CLJ set A - Quiz
  • 1. Which agency is primarily mandated to enforce laws on illegal drugs in the
    Philippines?
A) National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)
B) Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)
C) Philippine National Police (PNP)
D) Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)
  • 2. Which agency serves as the investigative arm of the Department of Justice for
    highprofile and complex crimes?
A) PNP
B) NBI
C) BFP
D) BJMP
  • 3. During inquest proceedings, what is the primary duty of the prosecutor?
A) Decide the proper penalty
B) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
C) Conduct trial
D) Determine validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
  • 4. Which court has jurisdiction over criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment
    exceeding six years?
A) Court of Appeals
B) Regional Trial Court
C) Municipal Trial Court
  • 5. A convict sentenced to eight years imprisonment will generally serve sentence in
    which institution
A) BJMP jail
B) PNP detention cell
C) Bureau of Corrections facility
D) Prosecutor’s Office
  • 6. Which constitutional principle guarantees fairness in the administration of justice?
A) Double jeopardy
B) Due process
C) Police power
D) Eminent domain
  • 7. A suspect under custodial investigation must be informed of his:
A) Voting rights
B) Miranda rights
C) Political rights only
D) Property rights
  • 8. Which requirement is essential before a judge may issue a search warrant?
A) Probable cause
B) Conviction
C) Written confession
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 9. Which right protects a person from being compelled to testify against himself?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right to suffrage
C) Right to travel
D) Right against self-incrimination
  • 10. Which writ protects a person against unlawful detention?
A) Writ of Habeas Corpus
B) Writ of Certiorari
C) Writ of Amparo
D) Writ of Execution
  • 11. Felonies committed with deliberate intent are known as:
A) Quasi-offenses
B) Dolo
C) Culpa
D) Mala prohibita
  • 12. Criminal laws are generally binding on all persons who live or sojourn in Philippine
    territory under the principle of:
A) Prospectivity
B) Retroactivity
C) Generality
D) Territoriality
  • 13. Felonies committed through negligence are called:
A) Impossible crimes
B) Intentional felonies
C) Consummated felonies
D) Culpable felonies
  • 14. When two or more persons agree and decide to commit a felony, there is:
A) Conspiracy
B) Proposal
C) Treachery
D) Recidivism
  • 15. A person who cooperates in the execution of the offense by previous or
    simultaneous acts is:
A) Witness
B) Principal
C) Accessory
D) Accomplice
  • 16. A person who profits from the effects of the crime after its commission is generally
    liable as:
A) Principal
B) Co-conspirator
C) Accomplice
D) Accessory
  • 17. Which of the following best describes conspiracy?
A) Concealing evidence after the crime
B) Unity of purpose and intention in committing the crime
C) Presence at the crime scene
D) Mere knowledge of the crime
  • 18. The offender performed all acts of execution but the felony was not produced due to
    causes independent of his will. The felony is:
A) Impossible
B) Attempted
C) Frustrated
D) Consummated
  • 19. The offender commences the commission of a felony directly by overt acts but does
    not perform all acts of execution. The felony is:
A) Frustrated
B) Impossible
C) Attempted
D) Consummated
  • 20. Which is an indivisible penalty?
A) Prision correccional
B) Destierro
C) Reclusion perpetua
D) Arresto menor
  • 21. Which circumstance exempts a person from criminal liability?
A) Insanity
B) Recidivism
C) Voluntary surrender
D) Treachery
  • 22. Voluntary surrender is a:
A) Mitigating circumstance
B) Aggravating circumstance
C) Exempting circumstance
D) Justifying circumstance
  • 23. Which aggravating circumstance exists when the offender employs mean tending
    directly to insure execution without risk to himself?
A) Cruelty
B) Dwelling
C) Treachery
D) Habituality
  • 24. Self-defense requires unlawful aggression, reasonable necessity of the means
    employed, and:
A) Relationship
B) Lack of sufficient provocation
C) Revenge
D) Intent to kill
  • 25. Recidivism exists when the offender:
A) Commits another crime after final conviction
B) Repeats the same crime before conviction
C) Uses a deadly weapon
D) Escapes during trial
  • 26. Passion and obfuscation are classified as a:
A) Aggravating circumstance
B) Justifying circumstance
C) Mitigating circumstance
D) Qualifying circumstance
  • 27. Criminal liability is totally extinguished by:
A) Concealment
B) Death of the convict
C) Recidivism
D) Escape from prison
  • 28. Service of sentence extinguishes:
A) Civil liability only
B) Subsidiary liability only
C) Damages only
D) Criminal liability
  • 29. Marriage between the offender and offended party in certain crimes against chastity
    may extinguish:
A) Administrative liability
B) Criminal liability
C) Civil liability only
D) Political rights
  • 30. Amnesty extinguishes:
A) Evidence
B) Criminal liability and penalty
C) Property rights
D) Civil liability only
  • 31. A person who kills another without any qualifying circumstance commits:
A) Homicide
B) Murder
C) Infanticide
D) Parricide
  • 32. Killing attended by treachery is:
A) Parricide
B) Infanticide
C) Homicide
D) Murder
  • 33. The killing of a child less than three days old is:
A) Parricide
B) Infanticide
C) Murder
D) Homicide
  • 34. Which crime is committed when physical injuries incapacitate the victim for labor for
    more than 30 days?
A) Slight physical injuries
B) Serious physical injuries
C) Grave threats
D) Grave coercion
  • 35. Illegal discharge of firearm is committed when:
A) A firearm is discharged against another person without intent to kill
B) Firearm is possessed illegally
C) Firearm is displayed publicly
D) Firearm is used in robbery
  • 36. Which crime against persons requires a qualifying circumstance for its existence?
A) Duel
B) Homicide
C) Murder
D) Physical injuries
  • 37. Which crime is committed when a person kills another under exceptional
    circumstances provided by law?
A) Death under exceptional circumstances
B) Murder
C) Parricide
D) Homicide
  • 38. Taking personal property without violence and with intent to gain is:
A) Theft
B) Malicious mischief
C) Robbery
D) Estafa
  • 39. Robbery differs from theft because robbery involves:
A) Abuse of confidence
B) Violence or intimidation
C) Public officer participation
D) Forgery
  • 40. Which crime is committed by defrauding another through abuse of confidence or
    deceit?
A) Theft
B) Robbery
C) Estafa
D) Malversation
  • 41. Deliberately damaging another person’s property is:
A) Arson
B) Malicious mischief
C) Estafa
D) Robbery
  • 42. Kidnapping is a crime against:
A) Honor
B) Liberty
C) Chastity
D) Public order
  • 43. Arbitrary detention is committed by:
A) Any private person
B) Judge issuing warrant
C) Public officer detaining a person without legal grounds
D) Prosecutor conducting inquest
  • 44. Grave threats are committed by:
A) Concealing a crime
B) Threatening another with infliction of wrong
C) Defaming another person
D) Taking property
  • 45. Grave coercion involves:
A) Falsification
B) Taking property through deceit
C) Compelling another by violence or intimidation to do something against his will
D) Public scandal
  • 46. Arbitrary detention is classified as a crime against:
A) Persons
B) Public order
C) Chastity
D) Fundamental law of the State
  • 47. Violation of domicile is committed by:
A) A tenant refusing to vacate
B) Trespasser entering property
C) Public officer entering a dwelling against the owner’s will without judicial order
D) Private individual entering a house
  • 48. Alarm and scandal are committed by:
A) Defaming another person
B) Causing disturbance in public places
C) Falsifying documents
D) Taking property
  • 49. Direct bribery is committed when a public officer:
A) Falsifies testimony
B) Accepts consideration in connection with official duties
C) Commits homicide
D) Escapes detention
  • 50. Libel is committed through:
A) Mere gestures
B) Writing or similar means
C) Spoken words only
D) Physical assault
  • 51. Oral defamation is also known as:
A) Libel
B) Estafa
C) Perjury
D) Slander
  • 52. Concubinage is committed by:
A) Married woman having intercourse with another man
B) Married man cohabiting with another woman under scandalous circumstances
C) Public officer abusing authority
D) Single man seducing a minor
  • 53. Adultery is committed by:
A) Single woman only
B) Widow remarrying early
C) Married woman having sexual intercourse with another man
D) Married man alone
  • 54. Bigamy is committed by:
A) Seducing a minor
B) Contracting another marriage before dissolution of the first valid marriage
C) Living together without marriage
D) Cohabiting scandalously
  • 55. Intriguing against honor is committed by:
A) Swearing falsely
B) Making intrigue intended to blemish another’s honor
C) Publishing defamatory articles
D) Threatening another
  • 56. Human trafficking is punishable under:
A) Dangerous Drugs Act
B) Revised Penal Code only
C) Cybercrime Law
D) Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act
  • 57. Which law penalizes acts of terrorism in the Philippines?
A) Juvenile Justice Act
B) Anti-Terrorism Act
C) Local Government Code
D) Safe Spaces Act
  • 58. The Safe Spaces Act penalizes:
A) Human trafficking
B) Gender-based sexual harassment
C) Illegal detention
D) Drug trafficking
  • 59. Illegal recruitment committed by syndicates may constitute:
A) Arbitrary detention
B) Human trafficking
C) Robbery
D) Libel
  • 60. The amount of evidence required in criminal cases is proof beyond:
A) Doubt
B) Probability
C) Suspicion
D) Reasonable doubt
  • 61. Which quantum of evidence is required in civil cases?
A) Prima facie evidence
B) Substantial evidence
C) Preponderance of evidence
D) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
  • 62. Testimonial evidence refers to:
A) Fingerprints
B) Oral statements made by witnesses in court
C) Written contracts
D) Physical objects
  • 63. Documentary evidence consists of:
A) Tangible objects
B) Demonstrations
C) Oral testimony
D) Written instruments and documents
  • 64. Evidence which directly proves a fact without inference is:
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Secondary evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Direct evidence
  • 65. Circumstantial evidence is sufficient for conviction when:
A) There is no eyewitness
B) The circumstances form an unbroken chain leading to guilt
C) There is only one circumstance
D) The accused confesses
  • 66. Evidence is admissible when it is:
A) Competent only
B) Relevant only
C) Material only
D) Relevant and competent
  • 67. Evidence obtained in violation of constitutional rights is generally:
A) Inadmissible
B) Preferred
C) Conclusive
D) Admissible
  • 68. The doctrine that excludes illegally obtained evidence is known as:
A) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
B) Equipoise doctrine
C) Res gestae doctrine
D) Plain view doctrine
  • 69. Which rule requires the original document when its contents are the subject of
    inquiry?
A) Hearsay rule
B) Character evidence rule
C) Best evidence rule
D) Opinion rule
  • 70. Hearsay evidence is generally:
A) Admissible
B) Inadmissible
C) Conclusive
D) Mandatory
  • 71. A dying declaration is an exception to the:
A) Hearsay rule
B) Character evidence rule
C) Opinion rule
D) Best evidence rule
  • 72. Evidence not formally offered cannot generally be:
A) Attached to records
B) Appreciated by the court
C) Copied
D) Marked
  • 73. Which party may object to inadmissible evidence during trial?
A) Prosecutor only
B) Witness only
C) Judge only
D) Adverse party
  • 74. Public documents are generally admissible without:
A) Authentication
B) Certification
C) Identification
D) Marking
  • 75. An affidavit is:
A) A subpoena
B) A search warrant
C) A sworn written statement
D) A judicial notice
  • 76. Positive identification generally prevails over:
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Denial and alibi
  • 77. The prosecution must rely on the strength of:
A) Public opinion
B) Defense evidence
C) Its own evidence
D) Police report alone
  • 78. Which court generally tries criminal offenses punishable by imprisonment exceeding
    six years?
A) Sandiganbayan
B) RTC
C) Court of Appeals
D) MTC
  • 79. Appeals from decisions of the Municipal Trial Court in criminal cases are generally
    brought to the:
A) Court of Appeals
B) Supreme Court
C) DOJ
D) Regional Trial Court
  • 80. The Sandiganbayan primarily has jurisdiction over:
A) Election offenses
B) Family cases
C) Cases involving public officers and graft-related offenses
D) Drug cases
  • 81. Criminal actions are instituted by filing a:
A) Complaint or Information
B) Petition only
C) Appeal only
D) Memorandum only
  • 82. Preliminary investigation is required for offenses punishable by at least:
A) 4 years, 2 months and 1 day
B) 10 years
C) 1 year
D) 6 months
  • 83. The accused is presumed:
A) Innocent until proven guilty
B) Dangerous
C) Guilty
D) Liable
  • 84. The right to speedy trial protects the accused against:
A) Illegal search
B) Excessive bail
C) Double jeopardy
D) Delay in proceedings
  • 85. Which right guarantees that an accused understands the accusation against him?
A) Right to bail
B) Right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation
C) Right to travel
D) Right to property
  • 86. A warrant of arrest may be issued only upon finding of:
A) Probable cause
B) Conviction
C) Suspicion
D) Rumor
  • 87. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Escapee arrest
B) Hot pursuit arrest
C) In flagrante delicto arrest
D) Citizen’s arrest
  • 88. A valid search warrant must particularly describe:
A) The penalty
B) The prosecutor
C) The witnesses
D) The place to be searched and things to be seized
  • 89. Search incidental to lawful arrest is:
A) Invalid always
B) An exception to the warrant requirement
C) Allowed only with prosecutor approval
D) Allowed only in drug cases
  • 90. The purpose of preliminary investigation is to determine:
A) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
B) Probable cause
C) Exact penalty
D) Damages
  • 91. In inquest proceedings, the prosecutor first determines:
A) Validity of warrantless arrest and probable cause
B) Guilt beyond reasonable doubt
C) Penalty to be imposed
D) Civil liability
  • 92. Which official files the Information in court?
A) Barangay captain
B) Police officer
C) Judge
D) Prosecutor
  • 93. The primary purpose of bail is to:
A) Acquit the accused
B) Terminate the case
C) Reduce penalty
D) Ensure appearance of the accused in court
  • 94. Arraignment consists of:
A) Issuance of warrant
B) Reading the Information in open court and asking the accused to plead
C) Cross-examination
D) Bail hearing
  • 95. Double jeopardy attaches after:
A) Filing of complaint only
B) Sentencing only
C) Arrest only
D) Valid arraignment and plea
  • 96. Trial in absentia may proceed if the accused:
A) Has not been arraigned
B) Is a minor
C) Refuses to hire counsel
D) Escapes after arraignment and due notice
  • 97. Direct examination is conducted by:
A) The judge only
B) The party presenting the witness
C) The clerk of court
D) Adverse counsel
  • 98. Cross-examination is intended to:
A) Test credibility and truthfulness of the witness
B) Introduce judgment
C) Repeat testimony
D) Dismiss the case
  • 99. A child witness may testify if the child:
A) Is related to the victim
B) Is at least 18 years old
C) Can perceive and truthfully communicate facts
D) Has written testimony
  • 100. Which warrantless arrest is lawful when the offense is committed in the presence of
    the arresting officer?
A) Citizen’s arrest
B) Hot pursuit arrest
C) Escapee arrest
D) In flagrante delicto arrest
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