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ISMANA (Finals)
Contributed by: Delos Reyes
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Sabotage
C) Pilferage
D) Espionage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Number of times they were caught
B) Level of Education
C) Only steals small, easily hidden items
D) Intent and premeditation in theft
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Self-Assumption
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Avoidance
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Body Frisking
B) Issue of weapons
C) Allow free access
D) Identification and Verification of purpose
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
B) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
C) Subversion is done by governments only
D) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Spreading
B) Risk Self Assumption
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Reduction
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
C) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
D) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Vandalism
B) Pilferage
C) Subversion
D) Espionage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
C) A security measure in place to protect assets
D) An environmental condition causing damage
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The financial or survival of losing the assets
B) The frequency of threat attempts
C) The number of people using the asset
D) The visibility of the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Ambush attack
B) Advance Security
C) Driver Rule
D) Mental attitude
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Novice Criminal
B) Close in Security
C) Ambush attack
D) Moving Attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Ambush attack
B) Moving Attack
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Close in Security
B) Ambush attack
C) Mental Attitude
D) Advance Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Driver Rule
B) Ambush attack
C) Moving Attack
D) Modus Operandi
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Mental attitude
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Novice Criminal
D) Driver Rule
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Novice Criminal
C) Advance Security
D) Mental Attitude
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Novice Criminals
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Modus Operandi
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Novice Criminals
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Advance Security
D) Modus Operandi
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Advance Security
B) Mental attitude
C) Moving Attack
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Alertness
B) Slang usage
C) Pleasantness
D) Expressiveness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Speak continuously without pause
B) Wait for confirmation before speaking
C) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
D) Use codes for every sentence
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Establishment if civilization
B) Creation of laws
C) Hunting and gathering
D) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
B) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
C) Speak as fast as possible
D) Avoid using any code's
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) People still fail to understand one another
C) Communication channels are too expensive
D) People are talking too much
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Slang and unnatural language
B) Long pauses
C) High-pitched voices
D) All codes and acronyms
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Audio hailer
B) Messaging security
C) Walkie-talkies
D) Telephone
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Receiving poorly
C) Repeat message
D) Location
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Symbolic Art
B) Oral language
C) Written language
D) Use of Signs
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
B) The tool used to write
C) A device for broadcasting messages
D) The tone of a person's voice
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
B) Review the state of physical security
C) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
D) Determine employee productivity
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Boosting sales
B) Designing building architecture
C) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
D) Training new recruits
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Competitor activity
B) External cyber attacks
C) Supplier delays
D) Criminal activity within the organization
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A financial audit of company assets
B) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
C) A routine fire drill
D) A list of employee duties
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Develop alternatives
B) Verify the need
C) Prepare Schedule
D) Determine how data will be gathered
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It allows skipping certain steps
B) It guarantees fast results
C) It ensures cooperation and resources
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
B) Legal compliance checks only
C) Background checks
D) Staff scheduling
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security briefing
B) Emergency drill
C) Fire inspection
D) Security survey
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To monitor employee performance
B) To hire new security staff
C) To evaluate marketing strategies
D) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Only inspection is required for long term planning
B) Survey is done after inspection
C) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
D) They are unrelated processes
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Location
C) Receiving poorly
D) Loud and clear
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Identify yourself/call sign
C) Radio check
D) Loud and clear
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Location
B) Copied message
C) Loud and clear
D) Radio check
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Location
B) Identify yourself/call sign
C) Repeat message
D) Copied message
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Copied message
C) Loud and clear
D) Radio check
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Radio check
C) Receiving poorly
D) Loud and clear
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Interview the complainant and witnesses
C) Proceed and locates the witnesses
D) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Render obedience and proper conduct
B) Relay message
C) Effect the arrest of the offender
D) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Effort and loyalty
B) Effectively uses investigation
C) Effect the arrest of the offender
D) Plaster cast
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Locates the identifies the witnesses
B) Interview the company
C) Locates and capture perpetrator
D) Locate and protect
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interview the complainant and witnesses
B) Interview and locates the offender
C) Indirect Approach
D) Affect the crime scene
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Morse code
B) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
C) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
D) Methods of investigation
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate the suspect/offender
B) Interrogate everyone
C) Interrogate the crime scene
D) Interrogate the people
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note all conditions, events and remarks
B) Note all happen
C) Note the important things
D) Note all
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange for the collection of evidence
B) Arrange
C) Arrange of the people
D) Arrange of the following statements
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports the offender
B) Report me
C) Reports everyone
D) Reports the incident fully and accurately
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the conducting regular inspections
B) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
C) Yields the following statements
D) Yields the following individuals
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