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ISMANA (Finals) - Quiz
Contributed by: Delos Reyes
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Espionage
B) Sabotage
C) Subversion
D) Pilferage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Only steals small, easily hidden items
B) Intent and premeditation in theft
C) Number of times they were caught
D) Level of Education
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Self-Assumption
D) Risk Avoidance
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Issue of weapons
B) Identification and Verification of purpose
C) Allow free access
D) Body Frisking
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
B) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
C) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
D) Subversion is done by governments only
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Self Assumption
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Spreading
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
B) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
C) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
D) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Pilferage
B) Espionage
C) Vandalism
D) Subversion
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
C) A security measure in place to protect assets
D) An environmental condition causing damage
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The frequency of threat attempts
B) The visibility of the asset
C) The number of people using the asset
D) The financial or survival of losing the assets
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Mental attitude
B) Ambush attack
C) Driver Rule
D) Advance Security
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Novice Criminal
B) Close in Security
C) Ambush attack
D) Moving Attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Moving Attack
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Ambush attack
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Close in Security
B) Mental Attitude
C) Ambush attack
D) Advance Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Moving Attack
B) Driver Rule
C) Ambush attack
D) Modus Operandi
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Novice Criminal
B) Driver Rule
C) Mental attitude
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Advance Security
B) Mental Attitude
C) Novice Criminal
D) Module Operandi
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Novice Criminals
C) Modus Operandi
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Novice Criminals
B) Modus Operandi
C) Advance Security
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Moving Attack
C) Mental attitude
D) Advance Security
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Expressiveness
B) Slang usage
C) Pleasantness
D) Alertness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Use codes for every sentence
B) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
C) Speak continuously without pause
D) Wait for confirmation before speaking
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Establishment if civilization
B) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
C) Creation of laws
D) Hunting and gathering
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Avoid using any code's
B) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
C) Speak as fast as possible
D) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) People still fail to understand one another
C) People are talking too much
D) Communication channels are too expensive
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Long pauses
B) Slang and unnatural language
C) All codes and acronyms
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Messaging security
B) Audio hailer
C) Walkie-talkies
D) Telephone
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Location
C) Radio check
D) Repeat message
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Use of Signs
B) Written language
C) Symbolic Art
D) Oral language
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A device for broadcasting messages
B) The tool used to write
C) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
D) The tone of a person's voice
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Review the state of physical security
B) Determine employee productivity
C) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
D) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
B) Training new recruits
C) Designing building architecture
D) Boosting sales
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Competitor activity
B) Criminal activity within the organization
C) Supplier delays
D) External cyber attacks
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A list of employee duties
B) A financial audit of company assets
C) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
D) A routine fire drill
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Prepare Schedule
B) Determine how data will be gathered
C) Develop alternatives
D) Verify the need
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It ensures cooperation and resources
B) It helps save money
C) It guarantees fast results
D) It allows skipping certain steps
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Legal compliance checks only
B) Background checks
C) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
D) Staff scheduling
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Emergency drill
B) Security survey
C) Fire inspection
D) Security briefing
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To hire new security staff
B) To monitor employee performance
C) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
D) To evaluate marketing strategies
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) They are unrelated processes
B) Survey is done after inspection
C) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
D) Only inspection is required for long term planning
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Receiving poorly
C) Location
D) Repeat message
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Identify yourself/call sign
B) Radio check
C) Location
D) Loud and clear
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Radio check
B) Location
C) Copied message
D) Loud and clear
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Location
B) Copied message
C) Identify yourself/call sign
D) Repeat message
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Loud and clear
C) Radio check
D) Copied message
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Radio check
C) Receiving poorly
D) Loud and clear
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
B) Preliminary investigation
C) Interview the complainant and witnesses
D) Proceed and locates the witnesses
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
B) Relay message
C) Effect the arrest of the offender
D) Render obedience and proper conduct
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Effect the arrest of the offender
B) Effectively uses investigation
C) Plaster cast
D) Effort and loyalty
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Locates the identifies the witnesses
B) Locate and protect
C) Interview the company
D) Locates and capture perpetrator
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Affect the crime scene
B) Indirect Approach
C) Interview the complainant and witnesses
D) Interview and locates the offender
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
B) Morse code
C) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
D) Methods of investigation
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate the people
B) Interrogate the suspect/offender
C) Interrogate everyone
D) Interrogate the crime scene
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note the important things
B) Note all happen
C) Note all
D) Note all conditions, events and remarks
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange of the people
B) Arrange
C) Arrange of the following statements
D) Arrange for the collection of evidence
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports the incident fully and accurately
B) Report me
C) Reports the offender
D) Reports everyone
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the following individuals
B) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
C) Yields the conducting regular inspections
D) Yields the following statements
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