CDI-2 SCIMED
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The presence of mitigating circumstances
B) The offender's intent to kill
C) The type of weapon used
D) The location of the crime scene
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Conducting polygraph tests
B) Collection of fingerprints only
C) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
D) Recording witness names
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Victim’s previous criminal history
B) Relationship between victim and suspect
C) Time of day of the crime
D) Type of weapon used
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Age of the offender
B) Method of killing
C) Age of the victim
D) Location of the crime
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Witness statements about pregnancy
B) Assessment of social status of victim
C) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
D) Determining motive for concealment
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Time of day the injury occurred
B) Victim's income
C) Family background of the victim
D) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
B) Checking family history
C) Social media profiling
D) Assessing economic status of suspect
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) Both A and B
B) Physical evidence collection
C) None of the above
D) Motive and opportunity
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
B) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
C) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
D) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Conduct online investigations exclusively
B) Focus only on the organizers
C) Dismiss minor injuries
D) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Location aesthetics
B) Public opinion
C) Economic status of members
D) Group dynamics and initiation processes
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Conducting environmental crime inspections
B) Investigating burglary
C) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
D) Investigating traffic violations
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Previous employment history of the victim
B) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
C) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
D) Financial records of the accused
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Familial relationships and tensions
B) Victim’s clothing choice
C) Offender's prior criminal record
D) Financial disputes within family
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
B) DNA and forensic evidence collection
C) Checking prior vacations of victim
D) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) Determining motive
B) Identifying potential witnesses
C) All of the above
D) Reconstructing crime sequence
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Searching public records for health
B) Investigating local schools
C) Profiling neighbors
D) Identification of caretaker or mothe
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Simple or grave
B) Temporary or permanent
C) Neither A nor B
D) Both A and B
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Making consent of victim irrelevant
B) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
C) Reducing police involvement
D) Allowing hazing in private clubs
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
B) Scheduling court dates
C) Determining victim’s wealth
D) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) Clothing fibers
B) All of the above
C) Biological samples
D) Weapon traces
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Assumptions about intent
B) Dismissal of medical records
C) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
D) Social media monitoring
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Recording victim’s financial status
B) Evaluating weather at time of death
C) Linking physical evidence to suspect
D) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Ignoring victim testimony
B) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
C) Avoiding workplace inspections
D) Checking only criminal history
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Social media monitoring
B) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
C) Assessing traffic conditions
D) Inspecting clothing of victim
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Confession or admission of suspect
B) Daily routines of victim
C) Financial transactions
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
B) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
C) Ignoring complaints filed online
D) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Publicizing case details immediately
B) Relying only on witness recollection
C) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
D) Skipping minor evidence
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Weather at the time of incident
B) Victim’s social media activity
C) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
D) Neighborhood demographics
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) School attendance records
B) Employment status of the parents
C) Economic background of the victim
D) Maternal history and forensic evidence
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Checking social media posts only
B) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
C) Ignoring minor injuries
D) Verifying location aesthetics
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Avoid further investigation
B) Dismiss victim credibility
C) Corroborate facts and detect deception
D) Determine suspect wealth
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
B) Recording victim’s hobbies
C) Evaluating neighborhood trends
D) Tracking public transport usage
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Neighbors’ opinions only
B) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
C) Weather conditions exclusively
D) Victim’s financial records only
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
B) Housing aesthetics
C) Social gatherings of victim
D) Political affiliations
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Location of residence
B) Financial status of complainant
C) Personal relationships of witness
D) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Assess neighborhood ratings
B) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
C) Track economic background
D) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Workplace records
B) Public transportation habits
C) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
D) Vacation plans
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
B) Social media presence
C) School enrollment history
D) Neighborhood watch logs
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Focus only on financial evidence
B) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
C) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
D) Ignore physical threats
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
B) Neighborhood survey
C) Financial audit of victim
D) Weather monitoring
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
B) Track public opinion
C) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
D) Determine neighborhood ratings
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
B) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
C) Location aesthetics
D) Witness social media activity
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Focusing on financial disputes
B) Ignoring minor offenses
C) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
D) Restricting evidence to video only
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Assessing neighborhood ratings
B) Evaluating social media posts
C) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
D) Tracking employment records
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
B) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
C) Ignoring anonymous reports
D) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Evaluating victim’s social media history
B) Investigating unrelated family disputes
C) Monitoring neighbors
D) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
B) Focusing on witness’s financial status
C) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
D) Monitoring public opinion
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Monitoring online activity
B) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
C) Tracking school enrollment
D) Evaluating neighborhood social status
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
B) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
C) Tracking social media popularity
D) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Temporary loss of consciousness
B) Death of individual organs
C) Death of the entire body
D) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Death of the brain only
B) Complete decomposition of the body
C) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
D) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death caused by trauma
B) Legal declaration of death
C) Death of the organism as a whole
D) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Clinical death
B) Brain death
C) Cellular death
D) Post-mortem changes
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Senility
B) Chronic kidney failure
C) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
D) Gradual cancer progression
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death due to natural causes
B) Death resulting from disease or injury
C) Death occurring in hospitals only
D) Death from natural aging
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) By sudden trauma
B) By suicide
C) Due to homicide or accident
D) As a consequence of disease or aging
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death by deliberate act
B) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
C) Death due to natural illness
D) Death that occurs in hospitals
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Absence of trauma
B) Cellular autolysis
C) External injuries indicating intentional harm
D) Natural disease
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Chronic infection
B) Aging
C) Cancer
D) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Natural
B) Pathological only
C) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
D) Accidental
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Death due to secondary complications
B) Clinical death
C) Death due to immediate cause
D) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
B) None of the above
C) Complications following the primary cause
D) Legal declaration of death
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Temporary absence of heartbeat
B) Heart-lung resuscitation
C) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
D) Legal documentation
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Heart failure
B) Bacterial infection
C) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
D) Poison ingestion
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Cooling of the body after death
B) Decomposition of soft tissues
C) Blood pooling in dependent parts
D) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Decomposition of internal organs
B) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
C) Discoloration of the skin
D) Stiffening of muscles
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
B) Decomposition
C) Cooling of the body
D) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Algor mortis
B) Livor mortis
C) Rigor mortis
D) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) LAdvanced decomposition
B) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
C) Skeletonization
D) Mummification
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Hypothermia
B) Strenuous activity before death
C) Starvation
D) Cold environment
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Physical exertion before death
B) Cold temperature
C) Hyperthermia
D) Sepsis
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Putrefaction
B) Livor mortis
C) Rigor mortis
D) Algor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It is reversible
B) It occurs gradually
C) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
D) It affects the entire body uniformly
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Muscle stiffening
B) Skin cooling
C) Blood pooling
D) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) In dry and arid conditions
B) Only in cold environments
C) In humid and warm climates
D) Immediately after death
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Discoloration of skin
B) Blood settling in dependent parts
C) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
D) Cooling of the body
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Stiffening of muscles
B) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
C) Discoloration of the skin
D) Cooling of the body
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) Only environmental temperature
B) None of the above
C) Only cause of death
D) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Cause of death only
B) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
C) Circumstantial evidence only
D) Only cadaveric spasm
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
B) Wound caused by chemical burns
C) Wound caused by heat
D) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
B) Result of gunshot
C) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
D) Caused by blunt trauma
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Depth greater than length
B) Always fatal
C) Length greater than depth
D) Produced by blunt objects
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
B) Chemical agents
C) Blunt trauma
D) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Wound with irregular margins
B) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
C) Tear in skin with smooth edges
D) Deep stab wound
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Deep penetrating wound
B) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
C) Bruise under intact skin
D) Tear in muscle
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Back
B) Palms or forearms
C) Abdomen
D) Legs
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
B) Always fatal
C) Only produced by blunt objects
D) Wide and irregular edges
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
B) Sharp edges
C) Only in muscles
D) Superficial only
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Only superficial scraping
B) Complete removal of tissue
C) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
D) Only bruises
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Are smooth and clean
B) Have irregular margins and burn marks
C) Cannot be analyzed
D) Show no tissue damage
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Wound is post-mortem
B) Perpetrator acted accidentally
C) Victim attempted to protect self
D) Victim was unaware
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Only shape of the wound
B) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
C) Only presence of blood
D) Size of wound
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Electrical injury
B) Chemical burns
C) Sharp instrument
D) Blunt force with tearing
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Irregular margins
B) Extensive tissue bridging
C) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
D) Infection
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Skin is intact
B) No bleeding occurs
C) Bone pierces the skin
D) Only cartilage is involved
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Cause only
B) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
C) Shape only
D) Age of victim
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Usually sharp, clean edges
B) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
C) Limited to hands
D) Only superficial injuries
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Incised wounds always fatal
B) Both are identical
C) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
D) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) Only post-mortem staining
B) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
C) No bleeding
D) Only discoloration
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