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ISMANA (Finals)
Contributed by: Delos Reyes
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Sabotage
B) Pilferage
C) Subversion
D) Espionage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Only steals small, easily hidden items
B) Number of times they were caught
C) Intent and premeditation in theft
D) Level of Education
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Self-Assumption
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Transfer
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Issue of weapons
B) Allow free access
C) Body Frisking
D) Identification and Verification of purpose
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
B) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
C) Subversion is done by governments only
D) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Spreading
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Self Assumption
D) Risk Transfer
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
B) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
C) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
D) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Espionage
B) Vandalism
C) Subversion
D) Pilferage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A security measure in place to protect assets
B) A legal owner of an asset
C) An environmental condition causing damage
D) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The financial or survival of losing the assets
B) The visibility of the asset
C) The frequency of threat attempts
D) The number of people using the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Mental attitude
B) Ambush attack
C) Advance Security
D) Driver Rule
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Moving Attack
B) Novice Criminal
C) Ambush attack
D) Close in Security
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Ambush attack
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Moving Attack
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Advance Security
B) Close in Security
C) Ambush attack
D) Mental Attitude
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Ambush attack
B) Driver Rule
C) Modus Operandi
D) Moving Attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Mental attitude
C) Novice Criminal
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Mental Attitude
C) Novice Criminal
D) Advance Security
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Modus Operandi
D) Novice Criminals
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Novice Criminals
B) Modus Operandi
C) Advance Security
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Moving Attack
C) Advance Security
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Pleasantness
B) Expressiveness
C) Slang usage
D) Alertness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Use codes for every sentence
B) Speak continuously without pause
C) Wait for confirmation before speaking
D) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Hunting and gathering
B) Creation of laws
C) Establishment if civilization
D) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Avoid using any code's
B) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
C) Speak as fast as possible
D) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People still fail to understand one another
B) Communication channels are too expensive
C) People are talking too much
D) There are not enough languages
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Long pauses
B) High-pitched voices
C) All codes and acronyms
D) Slang and unnatural language
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Walkie-talkies
B) Audio hailer
C) Telephone
D) Messaging security
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Receiving poorly
C) Radio check
D) Repeat message
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Symbolic Art
B) Use of Signs
C) Written language
D) Oral language
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tone of a person's voice
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) The tool used to write
D) A device for broadcasting messages
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Determine employee productivity
B) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
C) Review the state of physical security
D) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Boosting sales
B) Designing building architecture
C) Training new recruits
D) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Competitor activity
B) Supplier delays
C) Criminal activity within the organization
D) External cyber attacks
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A routine fire drill
B) A financial audit of company assets
C) A list of employee duties
D) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Verify the need
B) Develop alternatives
C) Determine how data will be gathered
D) Prepare Schedule
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It ensures cooperation and resources
B) It helps save money
C) It allows skipping certain steps
D) It guarantees fast results
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Background checks
B) Staff scheduling
C) Legal compliance checks only
D) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Fire inspection
B) Emergency drill
C) Security survey
D) Security briefing
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To hire new security staff
B) To monitor employee performance
C) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
D) To evaluate marketing strategies
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Only inspection is required for long term planning
B) Survey is done after inspection
C) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
D) They are unrelated processes
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Location
C) Receiving poorly
D) Repeat message
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Loud and clear
C) Identify yourself/call sign
D) Radio check
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Location
B) Copied message
C) Radio check
D) Loud and clear
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Copied message
B) Repeat message
C) Location
D) Identify yourself/call sign
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Loud and clear
C) Radio check
D) Copied message
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Loud and clear
C) Receiving poorly
D) Location
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Proceed and locates the witnesses
C) Interview the complainant and witnesses
D) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Effect the arrest of the offender
B) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
C) Relay message
D) Render obedience and proper conduct
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Plaster cast
B) Effectively uses investigation
C) Effect the arrest of the offender
D) Effort and loyalty
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Locate and protect
B) Locates and capture perpetrator
C) Interview the company
D) Locates the identifies the witnesses
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interview and locates the offender
B) Indirect Approach
C) Affect the crime scene
D) Interview the complainant and witnesses
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
B) Morse code
C) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
D) Methods of investigation
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate the crime scene
B) Interrogate the suspect/offender
C) Interrogate the people
D) Interrogate everyone
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note all conditions, events and remarks
B) Note all
C) Note all happen
D) Note the important things
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange of the following statements
B) Arrange for the collection of evidence
C) Arrange of the people
D) Arrange
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Report me
B) Reports the offender
C) Reports everyone
D) Reports the incident fully and accurately
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the conducting regular inspections
B) Yields the following statements
C) Yields the following individuals
D) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
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