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ISMANA (Finals)
Contributed by: Delos Reyes
  • 1. Which of the following would most likely result in covert compromise of classified data without leaving physical evidence
A) Sabotage
B) Pilferage
C) Subversion
D) Espionage
  • 2. What distinguishes a systematic pilferer from a casual one?
A) Intent and premeditation in theft
B) Level of Education
C) Number of times they were caught
D) Only steals small, easily hidden items
  • 3. A security manager chooses to invest heavily in surveillance, alarm systems, and intrusion detection. This application is best classified as:
A) Risk Transfer
B) Risk Avoidance
C) Risk Self-Assumption
D) Risk Reduction
  • 4. What is the first step when a visitor enters a secure facility
A) Issue of weapons
B) Allow free access
C) Body Frisking
D) Identification and Verification of purpose
  • 5. What is the primary distinction between espionage and subversion
A) Espionage is legally protected: Subversion is Criminal
B) Espionage focuses on information theft, Subversion seeks to weaken authority or cause disruption
C) Subversion is done by governments only
D) Espionage targets morale: Subversion targets information
  • 6. A company decides to decentralized it's data storage across multiple sites to minimize the impact of a cyber attack. This is the example of?
A) Risk Reduction
B) Risk Self Assumption
C) Risk Spreading
D) Risk Transfer
  • 7. Which of the following scenario best exemplifies risk self Assumption?
A) Hiring a private contractor to manage physical security
B) Ignoring risk completely due to lack of budget
C) A company opting not to ensure a low-value asset but setting aside funds in case of loss
D) Spreading the risk by outsourcing critical operations
  • 8. What human hazard involves international damage to physical assets without stealing or spying
A) Espionage
B) Vandalism
C) Pilferage
D) Subversion
  • 9. An adversary is best described as:
A) An environmental condition causing damage
B) A security measure in place to protect assets
C) An entity with both intent and capability to harm another
D) A legal owner of an asset
  • 10. In risk analysis, "critically" is best assessed through:
A) The number of people using the asset
B) The frequency of threat attempts
C) The financial or survival of losing the assets
D) The visibility of the asset
  • 11. Conducts area cleaning operations ahead of the VIP's arrival
A) Mental attitude
B) Driver Rule
C) Ambush attack
D) Advance Security
  • 12. Tactic where attackers force the vehicle to stop while in move
A) Moving Attack
B) Close in Security
C) Novice Criminal
D) Ambush attack
  • 13. The tactic of blocking the vehicle in a predefined kill zoned
A) Ambush attack
B) Moving Attack
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 14. Individuals tasks with directly accompanying and protect
A) Mental Attitude
B) Ambush attack
C) Advance Security
D) Close in Security
  • 15. Always planning 2-3 blocks ahead, alert for unusual obstract
A) Modus Operandi
B) Ambush attack
C) Driver Rule
D) Moving Attack
  • 16. Stability, quick judgement, and calmness under stress are
A) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
B) Mental attitude
C) Driver Rule
D) Novice Criminal
  • 17. The method or procedure used to carry out a crime
A) Module Operandi
B) Mental Attitude
C) Novice Criminal
D) Advance Security
  • 18. Poorly planned kidnapper's lacking skill or strategy
A) Modus Operandi
B) Prophylactic Operations
C) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
D) Novice Criminals
  • 19. Those who are willing to die or kill to spread a cause
A) Modus Operandi
B) Advance Security
C) Novice Criminals
D) Political Motivated Kidnapper's
  • 20. Includes setting up checkpoints and area patrolling
A) Mental attitude
B) Moving Attack
C) Advance Security
D) Prophylactic Operations
  • 21. Which is not requisite for voice transmission (modulation)?
A) Slang usage
B) Expressiveness
C) Alertness
D) Pleasantness
  • 22. What is the duty cycle rule when transmitting via PTT?
A) Transmit 3 to 5 words at a time
B) Use codes for every sentence
C) Speak continuously without pause
D) Wait for confirmation before speaking
  • 23. According to the text, what mate man "supreme and progressive"?
A) Creation of laws
B) Transfer of thoughts and ideas
C) Hunting and gathering
D) Establishment if civilization
  • 24. Which of the following is a proper approach to adhere to the duty cycle of PTT communication?
A) Use of phonetic alphabet and numerals
B) Use of long sentences and complete grammar
C) Speak as fast as possible
D) Avoid using any code's
  • 25. What ironic problem is identified with modern communication despite technological advancement?
A) There are not enough languages
B) People still fail to understand one another
C) Communication channels are too expensive
D) People are talking too much
  • 26. What is naturalness in voice modulation aiming to eliminate?
A) All codes and acronyms
B) High-pitched voices
C) Slang and unnatural language
D) Long pauses
  • 27. What modern communication element aims to secure messages from unauthorized listeners and attacks like spam or malware?
A) Walkie-talkies
B) Messaging security
C) Telephone
D) Audio hailer
  • 28. What does APCO 10-9 mean in radio communication?
A) Location
B) Repeat message
C) Radio check
D) Receiving poorly
  • 29. What is considered the earliest form of communication that enabled ancient humans to survive the stone Age?
A) Use of Signs
B) Written language
C) Symbolic Art
D) Oral language
  • 30. What does the term "medium of communication" refer to?
A) A common language shared by people exchanging ideas
B) A device for broadcasting messages
C) The tool used to write
D) The tone of a person's voice
  • 31. Which of the following is not a specific objective of a security survey listed in the material?
A) Review the state of physical security
B) Assess criminal activity from outside the organization
C) Determine employee productivity
D) Identify vulnerabilities from natural causes
  • 32. What is the focus of a security service?
A) Training new recruits
B) Boosting sales
C) Designing building architecture
D) Analyzing and improving a facility's security practices
  • 33. What kind of internal threat is assessed during a security survey?
A) Supplier delays
B) Criminal activity within the organization
C) Competitor activity
D) External cyber attacks
  • 34. Which of the following best describes a security survey?
A) A routine fire drill
B) A list of employee duties
C) A critical on site examination of a facility's security status
D) A financial audit of company assets
  • 35. In planning a security survey, what is the first step listed in the material?
A) Develop alternatives
B) Prepare Schedule
C) Determine how data will be gathered
D) Verify the need
  • 36. Why is obtaining organizational support important in planning a survey?
A) It allows skipping certain steps
B) It ensures cooperation and resources
C) It guarantees fast results
D) It helps save money
  • 37. A security survey is a general term that often includes which of the following?
A) Legal compliance checks only
B) Checklists, audits, or inventories of security conditions
C) Staff scheduling
D) Background checks
  • 38. A thorough analysis of security conditions at a facility to recommend improvements refers to:
A) Security briefing
B) Emergency drill
C) Fire inspection
D) Security survey
  • 39. What is the primary purpose of a security survey?
A) To evaluate marketing strategies
B) To identify security vulnerabilities and recommend improvements
C) To hire new security staff
D) To monitor employee performance
  • 40. Which of the following best describes the relationship between security survey and inspection
A) Survey is done after inspection
B) Only inspection is required for long term planning
C) Inspection complements the survey to maintain security integrity
D) They are unrelated processes
  • 41. What does APCO 10-1 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Receiving poorly
C) Loud and clear
D) Location
  • 42. What does APCO 10-2 mean in radio communication?
A) Loud and clear
B) Identify yourself/call sign
C) Radio check
D) Location
  • 43. What does APCO 10-20 mean in radio?
A) Loud and clear
B) Location
C) Radio check
D) Copied message
  • 44. What does APCO 10-28 mean in radio communication
A) Identify yourself/call sign
B) Copied message
C) Location
D) Repeat message
  • 45. What does APCO 10-4 mean in radio communication?
A) Repeat message
B) Loud and clear
C) Radio check
D) Copied message
  • 46. What does APCO 10-32 mean in radio communication?
A) Radio check
B) Receiving poorly
C) Location
D) Loud and clear
  • 47. In preliminary investigation the letter P stands for?
A) Proceed and locates the witnesses
B) Interview the complainant and witnesses
C) Preliminary investigation
D) Proceed to the scene promptly and safely
  • 48. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Render Assistance for the victim, if any
B) Render obedience and proper conduct
C) Relay message
D) Effect the arrest of the offender
  • 49. In preliminary investigation the letter E stands for?
A) Plaster cast
B) Effectively uses investigation
C) Effort and loyalty
D) Effect the arrest of the offender
  • 50. In preliminary investigation the letter L stands for?
A) Locates and capture perpetrator
B) Locates the identifies the witnesses
C) Interview the company
D) Locate and protect
  • 51. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interview the complainant and witnesses
B) Indirect Approach
C) Affect the crime scene
D) Interview and locates the offender
  • 52. In preliminary investigation the letter M stands for?
A) Maintains the crime scene and protects the evidence
B) Methods of investigation
C) Morse code
D) Maintenance of crime scene and protects the evidence
  • 53. In preliminary investigation the letter I stands for?
A) Interrogate the suspect/offender
B) Interrogate the people
C) Interrogate the crime scene
D) Interrogate everyone
  • 54. In preliminary investigation the letter N stands for?
A) Note the important things
B) Note all conditions, events and remarks
C) Note all happen
D) Note all
  • 55. In preliminary investigation the letter A stands for?
A) Arrange
B) Arrange of the following statements
C) Arrange for the collection of evidence
D) Arrange of the people
  • 56. In preliminary investigation the letter R stands for?
A) Reports everyone
B) Reports the offender
C) Report me
D) Reports the incident fully and accurately
  • 57. In preliminary investigation the letter Y stands for?
A) Yields the responsibility to the follow up investigation
B) Yields the following individuals
C) Yields the conducting regular inspections
D) Yields the following statements
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