CRIMINAL LAW 1
  • 1. In case of the conviction of the accused, who will pay the cost of the proceedings.
A) The state
B) Accused
C) The winning party
D) Relative of the accused
  • 2. If the property of the accused is not sufficient for the payment of all the pecuniary liabilities, which will be given the first priority to be paid?
A) The fine
B) The cost of the proceedings
C) The indemnification of the consequential damages
D) The reparation of damage caused
  • 3. What is the equivalent rate of the subsidiary personal liability if the accused has no property with which to pay the fine in the decision of the court.
A) One day for each twenty Pesos
B) One day of each Ten Pesos
C) One day for each Fifteen Pesos
D) One day for each 8 pesos
  • 4. If the accused was prosecuted for grave or less grave felony and the principal penalty imposed is only a fine, how long shall be the subsidiary imprisonment of the accused.
A) Four months
B) Six months
C) Five months
D) Three months
  • 5. If the accused was prosecuted for light felonies only, and the principal penalty is only fine, how long shall be the subsidiary imprisonment of the accused.
A) 15 days
B) 6 days
C) 12 days
D) 10 days
  • 6. It is a subsidiary personal liability to be suffered by the convict who has no property with which to meet the fine.
A) Administrative penalty
B) Subsidiary penalty
C) Pecuniary penalty
D) Correctional penalty
  • 7. What is the accessory penalty of reclusion perpetua and reclusion temporal.
A) Suspension of the right of suffrage
B) No accesorry penalty
C) Civil interdiction for life
D) Suspension of the right to hold office.
  • 8. What is the accessory penalty of Destierro.
A) Suspension of the right to suffrage
B) No accessory penalty
C) Suspension from public office, profession or calling
D) Civil interdiction for life
  • 9. Every penalty imposed for the commission of a felony shall carry with it the ___________ of the proceeds of the crime and the instruments or tools with which it was committed.
A) Removal
B) Forfeiture
C) Auction
D) Destruction
  • 10. The proceeds and instruments or tools of the crime shall be taken in favor of the __________.
A) Accused
B) Government
C) Third party
D) Victim
  • 11. When can confiscation of the proceeds or property or instruments of the crimes be ordered by the court.
A) When it is not placed at the disposal of the court
B) When it is owned by the accused
C) When it submitted its evidence
D) When it is owned by the victim
  • 12. Articles which are forfeited, when the order of forfeiture is already final cannot be returned even in case of an __________
A) Appeal
B) Refilling of the case
C) Acquittal
D) Revival of the case
  • 13. The penalty prescribed by law for the commission of a felony shall be imposed upon the _______ in the commission of the felony.
A) Co-accused
B) Principals
C) Accesorries
D) Accomplices
  • 14. It is the penalty which cannot be imposed when the guilty party is more than seventy years of age.
A) Death penalty
B) Prison mayor
C) Reclusion perpetua
D) Prison correctional
  • 15. A single out act constitute two or more grave or less grave felonies is a ____________ crime.
A) Grave complex
B) Continuing crime
C) Less grave
D) Complex crime
  • 16. In defense of relatives, one of the relatives that can be defended are those relatives by consanguinity within the fourth civil degree, such as _____________.
A) Brother and sister
B) Uncle and niece
C) Second cousin
D) First cousin
  • 17. When somebody defended a very distant relative, he is committing ________.
A) Defense of stranger
B) Self
C) Defense of relative
D) Fullfilment of duty
  • 18. A person considered as _________ is exempt in all cases from criminal liability.
A) Epileptic
B) Imbecile
C) Feebleminded
D) Insane
  • 19. During this lucid interval, an insane person acts with _________.
A) Depression
B) Intelligence
C) Anxiety
D) Emotion
  • 20. It is the __________ who has the burden of proof to show insanity.
A) Defense
B) Prosecution
C) Prosecutor
D) Court
  • 21. It is a single crime, consisting of a series of acts but all arising from one criminal resolution.
A) Revolving crime
B) Plural crime
C) Continuing crime
D) Habitual crime
  • 22. A person shall be deemed to be ________ if within a period of ten years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crimes of serious or less serious physical injuries, estafa, or falsification, he is found guilty of any of said crimes a third time or oftener.
A) Ex-convict
B) Habitual delinquent
C) Recidivist
D) Pardonee
  • 23. In imposing fines, the court may fix any amount within the limits established by law; in fixing the amount in each case attention shall be given, not only to the mitigating and aggravating circumstances, but more particularly to the ________ of the defendant.
A) Health
B) Education
C) Wealth and means
D) Age
  • 24. Whenever any prisoner shall have served the ________ penalty imposed on him, it shall appear to the Board of Indeterminate Sentence that such prisoner is fitted for release, said Board may authorize the release of such prisoner on parole, upon such terms and conditions as may be prescribed by the Board.
A) Maximum
B) Light
C) Minimum
D) Medium
  • 25. It is the disposition under which a defendant after conviction and sentence is released subject to conditions imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
A) Parole
B) Probation
C) Pardon
D) Recognition
  • 26. A person placed on probation.
A) Probationer
B) Parolee
C) Pardonee
D) Ex-convict
  • 27. One who investigate for the court a referral for probation or supervises a probationer or both
A) Probation officer
B) Police officer
C) Parole officer
D) Administrative officer
  • 28. No penalty shall be executed except by virtue of a _________ judgment.
A) Final
B) In terim
C) De jure
D) Temporary
  • 29. When a convict becomes insane or imbecile after final sentence has been pronounced, the execution of said sentence is __________ only as regards the personal penalty.
A) Enforce
B) Extinct
C) Suspended
D) Continued
  • 30. If the convict becomes insane or imbecile after the final sentence, the payment of his ________ shall not be suspended.
A) Administrative liability
B) Personal liability
C) Criminal liability
D) Civil or pecuniary liabilities
  • 31. Whenever a minor or either sex under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of a grave or less grave felony, is accused thereof, the court, after hearing the evidence in the proper proceedings, instead of pronouncing judgment of conviction, shall ___________ all further proceedings and shall commit such minor to the custody and care of a public or private charitable institution.
A) Proceed
B) Suspend
C) Prolong
D) Set aside
  • 32. If the minor has behaved properly or has complied with the conditions imposed upon him during his confinement, in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 he shall be returned to the ____________ in order that the same may order his final release.
A) Relative/Guardian
B) Court
C) Parents
D) DSWD
  • 33. In case the minor fails to behave properly or to comply with the regulations of the institution to which he was committed, or he was found to be incorrigible he shall be returned to the court in order that the same may _________ corresponding to the crime committed by him.
A) Render the judgement
B) Order extension of his commitment
C) Order his rehabilitation
D) Order his release
  • 34. The expenses for the maintenance of the minor delinquent confined in the institution to which he has been committed, shall be borne totally or partially by _________ or those persons liable to support him, if they are able to do so in the discretion of the court.
A) Institution
B) State
C) Parents or relatives
D) DSWD
  • 35. Under the new law, the age of majority is ___________.
A) 15 years old
B) 18 years old
C) 13 years old
D) 21 years old
  • 36. Any person sentenced to ___________ shall not be permitted to enter the place or places designated in the sentenced, nor within the radius therein specified.
A) Arresto menor
B) Destierro
C) Arresto mayor
D) Prison mayor
  • 37. The radius specified in the penalty of destierro shall be _____________.
A) Not less than 20 kms. But not more than 225 kms.
B) Not less than 5 kms. But not more than 125 kms.
C) Not less than 25 kms. But not more than 250 kms.
D) Not less than 25kms. But not more than 200 kms.
  • 38. The penalty of ____________ shall be served in the municipal jail or in the house of the defendant under the surveillance of an officer of the law.
A) Arresto menor
B) Prison mayor
C) Prison correctional
D) Arresto mayor
  • 39. As the personal penalties, criminal liability of the accused is totally extinguished upon his _________.
A) Death
B) Conviction
C) Confinement
D) Incarceration
  • 40. The pecuniary liabilities of the convict is extinguished only when the death of the offender occurs _______.
A) During the pendency of the case
B) During the hearing of the case
C) After the final judgment
D) Before the final judgment
  • 41. It is not one of the grounds of extinction of criminal liability of the accused.
A) By service of sentence
B) By prescription of the crime
C) By voluntary surrender
D) By absolute pardon
  • 42. Amado was change with homicide during the pendency of the case Amado died what will happen to the Case filed against him.
A) The case will continue to be heared.
B) The case will set aside
C) The case will be suspended.
D) The case will be dismissed.
  • 43. Berto was sentenced in the regional trial court. He appealed the case to the court of appeals. During the pendency of his appeal, Berto died. What will happen to his civil and criminal liability?
A) The civil and criminal liability is not extinguished
B) The civil and criminal liability will be suspended.
C) The civil and environmental liability is extinguished
D) The civil and criminal liability is set a side.
  • 44. It is an act of grace proceeding from the power entrusted with the execution of the laws which the individual On whom it is bestowed from the punishment the law inflicts for the crime he has committed.
A) Pardon
B) Priscription of penalty
C) Priscription of crime
D) Parole
  • 45. It is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender after the lapse of a certain time.
A) Priscription of penalty
B) Priscription of crime
C) Pardon
D) Parole
  • 46. It is the loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of a certain Time.
A) Priscription of penalty
B) Amnesty
C) Parole
D) Priscription of criminal
  • 47. Crimes punishable by reclusion perpetua or reclusion temporal shall prescribed in _____
A) 12 years
B) 20 years
C) 10 years
D) 15 years
  • 48. Crimes punishable by other affective penalties shall prescribe in _____
A) 15 years
B) 10 years
C) 20 years
D) 5 years
  • 49. Crimes punishable b correctional penalty shall prescribed in _____
A) 5 years
B) 15 years
C) 10 years
D) 6 years
  • 50. The crime of libel on other similar offenses shall prescribed in _____
A) 1 year
B) 5 years
C) 10 years
D) 2 years
  • 51. The 0ffense of oral deformation and slander by deed shall prescribed in _____.
A) 1 year
B) 6 years
C) 1 month
D) 6 months
  • 52. In computing the period of ______ the first day is to be excluded and the last day included.
A) Confinement
B) Prescription
C) Conviction
D) Judgement
  • 53. The prescriptive period of offenses punishable under special laws and municipal and ordinances, such as offenses punished only by a fine or by imprisonment for not more than one month, or both prescribed after ______.
A) 1 year
B) 8 years
C) 5 years
D) 4 years
  • 54. The term of prescription shall not run when the offender is _____.
A) Confined
B) Absent from the Phil. Archipelago.
C) Arrested
D) Under rehab
  • 55. The period of prescription of penalties shall commence to run from the date when the offender should _____ the service of this sentence.
A) Evade
B) Commence
C) Start serving
D) Interrupt
  • 56. It is a change of the decision of the court made by the Chief Executive by reducing the degree of the penalty inflicted upon the convict, or by decreasing the length of the imprisonment of the amount of the fine
A) Reprieve
B) Commutation of sentence
C) Suspension of sentence
D) Enforcement of sentence
  • 57. It is considered a contract between the sovereign power of the executive and the convict that the sovereign power will release convict upon compliance with the condition.
A) Amnesty
B) Probation
C) Reprieve
D) Conditional pardon
  • 58. Any person who has been granted conditional pardon shall incurr the obligation of _____ otherwise, his non compliance shall result in the revocation of the pardon.
A) Strictly complying the condition
B) Ignoring the condition
C) Questioning the condition
D) Evading the condition
  • 59. It is the prerogative of the Executive to extend this to the offender at any time after the imposition of the final judgment.
A) Conditional pardon
B) Parole
C) Probation
D) Reprieve
  • 60. It is an Executive clemency given to the convicted offender after the offender has served the minimum penalty through the Board of Pardons and Parole.
A) Amnesty
B) Parole
C) Pardon
D) Probation
  • 61. Every person criminally liable for a felony is also _____ liable.
A) Personally
B) Administratively
C) Socially
D) Civily
  • 62. It is one of the extinguishment o9f civil liability.
A) Parole
B) By compensation
C) Amnesty
D) Serving of sentence
  • 63. It is included in civil liability.
A) Reparation of the damage caused
B) All of the above
C) Indemnification for damages consequential
D) Restitution
  • 64. The civil liability for acts committed by a youthful offender shall be paid by the offenders _____.
A) Guardians
B) Relatives
C) All of the above
D) Parents
  • 65. A prisoner who showed good conduct inside the penal institution shall be allowed a deduction of his penalty for a period of _____ for each month of good behavior during the first two years of his imprisonment.
A) 10 days
B) 8 days
C) 5 days
D) 15 days
  • 66. During the 3rd to 5th year of his imprisonment the prisoner shall be allowed a deduction of _____ for each month of good behavior.
A) 15 days
B) 5 days
C) 8 days
D) 10 days
  • 67. During the 6th year until the tenth year, of his imprisonment, the prisoner shall be allowed a deduction of _____for each month of good behavior.
A) 8 days
B) 10 days
C) 5 days
D) 15 days
  • 68. During the eleventh and successive years of his imprisonment, the prisoner shall be allowed a deduction of _____ for each month of good behavior.
A) 5 days
B) 15 days
C) 10 days
D) 8 days
  • 69. Ana was charged with the crime of adultery together with his boyfriend. Ana, the married woman after conviction, her husband pardoned her alone is the pardon effective?
A) Yes, because it is voluntary given by the husband,
B) No, because pardon can only be given by the Chief Executive
C) Yes because she was pardoned by her husband
D) No, the pardon should include the man to be effective.
  • 70. When a single act constitute two or more grave or less grave felonies, or when an offense is necessary means for committing the other, the penalty for _____ shall be imposed in its maximum.
A) The most common crime
B) The most serious crime
C) The less serious crime
D) The light offense
  • 71. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial.
A) Bill of attainder
B) Bill of landing
C) Special law
D) Criminal law
  • 72. It is a branch or division of law which defines crimes, treats of their nature, and provides for their punishment.
A) Political law
B) Civil law
C) Remedial law
D) Criminal law
  • 73. It is not one of the sources of our Criminal Law.
A) Law enforcement
B) Court
C) Prosecution
D) Community
  • 74. A body of principles, usages and rule of action, which do not rest for their authority upon any express and positive declaration of the will of the legislature.
A) Criminal law
B) Common law
C) Civil law
D) Administrative law
  • 75. It means that as a rule, penal laws are enforceable only within the territory of thePhilippines,
A) Prospectivity Principle
B) Territoriality principle
C) Retroactivity Principle
D) Generality Principle
  • 76. According to the classical theory, it states that the purpose of the penalty is ___________
A) Renumeration
B) Pardon
C) Revenge
D) Retribution
  • 77. In self defense, the burden of proof rest upon the ____________
A) Relative
B) Accused
C) State
D) Victim
  • 78. In defense of relatives, one of the relatives that can be defended are those relatives by consanguinity within the fourth civil degree such as _________________
A) Brother and sister
B) Second cousin
C) Mother and father
D) First cousin
  • 79. Relationship by blood refers to relatives by _____________
A) Legislation
B) Consanguinity
C) Naturalization
D) Affinity
  • 80. As a rule, ______________ is mitigating in the crimes against property.
A) Education
B) Relationship
C) Intoxication
D) Sex
  • 81. It is a circumstances present in a crime where it may increase or decrease the criminal liability.
A) Exempting circumstances
B) Justifying circumatances
C) Alternative circumstances
D) Mitigating circumtances
  • 82. It is a kind of aggravating circumstance that changes the nature of the crime. Example treachery qualifies the killing of a person to murder
A) Specific aggravating
B) Generic aggravating
C) Qualifying aggravating
D) Inherent aggravating
  • 83. They are persons criminally liable due to their direct participation in the commission of the crime.
A) Accomplice
B) Co-accomplice
C) Principals
D) Accessories
  • 84. What is the accessory penalty of reclusion perpetua and reclusion temporal.
A) No penalty
B) Suspension
C) Aquitted
D) Civil interdiction for life
  • 85. When somebody defended a very distant relative, he is committing ________.
A) Defense of stranger
B) Self defense
C) Defense of family
D) Defense of relativws
  • 86. During this lucid interval, an insane person acts with _________.
A) Emotion
B) Intelligence
C) Insane
D) Sadness
  • 87. It is the __________ who has the burden of proof to show insanity.
A) Prosecutor
B) Defense
C) Imbecile
D) Court
  • 88. It is the disposition under which a defendant after conviction and sentence is released subject to conditions imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation officer.
A) Parole
B) Pardon
C) Recognition
D) Probation
  • 89. No penalty shall be executed except by virtue of a _________ judgment.
A) Final
B) Aquittal
C) Temporary
D) Executory
  • 90. Whenever a minor or either sex under 18 years of age at the time of the commission of a grave or less grave felony, is accused thereof, the court, after hearing the evidence in the proper proceedings, instead of pronouncing judgment of conviction, shall ___________ all further proceedings and shall commit such minor to the custody and care of a public or private charitable institution.
A) Proceed
B) Suspended
C) Prolong
D) Wait
  • 91. If the minor has behaved properly or has complied with the conditions imposed upon him during his confinement, in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 he shall be returned to the ____________ in order that the same may order his final release.
A) Law Enforcement
B) Prosecutor
C) DSWD
D) Court
  • 92. In case the minor fails to behave properly or to comply with the regulations of the institution to which he was committed, or he was found to be incorrigible he shall be returned to the court in order that the same may _________ corresponding to the crime committed by him.
A) Render the judgement
B) Order extension of his commitment
C) Order subpeona
D) Render reward
  • 93. Any person sentenced to ___________ shall not be permitted to enter the place or places designated in the sentenced, nor within the radius therein specified.
A) Destierro
B) Confinement
C) Prison correctional
D) Arresto mayor
  • 94. The penalty of ____________ shall be served in the municipal jail or in the house of the defendant under the surveillance of an officer of the law.
A) Prison mayor
B) Prison menor
C) Arresto mayor
D) Arresto menor
  • 95. Amado was change with homicide during the pendency of the case Amado died what will happen to the Case filed against him.
A) Heard
B) Suspended
C) Waive
D) Dismissed
  • 96. It is the forfeiture or loss of the right of the state to prosecute the offender after the lapse of a certain time.
A) Prescription of crime
B) Pardon
C) Parole
D) Release
  • 97. Crimes punishable by reclusion perpetua or reclusion temporal shall prescribed in _____
A) 3 years
B) 10 years
C) 15 years
D) 20 years
  • 98. The crime of libel on other similar offenses shall prescribed in _____
A) 4 year
B) 3 year
C) 2 year
D) 1 year
  • 99. The prescriptive period of offenses punishable under special laws and municipal and ordinances, such as offenses punished only by a fine or by imprisonment for not more than one month, or both prescribed after ______.
A) 10 years
B) 1 year
C) 3 years
D) 5 years
  • 100. The period of prescription of penalties shall commence to run from the date when the offender should _____ the service of this sentence.
A) Interrupted
B) Evade
C) Suspended
D) Commence
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