CDI-2 SCIMED
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The presence of mitigating circumstances
B) The type of weapon used
C) The location of the crime scene
D) The offender's intent to kill
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Collection of fingerprints only
B) Recording witness names
C) Conducting polygraph tests
D) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Victim’s previous criminal history
B) Time of day of the crime
C) Relationship between victim and suspect
D) Type of weapon used
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Location of the crime
B) Age of the victim
C) Method of killing
D) Age of the offender
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Determining motive for concealment
B) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
C) Witness statements about pregnancy
D) Assessment of social status of victim
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Victim's income
B) Family background of the victim
C) Time of day the injury occurred
D) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Social media profiling
B) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
C) Checking family history
D) Assessing economic status of suspect
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) None of the above
B) Physical evidence collection
C) Motive and opportunity
D) Both A and B
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
B) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
C) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
D) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Focus only on the organizers
B) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
C) Conduct online investigations exclusively
D) Dismiss minor injuries
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Economic status of members
B) Location aesthetics
C) Public opinion
D) Group dynamics and initiation processes
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Conducting environmental crime inspections
B) Investigating burglary
C) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
D) Investigating traffic violations
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Previous employment history of the victim
B) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
C) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
D) Financial records of the accused
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Victim’s clothing choice
B) Familial relationships and tensions
C) Financial disputes within family
D) Offender's prior criminal record
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
B) Checking prior vacations of victim
C) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
D) DNA and forensic evidence collection
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) Identifying potential witnesses
B) Determining motive
C) All of the above
D) Reconstructing crime sequence
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Searching public records for health
B) Profiling neighbors
C) Investigating local schools
D) Identification of caretaker or mothe
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Temporary or permanent
B) Neither A nor B
C) Both A and B
D) Simple or grave
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
B) Reducing police involvement
C) Allowing hazing in private clubs
D) Making consent of victim irrelevant
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
B) Determining victim’s wealth
C) Scheduling court dates
D) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) All of the above
B) Weapon traces
C) Clothing fibers
D) Biological samples
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
B) Assumptions about intent
C) Dismissal of medical records
D) Social media monitoring
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Evaluating weather at time of death
B) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
C) Recording victim’s financial status
D) Linking physical evidence to suspect
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Checking only criminal history
B) Avoiding workplace inspections
C) Ignoring victim testimony
D) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Assessing traffic conditions
B) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
C) Inspecting clothing of victim
D) Social media monitoring
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Financial transactions
B) Confession or admission of suspect
C) Daily routines of victim
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
B) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
C) Ignoring complaints filed online
D) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Publicizing case details immediately
B) Skipping minor evidence
C) Relying only on witness recollection
D) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Weather at the time of incident
B) Neighborhood demographics
C) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
D) Victim’s social media activity
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Economic background of the victim
B) Employment status of the parents
C) Maternal history and forensic evidence
D) School attendance records
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Checking social media posts only
B) Ignoring minor injuries
C) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
D) Verifying location aesthetics
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Corroborate facts and detect deception
B) Avoid further investigation
C) Dismiss victim credibility
D) Determine suspect wealth
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Tracking public transport usage
B) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
C) Evaluating neighborhood trends
D) Recording victim’s hobbies
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Neighbors’ opinions only
B) Weather conditions exclusively
C) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
D) Victim’s financial records only
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Social gatherings of victim
B) Political affiliations
C) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
D) Housing aesthetics
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Personal relationships of witness
B) Location of residence
C) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
D) Financial status of complainant
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
B) Assess neighborhood ratings
C) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
D) Track economic background
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Workplace records
B) Vacation plans
C) Public transportation habits
D) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
B) Neighborhood watch logs
C) Social media presence
D) School enrollment history
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Ignore physical threats
B) Focus only on financial evidence
C) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
D) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
B) Financial audit of victim
C) Weather monitoring
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Determine neighborhood ratings
B) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
C) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
D) Track public opinion
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
B) Witness social media activity
C) Location aesthetics
D) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Restricting evidence to video only
B) Focusing on financial disputes
C) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
D) Ignoring minor offenses
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Tracking employment records
B) Evaluating social media posts
C) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
D) Assessing neighborhood ratings
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Ignoring anonymous reports
B) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
C) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
D) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Monitoring neighbors
B) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
C) Investigating unrelated family disputes
D) Evaluating victim’s social media history
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
B) Monitoring public opinion
C) Focusing on witness’s financial status
D) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Tracking school enrollment
B) Monitoring online activity
C) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
D) Evaluating neighborhood social status
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Tracking social media popularity
B) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
C) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
D) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
B) Death of the entire body
C) Death of individual organs
D) Temporary loss of consciousness
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Complete decomposition of the body
B) Death of the brain only
C) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
D) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
B) Death caused by trauma
C) Legal declaration of death
D) Death of the organism as a whole
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Clinical death
B) Cellular death
C) Post-mortem changes
D) Brain death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Chronic kidney failure
B) Gradual cancer progression
C) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
D) Senility
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death due to natural causes
B) Death from natural aging
C) Death resulting from disease or injury
D) Death occurring in hospitals only
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) By sudden trauma
B) Due to homicide or accident
C) By suicide
D) As a consequence of disease or aging
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death due to natural illness
B) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
C) Death that occurs in hospitals
D) Death by deliberate act
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) Natural disease
B) Absence of trauma
C) External injuries indicating intentional harm
D) Cellular autolysis
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
B) Aging
C) Cancer
D) Chronic infection
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Natural
B) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
C) Accidental
D) Pathological only
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Death due to immediate cause
B) Death due to secondary complications
C) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
D) Clinical death
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) Complications following the primary cause
B) Legal declaration of death
C) None of the above
D) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Legal documentation
B) Temporary absence of heartbeat
C) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
D) Heart-lung resuscitation
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Heart failure
B) Bacterial infection
C) Poison ingestion
D) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
B) Cooling of the body after death
C) Blood pooling in dependent parts
D) Decomposition of soft tissues
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Discoloration of the skin
B) Decomposition of internal organs
C) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
D) Stiffening of muscles
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
B) Decomposition
C) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
D) Cooling of the body
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Algor mortis
B) Rigor mortis
C) Livor mortis
D) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) Skeletonization
B) LAdvanced decomposition
C) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
D) Mummification
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Starvation
B) Hypothermia
C) Strenuous activity before death
D) Cold environment
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Physical exertion before death
B) Hyperthermia
C) Cold temperature
D) Sepsis
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Rigor mortis
B) Putrefaction
C) Livor mortis
D) Algor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It occurs gradually
B) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
C) It is reversible
D) It affects the entire body uniformly
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Blood pooling
B) Skin cooling
C) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
D) Muscle stiffening
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) Immediately after death
B) In humid and warm climates
C) In dry and arid conditions
D) Only in cold environments
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
C) Blood settling in dependent parts
D) Discoloration of skin
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Cooling of the body
B) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
C) Stiffening of muscles
D) Discoloration of the skin
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) Only cause of death
B) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
C) None of the above
D) Only environmental temperature
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Circumstantial evidence only
B) Only cadaveric spasm
C) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
D) Cause of death only
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Wound caused by heat
B) Wound caused by chemical burns
C) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
D) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Result of gunshot
B) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
C) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
D) Caused by blunt trauma
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Depth greater than length
B) Always fatal
C) Produced by blunt objects
D) Length greater than depth
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
B) Chemical agents
C) Blunt trauma
D) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Tear in skin with smooth edges
B) Deep stab wound
C) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
D) Wound with irregular margins
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Bruise under intact skin
B) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
C) Tear in muscle
D) Deep penetrating wound
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Abdomen
B) Palms or forearms
C) Back
D) Legs
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Always fatal
B) Wide and irregular edges
C) Only produced by blunt objects
D) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Sharp edges
B) Superficial only
C) Only in muscles
D) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Complete removal of tissue
B) Only bruises
C) Only superficial scraping
D) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Have irregular margins and burn marks
B) Cannot be analyzed
C) Are smooth and clean
D) Show no tissue damage
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Victim attempted to protect self
B) Victim was unaware
C) Perpetrator acted accidentally
D) Wound is post-mortem
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Size of wound
B) Only shape of the wound
C) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
D) Only presence of blood
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Blunt force with tearing
B) Chemical burns
C) Electrical injury
D) Sharp instrument
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Extensive tissue bridging
B) Infection
C) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
D) Irregular margins
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) Skin is intact
B) No bleeding occurs
C) Bone pierces the skin
D) Only cartilage is involved
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Shape only
B) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
C) Cause only
D) Age of victim
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Limited to hands
B) Usually sharp, clean edges
C) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
D) Only superficial injuries
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
B) Incised wounds always fatal
C) Both are identical
D) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) No bleeding
B) Only post-mortem staining
C) Only discoloration
D) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
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