(LEA 3) INTRODUCTION TO INDUSTRIAL SECURITY CONCEPTS
  • 1. A security manager must decide whether to subcontract guard services to meet sudden demand. Under RA 11917’s objectives on professional practice, which factor is most important to evaluate before subcontracting?
A) Speed of contract signing
B) Number of guards available this month
C) Lowest bid from contractors
D) Contractor reputation, licensing compliance, and personnel training records
  • 2. A private security agency violates RA 11917 by failing to register personnel properly. To evaluate risk exposure, which step best aligns with the law’s management intent?
A) Fire the negligent staff immediately
B) Blame outsourced HR
C) Ignore it if no incident occurred
D) Conduct an audit of all personnel files and implement corrective registration and training actions
  • 3. Given RA 11917’s emphasis on professional standards, which performance metric most accurately measures compliance across guard teams?
A) Percentage of personnel with up-to-date certifications, completed training hours, and records of disciplinary actions
B) Number of arrests made
C) Client satisfaction surveys only
D) Average daily patrols logged
  • 4. A security firm wants to redesign its SOPs to meet RA 11917. Which redesign approach best demonstrates compliance and continuous improvement?
A) Use risk assessment results, stakeholder input, and mandatory provisions of RA 11917 to create measurable SOPs and training plans
B) Copy SOPs from a competitor
C) Make SOPs only for supervisors
D) Keep SOPs informal to allow flexibility
  • 5. An operations director must allocate limited budget to training or equipment upgrades. Evaluating RA 11917’s focus on professional competency, which allocation is more defensible?
A) Upgrade CCTV only
B) Delay both until next fiscal year
C) Invest in prioritized training for key skills and minimum equipment upgrades ensuring competence and compliance
D) Hire more administrative staff
  • 6. A client requests a security strategy that contradicts RA 11917 professional responsibilities (e.g., encourage guards to use excessive force). What should the agency do?
A) Comply to keep the client
B) Refuse, explain legal/professional limits, propose compliant alternatives, and document the interaction
C) Implement but keep it undocumented
D) Ignore the request
  • 7. To ensure RA 11917’s practice-of-profession standards, the board issues new implementing rules. As an operations manager, how would you operationalize them?
A) Wait for enforcement visits
B) Only update senior management
C) Immediately integrate rules into SOPs, train staff, and create monitoring KPIs with audit schedules
D) Announce them once to staff
  • 8. You detect recurring minor violations by night-shift guards. Applying RA 11917’s managerial intent, which is the best corrective action?
A) Ignore since violations are minor
B) Analyze root causes, update training, adjust schedules, and implement supervisory spot-checks to prevent recurrence
C) Transfer the guards to day shift
D) Terminate the night shift supervisor instantly
  • 9. A security agency’s internal audit reveals documentation gaps that could breach RA 11917 during inspections. What evaluation approach best reduces risk?
A) Prioritize corrective documentation practices, assign owners, and run weekly compliance reviews until stable
B) Do nothing until an inspection occurs
C) Hide gaps from inspectors
D) Assume auditors won’t notice
  • 10. A licensed security officer is accused of misconduct. Under RA 11917 principles, the agency’s best course is to.
A) Terminate immediately without investigation
B) Ignore the complaint
C) Defend the officer publicly without investigation
D) Suspend pending a fair investigation, document findings, coordinate with the licensing authority if required, and follow due process
  • 11. The agency faces reputational risk after a public incident. Which management action best aligns with RA 11917’s requirement for professionalism?
A) Conduct transparent internal review, communicate corrective measures to stakeholders, and update training/policies
B) Blame the client
C) Deny involvement and stay silent
D) Fire personnel and keep it secret
  • 12. When introducing biometric access for guards, which strategy best ensures alignment with RA 11917 on privacy and operational integrity?
A) Share biometrics openly with clients
B) Use biometrics only for some staff inconsistently
C) Develop data protection procedures, obtain consent, limit access rights, and train personnel on privacy obligations
D) Install without policies
  • 13. A junior manager proposes performance-based pay tied to arrest counts. Evaluating against RA 11917 standards, why might this be problematic?
A) It reduces costs
B) It increases arrests
C) It’s standard practice everywhere
D) It may incentivize improper conduct; instead, design balanced KPIs that reward lawful, professional behavior and client service
  • 14. A company wishes to expand to a new province. What RA 11917–aligned analysis must be performed first?
A) Copy existing contracts without change
B) Hire local guards immediately
C) Announce expansion on social media
D) Legal/regulatory compliance check, local licensing requirements, market risk assessment, and staffing plan aligned with professional standards
  • 15. Confronting systemic low morale tied to unrealistic workloads, which RA 11917–consistent management decision best addresses both compliance and wellbeing?
A) Redesign shift rosters, hire additional staff, provide welfare and training, and monitor service quality metrics
B) Ignore morale, focus on outputs
C) Cut rest breaks to increase coverage
D) Require overtime indefinitely
  • 16. A training program is proposed to meet RA 11917. To evaluate its effectiveness, which method is best?
A) Count attendance only
B) Ask trainers if they liked it
C) Use a single multiple-choice test
D) Pre/post competency testing, practical assessments, field audits, and follow-up performance metrics tied to SOPs
  • 17. A client asks the agency to withhold incident reports to avoid bad publicity. Under RA 11917, what should the agency do?
A) Refuse, explain legal obligations, report as required, and propose reputational management strategies that are lawful
B) Cooperate without question
C) Partially redact and send a false summary
D) Hide the incident forever
  • 18. Which decision best demonstrates organizational accountability required by RA 11917 after a compliance breach?
A) Ignoring the breach
B) Firing CEO immediately without investigation
C) Public acknowledgement of breach, corrective plan, assigned responsibilities, and transparent progress reports to stakeholders and regulators
D) Only disciplining frontline staff
  • 19. In designing hiring criteria to meet RA 11917, which candidate attribute should be weighted highest to ensure professional practice?
A) Valid licensing/certification, background check clearance, competency in required skills, and evidence of integrity
B) Age alone
C) Willingness to work for low pay
D) Physical strength only
  • 20. A field commander suggests reducing patrol frequency to save cost, despite increased local theft. Using RA 11917 framework, the manager should____.
A) Ignore the commander
B) Replace patrols with fewer cameras only
C) Perform a risk assessment, quantify impact on safety/service, propose an optimized deployment that balances cost and risk mitigation
D) Reduce patrols to save money
  • 21. Which measure best shows proactive compliance with RA 11917 before an external audit?
A) Hiding records likely to be queried
B) Only updating documents on the audit day
C) Conducting internal compliance audit using the law’s checklist, fix issues, and prepare evidence of corrective actions
D) Waiting for audit feedback
  • 22. For career development aligned with RA 11917 professionalism, which policy is most effective?
A) Create a competency-based career ladder with mandatory training milestones, certifications, and mentorships tied to promotions
B) Promote relatives of managers
C) Promote only by seniority
D) No career path, only daily tasks
  • 23. If a security agency finds falsified training records, which action both enforces RA 11917 and protects operations?
A) Ignore to keep numbers clean
B) Terminate entire staff at once
C) Immediately investigate, validate qualifications, discipline per policy, notify licensing board if needed, and remediate training gaps
D) Replace documentation without action
  • 24. In drafting emergency SOPs to align with RA 11917, what element is most critical to ensure both professionalism and accountability?
A) A vague description of roles
B) Clear roles/responsibilities, communication protocols, legal compliance steps, and training/testing schedules
C) Only a list of emergency contacts without procedures
D) Only evacuation routes
  • 25. A security firm considers outsourcing background checks. Which RA 11917–conscious control should be implemented?
A) Only verbal assurances from vendor
B) Vendor qualification, standard operating procedures, data protection clauses, and periodic verification audits
C) Full delegation without oversight
D) No contract needed
  • 26. The agency must decide on disciplinary benchmarks. Which policy best reflects RA 11917 principles?
A) Punishments only for low-ranking personnel
B) Arbitrary punishments to deter misconduct
C) Clear, consistent disciplinary procedures with due process and appeals, proportionate sanctions, and rehabilitation options
D) No discipline to avoid conflict
  • 27. Which organizational metric best indicates successful integration of RA 11917 into daily operations?
A) Number of social media posts about compliance
B) Total number of guards hired this year
C) Number of client complaints ignored
D) Percentage of staff current with licensing, passing rates on competency tests, and reduction in incident recurrence
  • 28. A manager must choose between two training vendors: one cheaper but unaccredited, one slightly costlier with accreditation and QA. RA 11917–aligned choice is_____.
A) Use in-house unstructured training only
B) Accredited vendor to ensure compliance and quality of professional competency
C) Cheaper vendor to save funds
D) Choose randomly
  • 29. To comply with RA 11917 data transparency, which reporting policy is best for incident data shared with clients?
A) Standardized incident reports with factual details, timelines, and corrective actions while protecting privacy and legal rights
B) Share raw staff notes
C) Only verbal summaries without records
D) Never share any data
  • 30. A new technological tool promises efficiency but conflicts with licensing requirements under RA 11917. What should management do?
A) Ignore licensing and assume no consequences
B) Halt deployment until legal compliance review, risk assessment, and policy updates are completed
C) Deploy immediately to gain advantage
D) Deploy selectively without oversight
  • 31. During customer confrontation, a guard must de-escalate and document. Which combined action best shows higher-order competency?
A) Apply verbal de-escalation, preserve evidence, capture witness statements, and file an objective incident report for investigative follow-up
B) Escort the customer off premises immediately without documentation
C) Use force to end argument
D) Call supervisor only after incident
  • 32. A complaint alleges discriminatory behavior by a guard. Evaluating training efficacy, what analysis identifies root causes?
A) Mark complaint as resolved without investigation
B) Fire the guard immediately without assessment
C) Analyze training records, situational transcripts, supervisor oversight, and cultural-competency gaps to redesign training modules
D) Blame the complainant
  • 33. A security trainer must design a scenario-based exercise for investigation skills. Which objective best demonstrates HOTS learning outcomes?
A) Watch a video about investigations
B) Only practice radio communication
C) Simulate a complex theft, require teams to collect evidence lawfully, interview witnesses, chain evidence, analyze motive, and prepare prosecutable documentation
D) Memorize the steps of filing a report
  • 34. A security officer finds suspicious behavior suggesting corporate espionage. Which investigative action best balances immediate safety and intelligence integrity?
A) Ignore unless theft occurs
B) Confront aggressively and interrogate
C) Publicly accuse individuals
D) Secure the area, discreetly observe, collect non-intrusive intelligence, escalate to authorized investigators, and preserve chain of custody for any evidence
  • 35. A customer claims property missing; CCTV is inconclusive. Which investigative method best uses HOTS skills?
A) Accept client’s claim without verification
B) Blame CCTV system
C) Replace missing item immediately
D) Cross-check access logs, interview guards and staff, analyze patterns, seek physical evidence, and map possible timelines to reconstruct events
  • 36. Training includes ethics and use-of-force. Which training assessment best shows a trainee has evaluated complex scenarios correctly?
A) True/false quiz
B) Multiple-choice Only
C) Timed obstacle course
D) A practical exercise presenting ambiguous threat levels where trainee articulates proportional response, legal justification, and post-incident reporting steps
  • 37. A VIP requests privacy beyond normal protocol. Which action best balances customer relations skills with policy and legal constraints?
A) Evaluate request, seek management approval, document exceptions, and ensure legal and safety approvals are met before altering protocols
B) Handle privately without documentation
C) Grant all VIP requests regardless of policy
D) Refuse all VIP requests automatically
  • 38. A guard detects a potential insider leak. Which investigative strategy best aligns with corporate intelligence principles?
A) Accuse the suspected employee publicly
B) Send a company-wide email accusing staff
C) Initiate discreet intelligence collection, limit disclosure to need-to-know, correlate access histories, and coordinate with HR and legal before a covert operation or disciplinary action
D) Ignore the possibility
  • 39. Which protocol best demonstrates advanced customer-relations judgement in a crisis evacuation?
A) Evacuate only employees and leave customers
B) Lock doors and continue operations
C) Provide clear, calm instructions, designate staff to assist vulnerable customers, communicate updates, and ensure post-evacuation accountability and client communications
D) Evacuate without informing customers of exits
  • 40. A guard obtains eyewitness statements that conflict. Which investigative evaluation produces the most reliable reconstruction?
A) Discard all statements as unreliable
B) Ignore contradictions and accept the first statement
C) Choose the statement that fits a manager’s preconception
D) Cross-validate statements with physical evidence, timelines, and CCTV; assess witness credibility and corroborate with independent sources
  • 41. You're designing a training module on report writing. Which learning activity demonstrates creating-level skills?
A) Trainees must draft a full investigative report from a simulated incident, including chain-of-custody forms, legal considerations, and executive summary for stakeholders
B) Watching sample report videos
C) Reading sample reports
D) Copying a template report
  • 42. A guard must decide whether to detain a suspect until police arrive. Which criterion best reflects lawful and professional decision-making?
A) Never detain to avoid trouble
B) Detain only if manager is present
C) Evaluate probable cause, safety, legal authority, risk to the public, and document justification for detention consistent with law and organizational policy
D) Always detain suspects regardless of evidence
  • 43. For improving client trust, which intelligence practice should a security unit implement?
A) Share raw intelligence files externally
B) Implement a confidential incident feedback loop, transparent service-level reporting, and regular stakeholder briefings while protecting sensitive intelligence
C) Market and publicize internal investigations widely
D) Withhold all incident information
  • 44. A guard faces confrontation where de-escalation fails and a suspect flees. Which evaluative step best supports later investigation and accountability?
A) Immediately secure scene, interview witnesses, note pursuit details (times, directions), coordinate with police, and ensure bodycam/CCTV capture preserved
B) Ignore documenting the chase
C) Continue searching without reporting
D) Post chase details on social media
  • 45. A company wants metrics for customer service by guards. Which combined KPI set best demonstrates HOTS alignment?
A) Number of compliments only
B) Response time, resolution effectiveness, lawful conduct incidents, follow-up documentation quality, and client satisfaction surveys analyzed for training gaps
C) Number of guard selfies with clients
D) Number of calls to security center
  • 46. When investigating industrial sabotage, which multi-disciplinary approach most effectively uses corporate intelligence principles?
A) Blame external competitors without proof
B) Integrate physical forensics, digital forensics, personnel access records, vendor contract review, and external threat intelligence to determine motive and actors
C) Focus only on physical security
D) Fire a random employee to deter sabotage
  • 47. A trainee shows bias in interactions. For competency development, which learning intervention best addresses the issue?
A) Facilitate scenario-based bias-awareness training, role-play customer-relations simulations, and evaluate behavior changes through supervision and feedback
B) Ignore since performance is otherwise good
C) Immediately terminate the trainee
D) Give a written warning only
  • 48. A security team must create an intelligence brief for management. Which structure best reflects analyzing-level skills?
A) Long narrative without conclusions
B) Bullet list of rumors
C) Use raw messages with no analysis
D) Executive summary, threat assessment with evidence, impact analysis, recommended mitigations, and prioritized action plan with resource estimates
  • 49. An officer must preserve digital evidence from a smartphone found at a crime scene. Which sequence best ensures forensic integrity?
A) Isolate device (airplane mode), document chain-of-custody, avoid powering on/off unnecessarily, and coordinate with digital forensics specialists for imaging
B) Let anyone access phone to look for info
C) Post images from the phone on social media
D) Hand phone to client for safekeeping
  • 50. After a major incident, which customer-relations strategy best demonstrates evaluative leadership?
A) Provide a generic press release only
B) Provide transparent incident report, outline corrective actions, offer remediation where appropriate, and solicit client feedback for continuous improvement
C) Ignore clients to avoid panic
D) Blame clients for causing incident
  • 51. A guard notices a pattern of petty thefts correlated with a specific vendor shift. Which investigative action best demonstrates analytical intelligence?
A) Confront vendor employees immediately
B) Review vendor access logs, reconcile deliveries, interview staff, and recommend vendor audits and strengthened access controls
C) Remove vendor without cause
D) Ignore since thefts are petty
  • 52. For measuring investigative competence, which evaluation method demonstrates HOTS?
A) Observing attendance only
B) Quiz on definitions
C) Practical casework assessment requiring chain-of-custody, witness interview, analytical timeline, and prosecutable report reviewed by external expert
D) Asking trainees if they feel confident
  • 53. A guard must decide whether to detain a person found with a suspicious keycard. Which decision shows legal and investigative reasoning?
A) Immediately arrest the person without cause
B) Assess card ownership via access logs, interview the person, secure evidence, and detain only if probable cause exists and legal authority is clear
C) Destroy the keycard to prevent misuse
D) Ignore the keycard since it’s not a weapon
  • 54. A security manager needs to reallocate training hours after a budget cut. Which analytical choice best preserves investigative readiness?
A) Outsource all training abroad
B) Prioritize scenario-based, high-impact modules (e.g., evidence handling, interview skills), cross-train supervisors, and use blended learning to save costs
C) Cancel all investigative training
D) Replace training with memos
  • 55. A guard observes a senior staff member bypassing access controls. Which response best demonstrates professional integrity and investigative judgment?
A) Ignore due to seniority
B) Copy the senior staff’s behavior
C) Confront publicly and humiliate the staff member
D) Discreetly document the breach, report via appropriate channels, and follow up with a compliance investigation regardless of rank
  • 56. A client requests summary intelligence on theft patterns across their multiple sites. Which analytic product best meets their needs?
A) A single site’s incident report only
B) Comparative incident trend analysis with heat maps, root-cause insights, and prioritized remediation recommendations across sites
C) Raw incident logs with no analysis
D) One-line email saying “everything’s fine”
  • 57. During a simulated active aggression drill, which trainee behavior shows creating-level mastery?
A) Shouting to scare suspect away
B) Leaving the area immediately
C) Hiding from the drill
D) Developing a controlled, multi-step response integrating de-escalation, team coordination, evidence preservation, and post-incident documentation plan
  • 58. In preparing investigators, which policy ensures integrity of witness interviews?
A) Encourage leading questions to speed up results
B) Use structured interview protocols, record sessions (where legal), document non-leading questioning, and protect witness confidentiality to maintain credibility
C) Allow informal interviews with no record
D) Offer witnesses money to change statements
  • 59. A security team must convert raw intelligence into actionable tasks. Which prioritization method best demonstrates HOTS reasoning?
A) Act on the first tip received
B) Randomly choose tasks
C) Only pursue tasks that are easy
D) Prioritize by risk (likelihood × impact), feasibility, legal constraints, and potential to prevent harm, then assign resources accordingly
  • 60. A guard must create an incident narrative for prosecution. Which approach shows evaluative skills?
A) Include hearsay as fact
B) Omit inconvenient facts
C) Write emotional descriptions to sway court
D) Produce objective, chronological facts, corroborate with evidence, avoid opinion, and include evidence logs and witness details for legal scrutiny
  • 61. A newly contracted warehouse has repeated after-hours break-ins. Which step in a security survey demonstrates analytical evaluation before recommending countermeasures?
A) Hand the problem to the client
B) Immediately hire more guards
C) Replace lock hardware only
D) Conduct a site survey mapping vulnerabilities, crime patterns, access points, lighting, CCTV blind spots, and then match controls to quantified risk priorities
  • 62. After a risk assessment, management must choose between two mitigation options: costlier CCTV coverage or hiring additional guards. Which decision-making approach best aligns with risk management principles?
A) Choose the cheaper option
B) Flip a coin
C) Pick both regardless of budget
D) Perform cost-benefit analysis, consider residual risk, deterrence effects, and long-term total cost of ownership before selecting a layered solution
  • 63. While performing a personnel security review, you find several positions lack background checks. Which remedial plan best balances continuity and compliance?
A) Implement urgent background checks for critical roles, temporary restrictions on sensitive access, and a schedule to complete checks for all relevant staff
B) Fire all unvetted personnel immediately
C) Wait for an incident to act
D) Ignore the oversight
  • 64. A facility’s document-handling SOPs permit broad internal copying of sensitive records. Which change will best reduce information security risk while preserving operations?
A) Store all records outside the facility only
B) Ban all internal copying
C) Allow anyone access if they request it
D) Introduce classification levels, need-to-know access, logging of sensitive document handling, and secure disposal procedures balanced with business needs
  • 65. During BCP planning, which business process should be prioritized for recovery if it directly supports life safety?
A) Marketing campaign systems
B) The coffee vending machine
C) Payroll processing
D) Evacuation communications, emergency medical response coordination, and secured access to critical safety systems
  • 66. An auditor asks for evidence that proposed security controls reduce risk. Which evaluation method provides the strongest proof?
A) Testimonials without data
B) Verbal assurance only
C) Pilot implementation with metrics: incident rates pre/post, penetration test results, and quantitative risk reduction modeling
D) Photo of new equipment only
  • 67. A perimeter fence upgrade is considered low priority but highly visible to customers. What advanced recommendation most appropriately balances security effectiveness with stakeholder expectations?
A) Ignore both risk and appearance
B) Recommend a layered approach: discreet intrusion detection, natural surveillance improvements (lighting/landscaping), and targeted fencing where risk justifies it
C) Build the thickest, most aggressive fence possible regardless of impact
D) Opt for an ornamental fence for appearance only
  • 68. A company wants to digitize personnel files. Which information-security control should be applied first?
A) Only password-protect with a generic password
B) Implement access controls, encryption, audit logging, role-based permissions, and a documented retention/destruction policy before digitization
C) Save on local desktops only
D) Post files on a public drive for convenience
  • 69. A supply-chain disruption threatens critical components. Which BCP step best demonstrates HOTS planning?
A) Blame the supplier publicly
B) Activate contingency suppliers, prioritize critical processes for recovery, implement manual fallback procedures, and communicate with stakeholders per the BCP
C) Hope the supplier resumes quickly
D) Close operations until supplier returns
  • 70. A security survey shows repeated tailgating at main gates. Which multi-layered control plan best addresses the root cause?
A) Increase gate height alone
B) Allow tailgating during busy hours
C) Replace guards with a single camera only
D) Combine physical barriers, access credential upgrades, anti-tailgate technology, staff training, and monitoring with enforcement policies and sanctions
  • 71. Evaluating a document security breach, which analytical sequence will best determine corrective measures?
A) Ignore if not publicized
B) Delete the breached files to hide the issue
C) Fire a random staff member
D) Map the leak pathway (who had access), review controls, interview staff, assess extent of compromise, and implement technical/administrative remediations and monitoring
  • 72. Which risk treatment option best demonstrates an evidence-based approach for high-likelihood, low-impact threats?
A) Spend maximum budget to eliminate them entirely
B) Accept where cost of mitigation exceeds impact, but monitor and periodically reassess; implement low-cost controls where feasible
C) Ignore such threats entirely
D) Wait until something happens before deciding
  • 73. For information security, which control best addresses both insider threat and business continuity?
A) Use a single master password for ease
B) Give administrators full access with no oversight
C) Remove all admin privileges from everyone permanently
D) Implement least-privilege access, session monitoring, privileged access management, and documented emergency override procedures with audit trails
  • 74. A new manufacturing line adds unknown risks. Which planning approach best ensures resilient operations?
A) Rely on insurance to cover problems
B) Outsource risk to contractors
C) Start production immediately and adapt later
D) Conduct a targeted risk assessment, integrate controls into process design, update BCP and recovery priorities, and train staff before commissioning
  • 75. When evaluating CCTV placement, which analytic consideration yields the best coverage plan?
A) Cover only entrances and ignore interior zones
B) Use threat scenarios, sightlines, lighting conditions, image retention needs, privacy impacts, and integration with response procedures to optimize placement
C) Place them only where cosmetically appropriate
D) Place cameras randomly to cover all walls
  • 76. A critical document is accidentally made public. Which immediate response demonstrates proper incident management and continuity planning?
A) Delete the document and hope for the best
B) Contain exposure, assess scope, notify affected parties per policy, apply legal/PR strategies, and strengthen access controls to prevent recurrence
C) Ignore unless someone complains
D) Blame the IT department without analysis
  • 77. Which combination of countermeasures best reduces both physical theft and data exfiltration risks at a sensitive research lab?
A) Allow open access to foster collaboration
B) Only increase signage about confidentiality
C) Access control, visitor vetting, CCTV, data segmentation, endpoint protection, and strict document handling policies with staff vetting and monitoring
D) Lock doors only
  • 78. A building’s emergency generator fails during a drill. Which analytic step best informs BCP revision?
A) Cancel future drills to avoid failures
B) Conduct root-cause analysis, test redundancy, evaluate manual workarounds, update recovery time objectives (RTOs), and schedule corrective maintenance and alternate backup sources
C) Replace the generator with the same model without analysis
D) Dismiss the failure as a fluke
  • 79. A security plan must address both low- and high-probability catastrophic events. Which planning principle ensures resource-efficient resilience?
A) Only plan for everyday minor events
B) Use risk-based prioritization focusing on high-impact events first, adopt proportional controls, and incorporate scalable contingency options
C) Treat all events equally
D) Only buy the most expensive mitigation available
  • 80. For personnel security, which hiring control best minimizes fraud risk in finance roles?
A) Hire quickly without vetting to fill vacancies
B) Only check identity documents
C) Hire friends of management only
D) Require multi-source reference checks, financial background screenings, integrity testing, and role-specific monitoring with separation of duties
  • 81. A plan relies entirely on vendor cloud backup. Which risk assessment finding should prompt a change?
A) Single-point-of-failure in vendor dependency; recommend multi-region/backups, contractual SLAs, and test restores to ensure recovery capability
B) Rely on on-premises tapes only without testing
C) Cancel backups altogether
D) No change is needed; cloud providers are always reliable
  • 82. A critical corridor is both a fire route and a security chokepoint. Which design remedy best balances safety and security requirements?
A) Use bolt locks that require keys and prevent escape
B) Block the corridor to prevent unauthorized access
C) Keep the corridor unlocked for convenience
D) Use alarmed, access-controlled doors that comply with egress codes (fail-safe mechanisms), combined with monitoring and clear signage to preserve life-safety while securing areas
  • 83. A data classification scheme is inconsistent across departments. What corrective action best improves document security governance?
A) Implement enterprise-wide classification policy, training, and enforcement with tools for labeling and automated controls tied to BCP priorities
B) Let each department do as they wish
C) Delete old classifications
D) Outsource classification to an external vendor with no integration
  • 84. A risk register lists many low-priority items. For efficient planning, which analytical step best optimizes resource allocation?
A) Group similar risks, assess aggregated impact, reprioritize by combined likelihood and impact, and address clusters with single controls where effective
B) Treat low-priority items first
C) Spend budget evenly across all items
D) Discard all low-priority risks entirely
  • 85. During penetration testing, testers exploited access via an unmonitored utility entrance. Which control revision best mitigates this vector?
A) Remove all utility entrances and relocate utilities
B) Close the entrance permanently
C) Ignore since utilities are low profile
D) Add access control, monitoring, staff awareness, and integrate the utility entrance into patrol and CCTV coverage with procedural checks
  • 86. A key supplier is in an unstable region. Which BCP strategy best ensures continuity of supply?
A) Do nothing and hope supplier remains stable
B) Develop alternate suppliers, maintain safety stock for critical items, and create contractual contingencies and rapid switch-over procedures
C) Move all production to the unstable region
D) Rely on the supplier’s assurances only
  • 87. After a security survey, you recommend layered access control. Which justification best convinces senior management?
A) Offer anecdotal stories only
B) Says it looks more professional
C) Claim it is mandatory without evidence
D) Present quantified risk reduction, ROI estimate, incident-avoidance costs vs. implementation cost, and regulatory/compliance benefits for decision-making
  • 88. For continuity, which testing regimen provides the strongest assurance BCP will work during real events?
A) Outsource testing and ignore results
B) Only read the BCP document annually
C) A tabletop exercise only every five years
D) Regular drills of full-scale recovery, desktop scenario testing, supplier continuity tests, and evidence-based post-exercise improvements with timelines
  • 89. A building uses open Wi-Fi in public areas. To reduce information security risk without hindering customer experience, which plan best balances both concerns?
A) Display passwords publicly in the lobby
B) Use the corporate network for guests
C) Remove Wi-Fi entirely
D) Implement segmented guest networks isolated from corporate resources, enforce bandwidth/security policies, and present clear acceptable-use terms
  • 90. A company is required to recover operations within 24 hours. Which planning step best ensures this recovery time objective (RTO) is achievable?
A) Map critical processes, identify dependencies, establish recovery strategies (hot/warm sites), test restores, and align resource allocations to meet the RTO
B) Only purchase extra servers without testing
C) Assume systems will be back in time by luck
D) Reduce employee hours to save costs and hope for the best
  • 91. When redesigning a retail complex for CPTED (Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design), which integrated change best demonstrates synthesis of theory and practice?
A) Add more security guards only
B) Reconfigure sightlines with low landscaping, optimize lighting, create natural surveillance, control access, and combine signage and territorial reinforcement to reduce crime opportunities
C) Install only high fences with barbed wire
D) Add metal detectors only
  • 92. Evaluating CPTED vs. mechanistic security for a mixed-use urban plaza, which argument best reflects high-level analysis?
A) CPTED is obsolete
B) Use only police patrols and nothing else
C) A hybrid approach that uses CPTED for long-term social prevention and targeted mechanical systems for high-risk nodes yields better resilience and community acceptance
D) Mechanistic security always wins
  • 93. A proposed building layout creates many blind corridors. From an architectural-security perspective, which redesign principle best reduces risk while preserving aesthetics?
A) Introduce transparency (glass), natural surveillance points, mirrored sightlines, and controlled access while maintaining aesthetic coherence
B) Add murals to decorate blind spots only
C) Keep blind corridors and increase patrols only
D) Close the corridors permanently
  • 94. Urban planners want to discourage loitering that fuels petty crime but not alienate legitimate users. Which policy best balances security philosophy and public access?
A) Design inclusive public spaces with active uses (cafés, vendor stalls), adequate lighting, seating that discourages long-term loitering in sensitive areas, and community policing initiatives
B) Remove seating entirely to prevent anyone from staying
C) Close the space at night permanently
D) Enforce blanket anti-loitering laws harshly
  • 95. A high-rise integrates security into façade design. Which design decision best demonstrates creative application of physical security principles?
A) Cover the façade with solid metal plates
B) Hide guards in basements only
C) Add visible armed sentries on every corner of the roof
D) Use architectural features (bollards disguised as planters, setback landscaping, and reinforced glazing) that provide protection without visible fortress aesthetics
  • 96. For a campus experiencing repeated thefts from parked vehicles, which multi-disciplinary solution best applies theory to practice?
A) Install random spikes that damage tires to stop parking
B) Only hand out pamphlets about theft prevention
C) Reorganize parking into well-lit, surveilled zones, increase natural surveillance through foot traffic patterns, add controlled access points, and run community awareness campaigns
D) Ban parking entirely
  • 97. A new mall design could either concentrate retail in a single atrium or distribute shops across multiple nodes. Which layout better applies security philosophy to reduce target attractiveness while preserving commerce?
A) Distributed nodes with clear sightlines, controlled access points, and secure back-of-house circulation to reduce single-point-target risk and support emergency egress
B) One concentrated atrium for maximum density
C) Hide all shops behind secured doors only accessible by staff
D) Randomly place shops with no planning
  • 98. Which philosophical justification best supports integrating community engagement into physical security planning for neighborhoods?
A) Only technology can prevent crime, community engagement is irrelevant
B) Community input always increases crime
C) Community engagement slows down planning
D) Engaged communities increase social cohesion, informal guardianship, and long-term deterrence, reducing reliance on costly mechanical controls and improving legitimacy of security measures
  • 99. A security architect must reconcile heritage preservation with modern security needs. Which solution best balances both goals?
A) Replace the heritage site with a modern fortress
B) Use reversible, non-invasive security installations (discreet cameras, mobile access solutions, sympathetic barriers) and collaborate with conservationists to maintain historical integrity while improving protection
C) Ignore security to preserve authenticity
D) Build a separate modern structure next to the heritage site and move everything there
  • 100. When evaluating a proposal for hostile vehicle mitigation on a public promenade, which analytical framework best ensures both safety and urban amenity?
A) Use temporary measures only during festivals
B) Close the promenade to the public permanently
C) Install visible concrete blocks everywhere
D) Use graduated measures (landscaped barriers, retractable bollards, widened sidewalks, setback café zones) combined with pedestrian experience analysis and emergency access planning to balance protection and livability
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