Real-time polymerase chain reaction - Quiz
  • 1. Which field uses quantitative PCR for microbial risk assessment of water quality?
A) Botany
B) Civil engineering
C) Astrophysics
D) Public health protection
  • 2. What kind of DNA markers are used to determine the amount of microorganisms in a sample?
A) Taxonomic markers
B) Physical markers
C) Protein markers
D) Chemical markers
  • 3. What type of markers are used to reveal gene expression within a community?
A) Non-coding markers
B) Structural markers
C) Functional markers
D) Ribosomal markers
  • 4. What is Phytophthora ramorum primarily known for?
A) Enhancing crop growth
B) Killing oaks and other species
C) Treating viral infections
D) Improving water quality
  • 5. What genetic sequences are amplified to discriminate between pathogen and host plant DNA?
A) Promoter sequences
B) ITS sequences
C) Terminator sequences
D) Viral sequences
  • 6. What is the main advantage of RT-qPCR over protein analysis in detecting GMOs?
A) No need for primers
B) Faster processing speed
C) Lower cost
D) Higher sensitivity
  • 7. What part of the transgenic vector is typically amplified during GMO detection?
A) The entire genome
B) Promoter or terminator
C) Ribosomal RNA only
D) Only the host DNA
  • 8. How is the number of transgene copies typically assessed?
A) Absolute titration
B) Relative quantification
C) Protein sequencing
D) Gel electrophoresis
  • 9. Which method is used for genotyping viruses via melting curves?
A) Classical culture
B) qPCR
C) Gram staining
D) Simple microscopy
  • 10. What is the relationship between herpes simplex virus type 1 reactivation and neurons?
A) It is unrelated to the number of neurons
B) It is triggered by complete removal of the virus
C) It requires the virus to be absent
D) It is related to the number of infected neurons
  • 11. Which virus is mentioned as potentially integrating into the human genome?
A) Herpes simplex 1
B) CMV
C) Hepatitis B
D) HPV
  • 12. In which patient population is human cytomegalovirus (CMV) quantification commonly used?
A) Patients with bacterial infections
B) Healthy adults
C) Immunosuppressed patients
D) Patients with non-viral genetic disorders
  • 13. What does the amplification of taxonomic markers provide?
A) Identification of families, genera, or species
B) Transcription analysis only
C) Gene expression data
D) Viral genotyping
  • 14. What is a common application of qPCR in the food industry?
A) Creating new GMO species
B) Food safety and spoilage assessment
C) Packaging material testing
D) Antibiotic manufacturing
  • 15. What does a single copy control gene in the treated species help achieve?
A) Differentiation between viral strains
B) Amplification of ITS sequences
C) Detection of bacterial contamination
D) Relative quantification of transgene copies
  • 16. What is the primary advantage of using a fluorescent reporter probe in PCR?
A) Faster annealing times
B) Elimination of primer dimers
C) Increased specificity
D) Lower cost of reagents
  • 17. Which enzyme is responsible for degrading the probe in the fluorescent reporter method?
A) RNA polymerase
B) Restriction endonuclease
C) DNA ligase
D) Taq polymerase
  • 18. What dye is commonly used for melting temperature analysis in real-time PCR?
A) Rhodamine
B) SYBR Green
C) Ethidium bromide
D) Fluorescein
  • 19. What is a major limitation of primer dimers even when using fluorescent probes?
A) They interfere with the melting temperature
B) They may depress product accumulation through inhibition
C) They cause false negatives in all cases
D) They always prevent fluorescence detection
  • 20. What is the main assumption of the MAK2 quantification method according to Ruijter et al.?
A) Lack of a baseline threshold
B) Linear amplification
C) Constant amplification efficiency
D) Variable amplification efficiency
  • 21. What happens to the proximity of the reporter and quencher in an intact probe?
A) They are physically separated
B) They bind to the primer
C) They emit a constant laser signal
D) They are in close proximity, preventing fluorescence
  • 22. What is used to determine the amplification efficiency of a primer-template combination?
A) The length of the probe
B) A standard curve from serial dilutions
C) The background noise level
D) The melting temperature
  • 23. What is the ΔCt-method used for?
A) Comparing gene expression among samples
B) Determining absolute DNA concentration
C) Measuring laser intensity
D) Calculating the dissociation curve
  • 24. Why is choosing a reference gene challenging?
A) They interfere with Taq polymerase
B) Reference genes are too expensive
C) Reference genes are only found in bacteria
D) Few genes have equal expression across all conditions
  • 25. How many cycles are typically performed in the PCR process?
A) 5–10
B) 100–150
C) 1–5
D) 25–50
  • 26. What temperature range is typically used for primer binding?
A) 90–95 °C
B) 30–40 °C
C) 68–72 °C
D) 50–60 °C
  • 27. What temperature range is generally used for DNA polymerization?
A) 20–30 °C
B) 40–50 °C
C) 95–100 °C
D) 68–72 °C
  • 28. What does the abbreviation qPCR stand for in the context of the provided text?
A) Quantity PCR
B) Quantitative process chain reaction
C) Quantitative real-time PCR
D) Qualitative polymerase chain reaction
  • 29. Which enzyme is required to convert RNA into cDNA?
A) Reverse transcriptase
B) DNA polymerase
C) RNA polymerase
D) Ligase
  • 30. What are housekeeping genes often used for in qPCR experiments?
A) Amplification inhibition
B) Primer design
C) Fluorescence quenching
D) Normalization
  • 31. Which of these is mentioned as a common normalizing gene?
A) Tubulin
B) Insulin
C) Collagen
D) Hemoglobin
  • 32. Which of the following is considered an older method for measuring mRNA abundance?
A) Northern blot
B) DNA microarray
C) RT-qPCR
D) qPCR
  • 33. Sequence-specific DNA probes used in real-time PCR are labeled with what?
A) An enzyme
B) A protein
C) A fluorescent reporter
D) A radioisotope
  • 34. According to the text, which of these is not an older method for measuring mRNA abundance?
A) Northern blot
B) Differential display
C) Quantitative PCR
D) RNase protection assay
  • 35. Which software is mentioned for implementing the entire qPCR analysis workflow?
A) Blast
B) GenEx
C) SnapGene
D) Excel
  • 36. Which of these is an example of an emerging disease detected by qualitative PCR?
A) Polio
B) Smallpox
C) Coronavirus
D) Measles
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