CDI-2 SCIMED
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The location of the crime scene
B) The presence of mitigating circumstances
C) The offender's intent to kill
D) The type of weapon used
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
B) Conducting polygraph tests
C) Collection of fingerprints only
D) Recording witness names
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Type of weapon used
B) Relationship between victim and suspect
C) Time of day of the crime
D) Victim’s previous criminal history
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Location of the crime
B) Age of the offender
C) Age of the victim
D) Method of killing
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Assessment of social status of victim
B) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
C) Determining motive for concealment
D) Witness statements about pregnancy
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
B) Time of day the injury occurred
C) Victim's income
D) Family background of the victim
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Assessing economic status of suspect
B) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
C) Checking family history
D) Social media profiling
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) Both A and B
B) Physical evidence collection
C) None of the above
D) Motive and opportunity
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
B) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
C) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
D) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Focus only on the organizers
B) Conduct online investigations exclusively
C) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
D) Dismiss minor injuries
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Location aesthetics
B) Public opinion
C) Economic status of members
D) Group dynamics and initiation processes
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Investigating burglary
B) Conducting environmental crime inspections
C) Investigating traffic violations
D) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
B) Financial records of the accused
C) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
D) Previous employment history of the victim
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Familial relationships and tensions
B) Financial disputes within family
C) Offender's prior criminal record
D) Victim’s clothing choice
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Checking prior vacations of victim
B) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
C) DNA and forensic evidence collection
D) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) Determining motive
B) Reconstructing crime sequence
C) Identifying potential witnesses
D) All of the above
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Searching public records for health
B) Investigating local schools
C) Identification of caretaker or mothe
D) Profiling neighbors
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Both A and B
B) Temporary or permanent
C) Neither A nor B
D) Simple or grave
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Reducing police involvement
B) Making consent of victim irrelevant
C) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
D) Allowing hazing in private clubs
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Scheduling court dates
B) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
C) Determining victim’s wealth
D) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) Clothing fibers
B) All of the above
C) Biological samples
D) Weapon traces
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Dismissal of medical records
B) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
C) Assumptions about intent
D) Social media monitoring
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Evaluating weather at time of death
B) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
C) Linking physical evidence to suspect
D) Recording victim’s financial status
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Avoiding workplace inspections
B) Checking only criminal history
C) Ignoring victim testimony
D) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Social media monitoring
B) Inspecting clothing of victim
C) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
D) Assessing traffic conditions
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Financial transactions
B) Confession or admission of suspect
C) Neighborhood survey
D) Daily routines of victim
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Ignoring complaints filed online
B) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
C) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
D) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Publicizing case details immediately
B) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
C) Skipping minor evidence
D) Relying only on witness recollection
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Neighborhood demographics
B) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
C) Weather at the time of incident
D) Victim’s social media activity
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Employment status of the parents
B) Maternal history and forensic evidence
C) Economic background of the victim
D) School attendance records
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Verifying location aesthetics
B) Ignoring minor injuries
C) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
D) Checking social media posts only
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Dismiss victim credibility
B) Corroborate facts and detect deception
C) Determine suspect wealth
D) Avoid further investigation
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
B) Tracking public transport usage
C) Evaluating neighborhood trends
D) Recording victim’s hobbies
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Neighbors’ opinions only
B) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
C) Victim’s financial records only
D) Weather conditions exclusively
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
B) Housing aesthetics
C) Social gatherings of victim
D) Political affiliations
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Financial status of complainant
B) Personal relationships of witness
C) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
D) Location of residence
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Assess neighborhood ratings
B) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
C) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
D) Track economic background
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Vacation plans
B) Public transportation habits
C) Workplace records
D) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
B) School enrollment history
C) Social media presence
D) Neighborhood watch logs
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Ignore physical threats
B) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
C) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
D) Focus only on financial evidence
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Neighborhood survey
B) Weather monitoring
C) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
D) Financial audit of victim
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
B) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
C) Determine neighborhood ratings
D) Track public opinion
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
B) Witness social media activity
C) Location aesthetics
D) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Ignoring minor offenses
B) Focusing on financial disputes
C) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
D) Restricting evidence to video only
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Tracking employment records
B) Evaluating social media posts
C) Assessing neighborhood ratings
D) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
B) Ignoring anonymous reports
C) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
D) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Investigating unrelated family disputes
B) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
C) Evaluating victim’s social media history
D) Monitoring neighbors
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Focusing on witness’s financial status
B) Monitoring public opinion
C) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
D) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
B) Monitoring online activity
C) Evaluating neighborhood social status
D) Tracking school enrollment
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
B) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
C) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
D) Tracking social media popularity
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
B) Death of the entire body
C) Temporary loss of consciousness
D) Death of individual organs
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
B) Death of the brain only
C) Complete decomposition of the body
D) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
B) Death of the organism as a whole
C) Legal declaration of death
D) Death caused by trauma
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Post-mortem changes
B) Cellular death
C) Clinical death
D) Brain death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Chronic kidney failure
B) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
C) Senility
D) Gradual cancer progression
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death resulting from disease or injury
B) Death occurring in hospitals only
C) Death from natural aging
D) Death due to natural causes
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) By suicide
B) By sudden trauma
C) Due to homicide or accident
D) As a consequence of disease or aging
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death by deliberate act
B) Death due to natural illness
C) Death that occurs in hospitals
D) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Absence of trauma
B) Natural disease
C) External injuries indicating intentional harm
D) Cellular autolysis
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
B) Cancer
C) Chronic infection
D) Aging
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Pathological only
B) Natural
C) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
D) Accidental
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Death due to secondary complications
B) Clinical death
C) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
D) Death due to immediate cause
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) Complications following the primary cause
B) None of the above
C) Legal declaration of death
D) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Temporary absence of heartbeat
B) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
C) Legal documentation
D) Heart-lung resuscitation
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Heart failure
B) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
C) Bacterial infection
D) Poison ingestion
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Blood pooling in dependent parts
B) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
C) Decomposition of soft tissues
D) Cooling of the body after death
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
B) Discoloration of the skin
C) Decomposition of internal organs
D) Stiffening of muscles
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
C) Decomposition
D) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Rigor mortis
B) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
C) Livor mortis
D) Algor mortis
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
B) Mummification
C) Skeletonization
D) LAdvanced decomposition
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Strenuous activity before death
B) Hypothermia
C) Cold environment
D) Starvation
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Hyperthermia
B) Cold temperature
C) Physical exertion before death
D) Sepsis
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Livor mortis
B) Putrefaction
C) Algor mortis
D) Rigor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It is reversible
B) It occurs gradually
C) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
D) It affects the entire body uniformly
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
B) Blood pooling
C) Muscle stiffening
D) Skin cooling
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) In dry and arid conditions
B) Immediately after death
C) Only in cold environments
D) In humid and warm climates
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Blood settling in dependent parts
B) Discoloration of skin
C) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
D) Cooling of the body
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Stiffening of muscles
C) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
D) Discoloration of the skin
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
B) Only environmental temperature
C) Only cause of death
D) None of the above
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
B) Circumstantial evidence only
C) Cause of death only
D) Only cadaveric spasm
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
B) Wound caused by heat
C) Wound caused by chemical burns
D) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Result of gunshot
B) Caused by blunt trauma
C) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
D) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Depth greater than length
B) Always fatal
C) Length greater than depth
D) Produced by blunt objects
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Blunt trauma
B) Chemical agents
C) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
D) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Deep stab wound
B) Wound with irregular margins
C) Tear in skin with smooth edges
D) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Deep penetrating wound
B) Bruise under intact skin
C) Tear in muscle
D) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Back
B) Abdomen
C) Legs
D) Palms or forearms
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Always fatal
B) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
C) Wide and irregular edges
D) Only produced by blunt objects
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Sharp edges
B) Superficial only
C) Only in muscles
D) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Only superficial scraping
B) Only bruises
C) Complete removal of tissue
D) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Show no tissue damage
B) Cannot be analyzed
C) Are smooth and clean
D) Have irregular margins and burn marks
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Victim attempted to protect self
B) Wound is post-mortem
C) Perpetrator acted accidentally
D) Victim was unaware
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
B) Only presence of blood
C) Only shape of the wound
D) Size of wound
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Blunt force with tearing
B) Chemical burns
C) Electrical injury
D) Sharp instrument
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
B) Extensive tissue bridging
C) Irregular margins
D) Infection
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Only cartilage is involved
B) Skin is intact
C) Bone pierces the skin
D) No bleeding occurs
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Cause only
B) Age of victim
C) Shape only
D) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Limited to hands
B) Usually sharp, clean edges
C) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
D) Only superficial injuries
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
B) Incised wounds always fatal
C) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
D) Both are identical
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
B) Only discoloration
C) Only post-mortem staining
D) No bleeding
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