CLJ5-CEVIDE
  • 1. Which term refers to any matter of fact that a party offers to prove or disprove a claim in court?
A) Testimony
B) Evidence
C) Proof
D) Fact
  • 2. What is the degree of proof required in criminal cases, ensuring moral certainty of guilt?
A) Circumstantial Evidence
B) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
C) Preponderance of Evidence
D) Substantial Evidence
  • 3. Which standard of proof is used in administrative cases and requires such relevant evidence as a reasonable mind might accept as adequate to support a conclusion?
A) Substantial Evidence
B) Preponderance of Evidence
C) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
D) Direct Evidence
  • 4. In civil cases, which degree of proof requires that the evidence on one side is more convincing than that of the other?
A) Equipoise of Evidence
B) Substantial Evidence
C) Preponderance of Evidence
D) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
  • 5. When the evidence of both parties is balanced, and the case must be resolved in favor of the defendant, it is called.
A) Substantial Evidence
B) Equiponderance of Evidence
C) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
D) Preponderance of Evidence
  • 6. Which term means that the evidence presented by both sides is equal in weight and credibility?
A) Substantial Evidence
B) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
C) Preponderance of Evidence
D) Equipoise of Evidence
  • 7. Which of the following is not a degree of proof recognized by the Rules of Court?
A) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
B) Substantial Evidence
C) Equipoise of Evidence
D) Clear and Convincing Evidence
  • 8. What is the lowest degree of proof used in administrative proceedings?
A) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
B) Preponderance of Evidence
C) Substantial Evidence
D) Equiponderance of Evidence
  • 9. When the evidence of guilt and innocence are equal, the accused must be acquitted because of.
A) Best Evidence Rule
B) Preponderance of Evidence
C) Substantial Evidence Doctrine
D) Equipoise of Evidence Rule
  • 10. Which term refers to the totality of evidence presented by a party to prove a fact in issue?
A) Testimony
B) Proof
C) Documentary Evidence
D) Object Evidence
  • 11. hen the scales of evidence are equally balanced, and the doubt favors the accused, this principle applies
A) sumption of Innocence
B) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
C) Preponderance of Evidence
D) Substantial Evidence
  • 12. Which of the following requires the highest level of certainty before a conviction can be made?
A) Substantial Evidence
B) Circumstantial Evidence
C) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
D) Preponderance of Evidence
  • 13. Which rule dictates that when evidence is equally balanced, the case should be decided against the party who has the burden of proof?
A) Res Gestae
B) Best Evidence Rule
C) Rule of Preponderance
D) Equiponderance Rule
  • 14. In the hierarchy of proof, which of the following requires the least amount of proof?
A) Substantial Evidence
B) Proof Beyond Reasonable Doubt
C) Preponderance of Evidence
D) Clear and Convincing Evidence
  • 15. When evidence is described as credible, relevant, and sufficient to establish a fact, it is called.
A) Cumulative Evidence
B) Admissible Evidence
C) Substantial Evidence
D) Testimonial Evidence
  • 16. A police officer testifies that he personally recovered a gun from the suspect’s waist during arrest. The gun is later presented in court. Which correctly describes the evidentiary classification involved?
A) The officer’s narration is testimonial; the gun itself is object evidence.
B) The narration and the gun are both documentary evidence.
C) Both the narration and the gun are testimonial evidence.
D) The narration converts the gun into documentary evidence.
  • 17. A private document offered in evidence to prove its contents must first be
A) Presented through secondary evidence.
B) Admitted automatically since it is self-authenticating.
C) Identified and compared by a handwriting expert alone.
D) Authenticated by any person familiar with the signature appearing thereon.
  • 18. A surveillance video showing the accused receiving marked money is presented in court. The USB drive where the video is stored is considered
A) Demonstrative evidence since it illustrates an act.
B) Circumstantial evidence because it implies guilt.
C) Testimonial evidence since it reflects human narration.
D) A surveillance video showing the accused receiving marked money is presented in court. The USB drive where the video is stored is considered.
  • 19. Which statement correctly distinguishes object evidence from documentary evidence under the Rules on Evidence?
A) Object evidence proves contents; documentary evidence proves physical existence.
B) Documentary evidence can be offered without a witness if material; object evidence cannot.
C) Object evidence must be identified by a witness who saw its connection to the crime; documentary evidence must be authenticated to prove its genuineness.
D) Both require authentication by handwriting experts.
  • 20. A certified true copy of a public record issued by a government officer is presented. What form and status of evidence does it have?
A) Public document, admissible without further proof of its due execution.
B) Secondary evidence subject to best evidence rule.
C) Private document requiring authentication.
D) Object evidence needing physical identification.
  • 21. If a fingerprint lifted from the crime scene is offered to prove identity, the evidence is classified as
A) Circumstantial evidence only.
B) Documentary evidence because it is recorded
C) Object (real) evidence, subject to proper identification and chain of custody.
D) Testimonial evidence.
  • 22. The affidavit of a witness, if not testified to in open court, is
A) Mere hearsay and inadmissible, unless the affiant is presented for cross-examination.
B) Testimonial evidence of high probative value.
C) Real evidence under the rules.
D) Self-authenticating documentary evidence.
  • 23. When the defense introduces a diagram prepared by an expert witness to explain ballistic trajectories, the diagram is
A) Circumstantial evidence, since it suggests but does not prove fact.
B) Hearsay evidence, since it is not based on personal knowledge.
C) Documentary evidence, since it has written markings.
D) Object evidence, since it is a tangible exhibit used to clarify testimony.
  • 24. Under the Best Evidence Rule, when the original document has been lost or destroyed without bad faith, the secondary evidence admissible may consist of—
A) Neither, since the document is already lost.
B) Both A and B.
C) Oral testimony as to its contents.
D) A photocopy or carbon copy, properly authenticated.
  • 25. A forensic chemist testifies that the sachet he examined contained methamphetamine hydrochloride. The sachet itself is offered in court. To be admissible, it must be shown that—
A) It was photographed before trial.
B) It was in the continuous custody of the police, establishing its chain of custody.
C) The chemist’s testimony alone suffices for admissibility.
D) It was mentioned in the affidavit of arrest.
  • 26. A CCTV footage showing the accused entering the store before the robbery is presented in court. What kind of evidence is this?
A) Testimonial evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 27. A witness testifies that he saw the accused stab the victim.
A) Documentary evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Hearsay evidence
  • 28. A certified true copy of a birth certificate is presented to prove age.
A) Object evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Primary evidence
D) Secondary evidence
  • 29. A witness submits a sworn affidavit instead of personally testifying.
A) Object evidence
B) Hearsay evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Testimonial evidence
  • 30. A photograph of the crime scene showing the victim’s location is shown in court.
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Demonstrative evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 31. A signed written contract is offered to prove the existence of an agreement.
A) Documentary evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 32. A forensic expert states that the bullet found at the scene matches the accused’s firearm.
A) Object evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Direct evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 33. A pistol used in the commission of the crime is presented before the court.
A) Object evidence
B) Testimonial evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Demonstrative evidence
  • 34. A witness testifies that someone else told him the accused confessed.
A) Hearsay evidence
B) Direct evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 35. An investigator presents a sketch of the accident scene to illustrate his testimony.
A) Circumstantial evidence
B) Demonstrative evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 36. A DNA analysis result matching the suspect’s blood sample is introduced.
A) Documentary evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Direct evidence
D) Object evidence
  • 37. The original land title is produced in court to prove ownership.
A) Documentary evidence
B) Demonstrative evidence
C) Secondary evidence
D) Primary evidence
  • 38. A video of the accused reenacting how the crime was done is shown in court.
A) Direct evidence
B) Object evidence
C) Documentary evidence
D) Demonstrative evidence
  • 39. A witness testified that he saw the accused running from the scene after a gunshot.
A) Direct evidence
B) Documentary evidence
C) Circumstantial evidence
D) Hearsay evidence
  • 40. A handwritten letter by the accused admitting guilt is offered as evidence.
A) Object evidence
B) Circumstantial evidence
C) Testimonial evidence
D) Documentary evidence
  • 41. Evidence is said to be admissible when it:
A) Supports the testimony of the witness
B) Is relevant and not excluded by the Rules of Court
C) Has a strong emotional impact on the jury
D) Is presented by the prosecution only
  • 42. The general rule on admissibility requires that evidence must be:
A) Supported by an affidavit
B) Certified by a notary public
C) Competent and relevant
D) Original and signed
  • 43. Which of the following best explains the purpose of the rule on admissibility of evidence?
A) To favor the prosecution
B) To ensure speedy trial
C) To limit the number of witnesses
D) To ensure that only reliable and lawful evidence is considered by the court
  • 44. What kind of evidence is inadmissible even if relevant?
A) Documentary evidence authenticated by a custodian
B) Evidence properly identified in open court
C) Testimony based on personal knowledge
D) Evidence obtained in violation of constitutional rights
  • 45. Which rule provides that evidence must be both relevant and competent?
A) Rule 131, Section 1
B) Rule 128, Section 3
C) Rule 130, Section 4
D) Rule 129, Section 1
  • 46. A police officer illegally searches a house without a warrant and finds drugs. The prosecution offers them as evidence. Applying the rule on admissibility, the court should:
A) Exclude it only if the defense objects
B) Exclude it because it was obtained illegally
C) Admit the evidence because it is material
D) Admit it because it proves guilt
  • 47. A witness testifies about a conversation he overheard between two accused persons. The testimony is objected to as hearsay. Applying the rules, the court should:
A) Admit it because it came from the accused
B) Exclude it as it was not based on personal knowledge
C) Admit it because it was said in public
D) Exclude it only if the defense requests
  • 48. During trial, a photocopy of a contract is presented without explaining the loss of the original. Applying the rules, the photocopy is:
A) Admissible since it is a copy
B) Admissible as best evidence
C) Inadmissible for failure to comply with the best evidence rule
D) Admissible only if notarized
  • 49. A confession made by an accused without the assistance of counsel is offered as evidence. Applying the constitutional rule, such confession is:
A) Admissible if voluntarily made
B) Admissible as an exception
C) Admissible if reduced to writing
D) Inadmissible for violation of the right to counsel
  • 50. The prosecution offers a video recording obtained from a CCTV camera. The defense objects on the ground that it was tampered with. Applying the rules, the court should:
A) Admit it if authentication proves it is genuine
B) Admit it without question
C) Exclude it automatically
D) Admit it if it favors the prosecution
  • 51. Evidence is both relevant and material, but it was obtained through entrapment involving police coercion. Analyze its admissibility.
A) Inadmissible because the method violated due process
B) Inadmissible only if not signed by witnesses
C) Admissible because it proves guilt
D) Admissible because entrapment is allowed
  • 52. A dying declaration is admitted despite being hearsay. Analyze why this is allowed
A) The witness was credible
B) The declarant’s statement is presumed truthful due to impending death
C) The statement was recorded
D) It is supported by physical evidence
  • 53. The prosecution presents circumstantial evidence linking the accused to the crime. Analyze the condition for its admissibility.
A) It must be at least three circumstances only
B) It must form an unbroken chain leading to a fair conclusion of guilt
C) It must be direct and absolute
D) It must be supported by hearsay statements
  • 54. The defense offers a confession that was obtained before counsel arrived but later confirmed by the accused in open court. Analyze if it is admissible.
A) Inadmissible unless written
B) Inadmissible because the original confession was tainted
C) Admissible only with corroboration
D) Admissible because it was affirmed voluntarily
  • 55. Two pieces of evidence are both admissible but contradict each other. Analyze how the court should treat them.
A) Give more weight to the more credible and consistent evidence
B) Exclude both pieces of evidence
C) Automatically favor the prosecution
D) Automatically favor the defense
  • 56. When a party offers documentary evidence in court, what must accompany the offer?
A) The oral testimony of the party
B) The affidavit of the custodian
C) A statement identifying and describing the document’s purpose
D) The document alone
  • 57. When must evidence be formally offered during trial?
A) During closing arguments
B) At the beginning of the case
C) After all witnesses have testified
D) When the evidence is identified by the witness
  • 58. Oral testimony must be offered:
A) Before documentary evidence
B) After closing arguments
C) At the time the witness is called to testify
D) After cross-examination
  • 59. Failure to make a timely objection to inadmissible evidence results in:
A) Waiver of objection
B) Exclusion of evidence
C) Reversal of judgment
D) Suspension of proceedings
  • 60. The main reason for formally offering evidence is to:
A) Assist in witness examination
B) Guarantee appeal rights
C) Expedite the trial process
D) Allow the court to rule on admissibility
  • 61. Documentary evidence that is not formally offered in court is:
A) Considered but not given weight
B) Valid if attached to pleadings
C) Disregarded by the court
D) Deemed admitted automatically
  • 62. A general objection is insufficient when:
A) The ground for objection is not apparent
B) The evidence is irrelevant
C) The witness is incompetent
D) The testimony is cumulative
  • 63. To preserve the right to object, counsel must object:
A) Before the answer is given
B) After the witness answers
C) In a written memorandum
D) During cross-examination
  • 64. During trial, a witness begins to narrate a story containing hearsay information. Counsel must immediately:
A) Object before the witness continues
B) File a written motion later
C) Move to strike out the testimony after it’s completed
D) Let the witness finish then object
  • 65. The prosecutor offers a photograph into evidence without explaining its purpose. Defense counsel objects. The court should:
A) Admit it since it’s already marked
B) Admit it provisionally
C) Allow explanation later
D) Deny it for lack of proper offer
  • 66. Defense counsel forgot to object to an irrelevant question, and the answer was recorded. Later, he argues the answer should be excluded. What is the effect?
A) The judge must disregard it
B) The court may suspend proceedings
C) The objection is waived
D) The evidence becomes void
  • 67. A lawyer objects to a document on the ground of irrelevance. What should the proponent do to sustain admission?
A) Show its connection to a material issue
B) Withdraw and substitute it
C) Argue that all evidence is relevant
D) Refile it with an affidavit
  • 68. During cross-examination, opposing counsel offers a letter not yet identified by any witness. The proper objection is:
A) Irrelevance
B) Lack of authentication
C) Improper cross-examination
D) Violation of best evidence rule
  • 69. A document was marked and discussed during trial but never formally offered. The judge considers it in deciding the case. On appeal, what is the ruling?
A) The document is admissible
B) The document should be excluded
C) The ruling is discretionary
D) The court may still affirm the decision
  • 70. Counsel objects to an exhibit as hearsay but fails to specify the reason. The court admits it. Later, counsel raises the issue on appeal. What is the consequence?
A) The appellate court must review the case
B) The evidence loses probative value
C) The evidence is void
D) The objection is deemed waived
  • 71. Which of the following best describes documentary evidence?
A) Any object presented for the inspection of the court
B) Oral statements made outside the courtroom
C) Testimony given by a witness under oath
D) Any written instrument offered as proof of facts in issue
  • 72. Before a documentary evidence is admitted, it must first be:
A) Certified by the judge
B) Shown to the opposing counsel only
C) Filed before the start of trial
D) Identified and authenticated by a competent witness
  • 73. The purpose of authentication of documentary evidence is to:
A) Establish its genuineness and due execution
B) Ensure that it was properly notarized
C) Prove that it is the original document
D) Confirm its availability for inspection
  • 74. A private document becomes admissible in evidence once it is:
A) Authenticated by someone who saw it executed or recognized the signature
B) Acknowledged by both parties
C) Filed in the records of the court
D) Certified by the clerk of court
  • 75. A public document is presumed to be genuine because it:
A) Has been signed before a notary public
B) Was written by a lawyer
C) Is executed or issued by a public officer in performance of official duties
D) Bears the seal of the Republic of the Philippines
  • 76. When the original document is unavailable, the rules allow:
A) Substitution by oral testimony
B) Presentation of secondary evidence upon proper explanation of loss
C) Admission by stipulation only
D) Use of a photocopy without justification
  • 77. The “best evidence rule” means that:
A) All documents must be notarized
B) The original document must be produced when the contents are in issue
C) Only public documents are acceptable
D) The most persuasive evidence should be used
  • 78. When the authenticity of a document is not disputed by the parties, the rule allows it to be:
A) Excluded for lack of foundation
B) Admitted without further proof
C) Treated as secondary evidence
D) Dismissed as irrelevant
  • 79. A lawyer offers in evidence a photocopy of a contract, claiming the original was destroyed in a fire. What must the lawyer first do?
A) Present the photocopy immediately
B) Prove the existence and loss of the original before introducing the copy
C) Request the court to assume the original was lost
D) Submit an affidavit of loss only
  • 80. A notarial document executed by a public officer is offered in court. What is the correct procedure for presenting it?
A) It must be accompanied by oral testimony
B) It requires comparison of handwriting
C) It must be verified by both parties
D) It may be presented directly without further authentication
  • 81. During trial, a witness identifies a private letter signed by the accused. Which rule is applied to admit this letter as evidence?
A) Best evidence rule
B) Parol evidence rule
C) Authentication of private document
D) Hearsay rule
  • 82. If the opposing counsel admits the genuineness of a document during pre-trial, what is its effect?
A) The document becomes automatically admissible without authentication
B) The court disregards the admission
C) The document must still be notarized
D) The document still needs formal offer
  • 83. A party wants to prove the contents of an old public record kept in the government archive. Which is the proper evidence to present?
A) A news article quoting the document
B) Oral testimony of a government employee
C) A handwritten copy by the lawyer
D) A copy certified by the legal custodian of the record
  • 84. A duplicate original of a notarized contract is presented. The opposing party objects, claiming it is not the “best evidence.” What is the ruling?
A) The duplicate must first be notarized again
B) The court must issue an order to produce the first copy
C) The duplicate original is admissible as it has equal legal force
D) The objection is valid; only one original is allowed
  • 85. A party offers a private document in evidence without identifying the signatures. What should the judge do under the rules?
A) Require only a photocopy
B) Allow it if the other party remains silent
C) Reject it for lack of authentication
D) Admit the document because it is relevant
  • 86. What does sufficiency of evidence primarily refer to in legal proceedings?
A) The quantity of witnesses presented
B) The materiality of the documents submitted
C) The credibility of the witness alone
D) The adequacy of evidence to sustain a verdict
  • 87. Evidence is said to be sufficient when:
A) It creates mere suspicion of guilt
B) It convinces the court beyond reasonable doubt or meets the required standard of proof
C) It is admissible but not credible
D) It is circumstantial and weak
  • 88. Which of the following best explains “insufficient evidence”?
A) The evidence is abundant but immaterial
B) The evidence fails to meet the degree of proof required by law
C) The evidence is irrelevant but credible
D) The evidence cannot be admitted in court
  • 89. In a criminal case, the sufficiency of evidence is determined by whether it can:
A) Produce a presumption of guilt
B) Establish probable cause
C) Prove guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Support a civil action
  • 90. In a civil case, sufficiency of evidence is measured by:
A) Moral certainty
B) Proof beyond reasonable doubt
C) Preponderance of evidence
D) Substantial evidence
  • 91. The sufficiency of evidence is concerned mainly with:
A) The numerical count of the witnesses
B) The weight and convincing character of the proof presented
C) The source of the evidence
D) The admissibility of the evidence
  • 92. The admissibility of the evidence
A) When the evidence fails to establish a prima facie case
B) When the case is appealed
C) When both parties submit identical evidence
D) When evidence presented is too technical
  • 93. “Sufficient evidence” means:
A) The evidence that may exist but does not relate to the issue
B) The minimum proof required to justify a finding in favor of a party
C) The evidence that may exist but does not relate to the issue
D) The evidence that is always direct in nature
  • 94. The concept of sufficiency of evidence ensures that:
A) The number of witnesses determines the outcome
B) The number of witnesses determines the outcome
C) The judgment is based on the totality of relevant and credible proofs
D) The judge is free to decide without reference to the evidence
  • 95. The test of sufficiency of evidence is:
A) Whether all evidence is documentary in nature
B) Whether the judge believes the accused
C) Whether the evidence comes from the prosecution only
D) Whether a reasonable mind might accept it as adequate to support a conclusion
  • 96. The sufficiency of evidence relates to the:
A) Cost of the proceedings
B) Number of witnesses produced
C) Type of document presented
D) Quality rather than quantity of evidence
  • 97. In administrative cases, evidence is sufficient if it meets the standard of:
A) Beyond reasonable doubt
B) Substantial evidence
C) Clear and convincing evidence
D) Preponderance of evidence
  • 98. Which statement best distinguishes sufficiency from admissibility?
A) Admissibility refers to whether evidence may be received; sufficiency concerns whether it can prove the fact
B) Both terms mean the same
C) Admissibility concerns the weight of evidence
D) Sufficiency deals with the competence of evidence
  • 99. Which of the following scenarios demonstrates sufficient evidence?
A) Evidence that is conflicting and unreliable
B) Evidence that is immaterial but numerous
C) Evidence that fully establishes a fact as required by law
D) Evidence that slightly suggests the fact in issue
  • 100. The judge determines the sufficiency of evidence by evaluating:
A) The demeanor of the lawyer
B) The objections of the opposing counsel
C) The time consumed in trial
D) The totality and probative force of all admitted proofs
Created with That Quiz — the math test generation site with resources for other subject areas.