CA2-Non Institutional Corrections - Quiz
  • 1. Non-institutional corrections are also known as:
A) Prison-based corrections
B) Detention corrections
C) Penal confinement
D) Community-based corrections
  • 2. It refers to the method of correcting and rehabilitating an offender without sending them to prison
A) Penal servitude
B) Non-institutional correction
C) Confinement
D) Institutional correction
  • 3. Which agency directly supervises non-institutional correctional programs in the Philippines?
A) NBI
B) BJMP
C) BUCOR
D) Parole and Probation Administration (PPA)
  • 4. The primary legal basis for the Probation System in the Philippines is:
A) RA 10592
B) PD 29
C) PD No. 968, as amended
D) RA 9344
  • 5. The granting of probation is essentially a function of the:
A) PPA Administrator
B) President
C) Court
D) Congress
  • 6. Who reviews the application for probation and submits recommendation to the court?
A) Police officer
B) Prosecutor
C) Probation and Parole Officer
D) Social worker
  • 7. non-institutional corrections is generally preferred over imprisonment because it is:
A) More secure
B) More punitive
C) More expensive
D) Less costly and rehabilitative
  • 8. The following are forms of non-institutional corrections EXCEPT:
A) Executive Clemency
B) Reclusion Perpetua
C) Parole
D) Probation
  • 9. It is a disposition under which a defendant, after conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions imposed by the court:
A) Amnesty
B) Parole
C) Pardon
D) Probation
  • 10. Probation is granted before the offender begins serving the sentence:
A) Generally
B) Always
C) Only if recommended by the warden
D) Never
  • 11. Who among the following is eligible for probation?
A) Convicted of subversion or any crime against national security
B) Previously convicted by final judgment of an offense punished by imprisonment of not less than 1
C) Sentenced to imprisonment of not more than 6 years
D) Sentenced to serve a maximum term of imprisonment of more than 6 years
  • 12. One of these is NOT a ground for disqualification for probation:
A) Habitual delinquent
B) Sentence of more than 6 years
C) Conviction for treason
D) First-time offender sentenced to 4 years
  • 13. The period for filing an application for probation is within:
A) 30 days after promulgation of sentence
B) 60 days after promulgation of sentence
C) Any time before release
D) 15 days after promulgation of sentence
  • 14. Once an application for probation is filed, the judgment of conviction becomes:
A) Not final
B) Final immediately
C) Void
D) Executory
  • 15. If the court denies probation, the decision is:
A) Subject to motion for reconsideration only
B) Not appealable
C) Reviewable by the President
D) Appealable
  • 16. The duration of the probation period for those sentenced to imprisonment of not more than 1 year is:
A) Minimum of 6 months
B) Not less than the period of probation fixed by the court nor more than 2 years
C) Maximum of 5 years
D) Exactly 1 year
  • 17. For those sentenced to more than 1 year, the probation period shall not exceed:
A) 2 years
B) 4 years
C) 6 years
D) 10 years
  • 18. This is a condition that ALL probationers must comply with:
A) Change residence without notice
B) Donate to charity
C) Leave the country anytime
D) Report to the probation officer within 72 hours from receipt of order
  • 19. Which of the following is a SPECIAL condition of probation?
A) Undergo drug rehabilitation program
B) Not commit another offense
C) Support dependents
D) Remain in the jurisdiction
  • 20. When does the probation period commence to run?
A) Date of arrest
B) Date of filing application
C) Date the probationer is released from confinement
D) Date of promulgation
  • 21. The probationer may be transferred to another province:
A) After 1 year
B) With prior written approval of the probation officer/court
C) Freely
D) Never
  • 22. Failure to comply with the conditions of probation may result in:
A) Reduction of sentence
B) Probation revocation
C) Warning only
D) Dismissal of case
  • 23. Upon revocation of probation, the probationer shall:
A) Be acquitted
B) Be granted parole immediately
C) Serve the original sentence
D) Be given another chance
  • 24. A probationer discharged after successful completion of probation shall be:
A) Granted absolute pardon automatically
B) Released from all penalties and disabilities resulting from the offense
C) Entitled to reparation
D) Fully exempt from payment of fine and costs
  • 25. Can a probationer be granted parole later?
A) Only if they appeal
B) Yes, if probation is revoked and they serve part of sentence
C) Yes, always
D) No, never
  • 26. Parole is the conditional release of a prisoner who has served part of their sentence:
A) Instead of serving sentence
B) Upon acquittal
C) Before the expiration of sentence
D) After full service of sentence
  • 27. The agency that grants parole in the Philippines is the:
A) Department of Justice
B) PPA
C) Board of Pardons and Parole (BPP)
D) Court
  • 28. Who among the following may be granted parole?
A) Those with pending appeals
B) Those who have served the minimum of their indeterminate sentence
C) Those serving life imprisonment without eligibility
D) Those sentenced to death
  • 29. Under the Indeterminate Sentence Law, the minimum period of sentence must be served before:
A) Pardon
B) Amnesty
C) Parole
D) Probation
  • 30. Parole is a __________ right.
A) Privilege, not a
B) Constitutional
C) Statutory
D) Absolute
  • 31. When a prisoner is granted parole, they are released:
A) Permanently
B) Unconditionally
C) Conditionally, under supervision
D) Without any restriction
  • 32. The parolee is supervised by:
A) Probation and Parole Officers
B) Police
C) Barangay officials
D) Prison guards
  • 33. Violation of parole conditions may lead to:
A) Reprimand
B) Warning
C) Return to prison to serve unexpired sentence
D) Fine
  • 34. The parole period is equivalent to:
A) The unexpired portion of the maximum sentence
B) 5 years
C) 10 years
D) The minimum sentence
  • 35. Can a parolee apply for probation?
A) Yes, if first-time offender
B) Yes, after 1 year
C) Yes
D) No
  • 36. The Indeterminate Sentence Law is
A) Act No. 4103
B) PD 968
C) RA 10592
D) RA 9344
  • 37. The purpose of parole includes the following EXCEPT:
A) Reformation
B) Early release as reward
C) Gradual reintegration to community
D) Retribution
  • 38. A prisoner serving a definite sentence CANNOT be granted:
A) Parole
B) Amnesty
C) Pardon
D) Executive clemency
  • 39. Parole is granted after review of:
A) Family status only
B) Wealth
C) Behavior, health, risk, and rehabilitation progress
D) Political affiliation
  • 40. Final release from parole is granted after:
A) Expiration of sentence less time deducted for good conduct
B) Recommendation of police
C) Approval of the warden
D) 1 year
  • 41. Executive clemency is exercised by the:
A) President of the Philippines
B) Chief Justice
C) Congress
D) DOJ Secretary
  • 42. Pardon that does not restore political rights is called:
A) Limited pardon
B) Conditional pardon
C) Absolute pardon
D) Partial pardon
  • 43. Pardon granted to a class of persons is:
A) General pardon
B) Absolute pardon
C) Amnesty
D) Collective pardon
  • 44. Amnesty is usually granted in cases involving:
A) Estafa
B) Treason, sedition, political offenses
C) Theft
D) Murder
  • 45. Conditional pardon may be revoked by the President if:
A) The recipient travels abroad
B) The recipient commits another crime
C) The recipient becomes employed
D) The recipient votes
  • 46. Absolute pardon restores:
A) Freedom only
B) Civil and political rights
C) Employment
D) Reputation only
  • 47. Reprieve means
A) Full pardon
B) Commutation
C) Reduction of sentence
D) Temporary suspension of execution of sentence
  • 48. Commutation of sentence means:
A) Forgiveness
B) Suspension
C) Changing to a lesser penalty
D) Amnesty
  • 49. Can the President grant pardon in cases of impeachment?
A) Yes
B) With Congress approval
C) No
D) With Senate approval
  • 50. Amnesty requires concurrence of:
A) 2/3 of all members of Congress
B) Senate only
C) Majority of all members of Congress
D) President alone
  • 51. The primary role of a Probation and Parole Officer is:
A) Collect fines
B) Supervise and assist rehabilitation
C) Police the community
D) Punish the offender
  • 52. Which is NOT a function of PPA?
A) Grant parole
B) Monitor compliance
C) Investigate prospective clients
D) Supervise probationers and parolees
  • 53. A probationer/parolee is required to submit:
A) No reports
B) Periodic progress reports
C) Annual reports only
D) Daily reports
  • 54. The community-based approach believes that:
A) Offenders can change with community support
B) Offenders are dangerous and must be locked up
C) All offenders are victims
D) Prison is best
  • 55. Restorative justice focuses on:
A) Repairing harm to victim and community
B) Punishment
C) Retaliation
D) Incapacitation
  • 56. A probationer has the right to:
A) Possess firearms
B) Due process before revocation
C) Refuse reporting
D) Leave country anytime D. Refuse reporting
  • 57. During supervision, the officer may conduct:
A) Seize property
B) Search without cause
C) Surprise home visits
D) Arrest without warrant
  • 58. When a violation is alleged, the probationer is entitled to:
A) Hearing
B) Legal aid only if they can pay
C) No notice
D) Immediate revocation
  • 59. Successful completion of probation results in:
A) No more criminal liability
B) Record erased entirely
C) Conviction expunged in effect
D) Automatic pardon
  • 60. Which factor is considered in recommendation for release?
A) Risk to public safety
B) Gender
C) Social status
D) Race
  • 61. The law on Juvenile Justice and Welfare is:
A) PD 968
B) RA 7610
C) RA 10630
D) RA 9344
  • 62. A child in conflict with the law (CICL) under 15 years old is:
A) Tried in adult court
B) Exempt from criminal liability
C) Imprisoned
D) Criminally liable
  • 63. Intervention programs for CICL are:
A) Institutional
B) Detention-based
C) Punitive
D) Non-institutional
  • 64. Diversion means:
A) Send to prison
B) Refer to alternative program instead of court
C) Fine heavily
D) Prosecute immediately
  • 65. RA 10592 relates to:
A) Good conduct time allowance
B) Probation
C) Parole
D) Amnesty
  • 66. Good conduct time allowance benefits:
A) Detainees and prisoners
B) Probationers
C) Parolees only
D) Pardoned persons
  • 67. Who grants probation to children?
A) DSWD
B) Police
C) PPA only
D) Court
  • 68. Post-sentence community-based programs for CICL are managed with:
A) BJMP
B) BUCOR
C) DSWD
D) PNP
  • 69. The principle of restorative justice in juvenile cases promotes
A) Shaming
B) Reintegration
C) Isolation
D) Labeling
  • 70. Can a CICL be placed on probation?
A) Yes, under applicable rules
B) Only if above 18
C) No
D) Only if sentenced to life
  • 71. Probation is granted __________; Parole is granted __________.
A) By President; by Court
B) Before service; after partial service
C) By BPP; by PPA
D) After full service; before service
  • 72. Which is supervised by PPA?
A) Detainees
B) Probationers
C) Prisoners
D) Convicts serving life
  • 73. Which has NO sentence yet being served?
A) Probation
B) Amnesty
C) Parole
D) Commutation
  • 74. The Board of Pardons and Parole does NOT handle:
A) Parole
B) Commutation
C) Probation applications
D) Executive clemency recommendations
  • 75. Which is broader: pardon or amnesty?
A) Amnesty
B) Pardon
C) Depends on crime
D) Equal
  • 76. Absolute pardon vs Conditional pardon:
A) Absolute has no conditions; conditional has terms
B) Conditional is from Court
C) Absolute is from Congress
D) Both have same effect
  • 77. Which is a form of clemency that erases offense as if never committed?
A) Amnesty
B) Parole
C) Probation
D) Reprieve
  • 78. Time spent on probation __________ part of service of sentence.
A) May be
B) Is
C) Is not
D) Is half
  • 79. Time spent on parole __________ part of service of sentence.
A) Is double
B) Is not
C) Is
D) Is only half
  • 80. Which is cheaper for the government?
A) Imprisonment
B) Confinement
C) Detention
D) Non-institutional correction
  • 81. When probation is revoked, the time already spent on probation is:
A) Doubled
B) Credited to sentence
C) Not credited
D) Credited in full
  • 82. The burden of proving violation of probation lies with:
A) Prosecution
B) Probationer
C) Judge
D) Media
  • 83. Before parole is granted, the Board requires:
A) Political endorsement
B) Family wealth report
C) Prison record and investigation report
D) Media approval
  • 84. A parolee who violates conditions may be arrested by:
A) Private citizen only
B) Any peace officer
C) Mayor
D) Judge
  • 85. When can a probationer be granted early discharge?
A) Never
B) Upon good conduct before end of period
C) After 1 year
D) Automatically
  • 86. Early discharge from probation is approved by:
A) President
B) Court
C) PPA Administrator
D) Board of Pardons and Parole
  • 87. Which is NOT a valid reason to revoke parole?
A) Finding lawful employment
B) Failure to report as required
C) Commission of another offense
D) Change of residence without approval
  • 88. Upon final discharge from parole, the parolee receives:
A) Certificate of final release and discharge
B) Permanent exemption from court appearance
C) Right to carry firearms automatically
D) Absolute pardon
  • 89. The period within which to decide on a probation application is generally within:
A) 60 days from receipt of investigation report
B) 6 months
C) 15 days
D) 1 year
  • 90. Can a person sentenced to a term of exactly 6 years apply for probation?
A) No — the law says more than 6 years is disqualified; exactly 6 years is eligible
B) Only if recommended by the prosecutor
C) Only with the President’s approval
D) Yes
  • 91. Which of the following is a mandatory condition of probation under PD 968?
A) Volunteer in the barangay every weekend
B) Complete a college degree
C) Pay all fines and costs imposed by the court
D) Confess publicly the offense
  • 92. The Indeterminate Sentence Law does NOT apply to:
A) Offenders sentenced to death or life imprisonment
B) Offenders under 21 years old
C) Offenders convicted of light felonies
D) First-time offenders
  • 93. When the Board of Pardons and Parole grants parole, the release document is issued by:
A) The President
B) The court
C) The PPA Administrator
D) The Board, through the Department of Justice
  • 94. A probationer who leaves the country without permission may face:
A) Fine only
B) No penalty
C) Revocation of probation
D) Automatic extension of probation
  • 95. The main difference between reprieve and commutation is:
A) No difference
B) Reprieve = temporary suspension; Commutation = reduced sentence
C) Reprieve = permanent release; Commutation = pardon
D) Reprieve = from court; Commutation = from Congress
  • 96. Which agency prepares the Post-Sentence Investigation Report for parole consideration?
A) BJMP
B) BUCOR together with PPA
C) PNP
D) NBI
  • 97. Amnesty is proclaimed by the President with concurrence of Congress; it applies to:
A) Both past and future
B) Civil cases only
C) Future offenses only
D) Past offenses only
  • 98. A person who has been granted absolute pardon may still be disqualified from holding public office if:
A) Absolute pardon always restores all rights automatically
B) The pardon does not restore political rights
C) They reapply first
D) They were convicted of a crime involving moral turpitude and the disqualification is expressly removed
  • 99. The guiding philosophy of non-institutional corrections is
A) Making offenders suffer
B) Reintegration, rehabilitation, and restorative justice
C) Punishment and retribution
D) Incapacitation for life
  • 100. Which statement best summarizes the advantage of non-institutional over institutional corrections?
A) It provides stricter control than prison
B) It preserves family ties, reduces prison overcrowding, and lowers cost
C) It isolates the offender completely from society
D) It guarantees no recidivism
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