CLJ set A
  • 1. Which agency is primarily mandated to enforce laws on illegal drugs in the
    Philippines?
A) Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)
B) Philippine National Police (PNP)
C) National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
D) Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)
  • 2. Which agency serves as the investigative arm of the Department of Justice for
    highprofile and complex crimes?
A) BJMP
B) BFP
C) PNP
D) NBI
  • 3. During inquest proceedings, what is the primary duty of the prosecutor?
A) Determine validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
B) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
C) Conduct trial
D) Decide the proper penalty
  • 4. Which court has jurisdiction over criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment
    exceeding six years?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Municipal Trial Court
C) Regional Trial Court
  • 5. A convict sentenced to eight years imprisonment will generally serve sentence in
    which institution
A) Bureau of Corrections facility
B) Prosecutor’s Office
C) BJMP jail
D) PNP detention cell
  • 6. Which constitutional principle guarantees fairness in the administration of justice?
A) Police power
B) Due process
C) Eminent domain
D) Double jeopardy
  • 7. A suspect under custodial investigation must be informed of his:
A) Political rights only
B) Property rights
C) Voting rights
D) Miranda rights
  • 8. Which requirement is essential before a judge may issue a search warrant?
A) Conviction
B) Probable cause
C) Written confession
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 9. Which right protects a person from being compelled to testify against himself?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right to travel
C) Right against self-incrimination
D) Right to suffrage
  • 10. Which writ protects a person against unlawful detention?
A) Writ of Certiorari
B) Writ of Amparo
C) Writ of Execution
D) Writ of Habeas Corpus
  • 11. Felonies committed with deliberate intent are known as:
A) Culpa
B) Quasi-offenses
C) Mala prohibita
D) Dolo
  • 12. Criminal laws are generally binding on all persons who live or sojourn in Philippine
    territory under the principle of:
A) Retroactivity
B) Prospectivity
C) Generality
D) Territoriality
  • 13. Felonies committed through negligence are called:
A) Intentional felonies
B) Consummated felonies
C) Culpable felonies
D) Impossible crimes
  • 14. When two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony, there is:
A) Treachery
B) Recidivism
C) Conspiracy
D) Proposal
  • 15. A person who cooperates in the execution of the offense by previous or
    simultaneous acts is:
A) Witness
B) Accessory
C) Principal
D) Accomplice
  • 16. A person who profits from the effects of the crime after its commission is generally
    liable as:
A) Co-conspirator
B) Accessory
C) Principal
D) Accomplice
  • 17. Which of the following best describes conspiracy?
A) Presence at the crime scene
B) Mere knowledge of the crime
C) Unity of purpose and intention in committing the crime
D) Concealing evidence after the crime
  • 18. The offender performed all acts of execution but the felony was not produced due to
    causes independent of his will. The felony is:
A) Impossible
B) Consummated
C) Attempted
D) Frustrated
  • 19. The offender commences the commission of a felony directly by overt acts but does
    not perform all acts of execution. The felony is:
A) Impossible
B) Attempted
C) Consummated
D) Frustrated
  • 20. Which is an indivisible penalty?
A) Arresto menor
B) Prision correccional
C) Destierro
D) Reclusion perpetua
  • 21. Which circumstance exempts a person from criminal liability?
A) Voluntary surrender
B) Insanity
C) Recidivism
D) Treachery
  • 22. Voluntary surrender is a:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Exempting circumstance
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Mitigating circumstance
  • 23. Which aggravating circumstance exists when the offender employs mean tending
    directly to insure execution without risk to himself?
A) Dwelling
B) Cruelty
C) Habituality
D) Treachery
  • 24. Self-defense requires unlawful aggression, reasonable necessity of the means
    employed, and:
A) Lack of sufficient provocation
B) Relationship
C) Revenge
D) Intent to kill
  • 25. Recidivism exists when the offender:
A) Commits another crime after final conviction
B) Repeats the same crime before conviction
C) Uses a deadly weapon
D) Escapes during trial
  • 26. Passion and obfuscation are classified as a:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Mitigating circumstance
C) Justifying circumstance
D) Qualifying circumstance
  • 27. Criminal liability is totally extinguished by:
A) Concealment
B) Escape from prison
C) Death of the convict
D) Recidivism
  • 28. Service of sentence extinguishes:
A) Damages only
B) Subsidiary liability only
C) Civil liability only
D) Criminal liability
  • 29. Marriage between the offender and offended party in certain crimes against chastity
    may extinguish:
A) Civil liability only
B) Administrative liability
C) Political rights
D) Criminal liability
  • 30. Amnesty extinguishes:
A) Civil liability only
B) Evidence
C) Criminal liability and penalty
D) Property rights
  • 31. A person who kills another without any qualifying circumstance commits:
A) Infanticide
B) Parricide
C) Murder
D) Homicide
  • 32. Killing attended by treachery is:
A) Parricide
B) Homicide
C) Infanticide
D) Murder
  • 33. The killing of a child less than three days old is:
A) Murder
B) Parricide
C) Infanticide
D) Homicide
  • 34. Which crime is committed when physical injuries incapacitate the victim for labor for
    more than 30 days?
A) Grave threats
B) Serious physical injuries
C) Slight physical injuries
D) Grave coercion
  • 35. Illegal discharge of firearm is committed when:
A) Firearm is displayed publicly
B) Firearm is possessed illegally
C) A firearm is discharged against another person without intent to kill
D) Firearm is used in robbery
  • 36. Which crime against persons requires a qualifying circumstance for its existence?
A) Homicide
B) Physical injuries
C) Murder
D) Duel
  • 37. Which crime is committed when a person kills another under exceptional
    circumstances provided by law?
A) Parricide
B) Murder
C) Death under exceptional circumstances
D) Homicide
  • 38. Taking personal property without violence and with intent to gain is:
A) Malicious mischief
B) Estafa
C) Robbery
D) Theft
  • 39. Robbery differs from theft because robbery involves:
A) Forgery
B) Violence or intimidation
C) Public officer participation
D) Abuse of confidence
  • 40. Which crime is committed by defrauding another through abuse of confidence or
    deceit?
A) Estafa
B) Robbery
C) Theft
D) Malversation
  • 41. Deliberately damaging another person’s property is:
A) Malicious mischief
B) Estafa
C) Arson
D) Robbery
  • 42. Kidnapping is a crime against:
A) Honor
B) Chastity
C) Liberty
D) Public order
  • 43. Arbitrary detention is committed by:
A) Any private person
B) Prosecutor conducting inquest
C) Judge issuing warrant
D) Public officer detaining a person without legal grounds
  • 44. Grave threats are committed by:
A) Defaming another person
B) Concealing a crime
C) Taking property
D) Threatening another with infliction of wrong
  • 45. Grave coercion involves:
A) Compelling another by violence or intimidation to do something against his will
B) Falsification
C) Taking property through deceit
D) Public scandal
  • 46. Arbitrary detention is classified as a crime against:
A) Fundamental law of the State
B) Public order
C) Chastity
D) Persons
  • 47. Violation of domicile is committed by:
A) Trespasser entering property
B) A tenant refusing to vacate
C) Private individual entering a house
D) Public officer entering a dwelling against the owner’s will without judicial order
  • 48. Alarm and scandal are committed by:
A) Causing disturbance in public places
B) Taking property
C) Falsifying documents
D) Defaming another person
  • 49. Direct bribery is committed when a public officer:
A) Falsifies testimony
B) Commits homicide
C) Escapes detention
D) Accepts consideration in connection with official duties
  • 50. Libel is committed through:
A) Writing or similar means
B) Spoken words only
C) Physical assault
D) Mere gestures
  • 51. Oral defamation is also known as:
A) Perjury
B) Slander
C) Estafa
D) Libel
  • 52. Concubinage is committed by:
A) Married man cohabiting with another woman under scandalous circumstances
B) Single man seducing a minor
C) Married woman having intercourse with another man
D) Public officer abusing authority
  • 53. Adultery is committed by:
A) Married man alone
B) Single woman only
C) Widow remarrying early
D) Married woman having sexual intercourse with another man
  • 54. Bigamy is committed by:
A) Contracting another marriage before dissolution of the first valid marriage
B) Cohabiting scandalously
C) Seducing a minor
D) Living together without marriage
  • 55. Intriguing against honor is committed by:
A) Threatening another
B) Swearing falsely
C) Publishing defamatory articles
D) Making intrigue intended to blemish another’s honor
  • 56. Human trafficking is punishable under:
A) Cybercrime Law
B) Dangerous Drugs Act
C) Revised Penal Code only
D) Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act
  • 57. Which law penalizes acts of terrorism in the Philippines?
A) Safe Spaces Act
B) Juvenile Justice Act
C) Anti-Terrorism Act
D) Local Government Code
  • 58. The Safe Spaces Act penalizes:
A) Illegal detention
B) Gender-based sexual harassment
C) Human trafficking
D) Drug trafficking
  • 59. Illegal recruitment committed by syndicates may constitute:
A) Human trafficking
B) Robbery
C) Libel
D) Arbitrary detention
  • 60. The amount of evidence required in criminal cases is proof beyond:
A) Doubt
B) Reasonable doubt
C) Probability
D) Suspicion
  • 61. Which quantum of evidence is required in civil cases?
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Preponderance of evidence
C) Prima facie evidence
D) Substantial evidence
  • 62. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Written contracts
B) Fingerprints
C) Physical objects
D) Oral statements made by witnesses in court
  • 63. Documentary evidence consists of:
A) Written instruments and documents
B) Tangible objects
C) Demonstrations
D) Oral testimony
  • 64. Evidence which directly proves a fact without inference is:
A) Direct evidence
B) Hearsay evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 65. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction when:
A) There is only one circumstance
B) The accused confesses
C) The circumstances form an unbroken chain leading to guilt
D) There is no eyewitness
  • 66. Evidence is admissible when it is:
A) Material only
B) Relevant only
C) Competent only
D) Relevant and competent
  • 67. Evidence obtained in violation of constitutional rights is generally:
A) Admissible
B) Preferred
C) Conclusive
D) Inadmissible
  • 68. The doctrine that excludes illegally obtained evidence is known as:
A) Equipoise doctrine
B) Plain view doctrine
C) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
D) Res gestae doctrine
  • 69. Which rule requires the original document when its contents are the subject of
    inquiry?
A) Opinion rule
B) Hearsay rule
C) Best evidence rule
D) Character evidence rule
  • 70. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Inadmissible
B) Admissible
C) Conclusive
D) Mandatory
  • 71. A dying declaration is an exception to the:
A) Opinion rule
B) Hearsay rule
C) Character evidence rule
D) Best evidence rule
  • 72. Evidence not formally offered cannot generally be:
A) Copied
B) Marked
C) Attached to records
D) Appreciated by the court
  • 73. Which party may object to inadmissible evidence during trial?
A) Judge only
B) Prosecutor only
C) Witness only
D) Adverse party
  • 74. Public documents are generally admissible without:
A) Identification
B) Certification
C) Marking
D) Authentication
  • 75. An affidavit is:
A) A judicial notice
B) A subpoena
C) A search warrant
D) A sworn written statement
  • 76. Positive identification generally prevails over:
A) Documentary evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Denial and alibi
D) Object evidence
  • 77. The prosecution must rely on the strength of:
A) Public opinion
B) Its own evidence
C) Defense evidence
D) Police report alone
  • 78. Which court generally tries criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment exceeding
    six years?
A) MTC
B) Court of Appeals
C) RTC
D) Sandiganbayan
  • 79. Appeals from decisions of the Municipal Trial Court in criminal cases are generally
    brought to the:
A) Supreme Court
B) Regional Trial Court
C) DOJ
D) Court of Appeals
  • 80. The Sandiganbayan primarily has jurisdiction over:
A) Drug cases
B) Cases involving public officers and graft-related offenses
C) Election offenses
D) Family cases
  • 81. Criminal actions are instituted by filing a:
A) Memorandum only
B) Petition only
C) Appeal only
D) Complaint or Information
  • 82. Preliminary investigation is required for offenses punishable by at least:
A) 10 years
B) 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
C) 1 year
D) 6 months
  • 83. The accused is presumed:
A) Liable
B) Guilty
C) Dangerous
D) Innocent until proven guilty
  • 84. The right to speedy trial protects the accused against:
A) Illegal search
B) Excessive bail
C) Double jeopardy
D) Delay in proceedings
  • 85. Which right guarantees that an accused understands the accusation against him?
A) Right to property
B) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
C) Right to travel
D) Right to bail
  • 86. A warrant of arrest may be issued only upon finding of:
A) Conviction
B) Probable cause
C) Rumor
D) Suspicion
  • 87. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Escapee arrest
B) In flagrante delicto arrest
C) Citizen’s arrest
D) Hot pursuit arrest
  • 88. A valid search warrant must particularly describe:
A) The place to be searched and things to be seized
B) The penalty
C) The prosecutor
D) The witnesses
  • 89. Search incidental to lawful arrest is:
A) An exception to the warrant requirement
B) Allowed only in drug cases
C) Allowed only with prosecutor approval
D) Invalid always
  • 90. The purpose of preliminary investigation is to determine:
A) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
B) Damages
C) Probable cause
D) Exact penalty
  • 91. In inquest proceedings, the prosecutor first determines:
A) Penalty to be imposed
B) Civil liability
C) Validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
D) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
  • 92. Which official files the Information in court?
A) Judge
B) Prosecutor
C) Barangay captain
D) Police officer
  • 93. The primary purpose of bail is to:
A) Reduce penalty
B) Ensure appearance of the accused in court
C) Acquit the accused
D) Terminate the case
  • 94. Arraignment consists of:
A) Issuance of warrant
B) Bail hearing
C) Reading the Information in open court and asking the accused to plead
D) Cross-examination
  • 95. Double jeopardy attaches after:
A) Valid arraignment and plea
B) Sentencing only
C) Filing of complaint only
D) Arrest only
  • 96. Trial in absentia may proceed if the accused:
A) Refuses to hire counsel
B) Escapes after arraignment and due notice
C) Has not been arraigned
D) Is a minor
  • 97. Direct examination is conducted by:
A) The party presenting the witness
B) The judge only
C) The clerk of court
D) Adverse counsel
  • 98. Cross-examination is intended to:
A) Test credibility and truthfulness of the witness
B) Repeat testimony
C) Introduce judgment
D) Dismiss the case
  • 99. A child witness may testify if the child:
A) Is at least 18 years old
B) Can perceive and truthfully communicate facts
C) Is related to the victim
D) Has written testimony
  • 100. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Citizen’s arrest
B) In flagrante delicto arrest
C) Hot pursuit arrest
D) Escapee arrest
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