CLJ5-CEVIDE
  • 1. Which term refers to any matter of fact that a party offers to prove or disprove a claim in court?
A) Proof
B) Evidence
C) Fact
D) Testimony
  • 2. What is the degree of proof required in criminal cases, ensuring moral certainty of guilt?
A) Circumstantial Evidence
B) Preponderance of Evidence
C) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
D) Substantial Evidence
  • 3. Which standard of proof is used in administrative cases and requires such relevant evidence as a reasonable mind might accept as adequate to support a conclusion?
A) Direct Evidence
B) Substantial Evidence
C) Preponderance of Evidence
D) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
  • 4. In civil cases, which degree of proof requires that the evidence on one side is more convincing than that of the other?
A) Substantial Evidence
B) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
C) Preponderance of Evidence
D) Equipoise of Evidence
  • 5. When the evidence of both parties is balanced, and the case must be resolved in favor of the defendant, it is called.
A) Equiponderance of Evidence
B) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
C) Preponderance of Evidence
D) Substantial Evidence
  • 6. Which term means that the evidence presented by both sides is equal in weight and credibility?
A) Substantial Evidence
B) Preponderance of Evidence
C) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
D) Equipoise of Evidence
  • 7. Which of the following is not a degree of proof recognized by the Rules of Court?
A) Equipoise of Evidence
B) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
C) Clear and Convincing Evidence
D) Substantial Evidence
  • 8. What is the lowest degree of proof used in administrative proceedings?
A) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
B) Equiponderance of Evidence
C) Substantial Evidence
D) Preponderance of Evidence
  • 9. When the evidence of guilt and innocence are equal, the accused must be acquitted because of.
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Equipoise of Evidence Rule
C) Substantial Evidence Doctrine
D) Preponderance of Evidence
  • 10. Which term refers to the totality of evidence presented by a party to prove a fact in issue?
A) Object Evidence
B) Proof
C) Documentary Evidence
D) Testimony
  • 11. hen the scales of evidence are equally balanced, and the doubt favors the accused, this principle applies
A) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
B) sumption of Innocence
C) Substantial Evidence
D) Preponderance of Evidence
  • 12. Which of the following requires the highest level of certainty before a conviction can be made?
A) Substantial Evidence
B) Circumstantial Evidence
C) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
D) Preponderance of Evidence
  • 13. Which rule dictates that when evidence is equally balanced, the case should be decided against the party who has the burden of proof?
A) Equiponderance Rule
B) Rule of Preponderance
C) Res Gestae
D) Best Evidence Rule
  • 14. In the hierarchy of proof, which of the following requires the least amount of proof?
A) Substantial Evidence
B) Preponderance of Evidence
C) Clear and Convincing Evidence
D) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
  • 15. When evidence is described as credible, relevant, and sufficient to establish a fact, it is called.
A) Cumulative Evidence
B) Testimonial Evidence
C) Substantial Evidence
D) Admissible Evidence
  • 16. A police officer testifies that he personally recovered a gun from the suspect’s waist during arrest. The gun is later presented in court. Which correctly describes the evidentiary classification involved?
A) The narration and the gun are both documentary evidence.
B) The officer’s narration is testimonial; the gun itself is object evidence.
C) Both the narration and the gun are testimonial evidence.
D) The narration converts the gun into documentary evidence.
  • 17. A private document offered in evidence to prove its contents must first be
A) Authenticated by any person familiar with the signature appearing thereon.
B) Identified and compared by a handwriting expert alone.
C) Admitted automatically since it is self-authenticating.
D) Presented through secondary evidence.
  • 18. A surveillance video showing the accused receiving marked money is presented in court. The USB drive where the video is stored is considered
A) Testimonial evidence since it reflects human narration.
B) Circumstantial evidence because it implies guilt.
C) A surveillance video showing the accused receiving marked money is presented in court. The USB drive where the video is stored is considered.
D) Demonstrative evidence since it illustrates an act.
  • 19. Which statement correctly distinguishes object evidence from documentary evidence under the Rules on Evidence?
A) Object evidence must be identified by a witness who saw its connection to the crime; documentary evidence must be authenticated to prove its genuineness.
B) Object evidence proves contents; documentary evidence proves physical existence.
C) Both require authentication by handwriting experts.
D) Documentary evidence can be offered without a witness if material; object evidence cannot.
  • 20. A certified true copy of a public record issued by a government officer is presented. What form and status of evidence does it have?
A) Private document requiring authentication.
B) Secondary evidence subject to best evidence rule.
C) Public document, admissible without further proof of its due execution.
D) Object evidence needing physical identification.
  • 21. If a fingerprint lifted from the crime scene is offered to prove identity, the evidence is classified as
A) Testimonial evidence.
B) Circumstantial evidence only.
C) Object (real) evidence, subject to proper identification and chain of custody.
D) Documentary evidence because it is recorded
  • 22. The affidavit of a witness, if not testified to in open court, is
A) Testimonial evidence of high probative value.
B) Self-authenticating documentary evidence.
C) Mere hearsay and inadmissible, unless the affiant is presented for cross-examination.
D) Real evidence under the rules.
  • 23. When the defense introduces a diagram prepared by an expert witness to explain ballistic trajectories, the diagram is
A) Object evidence, since it is a tangible exhibit used to clarify testimony.
B) Hearsay evidence, since it is not based on personal knowledge.
C) Documentary evidence, since it has written markings.
D) Circumstantial evidence, since it suggests but does not prove fact.
  • 24. Under the Best Evidence Rule, when the original document has been lost or destroyed without bad faith, the secondary evidence admissible may consist of—
A) Both A and B.
B) Oral testimony as to its contents.
C) Neither, since the document is already lost.
D) A photocopy or carbon copy, properly authenticated.
  • 25. A forensic chemist testifies that the sachet he examined contained methamphetamine hydrochloride. The sachet itself is offered in court. To be admissible, it must be shown that—
A) It was photographed before trial.
B) It was mentioned in the affidavit of arrest.
C) The chemist’s testimony alone suffices for admissibility.
D) It was in the continuous custody of the police, establishing its chain of custody.
  • 26. A CCTV footage showing the accused entering the store before the robbery is presented in court. What kind of evidence is this?
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 27. A witness testifies that he saw the accused stab the victim.
A) Documentary evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Hearsay evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 28. A certified true copy of a birth certificate is presented to prove age.
A) Primary evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 29. A witness submits a sworn affidavit instead of personally testifying.
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 30. A photograph of the crime scene showing the victim’s location is shown in court.
A) Object evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Demonstrative evidence
  • 31. A signed written contract is offered to prove the existence of an agreement.
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 32. A forensic expert states that the bullet found at the scene matches the accused’s firearm.
A) Documentary evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 33. A pistol used in the commission of the crime is presented before the court.
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Demonstrative evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 34. A witness testifies that someone else told him the accused confessed.
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Hearsay evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 35. An investigator presents a sketch of the accident scene to illustrate his testimony.
A) Documentary evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Demonstrative evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 36. A DNA analysis result matching the suspect’s blood sample is introduced.
A) Documentary evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 37. The original land title is produced in court to prove ownership.
A) Demonstrative evidence
B) Primary evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 38. A video of the accused reenacting how the crime was done is shown in court.
A) Direct evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Demonstrative evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 39. A witness testified that he saw the accused running from the scene after a gunshot.
A) Direct evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Hearsay evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 40. A handwritten letter by the accused admitting guilt is offered as evidence.
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Circumstantial evidence
  • 41. Evidence is said to be admissible when it:
A) Has a strong emotional impact on the jury
B) Is relevant and not excluded by the Rules of Court
C) Is presented by the prosecution only
D) Supports the testimony of the witness
  • 42. The general rule on admissibility requires that evidence must be:
A) Certified by a notary public
B) Supported by an affidavit
C) Competent and relevant
D) Original and signed
  • 43. Which of the following best explains the purpose of the rule on admissibility of evidence?
A) To ensure that only reliable and lawful evidence is considered by the court
B) To favor the prosecution
C) To ensure speedy trial
D) To limit the number of witnesses
  • 44. What kind of evidence is inadmissible even if relevant?
A) Testimony based on personal knowledge
B) Evidence properly identified in open court
C) Evidence obtained in violation of constitutional rights
D) Documentary evidence authenticated by a custodian
  • 45. Which rule provides that evidence must be both relevant and competent?
A) Rule 131, Section 1
B) Rule 128, Section 3
C) Rule 130, Section 4
D) Rule 129, Section 1
  • 46. A police officer illegally searches a house without a warrant and finds drugs. The prosecution offers them as evidence. Applying the rule on admissibility, the court should:
A) Exclude it because it was obtained illegally
B) Admit it because it proves guilt
C) Admit the evidence because it is material
D) Exclude it only if the defense objects
  • 47. A witness testifies about a conversation he overheard between two accused persons. The testimony is objected to as hearsay. Applying the rules, the court should:
A) Admit it because it was said in public
B) Exclude it as it was not based on personal knowledge
C) Admit it because it came from the accused
D) Exclude it only if the defense requests
  • 48. During trial, a photocopy of a contract is presented without explaining the loss of the original. Applying the rules, the photocopy is:
A) Admissible since it is a copy
B) Admissible as best evidence
C) Admissible only if notarized
D) Inadmissible for failure to comply with the best evidence rule
  • 49. A confession made by an accused without the assistance of counsel is offered as evidence. Applying the constitutional rule, such confession is:
A) Admissible as an exception
B) Admissible if reduced to writing
C) Inadmissible for violation of the right to counsel
D) Admissible if voluntarily made
  • 50. The prosecution offers a video recording obtained from a CCTV camera. The defense objects on the ground that it was tampered with. Applying the rules, the court should:
A) Admit it if it favors the prosecution
B) Exclude it automatically
C) Admit it without question
D) Admit it if authentication proves it is genuine
  • 51. Evidence is both relevant and material, but it was obtained through entrapment involving police coercion. Analyze its admissibility.
A) Inadmissible because the method violated due process
B) Inadmissible only if not signed by witnesses
C) Admissible because entrapment is allowed
D) Admissible because it proves guilt
  • 52. A dying declaration is admitted despite being hearsay. Analyze why this is allowed
A) The declarant’s statement is presumed truthful due to impending death
B) The witness was credible
C) It is supported by physical evidence
D) The statement was recorded
  • 53. The prosecution presents circumstantial evidence linking the accused to the crime. Analyze the condition for its admissibility.
A) It must be at least three circumstances only
B) It must form an unbroken chain leading to a fair conclusion of guilt
C) It must be direct and absolute
D) It must be supported by hearsay statements
  • 54. The defense offers a confession that was obtained before counsel arrived but later confirmed by the accused in open court. Analyze if it is admissible.
A) Admissible because it was affirmed voluntarily
B) Inadmissible unless written
C) Admissible only with corroboration
D) Inadmissible because the original confession was tainted
  • 55. Two pieces of evidence are both admissible but contradict each other. Analyze how the court should treat them.
A) Automatically favor the prosecution
B) Automatically favor the defense
C) Exclude both pieces of evidence
D) Give more weight to the more credible and consistent evidence
  • 56. When a party offers documentary evidence in court, what must accompany the offer?
A) The oral testimony of the party
B) The affidavit of the custodian
C) The document alone
D) A statement identifying and describing the document’s purpose
  • 57. When must evidence be formally offered during trial?
A) During closing arguments
B) After all witnesses have testified
C) At the beginning of the case
D) When the evidence is identified by the witness
  • 58. Oral testimony must be offered:
A) After closing arguments
B) At the time the witness is called to testify
C) After cross-examination
D) Before documentary evidence
  • 59. Failure to make a timely objection to inadmissible evidence results in:
A) Suspension of proceedings
B) Exclusion of evidence
C) Reversal of judgment
D) Waiver of objection
  • 60. The main reason for formally offering evidence is to:
A) Expedite the trial process
B) Guarantee appeal rights
C) Assist in witness examination
D) Allow the court to rule on admissibility
  • 61. Documentary evidence that is not formally offered in court is:
A) Valid if attached to pleadings
B) Considered but not given weight
C) Disregarded by the court
D) Deemed admitted automatically
  • 62. A general objection is insufficient when:
A) The witness is incompetent
B) The ground for objection is not apparent
C) The testimony is cumulative
D) The evidence is irrelevant
  • 63. To preserve the right to object, counsel must object:
A) Before the answer is given
B) After the witness answers
C) During cross-examination
D) In a written memorandum
  • 64. During trial, a witness begins to narrate a story containing hearsay information. Counsel must immediately:
A) File a written motion later
B) Object before the witness continues
C) Move to strike out the testimony after it’s completed
D) Let the witness finish then object
  • 65. The prosecutor offers a photograph into evidence without explaining its purpose. Defense counsel objects. The court should:
A) Deny it for lack of proper offer
B) Admit it provisionally
C) Allow explanation later
D) Admit it since it’s already marked
  • 66. Defense counsel forgot to object to an irrelevant question, and the answer was recorded. Later, he argues the answer should be excluded. What is the effect?
A) The judge must disregard it
B) The court may suspend proceedings
C) The evidence becomes void
D) The objection is waived
  • 67. A lawyer objects to a document on the ground of irrelevance. What should the proponent do to sustain admission?
A) Withdraw and substitute it
B) Show its connection to a material issue
C) Refile it with an affidavit
D) Argue that all evidence is relevant
  • 68. During cross-examination, opposing counsel offers a letter not yet identified by any witness. The proper objection is:
A) Lack of authentication
B) Violation of best evidence rule
C) Improper cross-examination
D) Irrelevance
  • 69. A document was marked and discussed during trial but never formally offered. The judge considers it in deciding the case. On appeal, what is the ruling?
A) The document is admissible
B) The document should be excluded
C) The court may still affirm the decision
D) The ruling is discretionary
  • 70. Counsel objects to an exhibit as hearsay but fails to specify the reason. The court admits it. Later, counsel raises the issue on appeal. What is the consequence?
A) The objection is deemed waived
B) The appellate court must review the case
C) The evidence is void
D) The evidence loses probative value
  • 71. Which of the following best describes documentary evidence?
A) Any written instrument offered as proof of facts in issue
B) Oral statements made outside the courtroom
C) Testimony given by a witness under oath
D) Any object presented for the inspection of the court
  • 72. Before a documentary evidence is admitted, it must first be:
A) Shown to the opposing counsel only
B) Identified and authenticated by a competent witness
C) Filed before the start of trial
D) Certified by the judge
  • 73. The purpose of authentication of documentary evidence is to:
A) Confirm its availability for inspection
B) Prove that it is the original document
C) Establish its genuineness and due execution
D) Ensure that it was properly notarized
  • 74. A private document becomes admissible in evidence once it is:
A) Certified by the clerk of court
B) Authenticated by someone who saw it executed or recognized the signature
C) Filed in the records of the court
D) Acknowledged by both parties
  • 75. A public document is presumed to be genuine because it:
A) Has been signed before a notary public
B) Bears the seal of the Republic of the Philippines
C) Is executed or issued by a public officer in performance of official duties
D) Was written by a lawyer
  • 76. When the original document is unavailable, the rules allow:
A) Substitution by oral testimony
B) Admission by stipulation only
C) Use of a photocopy without justification
D) Presentation of secondary evidence upon proper explanation of loss
  • 77. The “best evidence rule” means that:
A) Only public documents are acceptable
B) The original document must be produced when the contents are in issue
C) The most persuasive evidence should be used
D) All documents must be notarized
  • 78. When the authenticity of a document is not disputed by the parties, the rule allows it to be:
A) Dismissed as irrelevant
B) Treated as secondary evidence
C) Excluded for lack of foundation
D) Admitted without further proof
  • 79. A lawyer offers in evidence a photocopy of a contract, claiming the original was destroyed in a fire. What must the lawyer first do?
A) Request the court to assume the original was lost
B) Prove the existence and loss of the original before introducing the copy
C) Present the photocopy immediately
D) Submit an affidavit of loss only
  • 80. A notarial document executed by a public officer is offered in court. What is the correct procedure for presenting it?
A) It may be presented directly without further authentication
B) It requires comparison of handwriting
C) It must be verified by both parties
D) It must be accompanied by oral testimony
  • 81. During trial, a witness identifies a private letter signed by the accused. Which rule is applied to admit this letter as evidence?
A) Hearsay rule
B) Best evidence rule
C) Authentication of private document
D) Parol evidence rule
  • 82. If the opposing counsel admits the genuineness of a document during pre-trial, what is its effect?
A) The document becomes automatically admissible without authentication
B) The document still needs formal offer
C) The court disregards the admission
D) The document must still be notarized
  • 83. A party wants to prove the contents of an old public record kept in the government archive. Which is the proper evidence to present?
A) A copy certified by the legal custodian of the record
B) A news article quoting the document
C) Oral testimony of a government employee
D) A handwritten copy by the lawyer
  • 84. A duplicate original of a notarized contract is presented. The opposing party objects, claiming it is not the “best evidence.” What is the ruling?
A) The duplicate original is admissible as it has equal legal force
B) The objection is valid; only one original is allowed
C) The court must issue an order to produce the first copy
D) The duplicate must first be notarized again
  • 85. A party offers a private document in evidence without identifying the signatures. What should the judge do under the rules?
A) Allow it if the other party remains silent
B) Reject it for lack of authentication
C) Require only a photocopy
D) Admit the document because it is relevant
  • 86. What does sufficiency of evidence primarily refer to in legal proceedings?
A) The adequacy of evidence to sustain a verdict
B) The quantity of witnesses presented
C) The materiality of the documents submitted
D) The credibility of the witness alone
  • 87. Evidence is said to be sufficient when:
A) It is circumstantial and weak
B) It convinces the court beyond reasonable doubt or meets the required standard of proof
C) It is admissible but not credible
D) It creates mere suspicion of guilt
  • 88. Which of the following best explains “insufficient evidence”?
A) The evidence is irrelevant but credible
B) The evidence fails to meet the degree of proof required by law
C) The evidence cannot be admitted in court
D) The evidence is abundant but immaterial
  • 89. In a criminal case, the sufficiency of evidence is determined by whether it can:
A) Support a civil action
B) Establish probable cause
C) Prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Produce a presumption of guilt
  • 90. In a civil case, sufficiency of evidence is measured by:
A) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
B) Preponderance of evidence
C) Substantial evidence
D) Moral certainty
  • 91. The sufficiency of evidence is concerned mainly with:
A) The numerical count of the witnesses
B) The admissibility of the evidence
C) The source of the evidence
D) The weight and convincing character of the proof presented
  • 92. The admissibility of the evidence
A) When the case is appealed
B) When the evidence fails to establish a prima facie case
C) When evidence presented is too technical
D) When both parties submit identical evidence
  • 93. “Sufficient evidence” means:
A) The evidence that is always direct in nature
B) The minimum proof required to justify a finding in favor of a party
C) The evidence that may exist but does not relate to the issue
D) The evidence that may exist but does not relate to the issue
  • 94. The concept of sufficiency of evidence ensures that:
A) The judge is free to decide without reference to the evidence
B) The number of witnesses determines the outcome
C) The judgment is based on the totality of relevant and credible proofs
D) The number of witnesses determines the outcome
  • 95. The test of sufficiency of evidence is:
A) Whether the judge believes the accused
B) Whether a reasonable mind might accept it as adequate to support a conclusion
C) Whether all evidence is documentary in nature
D) Whether the evidence comes from the prosecution only
  • 96. The sufficiency of evidence relates to the:
A) Cost of the proceedings
B) Type of document presented
C) Number of witnesses produced
D) Quality rather than quantity of evidence
  • 97. In administrative cases, evidence is sufficient if it meets the standard of:
A) Beyond reasonable doubt
B) Preponderance of evidence
C) Clear and convincing evidence
D) Substantial evidence
  • 98. Which statement best distinguishes sufficiency from admissibility?
A) Admissibility concerns the weight of evidence
B) Admissibility refers to whether evidence may be received; sufficiency concerns whether it can prove the fact
C) Both terms mean the same
D) Sufficiency deals with the competence of evidence
  • 99. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates sufficient evidence?
A) Evidence that slightly suggests the fact in issue
B) Evidence that fully establishes a fact as required by law
C) Evidence that is immaterial but numerous
D) Evidence that is conflicting and unreliable
  • 100. The judge determines the sufficiency of evidence by evaluating:
A) The demeanor of the lawyer
B) The time consumed in trial
C) The totality and probative force of all admitted proofs
D) The objections of the opposing counsel
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