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AREA 3 SUBJECT 3
Contributed by: gutierrez
  • 1. An investigator interviews a witness in a friendly, non-accusatory manner to gather facts about a crime. This process best exemplifies which technique?
A) Elicitation
B) Interrogation
C) Cross-examination
D) Interview
  • 2. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral
B) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest.
C) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information.
D) Both are the same under Philippine law.
  • 3. When an investigator uses empathy and understanding to encourage a suspect to talk, which method of interrogation is being applied?
A) Coercive technique
B) Logical approach
C) Direct approach
D) Emotional appeal
  • 4. The legal requirement that a confession must be made voluntarily ensures the observance of which constitutional right?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right to bail
C) Right against self-incrimination
D) Right against unreasonable search
  • 5. The admissibility of a confession depends on its being made:
A) In writing and in the presence of a police officer
B) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
C) Before the barangay captain
D) Under oath and notarized
  • 6. A confession made without the presence of counsel is inadmissible because it violates which rule of law?
A) Rule on res gestae
B) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
C) Miranda Doctrine
D) Chain of custody rule
  • 7. What is the primary purpose of the Miranda warning in police interrogation?
A) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed
B) To shorten the process of interrogation
C) To make the suspect feel guilty
D) To protect the investigator from liability
  • 8. A statement made by a dying person regarding the cause of his death is called:
A) Dying declaration
B) Confession
C) Admission
D) Res gestae
  • 9. For a dying declaration to be admissible, it must be shown that:
A) The declaration was made before a lawyer
B) The declarant believed death was imminent.
C) The declarant was under police custody
D) The statement was in writing.
  • 10. The principle that a dying person would not meet death with a lie is known as:
A) Principle of truthfulness
B) Doctrine of dying declaration
C) Rule of Res Gestae
D) Doctrine of finality
  • 11. Statements made immediately after a startling event, without time to fabricate, are known as:
A) Res gestae
B) Independent relevant statements
C) Confessions
D) Admissions
  • 12. Which of the following is an example of an independent relevant statement?
A) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant
B) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime
C) A doctor’s report describing injuries
D) A suspect’s confession to police
  • 13. During interrogation, a suspect breaks down and admits the crime. The confession will be inadmissible if:
A) It was made in private
B) It was made after prolonged questioning
C) It was written in English
D) It was made without counsel
  • 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of interview used in criminal investigation?
A) Investigative interview
B) Cognitive interview
C) Structured interview
D) Coercive interview
  • 15. In the cognitive interview technique, the investigator encourages the witness to:
A) Guess what happened
B) Create a timeline
C) Recall events from different perspectives
D) Confess guilt
  • 16. Which of the following makes a confession valid and admissible?
A) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present
B) Made before a prosecutor without counsel
C) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing
D) Signed before an ordinary witness
  • 17. A suspect confesses under threat of harm from the police. Under the Rules of Evidence, the confession is
A) Partially admissible
B) Conditional
C) Inadmissible
D) Admissible
  • 18. What distinguishes an admission from a confession?
A) They are synonymous in criminal law
B) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after.
C) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts.
D) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt.
  • 19. In evaluating a suspect’s confession, the court will primarily consider:
A) The investigator’s experience
B) The seriousness of the crime
C) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
D) The number of witnesses
  • 20. When the suspect exercises the right to remain silent, the investigator must:
A) Stop the interrogation immediately
B) Use persuasion
C) Continue the questioning
D) Detain the suspect longer
  • 21. During a police interview, the investigator allows the suspect to narrate freely without interruption. Which method of questioning is being applied?
A) Cognitive Interview
B) Structured Interview
C) Cross-Examination Approach
D) Narrative Method
  • 22. In an interrogation, the investigator deliberately pauses after the suspect gives an incomplete answer to encourage further disclosure. This technique is known as:
A) Theme development
B) Silence technique
C) Emotional appeal
D) Repetition technique
  • 23. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest
B) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants
C) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly
D) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory
  • 24. A police investigator fails to inform a suspect of his constitutional rights before taking a confession. Which is the legal consequence?
A) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible
B) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration
C) The confession remains admissible
D) The confession may be admitted if written and signed
  • 25. Which of the following elements is NOT essential for a confession to be admissible?
A) It must be voluntary
B) It must be in writing
C) It must be made with the assistance of counsel
D) It must be expressed and categorical
  • 26. A dying person tells a nurse that “Juan stabbed me because I refused to give him money.” Which statement is legally valid as a dying declaration?
A) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
B) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible
C) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death
D) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer
  • 27. A confession made without counsel but later affirmed in open court with counsel present is:
A) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence
B) Admissible because it was later confirmed
C) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver
D) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights
  • 28. A statement made by a victim who later dies, but who did not believe death was imminent, may be admitted as:
A) Independent relevant statement
B) Part of res gestae
C) Admission
D) Dying declaration
  • 29. Which principle guides the admissibility of a dying declaration under Rule 130 of the Rules on Evidence?
A) Voluntariness and legality
B) Necessity and trustworthiness
C) Opportunity and impartiality
D) Materiality and spontaneity
  • 30. A suspect admits that he “might have hit the victim by accident.” What type of admission is this?
A) Judicial admission
B) Tacit confession
C) Qualified admission
D) Extrajudicial confession
  • 31. During an interrogation, the investigator uses deception to make the suspect believe evidence exists. Which statement is correct?
A) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
B) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances
C) Deception invalidates all statements
D) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor
  • 32. A witness spontaneously blurts out, “He ran that way after shooting the man!” immediately after the crime. This statement is classified as
A) Res gestae statement
B) Admission against interest
C) Confession
D) Dying declaration
  • 33. A police officer questions a suspect for six hours without counsel and without informing him of his rights. The resulting statement is:
A) Voluntary admission
B) Coerced confession
C) Admissible due to continuous questioning
D) Valid under implied waiver doctrine
  • 34. Which of the following is not a proper objective of interrogation?
A) To obtain a confession
B) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
C) To elicit truth about participation in a crime
D) test the validity of gathered evidence
  • 35. When the declarant’s statement is offered only to prove that the statement was made, not for its truth, it falls under:
A) Confession
B) Independent relevant statement
C) Hearsay
D) Admission
  • 36. Which of the following situations best fits the rule on dying declaration?
A) The declarant must believe death is inevitable
B) The declaration must be in written form
C) The declarant must die immediately after the statement
D) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement
  • 37. When a suspect’s statement is taken with counsel but through threat and intimidation, the statement is:
A) Valid if re-affirmed later
B) Inadmissible for being involuntary
C) Admissible because counsel was present
D) Admissible only as corroborative evidence
  • 38. An investigator allows the witness to reconstruct the crime scene mentally to enhance recall. This method refers to
A) Hypnosis technique
B) Cognitive interviewing
C) Narrative reconstruction
D) Investigative visualization
  • 39. A confession obtained during custodial investigation without the presence of counsel but repeated voluntarily in court with counsel is:
A) Admissible in full
B) Admissible as corroborative evidence
C) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation
D) Admissible only in part
  • 40. A victim tells his neighbor before dying, “Tell my mother that Pedro stabbed me.” The victim clearly thought he was dying. This statement is:
A) Admission against interest
B) Inadmissible hearsay
C) Dying declaration
D) Confession
  • 41. A confession made after the suspect was informed of his rights but before counsel arrived is:
A) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning
B) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
C) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official
D) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked
  • 42. During an interrogation, the investigator builds rapport and gradually shifts to direct questioning about the crime. This process is part of which interrogation phase?
A) Approach phase
B) Preparation phase
C) Question-and-answer phase
D) Termination phase
  • 43. The “PEACE” model (Preparation, Engage, Account, Closure, Evaluation) commonly used in investigative interviewing focuses on:
A) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning
B) Extracting confession through pressure
C) Use of psychological manipulation
D) Rapid confessional tactics
  • 44. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of interrogation under Philippine law?
A) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely
B) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction
C) Encouraging voluntary cooperation
D) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession
  • 45. In applying the “logical approach” to interrogation, the investigator primarily relies on:
A) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies
B) Emotional appeal and sympathy
C) Physical pressure
D) Deception and bluffing
  • 46. When a witness’s statement is taken immediately after the incident to preserve accuracy of recollection, it is called:
A) Cognitive interrogation
B) Investigative debriefing
C) Cross-examination
D) Preliminary interview
  • 47. A suspect, after consulting with his lawyer, voluntarily admits his role in the crime without coercion. The confession is
A) Considered res gestae
B) Inadmissible for being post-consultation
C) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses
D) Admissible in evidence
  • 48. The main purpose of conducting an interview before an interrogation is to:
A) Intimidate the suspect to confess
B) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
C) Gather information without accusation
D) Obtain physical evidence
  • 49. Under the Rules on Evidence, which of the following is required for a dying declaration to be valid?
A) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death
B) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator
C) The declarant must be under oath
D) The declarant must identify the killer
  • 50. A statement made by a witness out of court to explain his subsequent actions, not to prove the truth of the statement, is an example of:
A) Admission
B) Confession
C) Independent relevant statement
D) Res gestae
  • 51. The key distinguishing element between theft and robbery under the Revised Penal Code is:
A) The number of offenders
B) The use or threat of violence or intimidation
C) The value of the property stolen
D) The intent to gain
  • 52. Which of the following is a crucial initial step in investigating a robbery incident?
A) Filing the case immediately
B) Tracing the stolen property
C) Conducting a background check on the victim
D) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
  • 53. The modus operandi of the suspect and the means of entry and escape are primarily analyzed during which phase of property crime investigation?
A) Evidence collection
B) Suspect profiling
C) Intelligence gathering
D) Crime scene reconstruction
  • 54. The main difference between estafa and theft is:
A) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings.
B) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not.
C) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not
D) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not.
  • 55. In investigating estafa cases, the most vital documentary evidence is:
A) CCTV footage
B) Confession of the accused
C) Property inventory
D) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction
  • 56. A car is taken without the owner’s consent with intent to gain. This act falls under:
A) Qualified theft
B) Robbery
C) Carnapping
D) Estafa
  • 57. The Anti-Carnapping Law (R.A. 10883) defines carnapping as the taking of a motor vehicle:
A) With violence or intimidation only
B) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain
C) Without violence but with intent to gain
D) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally
  • 58. Under R.A. 10883, when carnapping results in the death of a person, the penalty is:
A) Reclusion perpetua to death
B) Life imprisonment
C) Reclusion temporal
D) Death by lethal injection
  • 59. In the investigation of carnapping cases, the Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) is primarily used to:
A) Locate the driver
B) Trace ownership and vehicle identity
C) Determine insurance status
D) Identify the manufacturer
  • 60. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) penalizes
A) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen
B) Only those who steal cars
C) Those who report stolen property
D) Those who physically steal property
  • 61. The essential element that distinguishes a fencer from a thief is:
A) The absence of intent to gain
B) The act of possession rather than the act of taking
C) The act of concealing the property
D) The ownership of the property
  • 62. Which document serves as the primary reference in proving ownership of a motor vehicle in carnapping cases?
A) Sales invoice
B) Driver’s license
C) Insurance policy
D) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR)
  • 63. The presumption of fencing arises when:
A) The accused buys property from a store
B) The accused was seen near the crime scene
C) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation
D) The property is found hidden
  • 64. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) was enacted primarily to:
A) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods
B) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce
C) Reduce robbery incidents
D) Punish the original thief
  • 65. In human trafficking under R.A. 9208, the core element is:
A) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion
B) Use of minors in employment
C) Payment of recruitment fees
D) Recruitment for legal overseas work
  • 66. R.A. 10364 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking Act) strengthened R.A. 9208 by:
A) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment
B) Allowing voluntary prostitution
C) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability
D) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only
  • 67. The latest amendment, R.A. 11862 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2022), focuses on:
A) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction
B) Increasing fines
C) Limiting law enforcement authority
D) Reducing penalties for traffickers
  • 68. The victim-centered approach in human trafficking investigations emphasizes:
A) Protection and rehabilitation of victims
B) Media exposure
C) Immediate deportation
D) Aggressive interrogation
  • 69. Under R.A. 9208, the following is NOT considered trafficking:
A) Debt bondage
B) Exploitation of prostitution
C) Adoption following legal procedures
D) Forced labor
  • 70. One of the stages of money laundering where illegal money enters the financial system is called:
A) Layering
B) Integration
C) Structuring
D) Placement
  • 71. The layering stage of money laundering involves:
A) Reporting suspicious transactions
B) Depositing the proceeds
C) Investing clean money
D) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin
  • 72. The integration stage occurs when:
A) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts
B) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses
C) The launderer hides the funds abroad
D) Authorities freeze the assets
  • 73. The Anti-Money Laundering Act (R.A. 9160) aims to:
A) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds
B) Regulate pawnshops
C) Allow anonymous foreign accounts
D) Encourage secret banking
  • 74. Under R.A. 10927, casinos are included as:
A) Non-reporting entities
B) Charitable organizations
C) Exempt institutions
D) Covered persons under AMLA
  • 75. Under AMLA, a transaction exceeding ₱500,000 within one banking day must be reported as:
A) Suspicious transaction
B) Layered transaction
C) Covered transaction
D) Threshold transaction
  • 76. Failure of a covered institution to report suspicious transactions constitutes:
A) Gross negligence
B) No liability if unintentional
C) Administrative offense only
D) A criminal violation under AMLA
  • 77. The body primarily responsible for enforcing AMLA is:
A) Securities and Exchange Commission
B) Department of Justice
C) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
D) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)
  • 78. The approach in investigating theft focuses on:
A) Identifying the victim’s negligence
B) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain
C) Checking bank accounts
D) Establishing the suspect’s income
  • 79. The investigative approach in robbery emphasizes:
A) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence
B) Recovery of stolen property only
C) Studying the suspect’s financial background
D) Conducting digital forensics
  • 80. In estafa investigations, one must primarily analyze:
A) Place of transaction only
B) Suspect’s criminal record
C) The victim’s wealth
D) Modus operandi and deceit pattern
  • 81. Under R.A. 10883, the registered owner’s failure to report a stolen vehicle within 24 hours may result in:
A) Presumption of involvement in the crime
B) Forfeiture of insurance claims
C) Administrative sanction
D) No consequence
  • 82. A person who buys a motorcycle at a suspiciously low price without verifying ownership documents may be liable for:
A) Carnapping
B) Fencing
C) Theft
D) Estafa
  • 83. Under AMLA, a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is required when:
A) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual
B) The account is new
C) The account balance is low
D) The depositor is a senior citizen
  • 84. In investigating money laundering, the financial trail is reconstructed mainly through:
A) News reports
B) Bank advertisements
C) Witness interviews
D) Paper and digital transaction audit
  • 85. The common investigative challenge across property, financial, and trafficking crimes is:
A) Media pressure
B) Political influence
C) International cooperation and evidence tracing
D) Lack of police equipment
  • 86. A police investigator observes that a crime scene has no signs of forced entry, yet valuable items are missing. Which crime is most likely being investigated?
A) Robbery
B) Theft
C) Estafa
D) Carnapping
  • 87. In distinguishing theft from robbery, which investigative focus is most critical?
A) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation
B) Use of deception or false pretenses
C) The monetary value of the property stolen
D) Relationship between victim and offender
  • 88. A businessman convinces several investors to give money for a fake project. Which investigative approach should be applied?
A) Financial and documentary audit
B) Physical evidence collection at the scene
C) Vehicle tracing system
D) Property recovery operation
  • 89. In robbery cases, an investigator should prioritize the collection of which type of evidence?
A) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints
B) Documentary and bank receipts
C) Vehicle registration documents
D) Computer logs and online records
  • 90. In a case of estafa, what kind of evidence is most crucial for conviction?
A) Eyewitness testimony
B) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage
C) DNA evidence
D) Physical evidence at the crime scene
  • 91. Under R.A. 10883 (New Anti-Carnapping Law), when is the crime of carnapping considered consummated?
A) When the vehicle leaves the city or province
B) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner
C) When the owner reports the loss
D) When the vehicle is sold to another person
  • 92. A vehicle is stolen and immediately disassembled for sale of parts. Under R.A. 10883, this is classified as:
A) Simple carnapping
B) Robbery
C) Qualified carnapping
D) Theft
  • 93. Under P.D. 1612 (Anti-Fencing Law), which of the following elements must be proven to establish guilt?
A) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence
B) Ownership of stolen property by the fence
C) Amount of profit derived from the property
D) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen
  • 94. A buyer purchased a secondhand motorcycle at a suspiciously low price and failed to verify its origin. Under P.D. 1612, this constitutes:
A) Estafa
B) Fencing
C) Theft by negligence
D) Innocent purchase
  • 95. Which of the following is a distinguishing investigative step in human trafficking cases compared to other crimes against property?
A) Collection of firearms evidence
B) Vehicle tracing through LTO database
C) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities
D) Accounting audit of business operations
  • 96. Under R.A. 9208 (Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act), what element distinguishes trafficking from illegal recruitment?
A) Employment abroad
B) Violation of labor regulations
C) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation
D) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old
  • 97. Which law expanded the coverage of human trafficking to include “online sexual exploitation and cyber trafficking”?
A) R.A. 10883
B) R.A. 9208
C) P.D. 1612
D) R.A. 10364
  • 98. Under R.A. 11862, what new provision strengthened the protection of trafficking victims?
A) Repatriation without consent
B) Immunity of recruiters
C) Reclassification of all victims as offenders
D) Non-deportation of foreign victims
  • 99. In money laundering, which of the following stages involves depositing illegally obtained funds into the financial system?
A) Integration
B) Layering
C) Concealment
D) Placement
  • 100. An investigator detects multiple fund transfers among shell companies to obscure the origin of money. Which stage of money laundering is this?
A) Layering
B) Placement
C) Structuring
D) Integration
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