- 1. What is the primary objective of aftercare services?
A. To extend institutional confinement indefinitely.
B. To prevent the child from returning to formal education.
C. To transfer all rehabilitation responsibilities to the victim.
D. To support social reintegration, prevent re-offending, and promote productive community participation.
- 2. Which statement best describes reintegration?
A. Facilitating the child's acceptance back into the family and community while restoring social relationships.
B. Keeping the child permanently separated from society.
C. Replacing rehabilitation with additional punishment.
D. Ending all forms of community involvement after release.
- 3. What is required before a CICL may be admitted to a rehabilitation or training facility?
A. A written agreement from the child's classmates.
B. A public announcement from the barangay.
C. A valid court order.
D. A recommendation from a private citizen alone.
- 4. According to the lecture, what is the minimum age for commitment to a youth care facility?
A. 10 years old
B. 12 years old
C. 15 years old
D. 18 years old
- 5. According to the lecture, what is the general procedure for a child fifteen years old or below who is taken into custody?
A. Immediate transfer to an adult correctional institution.
B. Automatic filing of a criminal case in court.
C. Public announcement of the child's identity.
D. Release to the parents or guardian, or another appropriate custodian, in coordination with the LSWDO.
- 6. What is the main function of the Local Social Welfare and Development Office in handling children in conflict with the law?
A. To provide assessment, intervention planning, and social welfare support.
B. To determine criminal guilt in place of the court.
C. To impose imprisonment for serious offenses.
D. To replace the responsibilities of law enforcement agencies.
- 7. Which of the following is NOT identified as a possible component of a diversion program?
A. Counseling
B. Reparation of damage caused
C. Public disclosure of the child's identity
D. Educational and vocational programs
- 8. According to the lecture, when the imposable penalty for an offense exceeds six years, diversion measures are decided by:
A. The child's school principal.
B. The courts.
C. The child's peer group.
D. The victim's family alone.
- 9. Under the diversion system described in the lecture, which authority may facilitate mediation, family conferencing, and conciliation when the imposable penalty does not exceed six years?
A. Supreme Court alone
B. Adult correctional institution
C. Bureau of Corrections
D. Law enforcement officer or Punong Barangay, with assistance from the LSWDO or BCPC members
- 10. Which statement best differentiates intervention from diversion?
A. Intervention addresses underlying factors contributing to a child's conduct, while diversion determines responsibility and treatment without formal court proceedings when legally allowed.
B. Intervention is used only after imprisonment, while diversion is used only after conviction.
C. Intervention is a form of punishment, while diversion is a form of adult prosecution.
D. Both terms refer exclusively to institutional confinement.
- 11. Which statement best distinguishes juvenile delinquency from general social deviance?
A. Juvenile delinquency refers exclusively to violations of cultural traditions.
B. Social deviance applies only to adults, while delinquency applies only to children.
C. Juvenile delinquency concerns disapproved conduct of children and youths, including acts punishable under law.
D. Social deviance and juvenile delinquency are legally identical concepts.
- 12. Under RA 9344, which description most accurately defines a Child in Conflict with the Law (CICL)?
A. A child who is alleged, accused, or adjudged to have committed an offense under Philippine law.
B. A child who is considered socially undesirable by the community.
C. Any child who violates household or school rules.
D. A child who is exposed to circumstances that may lead to delinquency.
- 13. Which statement correctly differentiates a Child at Risk from a CICL?
A. A Child at Risk has already been convicted, while a CICL has not been investigated.
B. A Child at Risk is necessarily involved in criminal activity, while a CICL is not.
C. Both terms refer exclusively to children who have committed serious offenses.
D. A Child at Risk is vulnerable to offending because of personal, family, or social circumstances, while a CICL is alleged, accused, or adjudged to have committed an offense.
- 14. Under the classification discussed in PD 603, which child is considered dependent?
A. A child who refuses to follow parental instructions.
B. A child without a parent or whose guardian seeks to be relieved of custody for good cause and who depends on public support.
C. A child who commits an act prohibited by criminal law.
D. A child who is temporarily absent from school.
- 15. Which statement best explains the concept of a status offense?
A. An act punishable only when committed by an adult.
B. An offense involving violence against another person.
C. An act considered an offense because of the offender's age or status, such as truancy or curfew violation.
D. A serious criminal offense committed by a minor.
- 16. Which assumption is most closely associated with positivism in criminology?
A. Human behavior is determined entirely by conscious decisions.
B. Criminal behavior is always a result of economic inequality.
C. Social labels are the only causes of criminal behavior.
D. Behavior may be determined by factors largely beyond an individual's control.
- 17. What is the central proposition of Lombroso's theory of atavism?
A. Criminal behavior develops through interaction with delinquent peers.
B. Certain individuals possess physical characteristics associated with primitive human traits and criminal tendencies.
C. Delinquency results from weak family relationships.
D. Criminal behavior is caused by unequal access to legitimate opportunities.
- 18. Which criticism most directly challenges Lombroso's research methodology?
A. His theory focused exclusively on social institutions.
B. He ignored the biological characteristics of offenders.
C. He examined criminals without conducting an adequate comparison with non-criminal individuals.
D. He considered family relationships more important than physical characteristics.
- 19. In Sheldon's Somatotyping Theory, which body type is associated with a predominance of muscle, bone, and connective tissue?
A. Mesomorph
B. Ectomorph
C. Endomorph
D. Atavism
- 20. Which description correctly corresponds to the ectomorphic body type?
A. Soft and rounded physique with a relaxed disposition.
B. Muscular and firm physique associated with an active disposition.
C. Broad and heavy physique characterized by strong connective tissue.
D. Slender physique, poorly muscled body, and tendency toward fatigue and withdrawal.
- 21. Which statement best represents the genetic theory presented in the lecture?
A. Delinquency develops primarily from imitation of family members.
B. Abnormal genetic structures or chromosomal activities may influence criminal behavior.
C. Criminal behavior is caused exclusively by social inequality.
D. Delinquency results from the acceptance of negative social labels.
- 22. In psychoanalytic theory, which component of personality represents internalized moral standards and conscience?
A. Ego
B. Id
C. Superego
D. Instinct
- 23. According to Differential Association Theory, criminal behavior is primarily acquired through:
A. Biological inheritance and physical development.
B. Individual frustration without social interaction.
C. Formal education and institutional punishment.
D. Communication and interaction, particularly within intimate personal groups.
- 24. What determines delinquency according to Sutherland's principle of differential association?
A. The excess of definitions favorable to violating the law over definitions favorable to obeying it.
B. The absence of physical punishment in the family.
C. The individual's body type and inherited characteristics.
D. The number of laws enforced within a community.
- 25. Which concept is most closely associated with Merton's Strain Theory?
A. Atavism
B. Anomie
C. Superego
D. Social distance
- 26. What does anomie refer to in sociological explanations of delinquency?
A. The inability to distinguish right from wrong.
B. The absence of parental affection.
C. A condition of normlessness or weakened social regulation.
D. The development of a criminal identity through labeling.
- 27. Which statement best reflects the Frustration-Aggression Theory?
A. Aggressive behavior may arise when individuals experience frustration due to blocked goals or expectations.
B. Aggression is exclusively inherited through genetic characteristics.
C. Frustration is unrelated to an individual's expectations.
D. Delinquency occurs only when social institutions apply labels.
- 28. Which theory emphasizes that delinquency may develop when social controls that encourage conformity become weak or absent?
A. Somatotyping Theory
B. Atavism Theory
C. Labeling Theory
D. Social Control Theory
- 29. Under Ivan Nye's Social Control Theory, which form of control operates through a child's desire to maintain affection and relationships with conventional individuals?
A. Direct control
B. Indirect control
C. Internal control
D. Institutional control
- 30. Which statement most accurately describes Labeling Theory?
A. It primarily explains the biological origin of criminal behavior.
B. It explains delinquency only through economic deprivation.
C. It focuses on how social reactions and labels may contribute to the development of a deviant identity.
D. It considers criminal behavior a natural consequence of adolescence.
- 31. Which combination represents family-related risk factors associated with juvenile delinquency?
A. Consistent supervision, emotional support, and positive communication.
B. Strong parental attachment, stable income, and effective discipline.
C. Community participation, school involvement, and parental guidance.
D. Family conflict, poor supervision, parental substance abuse, and childhood mistreatment.
- 32. Which statement correctly distinguishes abuse from neglect?
A. Abuse involves harmful acts, while neglect involves failure to provide necessary care.
B. Abuse refers only to emotional harm, while neglect refers only to physical injury.
C. Abuse and neglect both require intentional physical injury.
D. Neglect involves excessive discipline, while abuse involves lack of supervision.
- 33. What is meant by the generational cycle of abuse?
A. Abuse occurring only between siblings during childhood.
B. Abuse that happens exclusively during periods of family separation.
C. Patterns of abusive behavior transmitted across generations through exposure and learned behavior.
D. Abuse that occurs only when children enter adolescence.
- 34. Which statement best explains the influence of delinquent peer groups?
A. Peer groups affect only the academic performance of adolescents.
B. Group association may encourage delinquent conduct through shared attitudes, pressure, and the desire for belonging.
C. Peer influence becomes irrelevant once a child enters school.
D. Delinquent behavior is independent of group relationships.
- 35. According to the lecture, which factor is associated with the weakening of social control as a possible cause of adolescent drug use?
A. Increased parental communication.
B. Stronger school attachment.
C. Consistent community supervision.
D. The reduced effectiveness of mechanisms that encourage conformity.
- 36. Which statement best describes the relationship between academic performance and delinquency discussed in the lecture?
A. Poor academic performance has been associated with increased likelihood of delinquent behavior.
B. Academic failure has no relationship to delinquent behavior.
C. High academic achievement is the primary cause of delinquency.
D. School performance affects only children from financially unstable families.
- 37. Which parenting style is characterized by high responsiveness and reasonable demands, combining warmth with consistent discipline?
A. Permissive
B. Authoritative
C. Uninvolved
D. Neglectful
- 38. Which description most accurately identifies an uninvolved parenting style?
A. High responsiveness and strict but reasonable expectations.
B. High warmth and limited demands.
C. Low responsiveness and low demands, with limited emotional support and involvement.
D. High supervision and consistent communication.
- 39. Which factor is classified as a neighborhood-related risk factor?
A. Active participation in community programs.
B. Positive relationships among neighbors.
C. Availability of educational and recreational services.
D. Presence of criminal groups and availability of illegal substances.
- 40. What is the most appropriate interpretation of protective factors in juvenile delinquency prevention?
A. Conditions that reduce the likelihood of delinquent behavior by strengthening support and positive development.
B. Conditions that guarantee a child will never commit an offense.
C. Measures that eliminate the need for parental involvement.
D. Factors that apply only after a child has been convicted.
- 41. Which law established the Philippine Juvenile Justice and Welfare System?
A. RA 7610
B. RA 9344
C. PD 603
D. RA 10630
- 42. What is the primary legislative purpose of RA 10630?
A. To replace the Child and Youth Welfare Code.
B. To abolish diversion and intervention programs.
C. To amend and strengthen RA 9344 and its implementation.
D. To establish the adult criminal justice system.
- 43. Under RA 9344, as amended, which statement correctly describes the criminal responsibility of children?
A. Children below fifteen are exempt from criminal liability; children above fifteen but below eighteen are also exempt unless they acted with discernment.
B. All children below eighteen are automatically criminally liable.
C. Children below fifteen are criminally liable when the offense is serious.
D. Children above fifteen are always criminally liable regardless of discernment.
- 44. What is the legal meaning of discernment in juvenile justice proceedings?
A. The ability to understand the consequences of imprisonment.
B. The ability to identify the victim of an offense.
C. The ability to follow instructions from law enforcement officers.
D. The capacity to determine the difference between right and wrong.
- 45. Which statement best explains the principle of presumption of minority?
A. Every person accused of an offense is presumed to be a minor.
B. A person whose age is uncertain is given the protections applicable to a child until proven to be eighteen or older.
C. A child is presumed guilty until the family proves otherwise.
D. A child is automatically exempt from all legal proceedings regardless of age.
- 46. Which international instrument specifically establishes comprehensive rights for children and serves as an important foundation for child protection?
A. Beijing Rules
B. Riyadh Guidelines
C. United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child
D. United Nations Rules for the Protection of Juveniles Deprived of their Liberty
- 47. 37. Which international standard is primarily associated with the administration of juvenile justice?
A. Beijing Rules
B. Riyadh Guidelines
C. Convention on the Rights of the Child
D. United Nations Rules for the Protection of Juveniles Deprived of their Liberty
- 48. Which principle requires juvenile justice authorities to prioritize the child's welfare, protection, survival, and development?
A. Retributive justice
B. Best interest of the child
C. Absolute parental authority
D. Public disclosure
- 49. Which international guidelines focus specifically on the prevention of juvenile delinquency?
A. Beijing Rules
B. Convention on the Rights of the Child
C. Tokyo Rules
D. Riyadh Guidelines
- 50. What is the primary distinction between restorative justice and retributive justice?
A. Restorative justice focuses exclusively on punishment, while retributive justice focuses on reconciliation.
B. Both approaches exclude the victim from the justice process.
C. Restorative justice emphasizes repairing harm and reconciliation rather than focusing solely on punishment.
D. Restorative justice removes the responsibility of the child for the offense.
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