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ISMANA (Finals)
Contributed by: Delos Reyes
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Sabotage
B) Espionage
C) Subversion
D) Pilferage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Number of times they were caught
B) Level of Education
C) Only steals small, easily hidden items
D) Intent and premeditation in theft
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Avoidance
B) Risk Reduction
C) Risk Self-Assumption
D) Risk Transfer
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Allow free access
B) Body Frisking
C) Issue of weapons
D) Identification and Verification of purpose
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
B) Subversion is done by governments only
C) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
D) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Self Assumption
C) Risk Spreading
D) Risk Transfer
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
B) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
C) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
D) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Vandalism
B) Subversion
C) Espionage
D) Pilferage
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) A legal owner of an asset
B) An environmental condition causing damage
C) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
D) A security measure in place to protect assets
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The number of people using the asset
B) The frequency of threat attempts
C) The financial or survival of losing the assets
D) The visibility of the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Driver Rule
B) Ambush attack
C) Advance Security
D) Mental attitude
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Novice Criminal
B) Moving Attack
C) Close in Security
D) Ambush attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Ambush attack
C) Moving Attack
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Mental Attitude
B) Ambush attack
C) Close in Security
D) Advance Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Moving Attack
B) Ambush attack
C) Modus Operandi
D) Driver Rule
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Mental attitude
B) Novice Criminal
C) Driver Rule
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Mental Attitude
B) Advance Security
C) Novice Criminal
D) Module Operandi
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Prophylactic Operations
B) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
C) Modus Operandi
D) Novice Criminals
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Modus Operandi
B) Advance Security
C) Novice Criminals
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Advance Security
C) Moving Attack
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Alertness
B) Expressiveness
C) Pleasantness
D) Slang usage
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
B) Speak continuously without pause
C) Wait for confirmation before speaking
D) Use codes for every sentence
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Creation of laws
B) Hunting and gathering
C) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
D) Establishment if civilization
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Speak as fast as possible
B) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
C) Avoid using any code's
D) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) People are talking too much
B) There are not enough languages
C) Communication channels are too expensive
D) People still fail to understand one another
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) Long pauses
B) Slang and unnatural language
C) All codes and acronyms
D) High-pitched voices
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Telephone
B) Messaging security
C) Walkie-talkies
D) Audio hailer
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Receiving poorly
C) Location
D) Repeat message
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Use of Signs
B) Symbolic Art
C) Oral language
D) Written language
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) The tone of a person's voice
B) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
C) A device for broadcasting messages
D) The tool used to write
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
B) Determine employee productivity
C) Review the state of physical security
D) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Designing building architecture
B) Training new recruits
C) Boosting sales
D) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) External cyber attacks
B) Supplier delays
C) Competitor activity
D) Criminal activity within the organization
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
B) A list of employee duties
C) A financial audit of company assets
D) A routine fire drill
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Develop alternatives
B) Determine how data will be gathered
C) Prepare Schedule
D) Verify the need
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It allows skipping certain steps
B) It ensures cooperation and resources
C) It guarantees fast results
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
B) Staff scheduling
C) Background checks
D) Legal compliance checks only
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Emergency drill
B) Fire inspection
C) Security briefing
D) Security survey
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To hire new security staff
B) To monitor employee performance
C) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
D) To evaluate marketing strategies
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) They are unrelated processes
B) Only inspection is required for long term planning
C) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
D) Survey is done after inspection
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Loud and clear
C) Repeat message
D) Receiving poorly
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Location
C) Identify yourself/call sign
D) Radio check
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Loud and clear
B) Location
C) Copied message
D) Radio check
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Identify yourself/call sign
B) Repeat message
C) Copied message
D) Location
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Copied message
B) Radio check
C) Loud and clear
D) Repeat message
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Location
C) Receiving poorly
D) Loud and clear
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Preliminary investigation
B) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
C) Interview the complainant and witnesses
D) Proceed and locates the witnesses
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
B) Relay message
C) Effect the arrest of the offender
D) Render obedience and proper conduct
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Effect the arrest of the offender
B) Effectively uses investigation
C) Plaster cast
D) Effort and loyalty
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Interview the company
B) Locate and protect
C) Locates and capture perpetrator
D) Locates the identifies the witnesses
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Affect the crime scene
B) Interview the complainant and witnesses
C) Interview and locates the offender
D) Indirect Approach
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
B) Morse code
C) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
D) Methods of investigation
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate everyone
B) Interrogate the suspect/offender
C) Interrogate the people
D) Interrogate the crime scene
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note the important things
B) Note all conditions, events and remarks
C) Note all happen
D) Note all
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange
B) Arrange of the people
C) Arrange for the collection of evidence
D) Arrange of the following statements
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports the incident fully and accurately
B) Report me
C) Reports everyone
D) Reports the offender
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
B) Yields the following individuals
C) Yields the following statements
D) Yields the conducting regular inspections
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