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ISMANA (Finals)
Contributed by: Delos Reyes
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Subversion
B) Pilferage
C) Espionage
D) Sabotage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Intent and premeditation in theft
B) Only steals small, easily hidden items
C) Number of times they were caught
D) Level of Education
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Self-Assumption
C) Risk Avoidance
D) Risk Reduction
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Allow free access
C) Issue of weapons
D) Body Frisking
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
B) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
C) Subversion is done by governments only
D) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Transfer
C) Risk Spreading
D) Risk Self Assumption
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
C) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
D) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Pilferage
B) Vandalism
C) Espionage
D) Subversion
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A security measure in place to protect assets
B) An environmental condition causing damage
C) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
D) A legal owner of an asset
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The visibility of the asset
B) The frequency of threat attempts
C) The number of people using the asset
D) The financial or survival of losing the assets
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Driver Rule
B) Ambush attack
C) Advance Security
D) Mental attitude
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Close in Security
B) Moving Attack
C) Novice Criminal
D) Ambush attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Moving Attack
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Ambush attack
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Close in Security
B) Mental Attitude
C) Advance Security
D) Ambush attack
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Moving Attack
B) Driver Rule
C) Modus Operandi
D) Ambush attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Novice Criminal
D) Mental attitude
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Novice Criminal
C) Advance Security
D) Mental Attitude
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Novice Criminals
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Modus Operandi
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Advance Security
B) Modus Operandi
C) Novice Criminals
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Moving Attack
C) Advance Security
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Alertness
B) Slang usage
C) Pleasantness
D) Expressiveness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
B) Use codes for every sentence
C) Wait for confirmation before speaking
D) Speak continuously without pause
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
B) Establishment if civilization
C) Creation of laws
D) Hunting and gathering
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
B) Avoid using any code's
C) Speak as fast as possible
D) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) People still fail to understand one another
C) Communication channels are too expensive
D) People are talking too much
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Slang and unnatural language
B) Long pauses
C) All codes and acronyms
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Audio hailer
B) Telephone
C) Messaging security
D) Walkie-talkies
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Location
C) Receiving poorly
D) Repeat message
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Use of Signs
B) Oral language
C) Written language
D) Symbolic Art
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A device for broadcasting messages
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) The tone of a person's voice
D) The tool used to write
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
B) Determine employee productivity
C) Review the state of physical security
D) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
B) Boosting sales
C) Training new recruits
D) Designing building architecture
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Competitor activity
B) Supplier delays
C) External cyber attacks
D) Criminal activity within the organization
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A routine fire drill
B) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
C) A list of employee duties
D) A financial audit of company assets
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Determine how data will be gathered
B) Prepare Schedule
C) Verify the need
D) Develop alternatives
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It guarantees fast results
B) It ensures cooperation and resources
C) It allows skipping certain steps
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Legal compliance checks only
B) Background checks
C) Staff scheduling
D) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Fire inspection
B) Security survey
C) Security briefing
D) Emergency drill
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To monitor employee performance
B) To hire new security staff
C) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
D) To evaluate marketing strategies
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
B) They are unrelated processes
C) Survey is done after inspection
D) Only inspection is required for long term planning
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Receiving poorly
C) Location
D) Repeat message
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Identify yourself/call sign
C) Loud and clear
D) Location
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Radio check
B) Location
C) Copied message
D) Loud and clear
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Location
B) Identify yourself/call sign
C) Repeat message
D) Copied message
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Copied message
C) Radio check
D) Repeat message
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Radio check
C) Receiving poorly
D) Location
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Interview the complainant and witnesses
B) Preliminary investigation
C) Proceed and locates the witnesses
D) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Effect the arrest of the offender
B) Render obedience and proper conduct
C) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
D) Relay message
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Plaster cast
B) Effectively uses investigation
C) Effect the arrest of the offender
D) Effort and loyalty
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Interview the company
B) Locates and capture perpetrator
C) Locate and protect
D) Locates the identifies the witnesses
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interview the complainant and witnesses
B) Indirect Approach
C) Interview and locates the offender
D) Affect the crime scene
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Methods of investigation
B) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
C) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
D) Morse code
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate everyone
B) Interrogate the people
C) Interrogate the crime scene
D) Interrogate the suspect/offender
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note the important things
B) Note all conditions, events and remarks
C) Note all
D) Note all happen
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange of the people
B) Arrange of the following statements
C) Arrange
D) Arrange for the collection of evidence
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports everyone
B) Reports the incident fully and accurately
C) Reports the offender
D) Report me
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the conducting regular inspections
B) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
C) Yields the following individuals
D) Yields the following statements
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