A) July 4, 1946 B) December 8, 1930 C) January 1, 1932 D) January 1, 1930
A) Judicial discretion B) Territoriality C) Generality D) Prospectivity
A) A private citizen violates a foreign country's law. B) A public officer commits an offense abroad in the exercise of official functions. C) A Filipino commits any crime in any foreign country. D) A foreign tourist commits an ordinary crime abroad.
A) Irretroactivity B) Generality C) Favorability D) Legality
A) The new law can never apply to past offenses. B) The accused must always serve the original penalty. C) The new law applies only to crimes committed by public officers. D) The favorable penal law may apply retroactively.
A) Stare decisis B) Actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea C) Res judicata D) Nullum crimen, nulla poena sine lege
A) Only deliberate intent B) Only negligence C) Only acts resulting in actual injury D) Intentional acts or culpable acts arising from imprudence or negligence
A) Irresistible force B) Accident C) Dolo D) Culpa
A) Proposal B) Conspiracy C) Culpa D) Treachery
A) Doubts in the interpretation of penal laws or in criminal liability are generally resolved in favor of the accused. B) The accused must prove innocence. C) Criminal statutes must be liberally construed against the accused. D) Doubts must always favor the prosecution.
A) When all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present. B) When the victim files a complaint. C) When the offender merely forms the intention to commit it. D) When the offender is arrested.
A) Consummated homicide B) Frustrated homicide C) Attempted homicide D) Impossible crime
A) Impossible crime B) Frustrated homicide in all cases C) Consummated homicide D) Attempted homicide or attempted murder, depending on the circumstances
A) The offender's apprehension B) The existence of a victim C) Whether the offender has performed all acts of execution D) The presence of criminal intent
A) Consummated B) Attempted C) Frustrated D) Preparatory
A) Consummated theft B) Frustrated theft C) No possible criminal liability under any circumstances D) Attempted theft
A) Light felonies are never punishable. B) All light felonies are punishable even when merely attempted. C) Light felonies are punishable only when consummated, except those committed against persons or property. D) Light felonies are punishable only when committed by public officers.
A) Only when the intended felony is consummated B) Only when all conspirators are arrested C) When the law specifically provides a penalty for conspiracy D) In every case, even when the law does not provide a penalty for conspiracy
A) When a person who has decided to commit a felony proposes its execution to another person or persons B) The concealment of a crime after its commission C) An agreement between two or more persons to commit a felony D) The actual performance of all acts of execution
A) Attempted robbery B) Consummated robbery C) Frustrated robbery D) Not punishable as conspiracy under the RPC unless the law specifically penalizes it
A) Grave, less grave, and light felonies B) Public, private, and administrative offenses C) Intentional, negligent, and accidental offenses D) Continuing, complex, and special offenses
A) A light felony B) A less grave felony C) An administrative offense D) A grave felony
A) Principle of territoriality B) Rule on double jeopardy C) Rule of lenity D) Praeter intentionem principle
A) Justifying circumstance B) Extenuating circumstance only C) Absolutory cause D) Impossible crime
A) The intended offense must actually be consummated. B) The act is inherently incapable of accomplishment or uses inadequate or ineffectual means. C) The act would be an offense against persons or property were it not for the inherent impossibility or ineffectual means. D) The offender must have criminal intent.
A) Passion or obfuscation B) Insanity in every case C) Accident without negligence D) Minority in every case
A) Unlawful aggression B) Previous conviction of the aggressor C) Serious injury to the defender D) A prior demand to stop
A) Lack of sufficient provocation B) Voluntary surrender C) Unlawful aggression D) Reasonable necessity of the means employed
A) Lack of sufficient provocation on the part of the defender B) Reasonable necessity of the means employed C) The aggressor must die or suffer serious physical injuries D) Unlawful aggression
A) The defender must have been attacked first. B) The stranger must be a public officer. C) The defender must not be motivated by revenge, resentment, or another evil motive. D) The defender must be related to the stranger.
A) Recidivism B) Avoidance of a greater evil or injury C) Treachery D) Quasi-recidivism
A) Minority B) Passion or obfuscation C) Voluntary surrender D) Fulfillment of a duty or lawful exercise of a right or office
A) The subordinate is automatically exempt if acting during work hours. B) The exemption requires an order issued for a lawful purpose. C) Obedience always exempts the subordinate from liability. D) Every order of a superior is presumed lawful.
A) Abuse of confidence B) Treachery C) Evident premeditation D) Irresistible force
A) Alternative circumstance of intoxication B) Aggravating circumstance of treachery C) Mitigating circumstance of voluntary surrender only D) Exempting circumstance of insanity
A) Liable only for civil damages and never subject to intervention B) Exempt only if the offense is a light felony C) Always criminally liable as an adult D) Exempt from criminal liability, subject to applicable juvenile justice law
A) Recidivism B) Abuse of confidence C) Discernment D) Treachery
A) Irresistible force B) Uncontrollable fear C) Mistake of fact in every case D) Accident
A) Alternative circumstance B) Aggravating circumstance C) Exempting circumstance D) Qualifying circumstance
A) An exempting circumstance B) Treachery C) Recidivism D) A qualifying circumstance
A) Treachery B) Voluntary surrender C) Dwelling D) Evident premeditation
A) Made only after conviction B) Made only after serving the sentence C) Spontaneous and made to acknowledge guilt or save authorities the trouble and expense of search and capture D) Required by a court order after arrest
A) A justifying circumstance B) A mitigating circumstance C) An exempting circumstance D) An aggravating circumstance
A) A mitigating circumstance involving lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong B) A qualifying circumstance C) Recidivism D) Treachery
A) Praeter intentionem B) Treachery C) Abuse of confidence D) Evident premeditation
A) Recidivism B) Quasi-recidivism C) Treachery D) Mitigating circumstance of sufficient provocation
A) Treachery B) Voluntary surrender C) Plea of guilty D) Lack of intent to commit so grave a wrong
A) Voluntary surrender B) Treachery C) Accident D) Passion or obfuscation
A) Accident B) Voluntary surrender C) Minority D) Dwelling
A) Yes, in every case B) No; it must be shown to have been purposely sought or to have facilitated the crime, or otherwise satisfy the applicable legal requirements C) No, because nighttime can never aggravate a crime D) Yes, whenever the offense occurs after 6:00 p.m.
A) Unlawful aggression B) Treachery C) Intoxication D) Evident premeditation
A) Always present whenever alcohol is consumed B) Neither habitual nor intentional C) Automatically proven by the offender's testimony alone D) Habitual and intentional
A) Relationship is always aggravating. B) Relationship is never considered by the court. C) Its effect depends on the nature of the crime and the statutory rules. D) Relationship is always mitigating.
A) Principal by inducement B) Quasi-recidivist in every case C) Recidivist D) First offender
A) They are exactly the same. B) Quasi-recidivism applies only to negligent felonies. C) Quasi-recidivism involves committing a new felony after conviction by final judgment and before beginning to serve, or while serving, sentence for a prior conviction, as provided by law. D) Recidivism requires the second offense to occur while serving sentence.
A) Principals only B) Accessories only C) Accomplices only D) Principals, accomplices, and accessories
A) Witness B) Accessory only C) Civilly liable person only D) Principal by direct participation
A) Principal by inducement, if the legal requisites are met B) Principal by direct participation in every case C) Accessory after the fact only D) Accomplice only
A) Accessory only B) Witness C) Victim D) Principal by indispensable cooperation
A) Exempt person B) Accessory C) Principal by inducement in all cases D) Accomplice
A) Principal by direct participation B) Accomplice before the fact C) Accessory D) Victim
A) Reporting the crime to authorities B) Being related to the offender without assisting C) Merely witnessing the crime without participating D) Concealing or destroying the body of the crime to prevent its discovery
A) Article 19 specifies acts that may make a person an accessory, subject to statutory exceptions. B) An accessory is necessarily the person who planned the crime. C) All accessories are liable for every felony regardless of circumstances. D) An accessory must always be present during execution.
A) Certain relatives of the principal, as specified by law B) All friends of the principal C) All public officers D) All persons who provide shelter
A) All crimes require conspiracy. B) The act of one conspirator may be attributable to the others in the execution of the common design. C) Agreement alone always establishes guilt beyond reasonable doubt. D) Every person present at the scene is automatically guilty.
A) Indemnification B) Reparation of damages C) Reclusion temporal D) Restitution
A) Arresto menor B) Fine classified as a light penalty C) Public censure D) Reclusion temporal
A) Reclusion perpetua B) Death C) Reclusion temporal D) Prision correccional
A) Reclusion temporal B) Prision correccional C) Prision mayor D) Arresto menor
A) To allow retroactive imposition of harsher penalties B) To prohibit the imposition of a penalty not prescribed by law before the commission of the offense C) To permit courts to invent penalties for any conduct D) To remove the requirement of a criminal statute
A) Generality B) Civil indemnity C) Territoriality D) Legality of penalties
A) Only persons who have not been charged B) Persons guilty of a felony, even if serving sentence, subject to the law's exceptions C) Only persons who are public officers D) No person convicted before the law's enactment
A) The court applies the statutory rules governing the proper period or degree of the penalty. B) The minimum penalty is always imposed. C) Courts disregard all circumstances D) The maximum penalty is always imposed.
A) They are imposed according to the applicable statutory rules for indivisible penalties and relevant circumstances. B) They apply only to civil liability. C) They cannot be imposed by a court. D) They are always divided into three periods.
A) To determine territorial jurisdiction B) To extinguish civil liability automatically C) To govern the application of penalties divisible into three periods when the circumstances specified by law are present D) To define impossible crimes
A) The amount of civil indemnity in every case B) The maximum duration of the convict's service of multiple penalties C) The number of criminal cases that may be filed D) The number of aggravating circumstances
A) Twenty years in every case B) Three times the most severe penalty, subject to the statutory maximum of forty years C) Thirty years in every case D) The sum of all penalties in every case
A) Arresto mayor B) Confiscation of proceeds only C) Restitution only D) Payment of civil indemnity only
A) It may be imposed only as authorized by law and subject to applicable limits and exceptions. B) It applies to all civil damages. C) It may be imposed without statutory authority. D) It is mandatory for every unpaid civil debt.
A) They are never imposed by operation of law. B) They are always independent of principal penalties. C) They may attach to principal penalties as provided by law. D) They are equivalent to civil damages.
A) Prescription of the crime B) Plea of guilty C) Payment of civil damages alone D) Voluntary surrender
A) Criminal liability and civil liability ex delicto, subject to applicable law and jurisprudence B) Only civil liability arising from the crime C) Only accessory penalties D) All civil obligations of the deceased, including those unrelated to the crime
A) It is merely a mitigating circumstance. B) It automatically extinguishes every civil obligation. C) It is a mode of total extinction of criminal liability. D) It prevents the offended party from seeking restitution in every case.
A) A pardon always extinguishes civil liability. B) A pardon is the same as acquittal. C) A pardon automatically erases the historical fact of conviction for all purposes. D) A pardon may remit the penalty as provided by law, but does not automatically extinguish civil liability.
A) It is the victim's forgiveness of the offender. B) It is the expiration of the period within which the State may prosecute, as determined by law. C) It is the payment of a fine. D) It is the reduction of a penalty by the court.
A) The penalty prescribed by law and the applicable statutory rules B) The victim's age alone C) The location of the police station D) The offender's occupation alone
A) Amnesty B) Prescription of the crime C) Death of the convict D) Conditional pardon
A) The determination of conspiracy B) The classification of felonies C) Deduction from the term of imprisonment for qualifying good conduct, subject to law D) The amount of civil indemnity
A) It is granted by a private complainant. B) It is a governmental act that may extinguish criminal liability for covered offenses, subject to constitutional and legal requirements. C) It automatically applies to every crime. D) It is identical to voluntary surrender.
A) Both apply only to light felonies. B) Prescription of a crime concerns the period to prosecute, while prescription of a penalty concerns the period to enforce a penalty imposed by final judgment. C) Both mean that the offender has paid civil damages. D) There is no legal distinction between them.
A) Liable only for imprisonment B) Automatically disqualified from all employment C) Civilly liable D) Exempt from restitution
A) Imprisonment B) Arrest C) Disqualification from public office D) Restitution
A) The property has sentimental value only B) The victim agrees to waive all rights in every case C) Restitution is legally available, subject to the statutory protection for certain third-party acquisitions D) The accused has already served the sentence
A) A pardon granted by the President B) A reduction of the penalty C) Payment for the damage caused, determined by the court in accordance with the law D) Imprisonment of the accused
A) Only the accused B) Only the police officer who investigated the crime C) The injured party's family or a third person because of the crime, as legally established D) No one other than the direct victim under any circumstances
A) The police investigator B) The barangay captain in every case C) The victim alone, without judicial determination D) The court
A) Any order chosen by the victim without regard to law B) Accomplices, accessories, then principals C) Accessories, accomplices, then principals D) Principals, then accomplices, then accessories
A) Return nothing because the participation was gratuitous B) Make restitution equivalent to the extent of participation in the proceeds C) Pay an automatic fine of ₱100,000 D) Serve the principal's entire sentence
A) Is extinguished by the mere passage of one year B) Automatically ends when imprisonment ends C) Continues notwithstanding service of sentence or certain forms of remission of the penalty, unless the civil liability is otherwise extinguished D) Ends whenever the offender receives a pardon
A) Acquittal always extinguishes every form of civil liability. B) Civil liability can never arise from a felony. C) Criminal liability and civil liability are identical in all respects. D) Civil liability may survive in circumstances recognized by law even when criminal liability is extinguished, depending on the ground and applicable legal rules. |