading
B) Cross-examination
C) Proper direct examination considering age
D) Hearsay objection
  • 66. During direct examination, a witness hesitates to answer due to trauma. What is correct?
A) Ignore and proceed
B) Force the witness
C) Allow short breaks and comforting assistance
D) Dismiss the witness
  • 67. Defense attorney asks leading questions during direct examination. This is:
A) Always prohibited
B) Always permitted
C) Required to expedite trial
D) Generally improper, except for hostile or child witnesses
  • 68. Prosecution presents evidence to refresh a witness’ memory. This occurs?
A) Only for expert witnesses
B) During cross-examination
C) Only during rebuttal
D) During direct examination
  • 69. Witness is asked to describe events chronologically during direct examination. This illustrates?
A) Hearsay
B) Improper narrative
C) Proper direct examination strategy
D) Leading question
  • 70. Child witness testifies with a social worker assisting in simple language. This demonstrates?
A) Improper testimony
B) Leading questioning
C) Violation of impartiality
D) Accommodation for child witnesses
  • 71. During cross-examination, the attorney asks questions to test the witness’ perception and memory. This is?
A) Hearsay
B) Cross-examination strategy
C) Improper leading
D) Direct examination
  • 72. Defense attorney impeaches a witness using prior inconsistent statements. This procedure is:
A) Direct examination
B) Rebuttal evidence
C) Improper if done in court
D) Cross-examination
  • 73. During direct examination, witness refers to a written report to explain events. This is:
A) Leading question
B) Reading testimony verbatim (improper)
C) Cross-examination
D) Refreshing memory (proper)
  • 74. Judge allows child witness to testify with simple props. This is an example of?
A) Leading question
B) Cross-examination tactic
C) Proper accommodation to enhance understanding
D) Improper demonstration
  • 75. Prosecutor asks a child witness to recount events in their own words, without suggesting answers. This demonstrates?
A) Proper direct examination
B) Leading question
C) Cross-examination
D) Hearsay
  • 76. During cross-examination, attorney asks witness to clarify statements made in direct examination. This illustrates?
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Improper impeachment
C) Direct examination
D) Cross-examination technique
  • 77. Child witness becomes scared and refuses to answer. Court allows testimony via closed-circuit TV. This is?
A) Cross-examination violation
B) Improper
C) Leading question
D) Proper accommodation for child witness protection
  • 78. During direct examination, witness is asked only open-ended questions to narrate the incident. This exemplifies:
A) Cross-examination
B) Proper direct examination
C) Leading questions
D) Hearsay
  • 79. Attorney asks witness about contradictory statements made outside court to challenge credibility. This occurs during?
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Direct examination
C) Pre-trial conference
D) Cross-examination
  • 80. Child witness testifies in the presence of a familiar adult to reduce stress while questions are simplified. This procedure is
A) Proper witness protection and accommodation
B) Improper coaching
C) Leading question
D) Cross-examination violation
  • 81. Bail primarily exists to?
A) Guarantee acquittal
B) Reduce penalty
C) Replace detention with probation
D) Ensure accused appears during trial
  • 82. During arraignment, accused pleads “not guilty.” What happens next?
A) Pre-trial is scheduled
B) Case dismissed
C) Bail granted automatically
D) Trial begins immediately
  • 83. Pre-trial aims to?
A) Assign a prosecutor
B) Decide civil liabilities
C) Schedule judgment
D) Negotiate plea bargaining and mark evidence
  • 84. Cross-examination of witnesses primarily tests?
A) Prosecutor’s theory
B) Procedural technicalities
C) Witness’s memory, perception, and credibility
D) Judge’s discretion
  • 85. Child witnesses may testify using props or closed-circuit television to?
A) Make trial faster
B) Replace direct questioning
C) Facilitate understanding and protect them from trauma
D) Influence testimony
  • 86. Leading questions are generally allowed during cross-examination to
A) Accelerate trial
B) Violate rights
C) Test credibility and impeach statements
D) Suggest answers to witnesses
  • 87. Direct examination should be conducted with?
A) Open-ended questions
B) Closed-ended questions only
C) Hearsay questions
D) Leading questions only
  • 88. In impeachment, prior inconsistent statements are used to?
A) Support witness credibility
B) Confirm hearsay
C) Challenge witness credibility
D) End trial
  • 89. Witness testimony may be refreshed by?
A) Reviewing documents or reports to recall facts
B) Leading questions
C) Oral suggestion
D) Replacing witness
  • 90. Proper cross-examination allows?
A) Testing witness statements and credibility
B) Skipping procedural rules
C) Introducing new evidence without notice
D) Unlimited questioning without relevance
  • 91. Child witness testifies with assistance to?
A) Violate impartiality
B) Influence verdict
C) Protect emotional well-being
D) Avoid cross-examination
  • 92. Judge ensures searching inquiry during plea to verify
A) Plea bargaining
B) Guilt
C) Voluntariness and understanding
D) Sentence reduction
  • 93. Pre-trial ensures
A) Verdict announcement
B) Witness selection only
C) Trial starts immediately
D) Clarification of issues, marking of evidence, and plea bargaining
  • 94. Arraignment involves
A) Informing accused of charges and receiving plea
B) Bail denial
C) Trial on the merits
D) Evidence evaluation
  • 95. Arrest without a warrant is allowed when?
A) Officer has mere suspicion
B) Accused looks guilty
C) Ordinance requires detention
D) In flagrante delicto or hot pursuit
  • 96. Search and seizure without a warrant is valid if?
A) Officer feels probable cause
B) Evidence is in plain view and exigent circumstances exist
C) Consent is given
D) Any officer orders it
  • 97. Inquest proceeding occurs when?
A) Suspect is arrested without warrant and brought to prosecutor within 12 hours
B) Pre-trial is conducted
C) Bail is granted
D) Case is dismissed
  • 98. Preliminary investigation determines?
A) Guilt
B) Sentence
C) Bail amount
D) Probable cause
  • 99. Barangay Justice System aims to?
A) Settle disputes amicably before filing in courts
B) Collect fines
C) Conduct arrest
D) Replace courts
  • 100. Witness presentation, including child witnesses, must be conducted using?
A) Leading questions only
B) Coercion
C) Hearsay evidence
D) Age-appropriate, understandable, and trauma-sensitive methods
Created with That Quiz — the site for test creation and grading in math and other subjects.