ThatQuiz Test Library Take this test now
ISMANA (Finals)
Contributed by: Delos Reyes
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Pilferage
B) Subversion
C) Espionage
D) Sabotage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Level of Education
B) Number of times they were caught
C) Intent and premeditation in theft
D) Only steals small, easily hidden items
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Avoidance
C) Risk Self-Assumption
D) Risk Transfer
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Identification and Verification of purpose
B) Body Frisking
C) Allow free access
D) Issue of weapons
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
B) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
C) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
D) Subversion is done by governments only
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Spreading
C) Risk Reduction
D) Risk Self Assumption
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
C) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
D) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Vandalism
B) Pilferage
C) Subversion
D) Espionage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
C) An environmental condition causing damage
D) A security measure in place to protect assets
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The financial or survival of losing the assets
B) The number of people using the asset
C) The frequency of threat attempts
D) The visibility of the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Advance Security
B) Mental attitude
C) Driver Rule
D) Ambush attack
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Moving Attack
B) Novice Criminal
C) Close in Security
D) Ambush attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Moving Attack
D) Ambush attack
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Close in Security
B) Mental Attitude
C) Advance Security
D) Ambush attack
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Ambush attack
B) Driver Rule
C) Moving Attack
D) Modus Operandi
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Driver Rule
B) Novice Criminal
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Mental attitude
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Advance Security
B) Novice Criminal
C) Mental Attitude
D) Module Operandi
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Modus Operandi
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Novice Criminals
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Advance Security
B) Modus Operandi
C) Novice Criminals
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Moving Attack
C) Prophylactic Operations
D) Advance Security
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Pleasantness
B) Slang usage
C) Expressiveness
D) Alertness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Wait for confirmation before speaking
B) Speak continuously without pause
C) Use codes for every sentence
D) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Hunting and gathering
B) Creation of laws
C) Establishment if civilization
D) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Avoid using any code's
B) Speak as fast as possible
C) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
D) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) People are talking too much
C) Communication channels are too expensive
D) People still fail to understand one another
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) All codes and acronyms
B) High-pitched voices
C) Slang and unnatural language
D) Long pauses
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Walkie-talkies
B) Telephone
C) Messaging security
D) Audio hailer
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Repeat message
C) Location
D) Receiving poorly
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Use of Signs
B) Written language
C) Oral language
D) Symbolic Art
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tone of a person's voice
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) The tool used to write
D) A device for broadcasting messages
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
B) Determine employee productivity
C) Review the state of physical security
D) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Boosting sales
B) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
C) Training new recruits
D) Designing building architecture
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Competitor activity
B) Criminal activity within the organization
C) External cyber attacks
D) Supplier delays
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
B) A list of employee duties
C) A routine fire drill
D) A financial audit of company assets
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Verify the need
B) Determine how data will be gathered
C) Prepare Schedule
D) Develop alternatives
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It allows skipping certain steps
B) It guarantees fast results
C) It ensures cooperation and resources
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Legal compliance checks only
B) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
C) Staff scheduling
D) Background checks
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security survey
B) Fire inspection
C) Emergency drill
D) Security briefing
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To evaluate marketing strategies
B) To monitor employee performance
C) To hire new security staff
D) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Only inspection is required for long term planning
B) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
C) Survey is done after inspection
D) They are unrelated processes
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Receiving poorly
C) Loud and clear
D) Repeat message
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Radio check
C) Identify yourself/call sign
D) Location
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Location
B) Radio check
C) Loud and clear
D) Copied message
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Location
B) Identify yourself/call sign
C) Copied message
D) Repeat message
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Copied message
B) Loud and clear
C) Repeat message
D) Radio check
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Receiving poorly
B) Radio check
C) Loud and clear
D) Location
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
B) Interview the complainant and witnesses
C) Proceed and locates the witnesses
D) Preliminary investigation
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Relay message
B) Effect the arrest of the offender
C) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
D) Render obedience and proper conduct
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Plaster cast
B) Effectively uses investigation
C) Effect the arrest of the offender
D) Effort and loyalty
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Interview the company
B) Locates and capture perpetrator
C) Locates the identifies the witnesses
D) Locate and protect
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interview the complainant and witnesses
B) Indirect Approach
C) Affect the crime scene
D) Interview and locates the offender
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
B) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
C) Morse code
D) Methods of investigation
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate the suspect/offender
B) Interrogate everyone
C) Interrogate the crime scene
D) Interrogate the people
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note all conditions, events and remarks
B) Note all happen
C) Note the important things
D) Note all
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange
B) Arrange of the following statements
C) Arrange for the collection of evidence
D) Arrange of the people
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports the incident fully and accurately
B) Reports everyone
C) Report me
D) Reports the offender
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
B) Yields the conducting regular inspections
C) Yields the following individuals
D) Yields the following statements
Created with That Quiz — where test making and test taking are made easy for math and other subject areas.