CDI-2 SCIMED
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The presence of mitigating circumstances
B) The location of the crime scene
C) The type of weapon used
D) The offender's intent to kill
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
B) Recording witness names
C) Collection of fingerprints only
D) Conducting polygraph tests
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Type of weapon used
B) Relationship between victim and suspect
C) Time of day of the crime
D) Victim’s previous criminal history
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Method of killing
B) Age of the victim
C) Location of the crime
D) Age of the offender
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
B) Witness statements about pregnancy
C) Determining motive for concealment
D) Assessment of social status of victim
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Family background of the victim
B) Time of day the injury occurred
C) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
D) Victim's income
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Checking family history
B) Assessing economic status of suspect
C) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
D) Social media profiling
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) Both A and B
B) Physical evidence collection
C) Motive and opportunity
D) None of the above
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
B) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
C) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
D) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Focus only on the organizers
B) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
C) Dismiss minor injuries
D) Conduct online investigations exclusively
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Group dynamics and initiation processes
B) Location aesthetics
C) Economic status of members
D) Public opinion
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Investigating burglary
B) Conducting environmental crime inspections
C) Investigating traffic violations
D) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Previous employment history of the victim
B) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
C) Financial records of the accused
D) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Offender's prior criminal record
B) Victim’s clothing choice
C) Financial disputes within family
D) Familial relationships and tensions
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Checking prior vacations of victim
B) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
C) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
D) DNA and forensic evidence collection
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) Identifying potential witnesses
B) All of the above
C) Determining motive
D) Reconstructing crime sequence
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Searching public records for health
B) Profiling neighbors
C) Identification of caretaker or mothe
D) Investigating local schools
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Simple or grave
B) Temporary or permanent
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Making consent of victim irrelevant
B) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
C) Reducing police involvement
D) Allowing hazing in private clubs
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
B) Determining victim’s wealth
C) Scheduling court dates
D) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) Clothing fibers
B) All of the above
C) Weapon traces
D) Biological samples
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Assumptions about intent
B) Social media monitoring
C) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
D) Dismissal of medical records
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Recording victim’s financial status
B) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
C) Evaluating weather at time of death
D) Linking physical evidence to suspect
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Checking only criminal history
B) Avoiding workplace inspections
C) Ignoring victim testimony
D) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
B) Social media monitoring
C) Inspecting clothing of victim
D) Assessing traffic conditions
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Confession or admission of suspect
B) Financial transactions
C) Daily routines of victim
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
B) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
C) Ignoring complaints filed online
D) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
B) Skipping minor evidence
C) Publicizing case details immediately
D) Relying only on witness recollection
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Victim’s social media activity
B) Weather at the time of incident
C) Neighborhood demographics
D) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Maternal history and forensic evidence
B) Employment status of the parents
C) Economic background of the victim
D) School attendance records
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Checking social media posts only
B) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
C) Verifying location aesthetics
D) Ignoring minor injuries
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Determine suspect wealth
B) Dismiss victim credibility
C) Corroborate facts and detect deception
D) Avoid further investigation
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Evaluating neighborhood trends
B) Recording victim’s hobbies
C) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
D) Tracking public transport usage
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Weather conditions exclusively
B) Neighbors’ opinions only
C) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
D) Victim’s financial records only
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Political affiliations
B) Housing aesthetics
C) Social gatherings of victim
D) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
B) Personal relationships of witness
C) Financial status of complainant
D) Location of residence
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Track economic background
B) Assess neighborhood ratings
C) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
D) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Workplace records
B) Vacation plans
C) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
D) Public transportation habits
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) Social media presence
B) Neighborhood watch logs
C) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
D) School enrollment history
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
B) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
C) Ignore physical threats
D) Focus only on financial evidence
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
B) Neighborhood survey
C) Weather monitoring
D) Financial audit of victim
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
B) Track public opinion
C) Determine neighborhood ratings
D) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Location aesthetics
B) Witness social media activity
C) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
D) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
B) Ignoring minor offenses
C) Focusing on financial disputes
D) Restricting evidence to video only
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Evaluating social media posts
B) Tracking employment records
C) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
D) Assessing neighborhood ratings
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
B) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
C) Ignoring anonymous reports
D) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Investigating unrelated family disputes
B) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
C) Monitoring neighbors
D) Evaluating victim’s social media history
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Monitoring public opinion
B) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
C) Focusing on witness’s financial status
D) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Evaluating neighborhood social status
B) Tracking school enrollment
C) Monitoring online activity
D) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
B) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
C) Tracking social media popularity
D) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
B) Death of the entire body
C) Death of individual organs
D) Temporary loss of consciousness
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Complete decomposition of the body
B) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
C) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
D) Death of the brain only
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
B) Death of the organism as a whole
C) Death caused by trauma
D) Legal declaration of death
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Brain death
B) Post-mortem changes
C) Cellular death
D) Clinical death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Chronic kidney failure
B) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
C) Senility
D) Gradual cancer progression
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death occurring in hospitals only
B) Death due to natural causes
C) Death from natural aging
D) Death resulting from disease or injury
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) As a consequence of disease or aging
B) By suicide
C) Due to homicide or accident
D) By sudden trauma
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death due to natural illness
B) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
C) Death that occurs in hospitals
D) Death by deliberate act
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Natural disease
B) Cellular autolysis
C) External injuries indicating intentional harm
D) Absence of trauma
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Cancer
B) Chronic infection
C) Aging
D) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Pathological only
B) Natural
C) Accidental
D) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Death due to secondary complications
B) Death due to immediate cause
C) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
D) Clinical death
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
B) None of the above
C) Complications following the primary cause
D) Legal declaration of death
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Temporary absence of heartbeat
B) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
C) Legal documentation
D) Heart-lung resuscitation
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Bacterial infection
B) Heart failure
C) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
D) Poison ingestion
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
B) Blood pooling in dependent parts
C) Decomposition of soft tissues
D) Cooling of the body after death
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Stiffening of muscles
B) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
C) Discoloration of the skin
D) Decomposition of internal organs
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
B) Cooling of the body
C) Decomposition
D) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Algor mortis
B) Rigor mortis
C) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
D) Livor mortis
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) Mummification
B) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
C) Skeletonization
D) LAdvanced decomposition
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Starvation
B) Strenuous activity before death
C) Hypothermia
D) Cold environment
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Physical exertion before death
B) Hyperthermia
C) Cold temperature
D) Sepsis
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Rigor mortis
B) Algor mortis
C) Livor mortis
D) Putrefaction
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It occurs gradually
B) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
C) It affects the entire body uniformly
D) It is reversible
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Skin cooling
B) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
C) Blood pooling
D) Muscle stiffening
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) Only in cold environments
B) Immediately after death
C) In humid and warm climates
D) In dry and arid conditions
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
B) Cooling of the body
C) Discoloration of skin
D) Blood settling in dependent parts
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
B) Stiffening of muscles
C) Discoloration of the skin
D) Cooling of the body
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) Only cause of death
B) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
C) None of the above
D) Only environmental temperature
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Circumstantial evidence only
B) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
C) Cause of death only
D) Only cadaveric spasm
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
B) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
C) Wound caused by chemical burns
D) Wound caused by heat
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
B) Result of gunshot
C) Caused by blunt trauma
D) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Length greater than depth
B) Depth greater than length
C) Produced by blunt objects
D) Always fatal
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
B) Chemical agents
C) Blunt trauma
D) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Tear in skin with smooth edges
B) Wound with irregular margins
C) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
D) Deep stab wound
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Deep penetrating wound
B) Bruise under intact skin
C) Tear in muscle
D) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Legs
B) Back
C) Palms or forearms
D) Abdomen
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Wide and irregular edges
B) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
C) Always fatal
D) Only produced by blunt objects
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Sharp edges
B) Superficial only
C) Only in muscles
D) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Complete removal of tissue
B) Only bruises
C) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
D) Only superficial scraping
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Are smooth and clean
B) Have irregular margins and burn marks
C) Show no tissue damage
D) Cannot be analyzed
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Victim attempted to protect self
B) Perpetrator acted accidentally
C) Victim was unaware
D) Wound is post-mortem
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Only presence of blood
B) Size of wound
C) Only shape of the wound
D) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Sharp instrument
B) Chemical burns
C) Blunt force with tearing
D) Electrical injury
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Irregular margins
B) Extensive tissue bridging
C) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
D) Infection
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Bone pierces the skin
B) Skin is intact
C) No bleeding occurs
D) Only cartilage is involved
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Age of victim
B) Cause only
C) Shape only
D) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Limited to hands
B) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
C) Only superficial injuries
D) Usually sharp, clean edges
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Both are identical
B) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
C) Incised wounds always fatal
D) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
B) Only discoloration
C) No bleeding
D) Only post-mortem staining
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