CDI-2 SCIMED - Quiz
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The type of weapon used
B) The location of the crime scene
C) The presence of mitigating circumstances
D) The offender's intent to kill
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
B) Recording witness names
C) Conducting polygraph tests
D) Collection of fingerprints only
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Relationship between victim and suspect
B) Victim’s previous criminal history
C) Time of day of the crime
D) Type of weapon used
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Age of the victim
B) Age of the offender
C) Location of the crime
D) Method of killing
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Witness statements about pregnancy
B) Assessment of social status of victim
C) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
D) Determining motive for concealment
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
B) Victim's income
C) Time of day the injury occurred
D) Family background of the victim
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Checking family history
B) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
C) Assessing economic status of suspect
D) Social media profiling
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) Motive and opportunity
B) None of the above
C) Physical evidence collection
D) Both A and B
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
B) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
C) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
D) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Focus only on the organizers
B) Conduct online investigations exclusively
C) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
D) Dismiss minor injuries
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Location aesthetics
B) Public opinion
C) Group dynamics and initiation processes
D) Economic status of members
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Conducting environmental crime inspections
B) Investigating traffic violations
C) Investigating burglary
D) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Financial records of the accused
B) Previous employment history of the victim
C) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
D) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Offender's prior criminal record
B) Familial relationships and tensions
C) Financial disputes within family
D) Victim’s clothing choice
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
B) Checking prior vacations of victim
C) DNA and forensic evidence collection
D) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) Determining motive
B) Reconstructing crime sequence
C) Identifying potential witnesses
D) All of the above
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Identification of caretaker or mothe
B) Profiling neighbors
C) Searching public records for health
D) Investigating local schools
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Both A and B
B) Simple or grave
C) Neither A nor B
D) Temporary or permanent
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Making consent of victim irrelevant
B) Reducing police involvement
C) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
D) Allowing hazing in private clubs
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Determining victim’s wealth
B) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
C) Scheduling court dates
D) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) Biological samples
B) Weapon traces
C) All of the above
D) Clothing fibers
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
B) Social media monitoring
C) Assumptions about intent
D) Dismissal of medical records
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Evaluating weather at time of death
B) Recording victim’s financial status
C) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
D) Linking physical evidence to suspect
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Checking only criminal history
B) Avoiding workplace inspections
C) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
D) Ignoring victim testimony
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Assessing traffic conditions
B) Social media monitoring
C) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
D) Inspecting clothing of victim
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Confession or admission of suspect
B) Financial transactions
C) Daily routines of victim
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
B) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
C) Ignoring complaints filed online
D) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Publicizing case details immediately
B) Skipping minor evidence
C) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
D) Relying only on witness recollection
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Weather at the time of incident
B) Neighborhood demographics
C) Victim’s social media activity
D) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Maternal history and forensic evidence
B) Economic background of the victim
C) School attendance records
D) Employment status of the parents
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
B) Verifying location aesthetics
C) Checking social media posts only
D) Ignoring minor injuries
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Avoid further investigation
B) Dismiss victim credibility
C) Determine suspect wealth
D) Corroborate facts and detect deception
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Recording victim’s hobbies
B) Evaluating neighborhood trends
C) Tracking public transport usage
D) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Victim’s financial records only
B) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
C) Weather conditions exclusively
D) Neighbors’ opinions only
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Social gatherings of victim
B) Housing aesthetics
C) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
D) Political affiliations
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Personal relationships of witness
B) Location of residence
C) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
D) Financial status of complainant
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Assess neighborhood ratings
B) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
C) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
D) Track economic background
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Public transportation habits
B) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
C) Vacation plans
D) Workplace records
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) School enrollment history
B) Neighborhood watch logs
C) Social media presence
D) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Focus only on financial evidence
B) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
C) Ignore physical threats
D) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Financial audit of victim
B) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
C) Neighborhood survey
D) Weather monitoring
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Track public opinion
B) Determine neighborhood ratings
C) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
D) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
B) Location aesthetics
C) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
D) Witness social media activity
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Focusing on financial disputes
B) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
C) Ignoring minor offenses
D) Restricting evidence to video only
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Evaluating social media posts
B) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
C) Assessing neighborhood ratings
D) Tracking employment records
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
B) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
C) Ignoring anonymous reports
D) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Evaluating victim’s social media history
B) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
C) Investigating unrelated family disputes
D) Monitoring neighbors
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Focusing on witness’s financial status
B) Monitoring public opinion
C) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
D) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Evaluating neighborhood social status
B) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
C) Monitoring online activity
D) Tracking school enrollment
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
B) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
C) Tracking social media popularity
D) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Temporary loss of consciousness
B) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
C) Death of individual organs
D) Death of the entire body
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
B) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
C) Death of the brain only
D) Complete decomposition of the body
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death caused by trauma
B) Legal declaration of death
C) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
D) Death of the organism as a whole
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Cellular death
B) Post-mortem changes
C) Brain death
D) Clinical death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
B) Gradual cancer progression
C) Senility
D) Chronic kidney failure
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death occurring in hospitals only
B) Death resulting from disease or injury
C) Death due to natural causes
D) Death from natural aging
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) As a consequence of disease or aging
B) By sudden trauma
C) By suicide
D) Due to homicide or accident
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death due to natural illness
B) Death that occurs in hospitals
C) Death by deliberate act
D) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Absence of trauma
B) Cellular autolysis
C) Natural disease
D) External injuries indicating intentional harm
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
B) Aging
C) Cancer
D) Chronic infection
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
B) Natural
C) Accidental
D) Pathological only
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Death due to secondary complications
B) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
C) Clinical death
D) Death due to immediate cause
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) None of the above
B) Legal declaration of death
C) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
D) Complications following the primary cause
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Legal documentation
B) Heart-lung resuscitation
C) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
D) Temporary absence of heartbeat
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Heart failure
B) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
C) Bacterial infection
D) Poison ingestion
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Cooling of the body after death
B) Blood pooling in dependent parts
C) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
D) Decomposition of soft tissues
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
B) Stiffening of muscles
C) Decomposition of internal organs
D) Discoloration of the skin
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
B) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
C) Cooling of the body
D) Decomposition
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Livor mortis
B) Rigor mortis
C) Algor mortis
D) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) LAdvanced decomposition
B) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
C) Mummification
D) Skeletonization
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Cold environment
B) Starvation
C) Strenuous activity before death
D) Hypothermia
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Cold temperature
B) Hyperthermia
C) Physical exertion before death
D) Sepsis
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Putrefaction
B) Livor mortis
C) Algor mortis
D) Rigor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It is reversible
B) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
C) It occurs gradually
D) It affects the entire body uniformly
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Muscle stiffening
B) Blood pooling
C) Skin cooling
D) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) Immediately after death
B) Only in cold environments
C) In dry and arid conditions
D) In humid and warm climates
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Blood settling in dependent parts
B) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
C) Cooling of the body
D) Discoloration of skin
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Stiffening of muscles
B) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
C) Cooling of the body
D) Discoloration of the skin
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) Only environmental temperature
B) Only cause of death
C) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
D) None of the above
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Only cadaveric spasm
B) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
C) Cause of death only
D) Circumstantial evidence only
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Wound caused by heat
B) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
C) Wound caused by chemical burns
D) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Result of gunshot
B) Caused by blunt trauma
C) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
D) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Always fatal
B) Produced by blunt objects
C) Length greater than depth
D) Depth greater than length
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
B) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
C) Chemical agents
D) Blunt trauma
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Wound with irregular margins
B) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
C) Deep stab wound
D) Tear in skin with smooth edges
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Tear in muscle
B) Deep penetrating wound
C) Bruise under intact skin
D) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Abdomen
B) Back
C) Legs
D) Palms or forearms
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Always fatal
B) Wide and irregular edges
C) Only produced by blunt objects
D) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
B) Sharp edges
C) Only in muscles
D) Superficial only
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Only superficial scraping
B) Complete removal of tissue
C) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
D) Only bruises
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Are smooth and clean
B) Show no tissue damage
C) Have irregular margins and burn marks
D) Cannot be analyzed
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Victim attempted to protect self
B) Perpetrator acted accidentally
C) Wound is post-mortem
D) Victim was unaware
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Only shape of the wound
B) Only presence of blood
C) Size of wound
D) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Blunt force with tearing
B) Electrical injury
C) Sharp instrument
D) Chemical burns
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Infection
B) Extensive tissue bridging
C) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
D) Irregular margins
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Skin is intact
B) No bleeding occurs
C) Bone pierces the skin
D) Only cartilage is involved
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
B) Shape only
C) Cause only
D) Age of victim
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Limited to hands
B) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
C) Usually sharp, clean edges
D) Only superficial injuries
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
B) Both are identical
C) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
D) Incised wounds always fatal
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) No bleeding
B) Only post-mortem staining
C) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
D) Only discoloration
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