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ISMANA (Finals)
Contributed by: Delos Reyes
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Espionage
C) Pilferage
D) Sabotage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Level of Education
B) Number of times they were caught
C) Intent and premeditation in theft
D) Only steals small, easily hidden items
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Self-Assumption
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Body Frisking
B) Allow free access
C) Issue of weapons
D) Identification and Verification of purpose
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Subversion is done by governments only
B) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
C) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
D) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Self Assumption
B) Risk Spreading
C) Risk Transfer
D) Risk Reduction
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
C) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
D) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Subversion
B) Pilferage
C) Vandalism
D) Espionage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A security measure in place to protect assets
B) An environmental condition causing damage
C) A legal owner of an asset
D) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The number of people using the asset
B) The frequency of threat attempts
C) The visibility of the asset
D) The financial or survival of losing the assets
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Ambush attack
B) Driver Rule
C) Advance Security
D) Mental attitude
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Ambush attack
B) Moving Attack
C) Close in Security
D) Novice Criminal
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Ambush attack
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Moving Attack
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Mental Attitude
B) Ambush attack
C) Advance Security
D) Close in Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Driver Rule
B) Moving Attack
C) Modus Operandi
D) Ambush attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Mental attitude
B) Driver Rule
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Novice Criminal
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Novice Criminal
C) Advance Security
D) Mental Attitude
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Modus Operandi
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Novice Criminals
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Novice Criminals
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Modus Operandi
D) Advance Security
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Moving Attack
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Advance Security
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Pleasantness
B) Alertness
C) Slang usage
D) Expressiveness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Wait for confirmation before speaking
B) Speak continuously without pause
C) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
D) Use codes for every sentence
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Creation of laws
B) Establishment if civilization
C) Hunting and gathering
D) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
B) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
C) Avoid using any code's
D) Speak as fast as possible
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) Communication channels are too expensive
C) People still fail to understand one another
D) People are talking too much
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) High-pitched voices
B) Long pauses
C) Slang and unnatural language
D) All codes and acronyms
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Audio hailer
B) Walkie-talkies
C) Messaging security
D) Telephone
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Receiving poorly
C) Location
D) Repeat message
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Written language
B) Use of Signs
C) Oral language
D) Symbolic Art
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
B) The tone of a person's voice
C) A device for broadcasting messages
D) The tool used to write
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Determine employee productivity
B) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
C) Review the state of physical security
D) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Boosting sales
B) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
C) Training new recruits
D) Designing building architecture
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Competitor activity
B) Supplier delays
C) Criminal activity within the organization
D) External cyber attacks
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A financial audit of company assets
B) A list of employee duties
C) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
D) A routine fire drill
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Develop alternatives
B) Determine how data will be gathered
C) Verify the need
D) Prepare Schedule
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It helps save money
B) It allows skipping certain steps
C) It guarantees fast results
D) It ensures cooperation and resources
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
B) Background checks
C) Legal compliance checks only
D) Staff scheduling
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Fire inspection
B) Security survey
C) Emergency drill
D) Security briefing
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To hire new security staff
B) To evaluate marketing strategies
C) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
D) To monitor employee performance
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Survey is done after inspection
B) Only inspection is required for long term planning
C) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
D) They are unrelated processes
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Loud and clear
C) Location
D) Receiving poorly
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Identify yourself/call sign
C) Radio check
D) Loud and clear
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Loud and clear
B) Location
C) Radio check
D) Copied message
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Location
B) Repeat message
C) Identify yourself/call sign
D) Copied message
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Loud and clear
C) Copied message
D) Radio check
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Radio check
C) Loud and clear
D) Receiving poorly
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
B) Interview the complainant and witnesses
C) Preliminary investigation
D) Proceed and locates the witnesses
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Render obedience and proper conduct
B) Effect the arrest of the offender
C) Relay message
D) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Effect the arrest of the offender
B) Effort and loyalty
C) Plaster cast
D) Effectively uses investigation
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Locates and capture perpetrator
B) Locates the identifies the witnesses
C) Interview the company
D) Locate and protect
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interview the complainant and witnesses
B) Interview and locates the offender
C) Indirect Approach
D) Affect the crime scene
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
B) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
C) Morse code
D) Methods of investigation
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate the crime scene
B) Interrogate the people
C) Interrogate the suspect/offender
D) Interrogate everyone
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note all conditions, events and remarks
B) Note all happen
C) Note all
D) Note the important things
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange of the people
B) Arrange for the collection of evidence
C) Arrange
D) Arrange of the following statements
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Report me
B) Reports the incident fully and accurately
C) Reports the offender
D) Reports everyone
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the conducting regular inspections
B) Yields the following individuals
C) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
D) Yields the following statements
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