CDI 3
  • 1. Refers to any person who furnishes the police an information relevant to a criminal case about the activities of criminal or syndicates . He may openly give the information or a projected and planned crime?
A) Informer
B) modus operandi
C) corroborative
D) Informants
  • 2. It is the direct acknowledgement of guilt arising from the commission of a crime?
A) Confession
B) Judicial admission/confession
C) Extra judicial admission/confession
D) Admission
  • 3. It is the graphic representation of the scene of the crime. With complete measurements of the relative distances of relevant object and conditions obtaining therein.
A) Anthropometry
B) photograph
C) Portrait parle
D) Sketch
  • 4. The art which deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who committed a particular crime and concurrently includes identification, collection, preservation and evaluation of evidence for the purpose of bringing criminal offender to the bar of justice.
A) Criminal investigation
B) Investigation
C) Preliminary investigation
D) Custodial investigation
  • 5. It is the body of the crime or the existence of a fact that the specific loss or injury was sustained as a result of the crime..
A) Actus Reus
B) corpus delicti
C) Inflagrante delicto
D) Mens rea
  • 6. This tool of Criminal Investigation is referring to knowledge or data collected by the prober which may be in sensory, written, or physical forms.
A) Interview/interrogation
B) Information
C) All of the above
D) Instrumentation
  • 7. It is the duty of the investigator that after determination that a crime was committed, the cardinal points shall be also determine. Which one among the following answers to the question, What is the motive of the crime commisson?
A) When it was committed?
B) What is the crime committed?
C) How the crime was committed?
D) Why it was committed?
  • 8. Among the cardinal points of investigation, Which is referring to Modus Operandi?
A) When it was committed?
B) what is the crime committed?
C) Why it was committed?
D) How the crime was committed?
  • 9. The methodology involving the systematic searching, handling, distribution and accountability of all evidence found at the crime scene, including the documentation of every article of evidence from the point of initial discovery at the scene , to its collection and transport to the point of examination, its temporary storage and its final disposal is reffered to as?
A) Criminal responsibility
B) Facts of occurrence of the crime
C) Corpus delicti
D) Chain of custody
  • 10. What kind of evidence assists the investigator in locating the malefactor?
A) Nota
B) Associative
C) Corpus delicti
D) Tracing
  • 11. The following are the three-fold aim of criminal investigation EXCEPT?
A) Locate the suspect
B) identify the suspect
C) Prosecute the suspect
D) Gather evidence of guilt of the suspect
  • 12. It describes the immediate scene only where the crime was committed such as the room of the victim and the essentials details thereof.
A) Nota
B) Sketch of the ground
C) Sketch of the locality
D) Sketch of detail
  • 13. It is a kind of confession, which is made by the accused in open court and is therefore admissible as evidence.
A) Extra judicial
B) Judicial
C) Intraterritorial
D) Extraterritorial
  • 14. This kind of confession is admissible unless corroborated by proof of corpus delicti. For it to be admissible, it must be voluntary, in writing and made with the assistance of a counsel of his own choice with full understanding of the consequence of such confession.
A) Judicial
B) Extra judicial
C) Intraterritorial
D) Extraterritorial
  • 15. It deals with the study of major crimes based on the application of special investigative techniques.
A) Special crime investigation
B) Instrumentation
C) Criminal investigation
D) Criminalistic
  • 16. The following cases are applying Special Crime Investigation Except?
A) Falsification
B) Murder
C) Rape
D) Gambling
  • 17. What is the confrontational and vigorous questioning of a person suspected of having committed a crime that is also applied to a reluctant or uncooperative person to divulge information pertinent to the investigation?
A) Interview
B) Instrumentation
C) Interrogation
D) Inquiry
  • 18. The mistakes of the homicide investigator cannot be corrected or irreversible. The homicide investigator should not cross the three bridges, which he burns behind him. Which of the following is not one of this so called "Burned bridges" ?
A) When the dead body has been contaminated.
B) When the dead person has been moved.
C) When the dead body has been embalmed.
D) When the dead body has been cremated or burned
  • 19. Each person handling an item of evidence from the time of discovery until presentation in court must take certain safeguards. This total processed is called ____.
A) identify, tag, seal
B) Physical integrity
C) Legal integrity
D) Chain of Custody
  • 20. Deaths resulting from asphyxia are due to?
A) A sudden or gradual cessation of oxygen intake
B) A sudden or gradual cessation of oxygen intake
C) Lack of platelets in the blood.
D) The hardening and clotting of the blood.
  • 21. The stiffening of the body caused by severe trauma to the nervous system of intense stress is?
A) Algor Mortis
B) Post Mortem Rigidity
C) Post mortem lividity
D) Cadaveric Spasm
  • 22. What is the investigator's way to determine whether a dead body has been move from one site to another.
A) Autopsy
B) Rigor mortis
C) Livor mortis
D) Necropsy
  • 23. These are objects that assist the investigator in locating the malefactor.?
A) Tracing
B) Associative
C) Fingerprint
D) Corpus delicti
  • 24. The following questions can be answered by a medico-legal officer, except..
A) Owner of collected sperm cell
B) Caused of death
C) How many perpetrators
D) Weapon used
  • 25. Agent Salman was assigned to conduct search in the crime scene, which is approximately circular or oval. What is the best search method, which Agent Salman should apply?
A) Spiral
B) Zone
C) Quadrant
D) Strip
  • 26. It is a kind of evidence, which may link the suspect to the crime scene or offense.
A) Tracing
B) Plate number
C) Associative
D) Corpus delicti
  • 27. What is the very popular acronym in describing the step by step procedure in conducting interview?
A) BBC
B) Aromatic
C) Ironic
D) Sonic
  • 28. It is a form of investigation in which the investigator assumes a different and unofficial identity to gather information about the identity and activity of the subject.
A) Decoy
B) Convoy
C) Roping
D) Reconnaisance
  • 29. Ador used an equipment or tool to listen and record discreetly in the conversation between Alden and Yaya Dub. This is known as..
A) Eavesdropping
B) Stalking
C) Researching
D) Bugging
  • 30. It is conducted when the subject is moving from one place to another.
A) made
B) Casing
C) shadowing
D) lost
  • 31. The following are the 3 bridges that a homicide investigator should not cross , except..
A) The dead body has been moved
B) That the cadaver has been embalmed.
C) That the cadaver has been preserved.
D) That the dead person is burned or cremated.
  • 32. In the chain of events of traffic accident it refers to the first accident touching between traffic units involved in the collision.
A) Initial contact
B) Maximum engagement
C) Start of evasive action
D) perception of hazard
  • 33. Chain of Events of Traffic Accident that refers to the sensing that an accident is about to happen.
A) Stopping
B) Disengagement
C) Perception of hazard
D) Injury
  • 34. It is a crime whereby the proceeds of unlawful activity are transacted or attempted to be transacted, to make them appear to have originated from legitimate sources:
A) Money laundering (RA 9160)
B) Estafa
C) Theft
D) Swindling
  • 35. It is the investigative technique of allowing an unlawful or suspect consignment of any dangerous drug and/or controlled precursor and essential chemical, equipment or paraphernalia, or property believed to be derived directly or indirectly from any offense, to pass into, through or out of the country under the supervision of an authorized officer, with a view to gathering evidence to identify any person involved in any dangerous drugs related offense, or to facilitate prosecution of that Offense.
A) Administration
B) Controlled delivery
C) Chemical diversion
D) Controlled manufacture
  • 36. It refers to a detailed inquiry and examination of special crimes such as kidnapping, terrorism, and organized crime.
A) Special Crime Investigation
B) Strategic Investigation
C) General Investigation
D) Tactical Investigation
  • 37. Which of the following is considered a special crime under Philippine law?
A) Terrorism
B) Reckless Imprudence
C) Rape
D) Theft
  • 38. The process of obtaining information through questioning a person who is willing and cooperative is called
A) Interview
B) Inquiry
C) Cross-examination
D) Interrogation
  • 39. The act of questioning a suspect or accused who is reluctant to talk, often using psychological techniques, is called
A) Interview
B) Dialogue
C) Interrogation
D) Debriefing
  • 40. Which of the following is NOT a principle of effective interrogation?
A) Coercion
B) Observation
C) Preparation
D) Control of environment
  • 41. In conducting an interview, which of the following must the investigator first establish?
A) Rapport
B) Evidence
C) Strategy
D) Control
  • 42. What is the main goal of interrogation?
A) To identify the victim
B) To collect evidence at the scene
C) To arrest the accused
D) To get the suspect to confess
  • 43. The "Miranda Doctrine" guarantees the rights of the accused during
A) Court Trial
B) Inquest Proceedings
C) Custodial Investigation
D) Preliminary Investigation
  • 44. "Anything you say can and will be used against you in court" is a part of which legal safeguard?
A) Miranda Warning
B) Bill of Rights
C) Rights of the Accused
D) Right to Counsel
  • 45. What is the first step in preparing for an interrogation?
A) Conduct surveillance
B) Gather and analyze all available information
C) Read the Miranda Rights
D) Record the confession
  • 46. The ability to establish and maintain rapport during an interview is important to:
A) Speed up the questioning
B) Gain trust and cooperation
C) Intimidate the suspect
D) Control the subject physically
  • 47. Which of the following refers to a confession?
A) An observation by the investigator
B) A statement admitting participation in a crime
C) A denial of involvement
D) A written police report
  • 48. Which of the following is a non-verbal cue that may indicate deception?
A) Avoidance of gaze
B) Consistent tone
C) Calm posture
D) Steady eye contact
  • 49. In interrogation, the "Theme Development Technique" refers to:
A) Allowing the suspect to dictate the conversation
B) Repeating questions to confuse the suspect
C) Using force to obtain confession
D) Creating a storyline to make the suspect relate and admit
  • 50. Which of the following is inadmissible in court?
A) Confession made in writing
B) Confession made without counsel
C) Confession made voluntarily
D) Confession made with counsel present
  • 51. The Accusatory Stage in criminal proceedings begins when:
A) The suspect is questioned by the police
B) The investigation starts
C) The crime is discovered
D) The suspect is formally charged in court
  • 52. What psychological principle helps the investigator assess truthfulness based on stress and behavior?
A) Emotional Stability
B) Cognitive Dissonance
C) Personality Typing
D) Behavioral Analysis
  • 53. What is the main difference between an interview and an interrogation?
A) Both are accusatory
B) Both are non-accusatory
C) Interview is non-accusatory, interrogation is accusatory
D) Interview is accusatory, interrogation is non-accusatory
  • 54. During custodial investigation, when should the suspect be informed of their rights?
A) Before questioning begins
B) During the arrest
C) After being detained for 24 hours
D) After the confession
  • 55. Which of the following best describes the PEACE model of investigative interviewing?
A) Prepare, Examine, Analyze, Conclude, Evaluate
B) Proceed, Examine, Assess, Complete, End
C) Preparation, Engage, Account, Closure, Evaluation
D) Plan, Execute, Assess, Communicate, End
  • 56. What is the most important factor in determining the reliability of a confession?
A) Voluntariness
B) Length of interrogation
C) Location
D) Language
  • 57. In a simulation exercise, what is the primary purpose of role-playing interrogation scenarios?
A) Memorization of rights
B) Entertainment
C) Practical application of learned techniques
D) Competition among students
  • 58. Which law protects a person from being forced to testify against themselves?
A) Article 248 of the Revised Penal Code
B) Article III, Section 12 of the 1987 Constitution
C) Anti-Torture Act of 2009
D) Republic Act 6975
  • 59. The Anti-Torture Act of 2009 (R.A. 9745) prohibits what during interrogation?
A) Psychological or physical coercion
B) Strategic interviewing
C) Recording of interrogation
D) Deceptive questioning
  • 60. Which type of questioning technique encourages the subject to elaborate and give detailed information?
A) Multiple-choice questions
B) Closed-ended questions
C) Leading questions
D) Open-ended questions
  • 61. What should an investigator avoid during the conduct of an interview?
A) Note-taking
B) Premature conclusions
C) Active listening
D) Building rapport
  • 62. Which of the following refers to the process of verifying information gathered during interviews and interrogations?
A) Confession
B) Corroboration
C) Confirmation
D) Coordination
  • 63. The term "Psychological Dominance" in interrogation means:
A) Controlling the suspect by fear
B) Ignoring the suspect's reactions
C) Forcing confession through threats
D) Establishing confidence and authority over the suspect
  • 64. The "Good Cop-Bad Cop" technique is an example of:
A) Psychological manipulation technique
B) Legal questioning
C) Coercive interrogation
D) Hypnosis-based method
  • 65. The final step after an interview or interrogation is to:
A) Destroy the notes
B) File charges immediately
C) Release the suspect
D) Prepare a written report and evaluate information obtained
  • 66. An act that defines certain rights of person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation as well as the duties of arresting, detaining, and investigating officers and providing penalties for violation thereof, This refer to.
A) R.A. 7483
B) R.A. 7438
C) R.A. 7348
D) R.A. 7843
  • 67. Any evidence introduce in trial in form of a tangible object, intended to prove a fact in issue based on its demonstrable physical characteristics.
A) Physical evidence
B) Real evidence
C) Cumulative evidence
D) Corroborative evidence
  • 68. Are skilled and qualified to determine the sex, height, weight and ethnic group of a deceased person from an incomplete body.
A) Forensic Psychiatrist
B) Forensic psychologist
C) Forensic Anthropologist's
D) Forensic odontologist
  • 69. The biggest trying situation that crime scene technicians encounter on their job.
A) Lack of equipment
B) Crime scene contamination
C) Lack of evidence to be gathered
D) Inadequate chain of custody
  • 70. The central character in the forensic investigation of crimes involving a victim.
A) Physician
B) Psychologist
C) Dentist
D) Medical investigator
  • 71. He has the responsibility for all subsequent visitors to the scene upon his arrival to the scene.
A) Investigator
B) Responder
C) Highest ranking officer
D) Supervisory Officer
  • 72. He is the one who completed the rough sketch.
A) Cartoonist
B) Draftsman
C) Crime scene technician
D) Cartographer
  • 73. How many hours doest the human blood sample becomes worthless?
A) Delays beyond 38 hours
B) Delays beyond 48 hours
C) Delays beyond 28 hours
D) Delays beyond 3 days
  • 74. Ideal cordon should be composed of three barriers. This barrier is established to ward off media and spectators from the crime scene.
A) First barrier
B) Innermost cordons
C) Outermost barrier
D) Second barrier
  • 75. Is a concept in jurisprudence which applies to the handling of evidence and its reliability?
A) Chain of custody
B) Associative evidence
C) Process the crime scene
D) Physical evidence
  • 76. It is considered as the most significant portion of the autopsy as far as the abstraction is concerned is the section entitled "Final diagnosis
A) Final report
B) Necropsy report
C) Autopsy report
D) Diagnosis report
  • 77. It is his duty to identify, evaluate and collect physical evidence from the crime scene for further analysis by a crime laboratory
A) Police investigator
B) Evaluator
C) Crime scene technician
D) SOCO investigator
  • 78. This mark are usually found in many times is sexual assault.
A) Physical assault
B) Kiss marks
C) Bite marks
D) Nail marks
  • 79. A burned body found was subjected to autopsy, however examination of lungs and blood showed no abnormal quantity of carbon monoxide or dioxide, what will be your interpretation under such circumstance?
A) The person was killed before it was burned
B) The person died because of the burning
C) The person died not of fire but because of suffocation
D) The person died of asphyxia
  • 80. The official inquiries made by the police on the facts and circumstance surrounding the death of a person that is expected to be unlawful is referred to as
A) death investigation
B) official investigation
C) murder investigation
D) homicide investigation
E) post-mortem investigation
  • 81. The different changes that take place in the body after death are referred to as
A) post-mortem flaccidity
B) post-mortem signs
C) post-mortem rigidity.
D) post-mortem changes
  • 82. What is the record needed to keep all members of the force informed concerning police operation, assignments, and administrative instructions?
A) Accident report
B) Continuation report
C) Technical report
D) Daily record of event
  • 83. SPOT Solomon Matiyaga was promoted to the next rank by his Commanding Officer, on the strength of his recommendation. He gave a blow-out to his friends. Three months passed and he was still receiving the same salary, What form of communication is missing?
A) special order
B) approval by his CO
C) written confirmation
D) memorandum
  • 84. If the crime committed was homicide, search for physical evidence will be centered on which of the following?
A) Fingerprints nail and clothing
B) Weapon and other types of evidence left as a result of contact between victim and assailant.
C) Fool marks
D) undercarriage and hood of car
  • 85. What is called of that self-incriminatory statement by the subject falling short of an indirect acknowledgment of guilt?
A) admission
B) confession
C) informant
D) Deposition
  • 86. Which of these is a statement of the suspect directly acknowledging his criminal guilt?
A) Deposition
B) Admission
C) Confession
D) Acknowledgment
  • 87. The following are authorized to issue a valid search warrant, except
A) Appellate Judge
B) None of these
C) Presiding Judge of MCTC
D) RTC Judge
E) Chief Prosecutor
  • 88. Which of the following best describes corpus delicti
A) any recovered weapon, either firearm or bladed weapon
B) the body of the victim in case of homicide or murder
C) the recovered stolen properties in case of theft or robbery.
D) essential parts of the body of the crime or the body of the crime itself.
  • 89. This provide a record of incidents requiring police response and includes criminal offenses, arrest and gener Al information.
A) Narration
B) Police Report
C) Report
D) Narrative
  • 90. One of the qualities of a good investigation report states that it must short but concise, meaning, the report must be
A) Fair
B) Brief
C) Impartial
D) Clear
  • 91. It serves as a gauge or yardstick for the detective's efficiency.
A) Progress report
B) Spot report
C) Final report
D) Basic report
  • 92. In the conduct of custodial investigation, one of the rights provided for by the law is protection against self-incrimenation and right is found on the grounds of
A) humanity and conscience
B) public policy and humanity
C) humanity kindness
D) public policy and morality
  • 93. This method or technique of criminal identification is more convenient than other methods or techniques since the element of suggestion is avoided in the identification process.
A) police-line up
B) rogues gallery
C) fingerprint
D) cartography
  • 94. The fact that no physical evidence was found at the scene of the crime will most likely mean that
A) the suspect was professional
B) the victim cleaned up before the police arrived.
C) the police probably did not conduct a complete search for evidence.
D) the suspect was juvenile
  • 95. The purpose of this is to provide a brief, infomative summary of the nature and important event in the case
A) recommendation
B) synopsis
C) Conclusion
D) details of the report
  • 96. Fernando Jose is testifying in court to disprove the criminal charge filed against him. Thus, he is the
A) Suspect
B) Criminal
C) Accused
D) Respondent
  • 97. Edralin is an alleged thief. He is being accused of stealing personal property but he is not yet under the custody of the police. Therefore, he is legally addressed as
A) Accomplice
B) Accused
C) Suspect
D) Accessory
  • 98. This may be applicable to a crime scene which approximately circular or oval. The searchers gather at the center and proceed outward along a radu or spokes.
A) Strip method
B) Zone method
C) Spiral method
D) Wheel method
  • 99. It is the intentional deprivation of any body organ necessary for reproduction.
A) Castration
B) Physical injuries
C) None of these
D) Abortion
  • 100. This situation takes place when a police officer induce a person to commit a crime and arrest him after The commission of the crime.
A) Instigation
B) Entrapment
C) Voluntary surrender
D) Recidivism
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