Microsoft SQL Server - Quiz
  • 1. What are the two modes of concurrency control provided by SQL Server?
A) Table-level and row-level locking
B) Exclusive and shared locking
C) Latch and spinlock control
D) Pessimistic and optimistic concurrency
  • 2. What does an exclusive lock grant to the user?
A) Shared access with other users
B) Priority queue access to tables
C) Exclusive access to the data
D) Read-only access to the data
  • 3. What is true about shared locks?
A) They prevent all other reads
B) They are only applied to index leaves
C) Multiple users can read data simultaneously
D) They allow exclusive locks to be acquired
  • 4. Who defines the granularity level for locking in SQL Server?
A) The Lock Manager
B) The database administrator
C) The SQL Server optimizer
D) The end-user client
  • 5. What is a disadvantage of fine-grained locking?
A) It automatically reduces performance
B) It blocks all other users
C) It requires more resources
D) It cannot be used on indexes
  • 6. What are the two lightweight mutual exclusion solutions mentioned?
A) Transactions and rollbacks
B) Version IDs and metadata
C) Shared locks and exclusive locks
D) Latches and spinlocks
  • 7. What happens when SQL Server detects a deadlock?
A) It restarts the entire database instance
B) It forces all threads to use optimistic concurrency
C) It pauses all threads until the deadlock clears
D) It kills one of the threads and rolls back the transaction
  • 8. What component maintains an in-memory table of database locks?
A) The Latch Controller
B) The Lock Manager
C) The Tempdb system
D) The Worker Thread Monitor
  • 9. Where are old versions of rows moved in optimistic concurrency?
A) The transaction log
B) The main data table
C) The index leaf nodes
D) Tempdb
  • 10. In optimistic concurrency, how is a row version identified?
A) By the row's physical memory address
B) By the user who initiated the update
C) By the ID of the transaction that created the version
D) By the system timestamp only
  • 11. What happens to other requests when a row is being updated under optimistic concurrency?
A) They are executed on the older version of the row
B) They are rejected with an error
C) They are immediately blocked
D) They are moved to a waiting queue until the transaction ends
  • 12. Which of the following is true about locks and latches?
A) Latches are more robust than locks
B) Locks are used for DMVs while latches are used for tables
C) Latches are less resource intensive than locks
D) Locks are more lightweight than latches
  • 13. Can multiple clients access the same database concurrently in SQL Server?
A) Only if they are using optimistic concurrency
B) Only if the database is read-only
C) Yes
D) No, only one client at a time
  • 14. What level of granularity can locks be applied to for indexes?
A) Entire index or index leaves
B) Rows only
C) Database level only
D) Pages only
  • 15. Which SQL Server version is Microsoft Data Engine 1.0 based on?
A) SQL Server 6.5
B) SQL Server 2005
C) SQL Server 7.0
D) SQL Server 2000
  • 16. Which version is Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine based on?
A) SQL Server 2005
B) SQL Server 7.0
C) SQL Server 2008
D) SQL Server 2000
  • 17. What was the eventual replacement for Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine?
A) SQL Server Compact Edition
B) SQL Server 2000 Personal Edition
C) SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter
D) SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
  • 18. What is another name for Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine?
A) Web Server Edition
B) Mobile Edition
C) Desktop Engine
D) Standard Proxy
  • 19. Which of the following did Microsoft SQL Server Data Engine NOT include?
A) Database engine capabilities
B) Microsoft Access compatibility
C) A GUI
D) Web admin tool
  • 20. Which edition was intended for use as a mobile/disconnected proxy in SQL Server 2000?
A) Personal Edition
B) Datacenter Edition
C) Windows CE Edition
D) Desktop Engine
  • 21. What is a characteristic of Personal Edition's database size?
A) No size limit
B) 4 GB limit
C) 1 GB limit
D) 10 GB limit
  • 22. Which feature did not work in Windows 98 for SQL Server 2000 Personal Edition?
A) Standard management tools
B) Transactional replication
C) Full-Text Search
D) SQL connectivity
  • 23. How many logical processors does SQL Server 2008 R2 Datacenter support?
A) 512
B) 128
C) 64
D) 256
  • 24. What replaced the Windows CE Edition?
A) SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
B) SQL Server Compact 3.5
C) SQL Server 2005 Mobile Edition
D) SQL Server 2000 Personal Edition
  • 25. What replaced SQL Server 2005 Mobile Edition?
A) Windows CE Edition
B) SQL Server 2005 Compact Edition
C) SQL Server 2008 R2
D) SQL Server Compact 3.5
  • 26. Who originally designed and developed TDS in 1984?
A) Oracle
B) IBM
C) Sybase Inc.
D) Microsoft
  • 27. Which of the following transport protocols can TDS be encased in?
A) TCP/IP
B) UDP only
C) FTP
D) SMTP
  • 28. Which tool is used for Stress Testing and Performance Analysis in SQL Server 2000?
A) Read80Trace
B) Best Practices Analyzer
C) SQLXML
D) PSSDIAG
  • 29. Up to which service pack was Reporting Services included as a supplemental package for SQL Server 2000?
A) Service Pack 2
B) Service Pack 1
C) Service Pack 3
D) Service Pack 4
  • 30. In what year was the first version of Microsoft SQL Server released?
A) 1985
B) 1995
C) 1989
D) 1993
  • 31. What feature was introduced in SQL Server 2012?
A) Columnar in-memory storage (xVelocity)
B) OS/2 support
C) Big Data Clusters
D) Linux support
  • 32. What was the codename for SQL Server 2000?
A) NT-OS
B) Shiloh
C) Big Data
D) xVelocity
  • 33. Which processor architecture is required for SQL Server 2016 and beyond?
A) x64
B) x86
C) ARM
D) PowerPC
  • 34. What is the release date of Microsoft SQL Server 2025?
A) November 30, 2024
B) November 18, 2025
C) December 25, 2025
D) January 1, 2025
  • 35. What is the maximum database size supported by SQL Server Enterprise Edition?
A) 100 terabytes
B) 640 petabytes
C) 524 petabytes
D) 12 terabytes
  • 36. How much memory can SQL Server Enterprise Edition address?
A) 12 terabytes
B) 524 gigabytes
C) 640 terabytes
D) 1 terabyte
  • 37. How many logical processors does SQL Server Enterprise Edition support?
A) 12
B) 1024
C) 524
D) 640
  • 38. Which feature is absent in SQL Server Standard edition but present in Enterprise?
A) SQL cluster management
B) Hot-add memory
C) Core database engine
D) Stand-alone services
  • 39. Which tool is included in the Business Intelligence edition?
A) Hot-add memory
B) Parallel indexes
C) Power Pivot
D) SQL Server Management Studio Basic
  • 40. What is the current database file size limit for SQL Server Express?
A) 50 GB
B) 4 GB
C) 10 GB
D) 1 TB
  • 41. What is the database file limit for SQL Server Express prior to 2025?
A) 10 GB
B) 1 GB
C) 50 GB
D) 4 GB
  • 42. Which architecture does Azure SQL Data Warehouse use for analytics workloads?
A) Client-server architecture
B) Massively parallel processing (MPP)
C) Embedded architecture
D) Single-threaded processing
  • 43. When did Microsoft make the Developer Edition free of charge to the public?
A) Early 2016
B) 2005
C) 2012
D) 2020
  • 44. What is the time limit for the SQL Server Evaluation Edition?
A) 30 days
B) 180 days
C) 90 days
D) 365 days
  • 45. Which edition is designed for enterprise-scale data warehousing and runs on optimized reference-architecture hardware?
A) SSEE
B) LocalDB
C) Fast Track
D) Compact Edition
  • 46. Who is LocalDB primarily designed for?
A) Database administrators
B) Cloud architects
C) Application developers
D) Mobile device users
  • 47. What is the primary unit of I/O for SQL Server operations?
A) Partition
B) Extent
C) Page
D) Allocation unit
  • 48. What is the size of a single SQL Server page?
A) 4 KB
B) 2 KB
C) 16 KB
D) 8 KB
  • 49. What is the file extension for primary data files?
A) .ldf
B) .db
C) .mdf
D) .ndf
  • 50. What is the file extension for log files?
A) .mdf
B) .log
C) .ldf
D) .ndf
  • 51. How many pages are contained in one extent?
A) 4
B) 16
C) 8
D) 32
  • 52. What is the term for server statistics available as virtual tables?
A) Virtual Data Objects
B) Dynamic Management Views
C) Performance Monitors
D) System Statistics Tables
  • 53. Which structure stores rows in an unordered manner?
A) Heap
B) Partition
C) B-tree
D) Clustered index
  • 54. What is the size of the header that marks a page?
A) 8 bytes
B) 128 bytes
C) 64 bytes
D) 96 bytes
  • 55. Which data type is used for unstructured blobs of data?
A) binary
B) Integer
C) Float
D) Varchar
  • 56. What is the name for the set of all pages currently buffered in memory?
A) System log
B) Transaction heap
C) Buffer cache
D) Disk storage
  • 57. How are I/O operations handled when writing pages back to disk?
A) Sequential I/O
B) Networked I/O
C) Asynchronous I/O
D) Synchronous I/O
  • 58. What is written along with a page when it is saved to disk?
A) A user ID
B) A checksum
C) A time stamp
D) An encryption key
  • 59. What is the name of the variant of SQL used by Microsoft SQL Server?
A) PL/SQL
B) MySQL
C) T-SQL
D) PostgreSQL
  • 60. What is the sequence of actions necessary to execute a query called?
A) Data retrieval
B) Stored procedure
C) SQL dialect
D) Query plan
  • 61. Which component is responsible for choosing the most efficient query plan?
A) Query processor
B) Network interface
C) Database administrator
D) Client application
  • 62. What is the process of choosing the query plan expected to yield the fastest results called?
A) Query optimization
B) Index restructuring
C) Data serialization
D) Schema mapping
  • 63. What is the primary reason for SQL Server sharing a dialect with Sybase SQL Server?
A) Cloud compatibility
B) Performance benchmarks
C) Industry standard compliance
D) Legacy
  • 64. What factor might lead the optimizer to avoid using an index?
A) Large table size
B) Low selectivity
C) Complex joins
D) High system load
  • 65. What is the full name of the procedural language extension for Microsoft SQL Server?
A) Transfer-SQL
B) Transact-SQL
C) Template-SQL
D) Table-SQL
  • 66. Which component is responsible for managing memory, threading, and resources for .NET in SQL Server?
A) Windows OS
B) SQLOS
C) CLR Host
D) ADO.NET
  • 67. How are management operations typically performed in T-SQL?
A) Via system-defined stored procedures
B) Via external PowerShell scripts
C) Via direct memory manipulation
D) Via GUI configuration files
  • 68. In SQL CLR, what language can be used to write stored procedures?
A) T-SQL exclusively
B) Any managed .NET language
C) Assembly code only
D) Native C++ only
  • 69. What is used to define custom types that can persist in a SQL Server database?
A) External XML schemas
B) SQLOS assemblies
C) System stored procedures
D) Managed code (UDTs)
  • 70. Which of the following is an example of an ADO.NET enhancement in SQL Server?
A) Direct hardware communication
B) Context connections
C) Automatic memory garbage collection
D) GUI development tools
  • 71. Which of the following is a typical system task performed by SQL Server Agent?
A) Scheduling maintenance plans
B) Installing third-party software
C) Writing SQL code documentation
D) Modifying Windows registry keys
  • 72. Which of these is a log shipping sub-task performed by SQL Server Agent?
A) Table deletion and indexing
B) Backup, copy, restore & check
C) User password recovery
D) Graphics rendering
  • 73. Which of the following is a proprietary package included with SQL Server Machine Learning services?
A) pandas
B) numpy
C) revoscalepy
D) scikit-learn
  • 74. What defines the data format of a message in Service Broker?
A) Route
B) Contract
C) Message type
D) Queue
  • 75. What entity defines which messages are used in a conversation and who can access the queue?
A) Service program
B) Message type
C) Route
D) Contract
  • 76. How are Service Broker queues implemented internally by SQL Server?
A) As virtual memory buffers
B) As flat text files
C) As encrypted objects
D) As tables
  • 77. Which operation is NOT supported on Service Broker queues?
A) Storage
B) Receiving
C) Insert
D) Processing
  • 78. What represent the network addresses where a service broker is located?
A) Queues
B) Contracts
C) Routes
D) Message types
  • 79. Which security feature is supported by Service Broker?
A) Physical firewall control
B) Biometric authentication
C) Password recovery
D) Message encryption
  • 80. Which model does SQL Server Replication Services follow?
A) Master/slave model
B) Peer-to-peer model
C) Publisher/subscriber model
D) Client/server model
  • 81. Which type of replication synchronizes databases in near real time?
A) Merge replication
B) Transactional replication
C) Distributed replication
D) Snapshot replication
  • 82. What is required on a column if merge replication is configured?
A) Primary key
B) Index
C) Foreign key
D) Rowguid
  • 83. Which replication type replicates a copy of the database and does not track further changes?
A) Transactional replication
B) Merge replication
C) Bi-directional replication
D) Snapshot replication
  • 84. What type of synchronization does Merge replication provide?
A) Unidirectional
B) Bi-directional
C) Manual only
D) Real-time only
  • 85. What is the underlying communication protocol for Analysis Services?
A) XML for Analysis
B) SQL/RPC
C) SOAP
D) REST
  • 86. Which query language is used for data mining functionality in SSAS?
A) T-SQL
B) MDX
C) DMX
D) LINQ
  • 87. Which of these is a supported data mining algorithm in Analysis Services?
A) B-Tree indexing
B) Merge sort
C) Hash join
D) Naive Bayes
  • 88. Which of these algorithms is included for data mining in Analysis Services?
A) Dijkstra's algorithm
B) QuickSort
C) Neural networks
D) A* search
  • 89. What is the primary function of SSRS?
A) Full-text indexing
B) Database administration
C) Data warehousing
D) Report generation
  • 90. In what format are SSRS reports created?
A) XML files
B) PDF files
C) RDL files
D) SQL files
  • 91. Which tool can be used to design SSRS reports?
A) Data Transformation Services
B) Filter Daemon
C) Report Builder
D) SQL Server Management Studio
  • 92. Which of these is NOT a supported rendering format for SSRS reports?
A) CSV
B) JPEG
C) PDF
D) DOCX
  • 93. Which is NOT a method used by Notification Services to send messages?
A) SOAP
B) SMTP
C) HTTP POST
D) Writing to a filesystem file
  • 94. When was Notification Services discontinued by Microsoft?
A) December 2000
B) January 2005
C) March 2010
D) August 2008
  • 95. What is the main purpose of SSIS?
A) Web report interface
B) ETL capabilities
C) Full-text searching
D) Notification management
  • 96. What is the maximum rank value in Full Text Search?
A) 500
B) 255
C) 100
D) 1000
  • 97. What is the name of the Filter Daemon process?
A) msftesql.exe
B) sqlservr.exe
C) msftefd.exe
D) ssis.exe
  • 98. What is the name of the Search process?
A) msftesql.exe
B) gatherer.exe
C) sqlindexer.exe
D) msftefd.exe
  • 99. What component monitors changes to tables and invokes the indexer?
A) Filter Daemon
B) Thesaurus
C) Gatherer
D) Query Processor
  • 100. What are commonly occurring, non-useful words filtered out by the indexer called?
A) Empty fragments
B) Stop tags
C) Noise words
D) Excluded tokens
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