CLJ set A
  • 1. Which agency is primarily mandated to enforce laws on illegal drugs in the
    Philippines?
A) National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
B) Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)
C) Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)
D) Philippine National Police (PNP)
  • 2. Which agency serves as the investigative arm of the Department of Justice for
    highprofile and complex crimes?
A) BJMP
B) PNP
C) NBI
D) BFP
  • 3. During inquest proceedings, what is the primary duty of the prosecutor?
A) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
B) Determine validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
C) Conduct trial
D) Decide the proper penalty
  • 4. Which court has jurisdiction over criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment
    exceeding six years?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Municipal Trial Court
  • 5. A convict sentenced to eight years imprisonment will generally serve sentence in
    which institution
A) Bureau of Corrections facility
B) BJMP jail
C) PNP detention cell
D) Prosecutor’s Office
  • 6. Which constitutional principle guarantees fairness in the administration of justice?
A) Due process
B) Double jeopardy
C) Eminent domain
D) Police power
  • 7. A suspect under custodial investigation must be informed of his:
A) Miranda rights
B) Property rights
C) Political rights only
D) Voting rights
  • 8. Which requirement is essential before a judge may issue a search warrant?
A) Conviction
B) Preliminary investigation
C) Written confession
D) Probable cause
  • 9. Which right protects a person from being compelled to testify against himself?
A) Right against self-incrimination
B) Right to travel
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to suffrage
  • 10. Which writ protects a person against unlawful detention?
A) Writ of Certiorari
B) Writ of Execution
C) Writ of Habeas Corpus
D) Writ of Amparo
  • 11. Felonies committed with deliberate intent are known as:
A) Mala prohibita
B) Dolo
C) Culpa
D) Quasi-offenses
  • 12. Criminal laws are generally binding on all persons who live or sojourn in Philippine
    territory under the principle of:
A) Prospectivity
B) Retroactivity
C) Territoriality
D) Generality
  • 13. Felonies committed through negligence are called:
A) Impossible crimes
B) Consummated felonies
C) Intentional felonies
D) Culpable felonies
  • 14. When two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony, there is:
A) Recidivism
B) Proposal
C) Treachery
D) Conspiracy
  • 15. A person who cooperates in the execution of the offense by previous or
    simultaneous acts is:
A) Accessory
B) Principal
C) Witness
D) Accomplice
  • 16. A person who profits from the effects of the crime after its commission is generally
    liable as:
A) Co-conspirator
B) Accessory
C) Principal
D) Accomplice
  • 17. Which of the following best describes conspiracy?
A) Mere knowledge of the crime
B) Concealing evidence after the crime
C) Presence at the crime scene
D) Unity of purpose and intention in committing the crime
  • 18. The offender performed all acts of execution but the felony was not produced due to
    causes independent of his will. The felony is:
A) Consummated
B) Attempted
C) Frustrated
D) Impossible
  • 19. The offender commences the commission of a felony directly by overt acts but does
    not perform all acts of execution. The felony is:
A) Impossible
B) Consummated
C) Frustrated
D) Attempted
  • 20. Which is an indivisible penalty?
A) Prision correccional
B) Destierro
C) Reclusion perpetua
D) Arresto menor
  • 21. Which circumstance exempts a person from criminal liability?
A) Voluntary surrender
B) Recidivism
C) Insanity
D) Treachery
  • 22. Voluntary surrender is a:
A) Exempting circumstance
B) Aggravating circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 23. Which aggravating circumstance exists when the offender employs mean tending
    directly to insure execution without risk to himself?
A) Habituality
B) Cruelty
C) Treachery
D) Dwelling
  • 24. Self-defense requires unlawful aggression, reasonable necessity of the means
    employed, and:
A) Lack of sufficient provocation
B) Intent to kill
C) Revenge
D) Relationship
  • 25. Recidivism exists when the offender:
A) Repeats the same crime before conviction
B) Commits another crime after final conviction
C) Uses a deadly weapon
D) Escapes during trial
  • 26. Passion and obfuscation are classified as a:
A) Qualifying circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Aggravating circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 27. Criminal liability is totally extinguished by:
A) Death of the convict
B) Recidivism
C) Escape from prison
D) Concealment
  • 28. Service of sentence extinguishes:
A) Civil liability only
B) Damages only
C) Criminal liability
D) Subsidiary liability only
  • 29. Marriage between the offender and offended party in certain crimes against chastity
    may extinguish:
A) Political rights
B) Civil liability only
C) Administrative liability
D) Criminal liability
  • 30. Amnesty extinguishes:
A) Property rights
B) Evidence
C) Criminal liability and penalty
D) Civil liability only
  • 31. A person who kills another without any qualifying circumstance commits:
A) Parricide
B) Murder
C) Infanticide
D) Homicide
  • 32. Killing attended by treachery is:
A) Murder
B) Infanticide
C) Homicide
D) Parricide
  • 33. The killing of a child less than three days old is:
A) Infanticide
B) Murder
C) Parricide
D) Homicide
  • 34. Which crime is committed when physical injuries incapacitate the victim for labor for
    more than 30 days?
A) Serious physical injuries
B) Grave threats
C) Grave coercion
D) Slight physical injuries
  • 35. Illegal discharge of firearm is committed when:
A) Firearm is possessed illegally
B) Firearm is displayed publicly
C) Firearm is used in robbery
D) A firearm is discharged against another person without intent to kill
  • 36. Which crime against persons requires a qualifying circumstance for its existence?
A) Duel
B) Murder
C) Physical injuries
D) Homicide
  • 37. Which crime is committed when a person kills another under exceptional
    circumstances provided by law?
A) Parricide
B) Homicide
C) Death under exceptional circumstances
D) Murder
  • 38. Taking personal property without violence and with intent to gain is:
A) Malicious mischief
B) Theft
C) Robbery
D) Estafa
  • 39. Robbery differs from theft because robbery involves:
A) Abuse of confidence
B) Violence or intimidation
C) Forgery
D) Public officer participation
  • 40. Which crime is committed by defrauding another through abuse of confidence or
    deceit?
A) Estafa
B) Theft
C) Robbery
D) Malversation
  • 41. Deliberately damaging another person’s property is:
A) Malicious mischief
B) Arson
C) Robbery
D) Estafa
  • 42. Kidnapping is a crime against:
A) Public order
B) Honor
C) Chastity
D) Liberty
  • 43. Arbitrary detention is committed by:
A) Judge issuing warrant
B) Public officer detaining a person without legal grounds
C) Any private person
D) Prosecutor conducting inquest
  • 44. Grave threats are committed by:
A) Concealing a crime
B) Defaming another person
C) Taking property
D) Threatening another with infliction of wrong
  • 45. Grave coercion involves:
A) Compelling another by violence or intimidation to do something against his will
B) Taking property through deceit
C) Public scandal
D) Falsification
  • 46. Arbitrary detention is classified as a crime against:
A) Public order
B) Chastity
C) Persons
D) Fundamental law of the State
  • 47. Violation of domicile is committed by:
A) Trespasser entering property
B) A tenant refusing to vacate
C) Private individual entering a house
D) Public officer entering a dwelling against the owner’s will without judicial order
  • 48. Alarm and scandal are committed by:
A) Taking property
B) Causing disturbance in public places
C) Falsifying documents
D) Defaming another person
  • 49. Direct bribery is committed when a public officer:
A) Accepts consideration in connection with official duties
B) Falsifies testimony
C) Commits homicide
D) Escapes detention
  • 50. Libel is committed through:
A) Physical assault
B) Mere gestures
C) Writing or similar means
D) Spoken words only
  • 51. Oral defamation is also known as:
A) Libel
B) Slander
C) Estafa
D) Perjury
  • 52. Concubinage is committed by:
A) Married man cohabiting with another woman under scandalous circumstances
B) Single man seducing a minor
C) Married woman having intercourse with another man
D) Public officer abusing authority
  • 53. Adultery is committed by:
A) Widow remarrying early
B) Married man alone
C) Single woman only
D) Married woman having sexual intercourse with another man
  • 54. Bigamy is committed by:
A) Cohabiting scandalously
B) Seducing a minor
C) Living together without marriage
D) Contracting another marriage before dissolution of the first valid marriage
  • 55. Intriguing against honor is committed by:
A) Threatening another
B) Publishing defamatory articles
C) Swearing falsely
D) Making intrigue intended to blemish another’s honor
  • 56. Human trafficking is punishable under:
A) Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act
B) Cybercrime Law
C) Dangerous Drugs Act
D) Revised Penal Code only
  • 57. Which law penalizes acts of terrorism in the Philippines?
A) Local Government Code
B) Anti-Terrorism Act
C) Safe Spaces Act
D) Juvenile Justice Act
  • 58. The Safe Spaces Act penalizes:
A) Human trafficking
B) Drug trafficking
C) Illegal detention
D) Gender-based sexual harassment
  • 59. Illegal recruitment committed by syndicates may constitute:
A) Robbery
B) Libel
C) Arbitrary detention
D) Human trafficking
  • 60. The amount of evidence required in criminal cases is proof beyond:
A) Doubt
B) Suspicion
C) Reasonable doubt
D) Probability
  • 61. Which quantum of evidence is required in civil cases?
A) Substantial evidence
B) Prima facie evidence
C) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
D) Preponderance of evidence
  • 62. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Physical objects
B) Written contracts
C) Fingerprints
D) Oral statements made by witnesses in court
  • 63. Documentary evidence consists of:
A) Demonstrations
B) Oral testimony
C) Tangible objects
D) Written instruments and documents
  • 64. Evidence which directly proves a fact without inference is:
A) Direct evidence
B) Secondary evidence
C) Hearsay evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 65. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction when:
A) The circumstances form an unbroken chain leading to guilt
B) There is only one circumstance
C) The accused confesses
D) There is no eyewitness
  • 66. Evidence is admissible when it is:
A) Competent only
B) Material only
C) Relevant and competent
D) Relevant only
  • 67. Evidence obtained in violation of constitutional rights is generally:
A) Admissible
B) Preferred
C) Conclusive
D) Inadmissible
  • 68. The doctrine that excludes illegally obtained evidence is known as:
A) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
B) Equipoise doctrine
C) Plain view doctrine
D) Res gestae doctrine
  • 69. Which rule requires the original document when its contents are the subject of
    inquiry?
A) Character evidence rule
B) Opinion rule
C) Best evidence rule
D) Hearsay rule
  • 70. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Mandatory
B) Inadmissible
C) Admissible
D) Conclusive
  • 71. A dying declaration is an exception to the:
A) Opinion rule
B) Best evidence rule
C) Character evidence rule
D) Hearsay rule
  • 72. Evidence not formally offered cannot generally be:
A) Copied
B) Appreciated by the court
C) Marked
D) Attached to records
  • 73. Which party may object to inadmissible evidence during trial?
A) Witness only
B) Prosecutor only
C) Adverse party
D) Judge only
  • 74. Public documents are generally admissible without:
A) Certification
B) Authentication
C) Identification
D) Marking
  • 75. An affidavit is:
A) A judicial notice
B) A search warrant
C) A sworn written statement
D) A subpoena
  • 76. Positive identification generally prevails over:
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Denial and alibi
D) Object evidence
  • 77. The prosecution must rely on the strength of:
A) Its own evidence
B) Public opinion
C) Defense evidence
D) Police report alone
  • 78. Which court generally tries criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment exceeding
    six years?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Sandiganbayan
C) RTC
D) MTC
  • 79. Appeals from decisions of the Municipal Trial Court in criminal cases are generally
    brought to the:
A) Supreme Court
B) Court of Appeals
C) Regional Trial Court
D) DOJ
  • 80. The Sandiganbayan primarily has jurisdiction over:
A) Drug cases
B) Cases involving public officers and graft-related offenses
C) Family cases
D) Election offenses
  • 81. Criminal actions are instituted by filing a:
A) Appeal only
B) Petition only
C) Memorandum only
D) Complaint or Information
  • 82. Preliminary investigation is required for offenses punishable by at least:
A) 6 months
B) 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
C) 10 years
D) 1 year
  • 83. The accused is presumed:
A) Guilty
B) Liable
C) Dangerous
D) Innocent until proven guilty
  • 84. The right to speedy trial protects the accused against:
A) Excessive bail
B) Double jeopardy
C) Delay in proceedings
D) Illegal search
  • 85. Which right guarantees that an accused understands the accusation against him?
A) Right to property
B) Right to bail
C) Right to travel
D) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
  • 86. A warrant of arrest may be issued only upon finding of:
A) Rumor
B) Conviction
C) Probable cause
D) Suspicion
  • 87. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) In flagrante delicto arrest
B) Citizen’s arrest
C) Hot pursuit arrest
D) Escapee arrest
  • 88. A valid search warrant must particularly describe:
A) The witnesses
B) The penalty
C) The prosecutor
D) The place to be searched and things to be seized
  • 89. Search incidental to lawful arrest is:
A) Invalid always
B) Allowed only with prosecutor approval
C) Allowed only in drug cases
D) An exception to the warrant requirement
  • 90. The purpose of preliminary investigation is to determine:
A) Probable cause
B) Exact penalty
C) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Damages
  • 91. In inquest proceedings, the prosecutor first determines:
A) Civil liability
B) Penalty to be imposed
C) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
  • 92. Which official files the Information in court?
A) Judge
B) Prosecutor
C) Police officer
D) Barangay captain
  • 93. The primary purpose of bail is to:
A) Ensure appearance of the accused in court
B) Acquit the accused
C) Terminate the case
D) Reduce penalty
  • 94. Arraignment consists of:
A) Bail hearing
B) Issuance of warrant
C) Cross-examination
D) Reading the Information in open court and asking the accused to plead
  • 95. Double jeopardy attaches after:
A) Sentencing only
B) Filing of complaint only
C) Arrest only
D) Valid arraignment and plea
  • 96. Trial in absentia may proceed if the accused:
A) Is a minor
B) Refuses to hire counsel
C) Escapes after arraignment and due notice
D) Has not been arraigned
  • 97. Direct examination is conducted by:
A) The party presenting the witness
B) Adverse counsel
C) The judge only
D) The clerk of court
  • 98. Cross-examination is intended to:
A) Repeat testimony
B) Dismiss the case
C) Introduce judgment
D) Test credibility and truthfulness of the witness
  • 99. A child witness may testify if the child:
A) Is related to the victim
B) Can perceive and truthfully communicate facts
C) Has written testimony
D) Is at least 18 years old
  • 100. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Citizen’s arrest
B) Hot pursuit arrest
C) Escapee arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
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