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AREA 3 SUBJECT 3
Contributed by: gutierrez
  • 1. An investigator interviews a witness in a friendly, non-accusatory manner to gather facts about a crime. This process best exemplifies which technique?
A) Elicitation
B) Cross-examination
C) Interrogation
D) Interview
  • 2. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral
B) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information.
C) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest.
D) Both are the same under Philippine law.
  • 3. When an investigator uses empathy and understanding to encourage a suspect to talk, which method of interrogation is being applied?
A) Coercive technique
B) Emotional appeal
C) Logical approach
D) Direct approach
  • 4. The legal requirement that a confession must be made voluntarily ensures the observance of which constitutional right?
A) Right against unreasonable search
B) Right against self-incrimination
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to bail
  • 5. The admissibility of a confession depends on its being made:
A) In writing and in the presence of a police officer
B) Under oath and notarized
C) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
D) Before the barangay captain
  • 6. A confession made without the presence of counsel is inadmissible because it violates which rule of law?
A) Chain of custody rule
B) Miranda Doctrine
C) Rule on res gestae
D) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
  • 7. What is the primary purpose of the Miranda warning in police interrogation?
A) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed
B) To make the suspect feel guilty
C) To shorten the process of interrogation
D) To protect the investigator from liability
  • 8. A statement made by a dying person regarding the cause of his death is called:
A) Confession
B) Dying declaration
C) Res gestae
D) Admission
  • 9. For a dying declaration to be admissible, it must be shown that:
A) The declaration was made before a lawyer
B) The declarant was under police custody
C) The declarant believed death was imminent.
D) The statement was in writing.
  • 10. The principle that a dying person would not meet death with a lie is known as:
A) Doctrine of finality
B) Principle of truthfulness
C) Doctrine of dying declaration
D) Rule of Res Gestae
  • 11. Statements made immediately after a startling event, without time to fabricate, are known as:
A) Res gestae
B) Confessions
C) Admissions
D) Independent relevant statements
  • 12. Which of the following is an example of an independent relevant statement?
A) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime
B) A doctor’s report describing injuries
C) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant
D) A suspect’s confession to police
  • 13. During interrogation, a suspect breaks down and admits the crime. The confession will be inadmissible if:
A) It was written in English
B) It was made in private
C) It was made without counsel
D) It was made after prolonged questioning
  • 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of interview used in criminal investigation?
A) Cognitive interview
B) Structured interview
C) Investigative interview
D) Coercive interview
  • 15. In the cognitive interview technique, the investigator encourages the witness to:
A) Create a timeline
B) Recall events from different perspectives
C) Confess guilt
D) Guess what happened
  • 16. Which of the following makes a confession valid and admissible?
A) Signed before an ordinary witness
B) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present
C) Made before a prosecutor without counsel
D) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing
  • 17. A suspect confesses under threat of harm from the police. Under the Rules of Evidence, the confession is
A) Inadmissible
B) Conditional
C) Admissible
D) Partially admissible
  • 18. What distinguishes an admission from a confession?
A) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after.
B) They are synonymous in criminal law
C) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt.
D) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts.
  • 19. In evaluating a suspect’s confession, the court will primarily consider:
A) The investigator’s experience
B) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
C) The number of witnesses
D) The seriousness of the crime
  • 20. When the suspect exercises the right to remain silent, the investigator must:
A) Detain the suspect longer
B) Stop the interrogation immediately
C) Continue the questioning
D) Use persuasion
  • 21. During a police interview, the investigator allows the suspect to narrate freely without interruption. Which method of questioning is being applied?
A) Narrative Method
B) Structured Interview
C) Cross-Examination Approach
D) Cognitive Interview
  • 22. In an interrogation, the investigator deliberately pauses after the suspect gives an incomplete answer to encourage further disclosure. This technique is known as:
A) Theme development
B) Repetition technique
C) Emotional appeal
D) Silence technique
  • 23. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory
B) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants
C) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly
D) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest
  • 24. A police investigator fails to inform a suspect of his constitutional rights before taking a confession. Which is the legal consequence?
A) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible
B) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration
C) The confession remains admissible
D) The confession may be admitted if written and signed
  • 25. Which of the following elements is NOT essential for a confession to be admissible?
A) It must be in writing
B) It must be made with the assistance of counsel
C) It must be expressed and categorical
D) It must be voluntary
  • 26. A dying person tells a nurse that “Juan stabbed me because I refused to give him money.” Which statement is legally valid as a dying declaration?
A) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible
B) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
C) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death
D) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer
  • 27. A confession made without counsel but later affirmed in open court with counsel present is:
A) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights
B) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence
C) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver
D) Admissible because it was later confirmed
  • 28. A statement made by a victim who later dies, but who did not believe death was imminent, may be admitted as:
A) Part of res gestae
B) Admission
C) Independent relevant statement
D) Dying declaration
  • 29. Which principle guides the admissibility of a dying declaration under Rule 130 of the Rules on Evidence?
A) Voluntariness and legality
B) Necessity and trustworthiness
C) Materiality and spontaneity
D) Opportunity and impartiality
  • 30. A suspect admits that he “might have hit the victim by accident.” What type of admission is this?
A) Judicial admission
B) Tacit confession
C) Qualified admission
D) Extrajudicial confession
  • 31. During an interrogation, the investigator uses deception to make the suspect believe evidence exists. Which statement is correct?
A) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances
B) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
C) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor
D) Deception invalidates all statements
  • 32. A witness spontaneously blurts out, “He ran that way after shooting the man!” immediately after the crime. This statement is classified as
A) Admission against interest
B) Confession
C) Res gestae statement
D) Dying declaration
  • 33. A police officer questions a suspect for six hours without counsel and without informing him of his rights. The resulting statement is:
A) Voluntary admission
B) Coerced confession
C) Admissible due to continuous questioning
D) Valid under implied waiver doctrine
  • 34. Which of the following is not a proper objective of interrogation?
A) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
B) To elicit truth about participation in a crime
C) To obtain a confession
D) test the validity of gathered evidence
  • 35. When the declarant’s statement is offered only to prove that the statement was made, not for its truth, it falls under:
A) Admission
B) Confession
C) Independent relevant statement
D) Hearsay
  • 36. Which of the following situations best fits the rule on dying declaration?
A) The declaration must be in written form
B) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement
C) The declarant must die immediately after the statement
D) The declarant must believe death is inevitable
  • 37. When a suspect’s statement is taken with counsel but through threat and intimidation, the statement is:
A) Admissible because counsel was present
B) Admissible only as corroborative evidence
C) Inadmissible for being involuntary
D) Valid if re-affirmed later
  • 38. An investigator allows the witness to reconstruct the crime scene mentally to enhance recall. This method refers to
A) Investigative visualization
B) Hypnosis technique
C) Narrative reconstruction
D) Cognitive interviewing
  • 39. A confession obtained during custodial investigation without the presence of counsel but repeated voluntarily in court with counsel is:
A) Admissible as corroborative evidence
B) Admissible in full
C) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation
D) Admissible only in part
  • 40. A victim tells his neighbor before dying, “Tell my mother that Pedro stabbed me.” The victim clearly thought he was dying. This statement is:
A) Admission against interest
B) Confession
C) Inadmissible hearsay
D) Dying declaration
  • 41. A confession made after the suspect was informed of his rights but before counsel arrived is:
A) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked
B) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning
C) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
D) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official
  • 42. During an interrogation, the investigator builds rapport and gradually shifts to direct questioning about the crime. This process is part of which interrogation phase?
A) Approach phase
B) Question-and-answer phase
C) Termination phase
D) Preparation phase
  • 43. The “PEACE” model (Preparation, Engage, Account, Closure, Evaluation) commonly used in investigative interviewing focuses on:
A) Rapid confessional tactics
B) Extracting confession through pressure
C) Use of psychological manipulation
D) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning
  • 44. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of interrogation under Philippine law?
A) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession
B) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely
C) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction
D) Encouraging voluntary cooperation
  • 45. In applying the “logical approach” to interrogation, the investigator primarily relies on:
A) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies
B) Deception and bluffing
C) Emotional appeal and sympathy
D) Physical pressure
  • 46. When a witness’s statement is taken immediately after the incident to preserve accuracy of recollection, it is called:
A) Preliminary interview
B) Cognitive interrogation
C) Investigative debriefing
D) Cross-examination
  • 47. A suspect, after consulting with his lawyer, voluntarily admits his role in the crime without coercion. The confession is
A) Inadmissible for being post-consultation
B) Considered res gestae
C) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses
D) Admissible in evidence
  • 48. The main purpose of conducting an interview before an interrogation is to:
A) Intimidate the suspect to confess
B) Gather information without accusation
C) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Obtain physical evidence
  • 49. Under the Rules on Evidence, which of the following is required for a dying declaration to be valid?
A) The declarant must identify the killer
B) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator
C) The declarant must be under oath
D) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death
  • 50. A statement made by a witness out of court to explain his subsequent actions, not to prove the truth of the statement, is an example of:
A) Admission
B) Independent relevant statement
C) Confession
D) Res gestae
  • 51. The key distinguishing element between theft and robbery under the Revised Penal Code is:
A) The intent to gain
B) The use or threat of violence or intimidation
C) The number of offenders
D) The value of the property stolen
  • 52. Which of the following is a crucial initial step in investigating a robbery incident?
A) Tracing the stolen property
B) Filing the case immediately
C) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
D) Conducting a background check on the victim
  • 53. The modus operandi of the suspect and the means of entry and escape are primarily analyzed during which phase of property crime investigation?
A) Evidence collection
B) Suspect profiling
C) Intelligence gathering
D) Crime scene reconstruction
  • 54. The main difference between estafa and theft is:
A) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not.
B) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings.
C) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not
D) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not.
  • 55. In investigating estafa cases, the most vital documentary evidence is:
A) Property inventory
B) Confession of the accused
C) CCTV footage
D) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction
  • 56. A car is taken without the owner’s consent with intent to gain. This act falls under:
A) Estafa
B) Carnapping
C) Robbery
D) Qualified theft
  • 57. The Anti-Carnapping Law (R.A. 10883) defines carnapping as the taking of a motor vehicle:
A) With violence or intimidation only
B) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain
C) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally
D) Without violence but with intent to gain
  • 58. Under R.A. 10883, when carnapping results in the death of a person, the penalty is:
A) Death by lethal injection
B) Reclusion perpetua to death
C) Reclusion temporal
D) Life imprisonment
  • 59. In the investigation of carnapping cases, the Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) is primarily used to:
A) Determine insurance status
B) Identify the manufacturer
C) Trace ownership and vehicle identity
D) Locate the driver
  • 60. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) penalizes
A) Only those who steal cars
B) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen
C) Those who physically steal property
D) Those who report stolen property
  • 61. The essential element that distinguishes a fencer from a thief is:
A) The act of possession rather than the act of taking
B) The ownership of the property
C) The act of concealing the property
D) The absence of intent to gain
  • 62. Which document serves as the primary reference in proving ownership of a motor vehicle in carnapping cases?
A) Driver’s license
B) Insurance policy
C) Sales invoice
D) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR)
  • 63. The presumption of fencing arises when:
A) The property is found hidden
B) The accused was seen near the crime scene
C) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation
D) The accused buys property from a store
  • 64. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) was enacted primarily to:
A) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods
B) Reduce robbery incidents
C) Punish the original thief
D) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce
  • 65. In human trafficking under R.A. 9208, the core element is:
A) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion
B) Recruitment for legal overseas work
C) Use of minors in employment
D) Payment of recruitment fees
  • 66. R.A. 10364 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking Act) strengthened R.A. 9208 by:
A) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only
B) Allowing voluntary prostitution
C) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment
D) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability
  • 67. The latest amendment, R.A. 11862 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2022), focuses on:
A) Reducing penalties for traffickers
B) Limiting law enforcement authority
C) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction
D) Increasing fines
  • 68. The victim-centered approach in human trafficking investigations emphasizes:
A) Aggressive interrogation
B) Protection and rehabilitation of victims
C) Immediate deportation
D) Media exposure
  • 69. Under R.A. 9208, the following is NOT considered trafficking:
A) Debt bondage
B) Forced labor
C) Exploitation of prostitution
D) Adoption following legal procedures
  • 70. One of the stages of money laundering where illegal money enters the financial system is called:
A) Integration
B) Structuring
C) Placement
D) Layering
  • 71. The layering stage of money laundering involves:
A) Depositing the proceeds
B) Investing clean money
C) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin
D) Reporting suspicious transactions
  • 72. The integration stage occurs when:
A) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts
B) The launderer hides the funds abroad
C) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses
D) Authorities freeze the assets
  • 73. The Anti-Money Laundering Act (R.A. 9160) aims to:
A) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds
B) Encourage secret banking
C) Allow anonymous foreign accounts
D) Regulate pawnshops
  • 74. Under R.A. 10927, casinos are included as:
A) Non-reporting entities
B) Exempt institutions
C) Covered persons under AMLA
D) Charitable organizations
  • 75. Under AMLA, a transaction exceeding ₱500,000 within one banking day must be reported as:
A) Suspicious transaction
B) Covered transaction
C) Layered transaction
D) Threshold transaction
  • 76. Failure of a covered institution to report suspicious transactions constitutes:
A) Gross negligence
B) A criminal violation under AMLA
C) Administrative offense only
D) No liability if unintentional
  • 77. The body primarily responsible for enforcing AMLA is:
A) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)
B) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
C) Department of Justice
D) Securities and Exchange Commission
  • 78. The approach in investigating theft focuses on:
A) Identifying the victim’s negligence
B) Checking bank accounts
C) Establishing the suspect’s income
D) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain
  • 79. The investigative approach in robbery emphasizes:
A) Recovery of stolen property only
B) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence
C) Conducting digital forensics
D) Studying the suspect’s financial background
  • 80. In estafa investigations, one must primarily analyze:
A) Modus operandi and deceit pattern
B) Place of transaction only
C) Suspect’s criminal record
D) The victim’s wealth
  • 81. Under R.A. 10883, the registered owner’s failure to report a stolen vehicle within 24 hours may result in:
A) Presumption of involvement in the crime
B) Forfeiture of insurance claims
C) No consequence
D) Administrative sanction
  • 82. A person who buys a motorcycle at a suspiciously low price without verifying ownership documents may be liable for:
A) Fencing
B) Estafa
C) Carnapping
D) Theft
  • 83. Under AMLA, a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is required when:
A) The account is new
B) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual
C) The depositor is a senior citizen
D) The account balance is low
  • 84. In investigating money laundering, the financial trail is reconstructed mainly through:
A) Witness interviews
B) News reports
C) Paper and digital transaction audit
D) Bank advertisements
  • 85. The common investigative challenge across property, financial, and trafficking crimes is:
A) Media pressure
B) Lack of police equipment
C) Political influence
D) International cooperation and evidence tracing
  • 86. A police investigator observes that a crime scene has no signs of forced entry, yet valuable items are missing. Which crime is most likely being investigated?
A) Estafa
B) Carnapping
C) Theft
D) Robbery
  • 87. In distinguishing theft from robbery, which investigative focus is most critical?
A) Relationship between victim and offender
B) Use of deception or false pretenses
C) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation
D) The monetary value of the property stolen
  • 88. A businessman convinces several investors to give money for a fake project. Which investigative approach should be applied?
A) Property recovery operation
B) Vehicle tracing system
C) Financial and documentary audit
D) Physical evidence collection at the scene
  • 89. In robbery cases, an investigator should prioritize the collection of which type of evidence?
A) Vehicle registration documents
B) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints
C) Computer logs and online records
D) Documentary and bank receipts
  • 90. In a case of estafa, what kind of evidence is most crucial for conviction?
A) DNA evidence
B) Physical evidence at the crime scene
C) Eyewitness testimony
D) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage
  • 91. Under R.A. 10883 (New Anti-Carnapping Law), when is the crime of carnapping considered consummated?
A) When the vehicle leaves the city or province
B) When the vehicle is sold to another person
C) When the owner reports the loss
D) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner
  • 92. A vehicle is stolen and immediately disassembled for sale of parts. Under R.A. 10883, this is classified as:
A) Robbery
B) Theft
C) Simple carnapping
D) Qualified carnapping
  • 93. Under P.D. 1612 (Anti-Fencing Law), which of the following elements must be proven to establish guilt?
A) Amount of profit derived from the property
B) Ownership of stolen property by the fence
C) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence
D) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen
  • 94. A buyer purchased a secondhand motorcycle at a suspiciously low price and failed to verify its origin. Under P.D. 1612, this constitutes:
A) Estafa
B) Fencing
C) Innocent purchase
D) Theft by negligence
  • 95. Which of the following is a distinguishing investigative step in human trafficking cases compared to other crimes against property?
A) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities
B) Collection of firearms evidence
C) Accounting audit of business operations
D) Vehicle tracing through LTO database
  • 96. Under R.A. 9208 (Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act), what element distinguishes trafficking from illegal recruitment?
A) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old
B) Violation of labor regulations
C) Employment abroad
D) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation
  • 97. Which law expanded the coverage of human trafficking to include “online sexual exploitation and cyber trafficking”?
A) R.A. 10364
B) P.D. 1612
C) R.A. 10883
D) R.A. 9208
  • 98. Under R.A. 11862, what new provision strengthened the protection of trafficking victims?
A) Immunity of recruiters
B) Non-deportation of foreign victims
C) Repatriation without consent
D) Reclassification of all victims as offenders
  • 99. In money laundering, which of the following stages involves depositing illegally obtained funds into the financial system?
A) Integration
B) Concealment
C) Placement
D) Layering
  • 100. An investigator detects multiple fund transfers among shell companies to obscure the origin of money. Which stage of money laundering is this?
A) Layering
B) Structuring
C) Integration
D) Placement
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