CDI-2 SCIMED
  • 1. In the investigation of murder, which of the following is a primary consideration for distinguishing it from homicide?
A) The presence of mitigating circumstances
B) The location of the crime scene
C) The offender's intent to kill
D) The type of weapon used
  • 2. During homicide investigation, what approach helps determine if the act was premeditated?
A) Analysis of motive, opportunity, and means
B) Recording witness names
C) Conducting polygraph tests
D) Collection of fingerprints only
  • 3. Parricide investigation requires a unique focus on:
A) Time of day of the crime
B) Type of weapon used
C) Relationship between victim and suspect
D) Victim’s previous criminal history
  • 4. Infanticide under the Revised Penal Code is differentiated from murder primarily by:
A) Age of the victim
B) Age of the offender
C) Method of killing
D) Location of the crime
  • 5. In cases of abortion, which investigative approach is most critical?
A) Assessment of social status of victim
B) Identification of the medical practitioner involved
C) Witness statements about pregnancy
D) Determining motive for concealment
  • 6. For physical injuries, investigators primarily analyze:
A) Nature, location, and extent of injuries
B) Family background of the victim
C) Victim's income
D) Time of day the injury occurred
  • 7. Rape investigations should prioritize:
A) Social media profiling
B) Securing forensic evidence and victim’s statement
C) Checking family history
D) Assessing economic status of suspect
  • 8. Which principle is central in analyzing the scene of a murder?
A) Motive and opportunity
B) Both A and B
C) None of the above
D) Physical evidence collection
  • 9. In homicide cases, interviewing witnesses requires:
A) Leading questions to confirm assumptions
B) Open-ended questions to elicit detailed accounts
C) Ignoring inconsistencies in statements
D) Immediate confrontation with the suspec
  • 10. Under R.A. 8049 as amended, investigators in hazing-related deaths must
A) Consider the consent of the victim irrelevant
B) Focus only on the organizers
C) Dismiss minor injuries
D) Conduct online investigations exclusively
  • 11. Anti-Hazing investigations analyze:
A) Public opinion
B) Location aesthetics
C) Group dynamics and initiation processes
D) Economic status of members
  • 12. The “Safe Spaces Act” primarily guides investigators in:
A) Conducting environmental crime inspections
B) Analyzing sexual harassment incidents in public spaces
C) Investigating burglary
D) Investigating traffic violations
  • 13. In investigating sexual harassment under R.A. 7877, evidence gathering should include:
A) Previous employment history of the victim
B) Financial records of the accused
C) Social media posts unrelated to the incident
D) Victim statements and corroborating witnesses
  • 14. When analyzing a case of parricide, which factor is least relevant?
A) Financial disputes within family
B) Victim’s clothing choice
C) Offender's prior criminal record
D) Familial relationships and tensions
  • 15. Which of the following is an essential investigative approach in rape cases?
A) DNA and forensic evidence collection
B) Reviewing bank statements of suspect
C) Investigating neighbors’ opinions
D) Checking prior vacations of victim
  • 16. In murder investigation, establishing timeline helps in
A) Reconstructing crime sequence
B) Identifying potential witnesses
C) All of the above
D) Determining motive
  • 17. During infanticide investigation, which of the following is a key applying approach?
A) Profiling neighbors
B) Investigating local schools
C) Identification of caretaker or mothe
D) Searching public records for health
  • 18. Physical injuries can be classified as:
A) Both A and B
B) Neither A nor B
C) Simple or grave
D) Temporary or permanent
  • 19. R.A. 11053 amendment strengthens anti-hazing investigations by:
A) Reducing police involvement
B) Making consent of victim irrelevant
C) Limiting prosecution to minor injuries
D) Allowing hazing in private clubs
  • 20. Analysis of modus operandi in homicide is important for:
A) Scheduling court dates
B) Linking multiple cases to a single offender
C) Determining victim’s wealth
D) Evaluating crime location aesthetics
  • 21. When analyzing rape cases, forensic evidence should include:
A) Clothing fibers
B) All of the above
C) Weapon traces
D) Biological samples
  • 22. In abortion investigations, suspect interrogation should follow:
A) Social media monitoring
B) Legal procedures respecting victim rights
C) Dismissal of medical records
D) Assumptions about intent
  • 23. In murder investigation, an analyzing approach is:
A) Recording victim’s financial status
B) Profiling neighbors’ opinions
C) Evaluating weather at time of death
D) Linking physical evidence to suspect
  • 24. Under R.A. 11313, investigators apply analytical skills by:
A) Checking only criminal history
B) Evaluating environment to prevent harassment
C) Avoiding workplace inspections
D) Ignoring victim testimony
  • 25. Which method is most effective in determining premeditation in homicide?
A) Psychological profiling and motive analysis
B) Social media monitoring
C) Inspecting clothing of victim
D) Assessing traffic conditions
  • 26. In parricide investigation, the most critical evidence is:
A) Daily routines of victim
B) Confession or admission of suspect
C) Financial transactions
D) Neighborhood survey
  • 27. Investigative approach for sexual harassment includes:
A) Ignoring complaints filed online
B) Interviewing only witnesses favorable to accused
C) Limiting evidence collection to physical harassment
D) Corroborating statements with digital evidence
  • 28. The investigative phase of evidence collection applies:
A) Skipping minor evidence
B) Publicizing case details immediately
C) Proper documentation and preservation techniques
D) Relying only on witness recollection
  • 29. During a physical injury investigation, determining intent involves:
A) Circumstances of attack and prior conflicts
B) Victim’s social media activity
C) Weather at the time of incident
D) Neighborhood demographics
  • 30. Infanticide case analysis relies heavily on:
A) Economic background of the victim
B) School attendance records
C) Maternal history and forensic evidence
D) Employment status of the parents
  • 31. Anti-Hazing Law (R.A. 8049) applying approach includes:
A) Ignoring minor injuries
B) Examining initiation procedures for life-threatening practices
C) Verifying location aesthetics
D) Checking social media posts only
  • 32. In rape investigation, analyzing inconsistencies in statements helps to:
A) Corroborate facts and detect deception
B) Determine suspect wealth
C) Dismiss victim credibility
D) Avoid further investigation
  • 33. In murder, applying analytical skills include:
A) Recording victim’s hobbies
B) Tracking public transport usage
C) Evaluating neighborhood trends
D) Reconstructing events and sequence of attack
  • 34. Investigating homicide requires linking:
A) Neighbors’ opinions only
B) Evidence, witness accounts, and suspect behavior
C) Weather conditions exclusively
D) Victim’s financial records only
  • 35. In abortion-related crimes, investigators must analyze:
A) Social gatherings of victim
B) Housing aesthetics
C) Political affiliations
D) Medical records, witness accounts, and suspect actions
  • 36. Sexual harassment investigation under R.A. 7877 focuses on:
A) Personal relationships of witness
B) Financial status of complainant
C) Location of residence
D) Pattern of harassment and corroboration
  • 37. Physical injury investigation applies forensic analysis to:
A) Establish cause, weapon used, and severity
B) Assess neighborhood ratings
C) Evaluate victim’s social media activity
D) Track economic background
  • 38. Parricide investigation may involve analyzing:
A) Domestic disputes, motive, and family tensions
B) Vacation plans
C) Workplace records
D) Public transportation habits
  • 39. Infanticide investigation requires analyzing:
A) Timing, caretaker involvement, and forensic findings
B) Social media presence
C) School enrollment history
D) Neighborhood watch logs
  • 40. Investigators applying R.A. 11313 principles should:
A) Ensure victim safety and gather evidence in safe environments
B) Focus only on financial evidence
C) Ignore physical threats
D) Limit evidence collection to digital communication
  • 41. In murder cases, crime scene reconstruction applies:
A) Physical evidence mapping and sequence of events
B) Financial audit of victim
C) Neighborhood survey
D) Weather monitoring
  • 42. Forensic analysis in rape cases helps:
A) Track public opinion
B) Determine neighborhood ratings
C) Link suspect to the crime through biological evidence
D) Evaluate victim’s wardrobe choices
  • 43. In homicide, analyzing motive requires:
A) Location aesthetics
B) Personal conflicts, prior threats, and opportunities
C) Witness social media activity
D) Neighbor’s socioeconomic status
  • 44. Application of Anti-Hazing Law involves:
A) Restricting evidence to video only
B) Investigating acts causing physical or psychological harm
C) Ignoring minor offenses
D) Focusing on financial disputes
  • 45. Physical injuries analysis may include:
A) Distinguishing accidental from intentional injuries
B) Tracking employment records
C) Evaluating social media posts
D) Assessing neighborhood ratings
  • 46. Investigators applying Safe Spaces Act focus on:
A) Creating safe reporting channels and evaluating patterns of harassment
B) Assessing victim’s wardrobe
C) Ignoring anonymous reports
D) Restricting investigation to verbal harassment only
  • 47. Analysis of abortion-related crime involves:
A) Cross-checking medical and witness evidence for criminal intent
B) Evaluating victim’s social media history
C) Investigating unrelated family disputes
D) Monitoring neighbors
  • 48. In rape investigations, applying analytical skills includes:
A) Focusing on witness’s financial status
B) Monitoring public opinion
C) Correlating victim statements, forensic evidence, and suspect behavior
D) Evaluating victim’s neighborhood
  • 49. Infanticide investigation applies:
A) Forensic pathology to determine cause and time of death
B) Tracking school enrollment
C) Monitoring online activity
D) Evaluating neighborhood social status
  • 50. Applying principles of R.A. 7877 involves:
A) Reviewing personal wardrobe choices
B) Tracking social media popularity
C) Limiting investigation to verbal complaints
D) Evaluating recurring harassment patterns and organizational response
  • 51. Which of the following best describes somatic death?
A) Permanent cessation of all brain activity
B) Death of individual organs
C) Temporary loss of consciousness
D) Death of the entire body
  • 52. Clinical death is characterized by:
A) Irreversible cessation of circulation and respiration
B) Complete decomposition of the body
C) Temporary absence of heartbeats and breathing that may be reversible
D) Death of the brain only
  • 53. The term cellular death refers to:
A) Death of the organism as a whole
B) Legal declaration of death
C) Death caused by trauma
D) Death of individual cells after cessation of oxygen supply
  • 54. Somatic death occurs after:
A) Post-mortem changes
B) Clinical death
C) Cellular death
D) Brain death
  • 55. Which is an example of sudden death?
A) Myocardial infarction leading to immediate collapse
B) Gradual cancer progression
C) Senility
D) Chronic kidney failure
  • 56. Pathological death is best defined as
A) Death from natural aging
B) Death occurring in hospitals only
C) Death due to natural causes
D) Death resulting from disease or injury
  • 57. A natural death occurs:
A) Due to homicide or accident
B) As a consequence of disease or aging
C) By sudden trauma
D) By suicide
  • 58. Accidental death refers to:
A) Death that occurs in hospitals
B) Death by deliberate act
C) Death due to natural illness
D) Death caused unintentionally by external factors
  • 59. Homicidal death can be identified by:
A) External injuries indicating intentional harm
B) Natural disease
C) Cellular autolysis
D) Absence of trauma
  • 60. Sudden natural death is commonly caused by:
A) Aging
B) Heart attack, cerebral hemorrhage, or pulmonary embolism
C) Cancer
D) Chronic infection
  • 61. Death due to poisoning is classified as:
A) Accidental
B) Pathological only
C) Natural
D) Homicidal or suicidal depending on context
  • 62. Primary death refers to:
A) Cellular breakdown post-mortem
B) Death due to secondary complications
C) Death due to immediate cause
D) Clinical death
  • 63. Secondary death occurs as a result of:
A) None of the above
B) Secondary death occurs as a result of:
C) Complications following the primary cause
D) Legal declaration of death
  • 64. Biological death is marked by:
A) Temporary absence of heartbeat
B) Irreversible cessation of vital functions
C) Legal documentation
D) Heart-lung resuscitation
  • 65. Asphyxial death occurs due to:
A) Heart failure
B) Lack of oxygen supply to tissues
C) Poison ingestion
D) Bacterial infection
  • 66. Rigor mortis is:
A) Cooling of the body after death
B) Decomposition of soft tissues
C) Stiffening of muscles due to chemical changes
D) Blood pooling in dependent parts
  • 67. Algor mortis refers to:
A) Discoloration of the skin
B) Stiffening of muscles
C) Cooling of the body to match ambient temperature
D) Decomposition of internal organs
  • 68. Livor mortis is best described as:
A) Settling of blood in dependent body parts causing discoloration
B) Decomposition
C) Post-mortem stiffening of muscles
D) Cooling of the body
  • 69. Putrefaction begins with:
A) Livor mortis
B) Algor mortis
C) Bacterial activity in the gastrointestinal tract
D) Rigor mortis
  • 70. Early post-mortem changes include:
A) LAdvanced decomposition
B) Mummification
C) Algor, rigor, and livor mortis
D) Skeletonization
  • 71. Which factor accelerates rigor mortis?
A) Hypothermia
B) Strenuous activity before death
C) Starvation
D) Cold environment
  • 72. Delayed rigor mortis can be caused by:
A) Hyperthermia
B) Physical exertion before death
C) Cold temperature
D) Sepsis
  • 73. Hypostasis is another term for:
A) Algor mortis
B) Putrefaction
C) Livor mortis
D) Rigor mortis
  • 74. Cadaveric spasm differs from rigor mortis because:
A) It occurs gradually
B) It is sudden and affects specific muscles at the moment of death
C) It is reversible
D) It affects the entire body uniformly
  • 75. Marbling during decomposition refers to:
A) Muscle stiffening
B) Blood pooling
C) Skin cooling
D) Greenish discoloration of veins due to bacterial activity
  • 76. Mummification is a post-mortem change that occurs:
A) In humid and warm climates
B) Immediately after death
C) Only in cold environments
D) In dry and arid conditions
  • 77. Skeletonization is characterized by:
A) Discoloration of skin
B) Complete decomposition of soft tissues leaving bones
C) Blood settling in dependent parts
D) Cooling of the body
  • 78. Adipocere formation is:
A) Discoloration of the skin
B) Cooling of the body
C) Stiffening of muscles
D) Transformation of body fat into waxy substance under moist conditions
  • 79. Factors affecting post-mortem changes include:
A) Only cause of death
B) None of the above
C) Only environmental temperature
D) Temperature, environment, cause of death, and body condition
  • 80. Post-mortem interval estimation relies on:
A) Circumstantial evidence only
B) Only cadaveric spasm
C) Cause of death only
D) Rigor, livor, and algor mortis
  • 81. A laceration is best described as:
A) Wound caused by heat
B) Smooth-edged wound caused by a sharp instrument
C) Tear in tissue caused by blunt trauma
D) Wound caused by chemical burns
  • 82. An incised wound is:
A) Produced by a sharp-edged instrument with clean margins
B) Result of gunshot
C) Caused by blunt trauma
D) Tearing of tissue due to crushing
  • 83. Stab wounds are characterized by:
A) Always fatal
B) Depth greater than length
C) Length greater than depth
D) Produced by blunt objects
  • 84. Puncture wounds usually result from:
A) Small, pointed instruments penetrating tissue
B) Chemical agents
C) Sharp-edged instruments slicing tissue
D) Blunt trauma
  • 85. Contusion is defined as:
A) Bruise caused by blunt trauma without breaking the skin
B) Deep stab wound
C) Wound with irregular margins
D) Tear in skin with smooth edges
  • 86. Abrasion refers to:
A) Deep penetrating wound
B) Bruise under intact skin
C) Superficial scraping or removal of skin layers
D) Tear in muscle
  • 87. A defensive wound is most commonly found on:
A) Legs
B) Abdomen
C) Back
D) Palms or forearms
  • 88. Characteristics of incised wounds include:
A) Wide and irregular edges
B) Always fatal
C) Only produced by blunt objects
D) Clean-cut edges, minimal tissue damage
  • 89. Characteristics of lacerations include:
A) Superficial only
B) Sharp edges
C) Contused margins, irregular shape, tissue bridging
D) Only in muscles
  • 90. Avulsion involves:
A) Complete removal of tissue
B) Only superficial scraping
C) Only bruises
D) Partial tearing of tissue away from normal attachment
  • 91. Gunshot entrance wounds typically:
A) Show no tissue damage
B) Are smooth and clean
C) Cannot be analyzed
D) Have irregular margins and burn marks
  • 92. Characteristics of defensive wounds suggest:
A) Victim was unaware
B) Perpetrator acted accidentally
C) Wound is post-mortem
D) Victim attempted to protect self
  • 93. Wound age estimation relies on:
A) Only shape of the wound
B) Size of wound
C) Only presence of blood
D) Color changes, inflammation, and healing patterns
  • 94. Contused laceration is caused by:
A) Sharp instrument
B) Blunt force with tearing
C) Electrical injury
D) Chemical burns
  • 95. Incised wound healing is faster due to:
A) Infection
B) Minimal tissue loss and clean edges
C) Irregular margins
D) Extensive tissue bridging
  • 96. Compound fractures differ from simple fractures because:
A) No bleeding occurs
B) Bone pierces the skin
C) Skin is intact
D) Only cartilage is involved
  • 97. Thermal burns can be classified according to:
A) Shape only
B) Age of victim
C) Depth: first, second, and third-degree
D) Cause only
  • 98. Chemical wounds are characterized by:
A) Only superficial injuries
B) Limited to hands
C) Tissue corrosion due to caustic substances
D) Usually sharp, clean edges
  • 99. Difference between stab and incised wounds is:
A) Stab wound depth > length, incised wound length > depth
B) Incised wounds always fatal
C) Incised wound depth > length, stab length > depth
D) Both are identical
  • 100. Signs of antemortem wounds include:
A) Only discoloration
B) No bleeding
C) Bleeding, inflammation, bruising
D) Only post-mortem staining
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