CDI-2 SCIMED
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The presence of mitigating circumstances
B) The offender's intent to kill
C) The type of weapon used
D) The location of the crime scene
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Collection of fingerprints only
B) Conducting polygraph tests
C) Recording witness names
D) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Type of weapon used
B) Time of day of the crime
C) Relationship between victim and suspect
D) Victim’s previous criminal history
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Age of the victim
B) Method of killing
C) Age of the offender
D) Location of the crime
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Determining motive for concealment
B) Witness statements about pregnancy
C) Assessment of social status of victim
D) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Family background of the victim
B) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
C) Victim's income
D) Time of day the injury occurred
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Assessing economic status of suspect
B) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
C) Checking family history
D) Social media profiling
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) Both A and B
B) Physical evidence collection
C) Motive and opportunity
D) None of the above
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
B) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
C) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
D) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Dismiss minor injuries
B) Conduct online investigations exclusively
C) Focus only on the organizers
D) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Location aesthetics
B) Public opinion
C) Economic status of members
D) Group dynamics and initiation processes
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
B) Investigating burglary
C) Investigating traffic violations
D) Conducting environmental crime inspections
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Previous employment history of the victim
B) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
C) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
D) Financial records of the accused
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Offender's prior criminal record
B) Familial relationships and tensions
C) Financial disputes within family
D) Victim’s clothing choice
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) DNA and forensic evidence collection
B) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
C) Checking prior vacations of victim
D) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) All of the above
B) Determining motive
C) Reconstructing crime sequence
D) Identifying potential witnesses
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Profiling neighbors
B) Identification of caretaker or mothe
C) Searching public records for health
D) Investigating local schools
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Neither A nor B
B) Simple or grave
C) Temporary or permanent
D) Both A and B
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
B) Reducing police involvement
C) Making consent of victim irrelevant
D) Allowing hazing in private clubs
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
B) Scheduling court dates
C) Determining victim’s wealth
D) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) Biological samples
B) Weapon traces
C) Clothing fibers
D) All of the above
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
B) Social media monitoring
C) Assumptions about intent
D) Dismissal of medical records
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Evaluating weather at time of death
B) Recording victim’s financial status
C) Linking physical evidence to suspect
D) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Checking only criminal history
B) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
C) Ignoring victim testimony
D) Avoiding workplace inspections
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
B) Inspecting clothing of victim
C) Social media monitoring
D) Assessing traffic conditions
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Neighborhood survey
B) Daily routines of victim
C) Confession or admission of suspect
D) Financial transactions
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
B) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
C) Ignoring complaints filed online
D) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Publicizing case details immediately
B) Relying only on witness recollection
C) Skipping minor evidence
D) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Weather at the time of incident
B) Neighborhood demographics
C) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
D) Victim’s social media activity
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Economic background of the victim
B) Maternal history and forensic evidence
C) Employment status of the parents
D) School attendance records
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
B) Verifying location aesthetics
C) Checking social media posts only
D) Ignoring minor injuries
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Dismiss victim credibility
B) Corroborate facts and detect deception
C) Determine suspect wealth
D) Avoid further investigation
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Tracking public transport usage
B) Evaluating neighborhood trends
C) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
D) Recording victim’s hobbies
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Neighbors’ opinions only
B) Victim’s financial records only
C) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
D) Weather conditions exclusively
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
B) Political affiliations
C) Social gatherings of victim
D) Housing aesthetics
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Financial status of complainant
B) Personal relationships of witness
C) Location of residence
D) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
B) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
C) Assess neighborhood ratings
D) Track economic background
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Workplace records
B) Public transportation habits
C) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
D) Vacation plans
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) Neighborhood watch logs
B) Social media presence
C) School enrollment history
D) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
B) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
C) Ignore physical threats
D) Focus only on financial evidence
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Neighborhood survey
B) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
C) Weather monitoring
D) Financial audit of victim
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Track public opinion
B) Determine neighborhood ratings
C) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
D) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
B) Location aesthetics
C) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
D) Witness social media activity
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Ignoring minor offenses
B) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
C) Focusing on financial disputes
D) Restricting evidence to video only
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Evaluating social media posts
B) Assessing neighborhood ratings
C) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
D) Tracking employment records
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
B) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
C) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
D) Ignoring anonymous reports
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Investigating unrelated family disputes
B) Evaluating victim’s social media history
C) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
D) Monitoring neighbors
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Monitoring public opinion
B) Focusing on witness’s financial status
C) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
D) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Evaluating neighborhood social status
B) Monitoring online activity
C) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
D) Tracking school enrollment
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Tracking social media popularity
B) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
C) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
D) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Temporary loss of consciousness
B) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
C) Death of individual organs
D) Death of the entire body
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
B) Death of the brain only
C) Complete decomposition of the body
D) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death of the organism as a whole
B) Death caused by trauma
C) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
D) Legal declaration of death
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Clinical death
B) Post-mortem changes
C) Brain death
D) Cellular death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
B) Senility
C) Chronic kidney failure
D) Gradual cancer progression
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death occurring in hospitals only
B) Death resulting from disease or injury
C) Death due to natural causes
D) Death from natural aging
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) By suicide
B) As a consequence of disease or aging
C) Due to homicide or accident
D) By sudden trauma
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death by deliberate act
B) Death that occurs in hospitals
C) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
D) Death due to natural illness
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Natural disease
B) Cellular autolysis
C) External injuries indicating intentional harm
D) Absence of trauma
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
B) Cancer
C) Chronic infection
D) Aging
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Natural
B) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
C) Pathological only
D) Accidental
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
B) Death due to immediate cause
C) Clinical death
D) Death due to secondary complications
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) Legal declaration of death
B) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
C) None of the above
D) Complications following the primary cause
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Legal documentation
B) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
C) Heart-lung resuscitation
D) Temporary absence of heartbeat
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Heart failure
B) Poison ingestion
C) Bacterial infection
D) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Cooling of the body after death
B) Blood pooling in dependent parts
C) Decomposition of soft tissues
D) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Discoloration of the skin
B) Decomposition of internal organs
C) Stiffening of muscles
D) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
B) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
C) Decomposition
D) Cooling of the body
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Livor mortis
B) Algor mortis
C) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
D) Rigor mortis
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) Mummification
B) Skeletonization
C) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
D) LAdvanced decomposition
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Starvation
B) Strenuous activity before death
C) Cold environment
D) Hypothermia
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Hyperthermia
B) Sepsis
C) Physical exertion before death
D) Cold temperature
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Livor mortis
B) Algor mortis
C) Putrefaction
D) Rigor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It occurs gradually
B) It affects the entire body uniformly
C) It is reversible
D) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Skin cooling
B) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
C) Muscle stiffening
D) Blood pooling
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) Only in cold environments
B) In humid and warm climates
C) Immediately after death
D) In dry and arid conditions
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Blood settling in dependent parts
B) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
C) Discoloration of skin
D) Cooling of the body
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
B) Cooling of the body
C) Stiffening of muscles
D) Discoloration of the skin
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
B) None of the above
C) Only environmental temperature
D) Only cause of death
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
B) Only cadaveric spasm
C) Cause of death only
D) Circumstantial evidence only
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
B) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
C) Wound caused by chemical burns
D) Wound caused by heat
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
B) Caused by blunt trauma
C) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
D) Result of gunshot
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Always fatal
B) Length greater than depth
C) Depth greater than length
D) Produced by blunt objects
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
B) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
C) Blunt trauma
D) Chemical agents
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Deep stab wound
B) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
C) Wound with irregular margins
D) Tear in skin with smooth edges
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Bruise under intact skin
B) Tear in muscle
C) Deep penetrating wound
D) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Back
B) Abdomen
C) Legs
D) Palms or forearms
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Only produced by blunt objects
B) Wide and irregular edges
C) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
D) Always fatal
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Only in muscles
B) Superficial only
C) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
D) Sharp edges
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
B) Only bruises
C) Only superficial scraping
D) Complete removal of tissue
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Have irregular margins and burn marks
B) Cannot be analyzed
C) Are smooth and clean
D) Show no tissue damage
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Victim attempted to protect self
B) Victim was unaware
C) Wound is post-mortem
D) Perpetrator acted accidentally
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
B) Size of wound
C) Only shape of the wound
D) Only presence of blood
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Electrical injury
B) Sharp instrument
C) Blunt force with tearing
D) Chemical burns
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Infection
B) Extensive tissue bridging
C) Irregular margins
D) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Bone pierces the skin
B) Skin is intact
C) No bleeding occurs
D) Only cartilage is involved
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Shape only
B) Age of victim
C) Cause only
D) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Limited to hands
B) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
C) Usually sharp, clean edges
D) Only superficial injuries
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Both are identical
B) Incised wounds always fatal
C) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
D) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
B) Only discoloration
C) Only post-mortem staining
D) No bleeding
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