CRIM 3: Human Behavior And Victimology - Quiz
  • 1. This term describes the idea that specific thoughts, behaviors and emotions are considered deviant when they are unacceptable or not common in society.
A) Danger
B) Dysfunction
C) Distress
D) Deviance
  • 2. This term involves dangerous or violent behavior directed at the individual, or others in the environment. An example of dangerous behavior that may suggest a psychological disorder is engaging in suicidal activity
A) Deviance
B) Distress
C) Danger
D) Dysfunction
  • 3. This term accounts for negative feelings by the individual with the disorder. He or she may feel deeply troubled and affected by their illness.
A) Dysfunction
B) Distress
C) Deviance
D) Danger
  • 4. This term involves maladaptive behavior that impairs the individual's ability to perform normal daily functions, such as getting ready for work in the morning, or driving a car
A) Deviance
B) Danger
C) Dysfunction
D) Distress
  • 5. is something deviating from the normal or differing from the typical, is a subjectively defined behaviors characteristic, assigned to those with rare or dysfunctional conditions.
A) Deviance
B) Abnormal Behavior
C) Psychopathology
D) Danger
  • 6. is the scientific study of mental disorders, including efforts to understand their genetic, biological, psychological, and social causes, effective classification schemes (nosology); course across all stages of development; manifestations, and treatment.
A) Abnormal behavior
B) Anxiety
C) Psychopathology
D) Mental Disorder
  • 7. The word abnormal means away from the norm.
A) Deviation from Statistical Norm
B) Personal Distress
C) Deviation from Social Norm
D) intelligence
  • 8. It is statistically abnormal for a person get a score about 145 on an IQ test or to get a score below 55, but only the lowest score is considered abnormal.
A) Maladaptive to Society
B) Intelligence
C) Deviation from Statistical Norm
D) Maladaptive Behavior
  • 9. A person who is anxious all the time or has ahigh level of anxiety and someone who almost never feels anxiety are all considered to be abnormal.
A) Personal Distress
B) Anxiety
C) Intelligence
D) Deviation from Statistical Norm
  • 10. Every culture has certain standards for acceptable behavior, behavior that deviates from that standard is considered to be abnormal behavior
A) Deviation from Statistical Norm
B) Deviation from Social Norm
C) Maladaptive to One's self
D) Personal Distress
  • 11. This third criterion is how the behavior affects the well- being of the individual and/or social group. A man who attempts suicide or a paranoid individual who tries to assassinate national leaders are illustrations under this criterion. The two aspects of maladaptive behavior are: (nahihirapan mag adopt or nahihirapan mag adjust sa society)
A) Deviation from Statistical Norm
B) Maladaptive Behavior
C) Maladaptive to Society
D) Maladaptive to One's self
  • 12. It refers to the inability of a person to reach goals or to adapt the demands of life.
A) Maladaptive Behavior
B) Maladaptive to One's self
C) Maladaptive to Society-
D) Personal Distress
  • 13. It refers to a person's obstruction or disruption to social group functioning.
A) Maladaptive to One's self
B) Personal Distress
C) Maladaptive to Society
D) Deviation from Social Norm
  • 14. The fourth criterion considers abnormality in terms of the individual's subjective feelings, personal distress, rather than his behavior. Most people commonly diagnosed as mentally ill.
A) Personal Distress
B) Maladaptive Behavior
C) Intelligence
D) Maladaptive to One's self
  • 15. is a broad term used to group physical and psychological symptoms that cause abnormal thoughts and behaviors.
A) Abnormal Behavior
B) Mental Disorder
C) Mental Retardation
D) Deviance
  • 16. a condition of limited ability in which an individual has a low Intelligence Quotient (IQ), usually below 70 on a traditional intelligence test, and has difficulty adapting to everyday life: he/she first exhibited these characteristics during the so-called developmental period by age 18.
A) Moderate Mental Retardation
B) Mental Retardation (MR)
C) Profound Mental Retardation
D) Severe Mental Retardation
  • 17. About 10% of the mentally retarded population is considered moderately retarded. Moderately retarded persons have IQ scores ranging from 35-55. They can carry out work and self- care tasks with moderate supervision.
A) Moderate Mental Retardation
B) Mental Retardation
C) Profound Mental Retardation
D) Severe Mental Retardation
  • 18. About 3-4% of the mentally retarded population is severely retarded. Severely retarded persons have 1Q scores of 20-40. They may master very basic self-care skills and some communication skills
A) Mild Mental Retardation
B) Severe Mental Retardation
C) Profound Mental Retardation
D) Moderate Mental Retardation
  • 19. Only 1-2% of the mentally retarded population is classified as profoundly retarded. Profoundly retarded individuals have IQ scores under 20-25
A) Severe Mental Retardation
B) Moderate Mental Retardation
C) Profound Mental Retardation
D) Mild Mental Retardation
  • 20. reflects a very general mental capability that, among other things, involves the ability to reason, plan, solve problems, think abstractly, comprehend complex ideas, learn quickly and learn from experience.
A) Mental retardation
B) Mental Disorder
C) Criminal behavior
D) Human intelligence
  • 21. CRIMINAL LAW AND INTELLIGENCE What is the McNaughton (M'Naghten) Rule?
A) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1833, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
B) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1853, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
C) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1843, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
D) The formal insanity defense has its beginnings in 1873, when Daniel McNaughton tried to kill Robert Peel, the British prime minister (he shot and killed his secretary instead).
  • 22. What is the Durham Rule?
A) substantial capacity to appreciate the criminality of his act or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the law.
B) Any person who has committed a crime while the said person was imbecile or insane during the commission.
C) A person over nine years of age and under fifteen, unless he has acted with discernment, in which case, such minor shall be proceeded against in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 of this Code (Revised Penal Code).
D) an accused is not criminally responsible if his unlawful act is the product of mental disease or mental defect.
  • 23. What is ALI Substantial Capacity Test?
A) Some States added to their statutes this doctrine which is also known as "irresistible impulse" recognizing some ill individuals may respond correctly but may be unable to control their behavior
B) A person over nine years of age and under fifteen, unless he has acted with discernment, in which case, such minor shall be proceeded against in accordance with the provisions of Art. 80 of this Code (Revised Penal Code).
C) The new rule stated that a person is not responsible for his criminal act if, as a result of the mental disease or defect, he lacks substantial capacity to appreciate the criminality of his act or to conform his conduct to the requirements of the law.
D) known as Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006, as amended by Republic Act 10630, raised the criminal exemption from 9 to 15 years old
  • 24. Making up acceptable excuses for unacceptable behavior.
A) Delusion of Persecution
B) Rationalization
C) Repression
D) Self-actualization
  • 25. Which Freudian personality component operates according to the pleasure principle?
A) Id
B) Superego
C) Conscience
D) Ego
  • 26. Which personality component follows the reality principle in Freud's theory?
A) Ego
B) Superego
C) Id
D) Conscience
  • 27. Which Freudian component represents internalized moral standards?
A) Conscience
B) Id
C) Ego
D) Superego
  • 28. What is a phobia?
A) A form of criminal punishment
B) A temporary lack of motivation
C) An intense, disproportionate fear of a particular object or situation
D) A normal preference for privacy
  • 29. What does PTSD stand for?
A) Persistent Thought and Sleep Disturbance
B) Psychological Treatment and Safety Diagnosis
C) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder.
D) Personal Trauma and Stress Disorder
  • 30. Which is a common possible response to a traumatic event?
A) Permanent loss of all emotions
B) Guaranteed violent behavior
C) Improved memory in every case
D) Intrusive memories or nightmares
  • 31. What is a defense mechanism?
A) A police protection strategy
B) A method of physical punishment
C) A psychological process that helps manage anxiety or conflict
D) A legal argument
  • 32. What is a personality trait?
A) A single temporary emotion
B) A relatively enduring characteristic of a person
C) A physical injury
D) A legal responsibility
  • 33. What is an important principle when assessing abnormal behavior?
A) Diagnose someone based on one unusual action
B) Assume every unusual behavior is criminal
C) cultural differences as proof of illness
D) Consider symptoms, context, distress, and impairment
  • 34. Which statement about mental illness and criminality is most accurate?
A) Every person with a mental disorder is dangerous
B) Mental illness automatically removes legal responsibility
C) Mental illness always causes criminal behavior
D) Mental illness does not automatically mean a person is violent or criminal
  • 35. Which theory explains behavior through rewards and punishments?
A) Operant conditioning
B) Psychoanalytic theory
C) Humanistic theory
D) Trait theory
  • 36. What does social learning theory emphasize in explaining behavior?
A) Observation, imitation, and reinforcement
B) Unconscious dreams only
C) Genetic inheritance alone
D) Physical appearance
  • 37. What is differential association theory primarily concerned with?
A) Personality development during infancy
B) Punishment as the only cause of crime
C) Biological differences between people
D) Learning criminal behavior through interaction with others
  • 38. Who developed differential association theory?
A) Travis Hirschi
B) Robert Merton
C) Edwin H. Sutherland
D) Edwin Lemert
  • 39. What does strain theory examine?
A) How physical injuries heal
B) How blocked goals and social pressures can contribute to deviance
C) How fingerprints identify offenders
D) How witnesses remember faces
  • 40. What is labeling theory concerned with?
A) physical causes of injury
B) The biological origins of personality
C) The punishment for every offense
D) How societal labels can influence identity and behavior
  • 41. Which theory emphasizes the importance of bonds to family, school, and society in discouraging crime?
A) Social control theory
B) Psychoanalytic theory
C) Classical conditioning
D) Trait theory
  • 42. There is dysfunctional conflict if conflict disrupts, hinders job performance, and upsets personal psychological functioning
A) Functional Conflict
B) Approach-Avoidance Conflict- Approach
C) Dysfunctional Conflict
D) Multiple-Approach-Avoidance Conflict
  • 43. There is functional conflict if conflict is responsive and innovative aiding in creativity and viability.
A) Functional Conflic
B) Approach-Avoidance Conflict- Approach
C) Multiple-Approach-Avoidance Conflict
D) Dysfunctional Conflict
  • 44. What is the main idea of routine activity theory?
A) Crime is determined entirely by birth
B) Crime opportunities arise when a motivated offender, suitable target, and absence of a capable guardian converge
C) Every crime is caused by mental illness
D) Punishment always prevents crime
  • 45. Study or do the dishes. I don't want this and I don't want that. A woman with an unwanted pregnancy may be morally opposed by abortion
A) Avoidance-Avoidance Conflict
B) Approach-Avoidance Conflict- Approach
C) Approach-Approach Conflict
D) Multiple-Approach-Avoidance Conflict
  • 46. What is the main purpose of studying criminal behavior in criminology?
A) To assume everyone will commit a crime
B) To justify discrimination against suspects
C) To understand possible causes and support prevention and rehabilitation
D) To excuse every unlawful act
  • 47. What does social learning theory emphasize in explaining behavior?
A) Observation, imitation, and reinforcement
B) Unconscious dreams only
C) Physical appearance
D) Genetic inheritance alone
  • 48. Who developed differential association theory?
A) Robert Merton
B) Edwin Lemert
C) Hirschi
D) Edwin H. Sutherland
  • 49. What does strain theory examine?
A) How fingerprints identify offenders
B) How witnesses remember faces
C) How blocked goals and social pressures can contribute to deviance
D) How physical injuries heal
  • 50. What is the purpose of offender rehabilitation in relation to victim and community safety?
A) To support behavioral change and reduce the risk of reoffending
B) To eliminate the need for accountability
C) To transfer responsibility for crime to the victim
D) To guarantee that reoffending becomes impossible
  • 51. Why should crime victims be treated without discrimination?
A) So that only selected victims receive assistance
B) So investigators can avoid legal procedures
C) To uphold dignity, equality, and fair access to services.
D) So victims will always agree with authorities
  • 52. Which is an example of cybervictimization?
A) Reading a public news report
B) Attending an online class
C) Being targeted by online harassment or unauthorized disclosure of private information
D) Receiving a routine school announcement
  • 53. What is an appropriate response to a victim experiencing severe anxiety after a crime?
A) Assume the victim is lying
B) Force the victim to confront the offender
C) Tell the victim to forget the incident
D) Offer support and, when appropriate, referral to a qualified mental health professional
  • 54. What is the purpose of victim impact statements?
A) To explain how an offense affected the victim, subject to applicable court procedures
B) To guarantee a particular sentence
C) To replace all physical evidence
D) To allow witnesses to decide guilt
  • 55. Which is an example of community-based crime prevention?
A) Ignoring suspicious safety concerns
B) Encouraging people to take revenge
C) Organizing lawful neighborhood safety and awareness programs
D) Publicly identifying all crime victims
  • 56. What is restorative justice primarily concerned with?
A) Preventing offenders from accepting responsibility
B) Addressing harm, accountability, and appropriate opportunities for repair
C) Removing victims from the justice process
D) Increasing punishment in every case
  • 57. What is a safety plan?
A) A list of criminal penalties
B) A practical plan to reduce danger and identify support resources
C) A document that guarantees an offender's arrest
D) A record of a victim's personality traits
  • 58. What does confidentiality mean in victim assistance?
A) Hiding every crime from authorities
B) Sharing information with friends
C) Protecting private information and disclosing it only when authorized or legally required
D) Refusing to provide any assistance
  • 59. What is the best way to respond when a victim discloses abuse?
A) Blame the victim for the incident
B) Promise a guaranteed conviction
C) Listen respectfully, take the disclosure seriously, and explain available help
D) Immediately post the story online
  • 60. should an investigator do when interviewing a child victim?
A) Publicly disclose the child's identity
B) Follow child-sensitive procedures and protect the child's welfare
C) Allow unauthorized people to observe the interview
D) Use threatening questions to obtain answers
  • 61. Which law penalizes photo and video voyeurism in the Philippines?
A) Republic Act No. 9262
B) Republic Act No. 7610
C) Republic Act No. 6981
D) Republic Act No. 9995
  • 62. Which law established a comprehensive program for children in conflict with the law and juvenile justice?
A) Republic Act No. 7877
B) Republic Act No. 9165
C) Republic Act No. 9344, as amended by RA 10630
D) Republic Act No. 9262
  • 63. What is a trauma-informed approach?
A) Ignoring emotional reactions
B) Requiring victims to describe every detail
C) Assuming every victim reacts identically
D) Recognizing trauma's effects and avoiding practices that may cause further harm
  • 64. What is the first priority when assisting a victim in immediate danger?
A) Completing paperwork
B) Protecting the victim's immediate safety
C) Interviewing every witness
D) Preparing a court presentation
  • 65. What is the main objective of victim support services?
A) To promote safety, recovery, information, and access to assistance
B) To prevent victims from reporting crimes
C) To guarantee conviction in every case
D) To force victims to forgive offenders
  • 66. Which is a possible consequence of victimization?
A) Every victim develops a mental disorder
B) Every victim loses the ability to work
C) Every victim becomes an offender
D) Physical injury, emotional distress, or financial loss
  • 67. What is victim restitution?
A) A form of community gossip
B) An order requiring an offender to compensate a victim for eligible losses
C) A method of witness intimidation
D) A psychological diagnosis
  • 68. what is a victimization survey used for?
A) Measuring the personality of judges
B) Replacing every police investigation
C) Gathering information about people's experiences of crime, including
D) Determining guilt without trial
  • 69. What does the term victim precipitation traditionally examine?
A) The number of police officers at a scene
B) The sentence imposed on an offender
C) The amount of compensation received
D) Whether victim-related actions or interactions played a role in the sequence of events
  • 70. A which is an example of indirect victimization?
A) A thief losing stolen property
B) A judge issuing a ruling
C) A police officer completing a report
D) family member experiencing distress after a loved one is murdered
  • 71. What is a direct victim?
A) A person who prosecutes an offender
B) A person who directly suffers harm from an offense
C) A person who reads about a crime
D) A person who investigates a crime
  • 72. What is revictimization?
A) Attending a court hearing
B) Receiving compensation
C) Experiencing victimization again
D) Reporting an incident
  • 73. What is secondary victimization?
A) Harm caused by media reports
B) Harm caused only by court proceedings
C) Harm directly resulting from the criminal act
D) Harm caused by social stigma after a crime
  • 74. What is victimization?
A) The classification of criminal evidence
B) The process through which a person experiences harm or becomes a victim
C) The rehabilitation of a convicted person
D) The process of sentencing an offender
  • 75. Who is commonly credited with introducing the term victimology?
A) Edwin Sutherland
B) Robert Merton
C) Cesare Lombroso
D) Benjamin Mendelsohn
  • 76. What is victimology?
A) The study of police administration
B) The study of prison architecture
C) The study of victims, victimization, and its consequences
D) The study of fingerprints
  • 77. What is personality?
A) A person's characteristic patterns of thinking, feeling, and behaving
B) A person's permanent physical appearance
C) A person's educational attainment
D) A person's social status only
  • 78. Which process involves learning society's norms and values?
A) Isolation
B) Regression
C) Socialization
D) Frustration
  • 79. What is motivation?
A) A person's physical appearance
B) A process that directs and energizes behavior
C) An inherited physical trait
D) A type of punishment
  • 80. Which term describes the ability to understand another person's feelings?
A) Aggression
B) Conformity
C) Empathy
D) Prejudice
  • 81. What is perception?
A) Memorizing every event
B) Interpreting sensory information
C) Punishing inappropriate behavior
D) Controlling another person
  • 82. Which psychologist is associated with social learning theory?
A) Abraham Maslow
B) Jean Piaget
C) Sigmund Freud
D) Albert Bandura
  • 83. What is reinforcement?
A) A type of memory loss
B) A consequence that increases the likelihood of a behavior
C) A method of avoiding all social contact
D) A permanent personality disorder
  • 84. Which term refers to behavior that violates accepted social norms?
A) Adaptation
B) Socialization
C) Cooperation
D) Deviance
  • 85. What is aggression?
A) Showing sympathy toward others
B) Helping a person in need
C) Following a lawful instruction
D) Behavior intended to harm another person
  • 86. What is frustration?
A) Complete emotional stability
B) A form of social reward
C) A learned academic skill
D) A state arising when goals are blocked
  • 87. What is conformity?
A) Acting without awareness
B) Diagnosing a psychological disorder
C) Rejecting every social rule
D) Adjusting behavior to group expectations
  • 88. What is cognitive development primarily concerned with?
A) Changes in physical appearance only
B) Changes in thinking, learning, and reasoning
C) Changes in criminal penalties
D) Changes in legal procedures
  • 89. Which theory emphasizes personal growth and human potential?
A) Psychoanalytic theory
B) Humanistic theory
C) Conflict theory
D) Classical conditioning
  • 90. What is heredity?
A) Learning social expectations
B) Acquiring knowledge from school
C) Transmission of genetic characteristics from parents
D) Learning through punishment
  • 91. What is the primary focus of developmental psychology?
A) Criminal sentencing
B) Police organizational structure
C) Changes in people across their lifespan
D) Crime-scene processing
  • 92. What is a social role?
A) Expected behavior associated with a particular position
B) A medical diagnosis
C) A person's genetic makeup
D) A criminal investigation technique
  • 93. Which term refers to the process of remembering information?
A) Conditioning
B) Motivation
C) Memory
D) Perception
  • 94. What is the nature-versus-nurture debate about?
A) Police versus courts
B) Victims versus witnesses
C) Punishment versus rehabilitation
D) Genetic influences versus environmental influences on behavior
  • 95. What is a phobia?
A) An intense, disproportionate fear of a particular object or situation
B) temporary lack of motivation
C) form of criminal punishment
D) A normal preference for privacy
  • 96. What is displacement in psychology?
A) Forgetting every childhood experience
B) Learning through observation
C) Accepting responsibility for a mistake
D) Redirecting emotions from their original source to another target
  • 97. What is projection?
A) Attributing one's own unacceptable feelings to another person
B) Copying a successful person's behavior
C) Developing a new habit
D) Avoiding a dangerous location
  • 98. What is emotional intelligence?
A) The ability to control other people
B) The ability to avoid every conflict
C) The ability to recognize and manage emotions
D) The ability to memorize laws quickly
  • 99. Which term describes learning by observing another person's behavior?
A) Observational learning
B) Displacement
C) Repression
D) Extinction
  • 100. Which concept refers to a person's belief in their ability to perform a task successfully?
A) Conformity
B) Self-esteem
C) Frustration
D) Self-efficacy
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