CLJ5-CEVIDE
  • 1. Which term refers to any matter of fact that a party offers to prove or disprove a claim in court?
A) Testimony
B) Proof
C) Fact
D) Evidence
  • 2. What is the degree of proof required in criminal cases, ensuring moral certainty of guilt?
A) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
B) Substantial Evidence
C) Circumstantial Evidence
D) Preponderance of Evidence
  • 3. Which standard of proof is used in administrative cases and requires such relevant evidence as a reasonable mind might accept as adequate to support a conclusion?
A) Preponderance of Evidence
B) Direct Evidence
C) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
D) Substantial Evidence
  • 4. In civil cases, which degree of proof requires that the evidence on one side is more convincing than that of the other?
A) Substantial Evidence
B) Equipoise of Evidence
C) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
D) Preponderance of Evidence
  • 5. When the evidence of both parties is balanced, and the case must be resolved in favor of the defendant, it is called.
A) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
B) Preponderance of Evidence
C) Substantial Evidence
D) Equiponderance of Evidence
  • 6. Which term means that the evidence presented by both sides is equal in weight and credibility?
A) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
B) Substantial Evidence
C) Preponderance of Evidence
D) Equipoise of Evidence
  • 7. Which of the following is not a degree of proof recognized by the Rules of Court?
A) Equipoise of Evidence
B) Substantial Evidence
C) Clear and Convincing Evidence
D) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
  • 8. What is the lowest degree of proof used in administrative proceedings?
A) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
B) Preponderance of Evidence
C) Substantial Evidence
D) Equiponderance of Evidence
  • 9. When the evidence of guilt and innocence are equal, the accused must be acquitted because of.
A) Equipoise of Evidence Rule
B) Substantial Evidence Doctrine
C) Preponderance of Evidence
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 10. Which term refers to the totality of evidence presented by a party to prove a fact in issue?
A) Proof
B) Object Evidence
C) Testimony
D) Documentary Evidence
  • 11. hen the scales of evidence are equally balanced, and the doubt favors the accused, this principle applies
A) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
B) Preponderance of Evidence
C) Substantial Evidence
D) sumption of Innocence
  • 12. Which of the following requires the highest level of certainty before a conviction can be made?
A) Preponderance of Evidence
B) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
C) Substantial Evidence
D) Circumstantial Evidence
  • 13. Which rule dictates that when evidence is equally balanced, the case should be decided against the party who has the burden of proof?
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Equiponderance Rule
C) Res Gestae
D) Rule of Preponderance
  • 14. In the hierarchy of proof, which of the following requires the least amount of proof?
A) Clear and Convincing Evidence
B) Preponderance of Evidence
C) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
D) Substantial Evidence
  • 15. When evidence is described as credible, relevant, and sufficient to establish a fact, it is called.
A) Admissible Evidence
B) Substantial Evidence
C) Testimonial Evidence
D) Cumulative Evidence
  • 16. A police officer testifies that he personally recovered a gun from the suspect’s waist during arrest. The gun is later presented in court. Which correctly describes the evidentiary classification involved?
A) The narration and the gun are both documentary evidence.
B) Both the narration and the gun are testimonial evidence.
C) The officer’s narration is testimonial; the gun itself is object evidence.
D) The narration converts the gun into documentary evidence.
  • 17. A private document offered in evidence to prove its contents must first be
A) Authenticated by any person familiar with the signature appearing thereon.
B) Admitted automatically since it is self-authenticating.
C) Identified and compared by a handwriting expert alone.
D) Presented through secondary evidence.
  • 18. A surveillance video showing the accused receiving marked money is presented in court. The USB drive where the video is stored is considered
A) Testimonial evidence since it reflects human narration.
B) A surveillance video showing the accused receiving marked money is presented in court. The USB drive where the video is stored is considered.
C) Circumstantial evidence because it implies guilt.
D) Demonstrative evidence since it illustrates an act.
  • 19. Which statement correctly distinguishes object evidence from documentary evidence under the Rules on Evidence?
A) Documentary evidence can be offered without a witness if material; object evidence cannot.
B) Object evidence must be identified by a witness who saw its connection to the crime; documentary evidence must be authenticated to prove its genuineness.
C) Object evidence proves contents; documentary evidence proves physical existence.
D) Both require authentication by handwriting experts.
  • 20. A certified true copy of a public record issued by a government officer is presented. What form and status of evidence does it have?
A) Secondary evidence subject to best evidence rule.
B) Public document, admissible without further proof of its due execution.
C) Private document requiring authentication.
D) Object evidence needing physical identification.
  • 21. If a fingerprint lifted from the crime scene is offered to prove identity, the evidence is classified as
A) Circumstantial evidence only.
B) Object (real) evidence, subject to proper identification and chain of custody.
C) Testimonial evidence.
D) Documentary evidence because it is recorded
  • 22. The affidavit of a witness, if not testified to in open court, is
A) Self-authenticating documentary evidence.
B) Mere hearsay and inadmissible, unless the affiant is presented for cross-examination.
C) Real evidence under the rules.
D) Testimonial evidence of high probative value.
  • 23. When the defense introduces a diagram prepared by an expert witness to explain ballistic trajectories, the diagram is
A) Circumstantial evidence, since it suggests but does not prove fact.
B) Object evidence, since it is a tangible exhibit used to clarify testimony.
C) Documentary evidence, since it has written markings.
D) Hearsay evidence, since it is not based on personal knowledge.
  • 24. Under the Best Evidence Rule, when the original document has been lost or destroyed without bad faith, the secondary evidence admissible may consist of—
A) Both A and B.
B) A photocopy or carbon copy, properly authenticated.
C) Oral testimony as to its contents.
D) Neither, since the document is already lost.
  • 25. A forensic chemist testifies that the sachet he examined contained methamphetamine hydrochloride. The sachet itself is offered in court. To be admissible, it must be shown that—
A) It was photographed before trial.
B) The chemist’s testimony alone suffices for admissibility.
C) It was in the continuous custody of the police, establishing its chain of custody.
D) It was mentioned in the affidavit of arrest.
  • 26. A CCTV footage showing the accused entering the store before the robbery is presented in court. What kind of evidence is this?
A) Object evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 27. A witness testifies that he saw the accused stab the victim.
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 28. A certified true copy of a birth certificate is presented to prove age.
A) Secondary evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Primary evidence
  • 29. A witness submits a sworn affidavit instead of personally testifying.
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 30. A photograph of the crime scene showing the victim’s location is shown in court.
A) Documentary evidence
B) Demonstrative evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 31. A signed written contract is offered to prove the existence of an agreement.
A) Documentary evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 32. A forensic expert states that the bullet found at the scene matches the accused’s firearm.
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Object evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 33. A pistol used in the commission of the crime is presented before the court.
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Demonstrative evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 34. A witness testifies that someone else told him the accused confessed.
A) Direct evidence
B) Hearsay evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 35. An investigator presents a sketch of the accident scene to illustrate his testimony.
A) Demonstrative evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 36. A DNA analysis result matching the suspect’s blood sample is introduced.
A) Direct evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 37. The original land title is produced in court to prove ownership.
A) Demonstrative evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Primary evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 38. A video of the accused reenacting how the crime was done is shown in court.
A) Documentary evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Direct evidence
D) Demonstrative evidence
  • 39. A witness testified that he saw the accused running from the scene after a gunshot.
A) Documentary evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Direct evidence
D) Hearsay evidence
  • 40. A handwritten letter by the accused admitting guilt is offered as evidence.
A) Object evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 41. Evidence is said to be admissible when it:
A) Supports the testimony of the witness
B) Has a strong emotional impact on the jury
C) Is relevant and not excluded by the Rules of Court
D) Is presented by the prosecution only
  • 42. The general rule on admissibility requires that evidence must be:
A) Supported by an affidavit
B) Certified by a notary public
C) Competent and relevant
D) Original and signed
  • 43. Which of the following best explains the purpose of the rule on admissibility of evidence?
A) To ensure speedy trial
B) To favor the prosecution
C) To limit the number of witnesses
D) To ensure that only reliable and lawful evidence is considered by the court
  • 44. What kind of evidence is inadmissible even if relevant?
A) Evidence properly identified in open court
B) Documentary evidence authenticated by a custodian
C) Testimony based on personal knowledge
D) Evidence obtained in violation of constitutional rights
  • 45. Which rule provides that evidence must be both relevant and competent?
A) Rule 131, Section 1
B) Rule 129, Section 1
C) Rule 130, Section 4
D) Rule 128, Section 3
  • 46. A police officer illegally searches a house without a warrant and finds drugs. The prosecution offers them as evidence. Applying the rule on admissibility, the court should:
A) Admit the evidence because it is material
B) Exclude it only if the defense objects
C) Exclude it because it was obtained illegally
D) Admit it because it proves guilt
  • 47. A witness testifies about a conversation he overheard between two accused persons. The testimony is objected to as hearsay. Applying the rules, the court should:
A) Admit it because it came from the accused
B) Exclude it only if the defense requests
C) Exclude it as it was not based on personal knowledge
D) Admit it because it was said in public
  • 48. During trial, a photocopy of a contract is presented without explaining the loss of the original. Applying the rules, the photocopy is:
A) Inadmissible for failure to comply with the best evidence rule
B) Admissible since it is a copy
C) Admissible only if notarized
D) Admissible as best evidence
  • 49. A confession made by an accused without the assistance of counsel is offered as evidence. Applying the constitutional rule, such confession is:
A) Admissible as an exception
B) Inadmissible for violation of the right to counsel
C) Admissible if reduced to writing
D) Admissible if voluntarily made
  • 50. The prosecution offers a video recording obtained from a CCTV camera. The defense objects on the ground that it was tampered with. Applying the rules, the court should:
A) Exclude it automatically
B) Admit it if authentication proves it is genuine
C) Admit it if it favors the prosecution
D) Admit it without question
  • 51. Evidence is both relevant and material, but it was obtained through entrapment involving police coercion. Analyze its admissibility.
A) Admissible because entrapment is allowed
B) Inadmissible only if not signed by witnesses
C) Inadmissible because the method violated due process
D) Admissible because it proves guilt
  • 52. A dying declaration is admitted despite being hearsay. Analyze why this is allowed
A) It is supported by physical evidence
B) The witness was credible
C) The statement was recorded
D) The declarant’s statement is presumed truthful due to impending death
  • 53. The prosecution presents circumstantial evidence linking the accused to the crime. Analyze the condition for its admissibility.
A) It must be at least three circumstances only
B) It must be supported by hearsay statements
C) It must form an unbroken chain leading to a fair conclusion of guilt
D) It must be direct and absolute
  • 54. The defense offers a confession that was obtained before counsel arrived but later confirmed by the accused in open court. Analyze if it is admissible.
A) Inadmissible unless written
B) Admissible because it was affirmed voluntarily
C) Admissible only with corroboration
D) Inadmissible because the original confession was tainted
  • 55. Two pieces of evidence are both admissible but contradict each other. Analyze how the court should treat them.
A) Automatically favor the defense
B) Exclude both pieces of evidence
C) Give more weight to the more credible and consistent evidence
D) Automatically favor the prosecution
  • 56. When a party offers documentary evidence in court, what must accompany the offer?
A) The affidavit of the custodian
B) A statement identifying and describing the document’s purpose
C) The oral testimony of the party
D) The document alone
  • 57. When must evidence be formally offered during trial?
A) At the beginning of the case
B) After all witnesses have testified
C) During closing arguments
D) When the evidence is identified by the witness
  • 58. Oral testimony must be offered:
A) At the time the witness is called to testify
B) Before documentary evidence
C) After closing arguments
D) After cross-examination
  • 59. Failure to make a timely objection to inadmissible evidence results in:
A) Suspension of proceedings
B) Waiver of objection
C) Reversal of judgment
D) Exclusion of evidence
  • 60. The main reason for formally offering evidence is to:
A) Expedite the trial process
B) Allow the court to rule on admissibility
C) Guarantee appeal rights
D) Assist in witness examination
  • 61. Documentary evidence that is not formally offered in court is:
A) Considered but not given weight
B) Valid if attached to pleadings
C) Disregarded by the court
D) Deemed admitted automatically
  • 62. A general objection is insufficient when:
A) The testimony is cumulative
B) The ground for objection is not apparent
C) The witness is incompetent
D) The evidence is irrelevant
  • 63. To preserve the right to object, counsel must object:
A) During cross-examination
B) Before the answer is given
C) After the witness answers
D) In a written memorandum
  • 64. During trial, a witness begins to narrate a story containing hearsay information. Counsel must immediately:
A) Let the witness finish then object
B) Move to strike out the testimony after it’s completed
C) File a written motion later
D) Object before the witness continues
  • 65. The prosecutor offers a photograph into evidence without explaining its purpose. Defense counsel objects. The court should:
A) Deny it for lack of proper offer
B) Admit it provisionally
C) Allow explanation later
D) Admit it since it’s already marked
  • 66. Defense counsel forgot to object to an irrelevant question, and the answer was recorded. Later, he argues the answer should be excluded. What is the effect?
A) The court may suspend proceedings
B) The judge must disregard it
C) The objection is waived
D) The evidence becomes void
  • 67. A lawyer objects to a document on the ground of irrelevance. What should the proponent do to sustain admission?
A) Argue that all evidence is relevant
B) Refile it with an affidavit
C) Withdraw and substitute it
D) Show its connection to a material issue
  • 68. During cross-examination, opposing counsel offers a letter not yet identified by any witness. The proper objection is:
A) Violation of best evidence rule
B) Irrelevance
C) Lack of authentication
D) Improper cross-examination
  • 69. A document was marked and discussed during trial but never formally offered. The judge considers it in deciding the case. On appeal, what is the ruling?
A) The document is admissible
B) The document should be excluded
C) The court may still affirm the decision
D) The ruling is discretionary
  • 70. Counsel objects to an exhibit as hearsay but fails to specify the reason. The court admits it. Later, counsel raises the issue on appeal. What is the consequence?
A) The objection is deemed waived
B) The evidence loses probative value
C) The evidence is void
D) The appellate court must review the case
  • 71. Which of the following best describes documentary evidence?
A) Oral statements made outside the courtroom
B) Any object presented for the inspection of the court
C) Any written instrument offered as proof of facts in issue
D) Testimony given by a witness under oath
  • 72. Before a documentary evidence is admitted, it must first be:
A) Shown to the opposing counsel only
B) Filed before the start of trial
C) Identified and authenticated by a competent witness
D) Certified by the judge
  • 73. The purpose of authentication of documentary evidence is to:
A) Prove that it is the original document
B) Establish its genuineness and due execution
C) Ensure that it was properly notarized
D) Confirm its availability for inspection
  • 74. A private document becomes admissible in evidence once it is:
A) Certified by the clerk of court
B) Acknowledged by both parties
C) Filed in the records of the court
D) Authenticated by someone who saw it executed or recognized the signature
  • 75. A public document is presumed to be genuine because it:
A) Is executed or issued by a public officer in performance of official duties
B) Has been signed before a notary public
C) Bears the seal of the Republic of the Philippines
D) Was written by a lawyer
  • 76. When the original document is unavailable, the rules allow:
A) Presentation of secondary evidence upon proper explanation of loss
B) Admission by stipulation only
C) Substitution by oral testimony
D) Use of a photocopy without justification
  • 77. The “best evidence rule” means that:
A) All documents must be notarized
B) The most persuasive evidence should be used
C) The original document must be produced when the contents are in issue
D) Only public documents are acceptable
  • 78. When the authenticity of a document is not disputed by the parties, the rule allows it to be:
A) Dismissed as irrelevant
B) Admitted without further proof
C) Excluded for lack of foundation
D) Treated as secondary evidence
  • 79. A lawyer offers in evidence a photocopy of a contract, claiming the original was destroyed in a fire. What must the lawyer first do?
A) Prove the existence and loss of the original before introducing the copy
B) Present the photocopy immediately
C) Submit an affidavit of loss only
D) Request the court to assume the original was lost
  • 80. A notarial document executed by a public officer is offered in court. What is the correct procedure for presenting it?
A) It must be verified by both parties
B) It may be presented directly without further authentication
C) It requires comparison of handwriting
D) It must be accompanied by oral testimony
  • 81. During trial, a witness identifies a private letter signed by the accused. Which rule is applied to admit this letter as evidence?
A) Parol evidence rule
B) Authentication of private document
C) Hearsay rule
D) Best evidence rule
  • 82. If the opposing counsel admits the genuineness of a document during pre-trial, what is its effect?
A) The document still needs formal offer
B) The document must still be notarized
C) The court disregards the admission
D) The document becomes automatically admissible without authentication
  • 83. A party wants to prove the contents of an old public record kept in the government archive. Which is the proper evidence to present?
A) A news article quoting the document
B) A handwritten copy by the lawyer
C) A copy certified by the legal custodian of the record
D) Oral testimony of a government employee
  • 84. A duplicate original of a notarized contract is presented. The opposing party objects, claiming it is not the “best evidence.” What is the ruling?
A) The duplicate original is admissible as it has equal legal force
B) The objection is valid; only one original is allowed
C) The court must issue an order to produce the first copy
D) The duplicate must first be notarized again
  • 85. A party offers a private document in evidence without identifying the signatures. What should the judge do under the rules?
A) Admit the document because it is relevant
B) Allow it if the other party remains silent
C) Reject it for lack of authentication
D) Require only a photocopy
  • 86. What does sufficiency of evidence primarily refer to in legal proceedings?
A) The credibility of the witness alone
B) The materiality of the documents submitted
C) The quantity of witnesses presented
D) The adequacy of evidence to sustain a verdict
  • 87. Evidence is said to be sufficient when:
A) It is circumstantial and weak
B) It convinces the court beyond reasonable doubt or meets the required standard of proof
C) It is admissible but not credible
D) It creates mere suspicion of guilt
  • 88. Which of the following best explains “insufficient evidence”?
A) The evidence cannot be admitted in court
B) The evidence is irrelevant but credible
C) The evidence fails to meet the degree of proof required by law
D) The evidence is abundant but immaterial
  • 89. In a criminal case, the sufficiency of evidence is determined by whether it can:
A) Prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt
B) Produce a presumption of guilt
C) Support a civil action
D) Establish probable cause
  • 90. In a civil case, sufficiency of evidence is measured by:
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Substantial evidence
C) Moral certainty
D) Preponderance of evidence
  • 91. The sufficiency of evidence is concerned mainly with:
A) The source of the evidence
B) The weight and convincing character of the proof presented
C) The numerical count of the witnesses
D) The admissibility of the evidence
  • 92. The admissibility of the evidence
A) When the case is appealed
B) When the evidence fails to establish a prima facie case
C) When evidence presented is too technical
D) When both parties submit identical evidence
  • 93. “Sufficient evidence” means:
A) The evidence that may exist but does not relate to the issue
B) The evidence that is always direct in nature
C) The minimum proof required to justify a finding in favor of a party
D) The evidence that may exist but does not relate to the issue
  • 94. The concept of sufficiency of evidence ensures that:
A) The judge is free to decide without reference to the evidence
B) The number of witnesses determines the outcome
C) The number of witnesses determines the outcome
D) The judgment is based on the totality of relevant and credible proofs
  • 95. The test of sufficiency of evidence is:
A) Whether all evidence is documentary in nature
B) Whether the evidence comes from the prosecution only
C) Whether a reasonable mind might accept it as adequate to support a conclusion
D) Whether the judge believes the accused
  • 96. The sufficiency of evidence relates to the:
A) Quality rather than quantity of evidence
B) Number of witnesses produced
C) Cost of the proceedings
D) Type of document presented
  • 97. In administrative cases, evidence is sufficient if it meets the standard of:
A) Substantial evidence
B) Preponderance of evidence
C) Beyond reasonable doubt
D) Clear and convincing evidence
  • 98. Which statement best distinguishes sufficiency from admissibility?
A) Admissibility refers to whether evidence may be received; sufficiency concerns whether it can prove the fact
B) Both terms mean the same
C) Admissibility concerns the weight of evidence
D) Sufficiency deals with the competence of evidence
  • 99. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates sufficient evidence?
A) Evidence that fully establishes a fact as required by law
B) Evidence that slightly suggests the fact in issue
C) Evidence that is conflicting and unreliable
D) Evidence that is immaterial but numerous
  • 100. The judge determines the sufficiency of evidence by evaluating:
A) The demeanor of the lawyer
B) The objections of the opposing counsel
C) The totality and probative force of all admitted proofs
D) The time consumed in trial
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