Cellular differentiation - Quiz
  • 1. Which three transcription factors are highly expressed in undifferentiated embryonic stem cells?
A) PRC1, PRC2, and Oct4
B) Sox2, Nanog, and TrxG
C) Klf4, c-Myc, and Oct4
D) OCT4, SOX2, and NANOG
  • 2. What is the result of increased levels of Oct4 and decreased levels of Sox2?
A) Maintenance of pluripotency
B) Suppression of NANOG
C) Neural ectodermal fate
D) Mesendodermal fate
  • 3. Which transcription factor is necessary to suppress for differentiation to occur?
A) NANOG
B) Klf4
C) OCT4
D) SOX2
  • 4. What histone modification does PRC2 catalyze?
A) Trimethylation of H3K4
B) Histone acetylation
C) Mono-ubiquitinylation of H2A
D) Di- and tri-methylation of H3K27
  • 5. What is the primary function of PRC1?
A) Promoting gene activation
B) Maintaining pluripotency
C) Catalyzing mono-ubiquitinylation of H2AK119
D) Trimethylation of H3K4
  • 6. What happens when PRC1 or PRC2 genes are deleted in ES cells?
A) Stable maintenance of pluripotency
B) Decreased differentiation potential
C) Inhibition of TrxG recruitment
D) Increased expression of lineage-affiliated genes
  • 7. Which group of proteins acts in opposition to Polycomb group (PcG) proteins?
A) Trithorax group (TrxG) proteins
B) RNA polymerase II
C) Histone methyltransferases
D) Pioneer factors
  • 8. What modification do TrxG proteins catalyze to promote gene activation?
A) Trimethylation of H3K4
B) Mono-ubiquitinylation of H2A
C) Tri-methylation of H3K27
D) Demethylation of H3K27
  • 9. What characterizes a 'bivalent domain' at developmental loci?
A) High levels of DNA methylation
B) Constitutive high expression
C) Permanent silencing of all genes
D) Competition between PcG and TrxG complexes
  • 10. How does SOX2 influence neural ectodermal fate?
A) Decreased levels of SOX2 promote neural ectodermal fate
B) Increased levels of SOX2 promote neural ectodermal fate
C) It has no effect on germ layer selection
D) It suppresses NANOG but not SOX2
  • 11. PcG-deficient ES cells have what specific problem regarding differentiation?
A) They cannot initiate differentiation
B) They cannot maintain the differentiated phenotype
C) They express excessive amounts of NANOG
D) They are forced into a neural fate
  • 12. What is the function of OCT4 in relation to neural ectodermal fate?
A) It is not expressed in the presence of SOX2
B) It actively suppresses neural ectodermal genes
C) It has no function regarding neural fate
D) It promotes neural ectodermal genes
  • 13. What is one hypothesis regarding the cause of cancers mentioned in the text?
A) Excessive gene expression
B) Loss of cell culture ability
C) Over-differentiation of cells
D) Dedifferentiation as an aberration
  • 14. What is reversine?
A) A purine analog
B) A type of stem cell
C) A protein found in worms
D) A gene regulatory network
  • 15. What is the focus of the systems biology approach to developmental biology?
A) How cells revert to an earlier stage
B) The random selection of genes for expression
C) The effects of purine analogs on human immunity
D) How developmental mechanisms interact to produce morphogenesis
  • 16. According to the alternative view mentioned, what is the cause of cellular differentiation?
A) The change in cell shape in the laboratory
B) The administration of chemical analogs
C) A predefined genetic roadmap
D) A Darwinian selective process occurring among cells
  • 17. What life forms besides animals exhibit dedifferentiation?
A) Prions
B) Viruses
C) Archaea
D) Plants
  • 18. What is another term used in the text for dedifferentiation?
A) Morphogenesis
B) Redifferentiation
C) Stochasticity
D) Integration
  • 19. What do manifestly dedifferentiated cells perform as after treatment with reversine?
A) Muscle fibers
B) Specialized neurons
C) Cancerous tumors
D) Stem cells
  • 20. How many basic categories of cells make up the mammalian body?
A) Two
B) Five
C) Four
D) Three
  • 21. What is the approximate number of cells in an adult human body?
A) 3.72 billion
B) 3.72 trillion
C) 37.2 billion
D) 37.2 trillion
  • 22. What term describes cells that have two copies of each chromosome?
A) Polyploid
B) Monoploid
C) Haploid
D) Diploid
  • 23. What is the hollow sphere of cells formed after fertilization called?
A) Gastrula
B) Blastocyst
C) Zygote
D) Blastula
  • 24. What are the cells of the inner cell mass capable of forming?
A) Virtually all human body tissues
B) An entire organism
C) Only neural tissue
D) Only skin cells
  • 25. How are cells that can form almost every cell type but not an entire organism described?
A) Multipotent
B) Unipotent
C) Totipotent
D) Pluripotent
  • 26. Which primary germ layer forms the skin and the nervous system?
A) Blastoderm
B) Endoderm
C) Mesoderm
D) Ectoderm
  • 27. Which primary germ layer forms the internal organ tissues?
A) Mesoderm
B) Epidermis
C) Endoderm
D) Ectoderm
  • 28. Bones and muscular tissue are formed by which primary germ layer?
A) Endoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Dermis
D) Ectoderm
  • 29. When does cellular differentiation occur in a multicellular organism?
A) Only during the embryonic stage
B) Only when the organism is injured
C) Multiple times during development
D) Only after reaching adulthood
  • 30. What process is responsible for the changes in gene expression during differentiation?
A) Natural selection
B) DNA recombination
C) Genetic mutation
D) Epigenetics
  • 31. Does cellular differentiation typically involve a change in DNA sequence?
A) Yes, during aging
B) No
C) Yes, always
D) Yes, in stem cells only
  • 32. What is the term for cells that permanently leave the cell cycle?
A) Terminal differentiation
B) Pluripotency
C) Self-renewal
D) Totipotency
  • 33. What determines a cell's ability to differentiate into other cell types?
A) Cell metabolic rate
B) Cell potency
C) Cell size
D) Cell membrane thickness
  • 34. Which cells can differentiate into all cell types, including placental tissue?
A) Totipotent
B) Multipotent
C) Unipotent
D) Pluripotent
  • 35. What is the primary function of unipotent cells?
A) Self-renewal
B) Creating placental tissue
C) Differentiating into all cell types
D) Permanent cell cycle arrest
  • 36. What are the signaling molecules that convey information to control cellular differentiation often called?
A) Cytoskeletal proteins
B) Growth factors
C) Regulatory enzymes
D) Dormant receptors
  • 37. What term refers to the ability of cells and tissues to respond to external signals?
A) Induction
B) Competence
C) Dormancy
D) Asymmetry
  • 38. What causes asymmetric cell division according to the text?
A) The uniform distribution of regulatory molecules
B) The absence of phosphorylation cascades
C) Asymmetrically expressed maternal cytoplasmic determinants or signaling
D) The lack of enzymatic activity in the receptor
  • 39. Which molecule is specifically mentioned as an important type of intracellular differentiation control signal?
A) Receptors
B) Growth factors
C) Ligands
D) RNA molecules
  • 40. Which organism is mentioned as a model system for studying the evolution from unicellular to multicellular organisms?
A) Surface-dwelling fish
B) Cave-dwelling fish
C) Drosophila
D) Volvox
  • 41. Which of the following is mentioned as a possible type of attractor in cell-fate determination?
A) Linear attractor
B) Progenitor attractor
C) Strange attractor
D) Random attractor
  • 42. On which organism type does the epigenetic section focus primarily?
A) Bacteria
B) Mammals
C) Unicellular eukaryotes
D) Plants
  • 43. How are molecular processes involved in animal cell differentiation described in relation to evolution?
A) Convergent with bacterial systems
B) Evolutionarily conserved
C) Randomly evolved
D) Entirely novel and unique to animals
  • 44. Which researchers authored the 2011 paper on aberrant epigenomic programming in iPSCs?
A) Watson and Crick
B) Darwin and Wallace
C) Mendel and Morgan
D) Lister R, et al.
  • 45. What percentage of CG dinucleotides are typically methylated in ESCs and iPSCs?
A) 80%
B) 20%
C) 40%
D) 60%
  • 46. What percentage of CG dinucleotides are typically methylated in somatic cells?
A) 30%
B) 50%
C) 80%
D) 60%
  • 47. How many regions of differential CG dinucleotide methylation were discovered between ES and iPS cell lines?
A) 88
B) 1175
C) 56
D) 44
  • 48. What percentage of differentially methylated regions reflected the patterns of original progenitor somatic cells?
A) 51-56%
B) 44-49%
C) 1.5%
D) 88%
  • 49. What percentage of differentially methylated regions were dissimilar to both progenitor and embryonic cell lines?
A) 12%
B) 80%
C) 51-56%
D) 44-49%
  • 50. During in vitro-induced differentiation of iPSC lines, what percentage of hyper-methylated regions were transmitted?
A) 46%
B) 88%
C) 56%
D) 44%
  • 51. During in vitro-induced differentiation of iPSC lines, what percentage of hypo-methylated regions were transmitted?
A) 49%
B) 88%
C) 51%
D) 46%
  • 52. What process mediates the methylation of cytosine residues in CpG dinucleotides?
A) Histone deacetylase
B) Pioneer factors
C) Histone acetyltransferase
D) DNA methyltransferase
  • 53. What is the primary function of DNA methylation in gene regulation?
A) Increases chromatin accessibility
B) Reverses histone acetylation
C) Maintains heritable repression
D) Promotes active transcription
  • 54. In embryonic stem cells, most CpG sites are associated with which type of nucleosomes?
A) H3K27me3-carrying
B) Deacetylated nucleosomes
C) H3K4me3-carrying
D) Heterochromatic nucleosomes
  • 55. What determines transcription factor binding patterns in cells with the same DNA sequence?
A) Chromatin accessibility
B) Total DNA quantity
C) Nucleotide sequence order
D) RNA interference
  • 56. Which technique can determine if a nucleosome is covering a specific genomic binding site?
A) Apoptosis assay
B) Histone acetylation mapping
C) Chromatin immunoprecipitation assay
D) DNA methylation profiling
  • 57. What term describes the tightly bound, transcriptionally inactive state of DNA-nucleosome interactions?
A) Methylated euchromatin
B) Heterochromatin
C) Euchromatin
D) Pioneer chromatin
  • 58. What enzyme removes acetyl groups from Lysine residues in histones?
A) DNA methyltransferases
B) Histone acetyltransferases
C) Histone deacetylases
D) Histone demethylases
  • 59. Which histone modification is associated with gene activation?
A) H3K27me3
B) Histone deacetylation
C) H3K4me3
D) DNA methylation
  • 60. What is the characteristic of euchromatin?
A) Always permanently repressed
B) Loosely bound
C) Tightly bound
D) Transcriptionally inactive
  • 61. What residue in histones is targeted by acetyltransferases and deacetylases?
A) Cytosine
B) Lysine
C) Guanine
D) Adenine
  • 62. KDM1A interacts with which complex?
A) Jak-STAT3 complex.
B) PcG complex.
C) Smad complex.
D) Mi-2/NuRD complex.
  • 63. What happens when beta-catenin is disrupted in neural progenitors?
A) Decreased proliferation.
B) Rapid differentiation.
C) Increased apoptosis.
D) Increased proliferation.
  • 64. Which pathway is necessary and sufficient for maintaining mouse ESC pluripotency?
A) Sonic hedgehog pathway.
B) Bmi1 signaling.
C) Notch signaling.
D) Jak-STAT3 pathway.
  • 65. Sonic hedgehog (Shh) promotes the production of which PcG complex component?
A) STAT3.
B) BMI1.
C) OCT4.
D) KDM1A.
  • 66. In the alternative model of differentiation, what provides positional information?
A) Random cellular movement.
B) Mechanical signalling by the cytoskeleton.
C) Oxygen concentration levels.
D) Genetic mutation rates.
  • 67. What does BMI1 recognize?
A) OCT4.
B) Smad proteins.
C) Wnt3a.
D) H3K27me3.
  • 68. Which structures act as the cellular mechano-transducer for sensing matrix elasticity?
A) Focal adhesions
B) Ribosomes
C) Cell nuclei
D) Mitochondria
  • 69. Which protein isoforms generate the forces required for signaling early commitment markers?
A) Non-muscle myosin IIa-c
B) Microtubules
C) Actin filaments
D) Keratin filaments
  • 70. Which agent can inhibit non-muscle myosin II, making cells blind to matrix elasticity?
A) Blebbistatin
B) Bicellum
C) RhoA
D) Chemokine
  • 71. Which non-muscle myosin II isoform generates the least amount of force?
A) IId
B) IIa
C) IIb
D) IIc
  • 72. How old is the fossil Bicellum brasieri?
A) Five hundred million years
B) Two billion years
C) Fifty million years
D) One billion years
  • 73. Where is it suggested that differentiated multicellularity may have mainly occurred?
A) Deep ocean trenches
B) Freshwater lakes
C) Volcanic vents
D) Arctic glaciers
  • 74. What is the origin of mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs) mentioned in the text?
A) Muscle tissue
B) Skin epidermis
C) Brain tissue
D) Bone marrow
  • 75. What properties were induced in HEK 239 cells by providing a soft matrix?
A) Bone mineralization
B) Stem-cell like properties
C) Brain neuronal activity
D) Muscle fiber properties
  • 76. What provides the tension linked to stem-cell properties in cells?
A) Cell wall
B) Endoplasmic reticulum
C) Actin network
D) Nuclear envelope
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