CDI-2 SCIMED
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The location of the crime scene
B) The presence of mitigating circumstances
C) The type of weapon used
D) The offender's intent to kill
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Conducting polygraph tests
B) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
C) Recording witness names
D) Collection of fingerprints only
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Victim’s previous criminal history
B) Relationship between victim and suspect
C) Time of day of the crime
D) Type of weapon used
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Age of the victim
B) Age of the offender
C) Method of killing
D) Location of the crime
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
B) Determining motive for concealment
C) Witness statements about pregnancy
D) Assessment of social status of victim
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
B) Victim's income
C) Family background of the victim
D) Time of day the injury occurred
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Social media profiling
B) Assessing economic status of suspect
C) Checking family history
D) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) Physical evidence collection
B) None of the above
C) Motive and opportunity
D) Both A and B
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
B) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
C) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
D) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Dismiss minor injuries
B) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
C) Conduct online investigations exclusively
D) Focus only on the organizers
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Economic status of members
B) Group dynamics and initiation processes
C) Public opinion
D) Location aesthetics
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Investigating traffic violations
B) Investigating burglary
C) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
D) Conducting environmental crime inspections
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
B) Previous employment history of the victim
C) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
D) Financial records of the accused
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Offender's prior criminal record
B) Financial disputes within family
C) Victim’s clothing choice
D) Familial relationships and tensions
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
B) Checking prior vacations of victim
C) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
D) DNA and forensic evidence collection
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) All of the above
B) Reconstructing crime sequence
C) Identifying potential witnesses
D) Determining motive
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Searching public records for health
B) Identification of caretaker or mothe
C) Investigating local schools
D) Profiling neighbors
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Both A and B
B) Simple or grave
C) Neither A nor B
D) Temporary or permanent
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
B) Allowing hazing in private clubs
C) Reducing police involvement
D) Making consent of victim irrelevant
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
B) Determining victim’s wealth
C) Scheduling court dates
D) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) All of the above
B) Weapon traces
C) Biological samples
D) Clothing fibers
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Dismissal of medical records
B) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
C) Social media monitoring
D) Assumptions about intent
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Recording victim’s financial status
B) Linking physical evidence to suspect
C) Evaluating weather at time of death
D) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
B) Ignoring victim testimony
C) Checking only criminal history
D) Avoiding workplace inspections
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Social media monitoring
B) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
C) Inspecting clothing of victim
D) Assessing traffic conditions
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Financial transactions
B) Neighborhood survey
C) Daily routines of victim
D) Confession or admission of suspect
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Ignoring complaints filed online
B) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
C) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
D) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Skipping minor evidence
B) Publicizing case details immediately
C) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
D) Relying only on witness recollection
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Weather at the time of incident
B) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
C) Victim’s social media activity
D) Neighborhood demographics
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Employment status of the parents
B) Economic background of the victim
C) Maternal history and forensic evidence
D) School attendance records
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Verifying location aesthetics
B) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
C) Ignoring minor injuries
D) Checking social media posts only
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Dismiss victim credibility
B) Avoid further investigation
C) Determine suspect wealth
D) Corroborate facts and detect deception
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
B) Tracking public transport usage
C) Evaluating neighborhood trends
D) Recording victim’s hobbies
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
B) Weather conditions exclusively
C) Neighbors’ opinions only
D) Victim’s financial records only
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Social gatherings of victim
B) Political affiliations
C) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
D) Housing aesthetics
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Location of residence
B) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
C) Financial status of complainant
D) Personal relationships of witness
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
B) Track economic background
C) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
D) Assess neighborhood ratings
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
B) Workplace records
C) Vacation plans
D) Public transportation habits
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) School enrollment history
B) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
C) Neighborhood watch logs
D) Social media presence
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Ignore physical threats
B) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
C) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
D) Focus only on financial evidence
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Neighborhood survey
B) Financial audit of victim
C) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
D) Weather monitoring
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
B) Track public opinion
C) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
D) Determine neighborhood ratings
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
B) Location aesthetics
C) Witness social media activity
D) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Restricting evidence to video only
B) Focusing on financial disputes
C) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
D) Ignoring minor offenses
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
B) Evaluating social media posts
C) Tracking employment records
D) Assessing neighborhood ratings
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Ignoring anonymous reports
B) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
C) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
D) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Monitoring neighbors
B) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
C) Investigating unrelated family disputes
D) Evaluating victim’s social media history
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Focusing on witness’s financial status
B) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
C) Monitoring public opinion
D) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
B) Evaluating neighborhood social status
C) Monitoring online activity
D) Tracking school enrollment
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
B) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
C) Tracking social media popularity
D) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Death of the entire body
B) Death of individual organs
C) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
D) Temporary loss of consciousness
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
B) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
C) Death of the brain only
D) Complete decomposition of the body
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death of the organism as a whole
B) Legal declaration of death
C) Death caused by trauma
D) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Cellular death
B) Post-mortem changes
C) Clinical death
D) Brain death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Senility
B) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
C) Gradual cancer progression
D) Chronic kidney failure
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death from natural aging
B) Death occurring in hospitals only
C) Death due to natural causes
D) Death resulting from disease or injury
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) By suicide
B) As a consequence of disease or aging
C) Due to homicide or accident
D) By sudden trauma
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
B) Death due to natural illness
C) Death that occurs in hospitals
D) Death by deliberate act
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Natural disease
B) Cellular autolysis
C) External injuries indicating intentional harm
D) Absence of trauma
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Aging
B) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
C) Cancer
D) Chronic infection
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
B) Accidental
C) Natural
D) Pathological only
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Death due to immediate cause
B) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
C) Death due to secondary complications
D) Clinical death
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) Complications following the primary cause
B) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
C) Legal declaration of death
D) None of the above
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
B) Legal documentation
C) Heart-lung resuscitation
D) Temporary absence of heartbeat
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
B) Bacterial infection
C) Heart failure
D) Poison ingestion
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Blood pooling in dependent parts
B) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
C) Decomposition of soft tissues
D) Cooling of the body after death
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Decomposition of internal organs
B) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
C) Stiffening of muscles
D) Discoloration of the skin
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
C) Decomposition
D) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Livor mortis
B) Algor mortis
C) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
D) Rigor mortis
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) Mummification
B) LAdvanced decomposition
C) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
D) Skeletonization
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Hypothermia
B) Strenuous activity before death
C) Cold environment
D) Starvation
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Sepsis
B) Cold temperature
C) Physical exertion before death
D) Hyperthermia
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Livor mortis
B) Algor mortis
C) Putrefaction
D) Rigor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It is reversible
B) It occurs gradually
C) It affects the entire body uniformly
D) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Muscle stiffening
B) Skin cooling
C) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
D) Blood pooling
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) Only in cold environments
B) In dry and arid conditions
C) Immediately after death
D) In humid and warm climates
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Discoloration of skin
C) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
D) Blood settling in dependent parts
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Stiffening of muscles
B) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
C) Discoloration of the skin
D) Cooling of the body
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
B) Only environmental temperature
C) Only cause of death
D) None of the above
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Circumstantial evidence only
B) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
C) Only cadaveric spasm
D) Cause of death only
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Wound caused by chemical burns
B) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
C) Wound caused by heat
D) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Result of gunshot
B) Caused by blunt trauma
C) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
D) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Always fatal
B) Length greater than depth
C) Depth greater than length
D) Produced by blunt objects
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Chemical agents
B) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
C) Blunt trauma
D) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
B) Deep stab wound
C) Tear in skin with smooth edges
D) Wound with irregular margins
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Deep penetrating wound
B) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
C) Tear in muscle
D) Bruise under intact skin
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Palms or forearms
B) Legs
C) Abdomen
D) Back
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Only produced by blunt objects
B) Always fatal
C) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
D) Wide and irregular edges
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Only in muscles
B) Sharp edges
C) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
D) Superficial only
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
B) Only superficial scraping
C) Complete removal of tissue
D) Only bruises
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Cannot be analyzed
B) Have irregular margins and burn marks
C) Are smooth and clean
D) Show no tissue damage
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Perpetrator acted accidentally
B) Victim was unaware
C) Victim attempted to protect self
D) Wound is post-mortem
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Only presence of blood
B) Only shape of the wound
C) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
D) Size of wound
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Electrical injury
B) Chemical burns
C) Sharp instrument
D) Blunt force with tearing
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Infection
B) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
C) Extensive tissue bridging
D) Irregular margins
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) No bleeding occurs
B) Only cartilage is involved
C) Skin is intact
D) Bone pierces the skin
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Shape only
B) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
C) Cause only
D) Age of victim
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
B) Usually sharp, clean edges
C) Limited to hands
D) Only superficial injuries
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Both are identical
B) Incised wounds always fatal
C) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
D) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) Only discoloration
B) No bleeding
C) Only post-mortem staining
D) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
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