A) Elicitation B) Interview C) Cross-examination D) Interrogation
A) Both are the same under Philippine law. B) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest. C) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information. D) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral
A) Coercive technique B) Logical approach C) Emotional appeal D) Direct approach
A) Right against self-incrimination B) Right to privacy C) Right against unreasonable search D) Right to bail
A) Before the barangay captain B) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel C) In writing and in the presence of a police officer D) Under oath and notarized
A) Miranda Doctrine B) Rule on res gestae C) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine D) Chain of custody rule
A) To make the suspect feel guilty B) To protect the investigator from liability C) To shorten the process of interrogation D) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed
A) Res gestae B) Admission C) Confession D) Dying declaration
A) The statement was in writing. B) The declarant was under police custody C) The declarant believed death was imminent. D) The declaration was made before a lawyer
A) Principle of truthfulness B) Rule of Res Gestae C) Doctrine of finality D) Doctrine of dying declaration
A) Admissions B) Confessions C) Res gestae D) Independent relevant statements
A) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant B) A suspect’s confession to police C) A doctor’s report describing injuries D) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime
A) It was written in English B) It was made in private C) It was made without counsel D) It was made after prolonged questioning
A) Investigative interview B) Structured interview C) Cognitive interview D) Coercive interview
A) Confess guilt B) Recall events from different perspectives C) Create a timeline D) Guess what happened
A) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing B) Signed before an ordinary witness C) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present D) Made before a prosecutor without counsel
A) Admissible B) Conditional C) Inadmissible D) Partially admissible
A) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts. B) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt. C) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after. D) They are synonymous in criminal law
A) The number of witnesses B) The investigator’s experience C) The seriousness of the crime D) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
A) Continue the questioning B) Stop the interrogation immediately C) Use persuasion D) Detain the suspect longer
A) Narrative Method B) Cross-Examination Approach C) Structured Interview D) Cognitive Interview
A) Silence technique B) Theme development C) Repetition technique D) Emotional appeal
A) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest B) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly C) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants D) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory
A) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration B) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible C) The confession may be admitted if written and signed D) The confession remains admissible
A) It must be voluntary B) It must be made with the assistance of counsel C) It must be in writing D) It must be expressed and categorical
A) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible B) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death C) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer D) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
A) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence B) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights C) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver D) Admissible because it was later confirmed
A) Independent relevant statement B) Admission C) Part of res gestae D) Dying declaration
A) Opportunity and impartiality B) Necessity and trustworthiness C) Materiality and spontaneity D) Voluntariness and legality
A) Judicial admission B) Extrajudicial confession C) Tacit confession D) Qualified admission
A) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor B) Deception invalidates all statements C) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances D) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
A) Dying declaration B) Admission against interest C) Res gestae statement D) Confession
A) Coerced confession B) Admissible due to continuous questioning C) Voluntary admission D) Valid under implied waiver doctrine
A) test the validity of gathered evidence B) To obtain a confession C) To elicit truth about participation in a crime D) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
A) Confession B) Hearsay C) Independent relevant statement D) Admission
A) The declarant must believe death is inevitable B) The declaration must be in written form C) The declarant must die immediately after the statement D) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement
A) Valid if re-affirmed later B) Admissible only as corroborative evidence C) Admissible because counsel was present D) Inadmissible for being involuntary
A) Hypnosis technique B) Cognitive interviewing C) Narrative reconstruction D) Investigative visualization
A) Admissible only in part B) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation C) Admissible as corroborative evidence D) Admissible in full
A) Admission against interest B) Inadmissible hearsay C) Dying declaration D) Confession
A) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official B) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked C) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning D) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
A) Preparation phase B) Termination phase C) Approach phase D) Question-and-answer phase
A) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning B) Extracting confession through pressure C) Rapid confessional tactics D) Use of psychological manipulation
A) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession B) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely C) Encouraging voluntary cooperation D) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction
A) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies B) Emotional appeal and sympathy C) Physical pressure D) Deception and bluffing
A) Cross-examination B) Investigative debriefing C) Cognitive interrogation D) Preliminary interview
A) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses B) Admissible in evidence C) Inadmissible for being post-consultation D) Considered res gestae
A) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt B) Intimidate the suspect to confess C) Obtain physical evidence D) Gather information without accusation
A) The declarant must identify the killer B) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator C) The declarant must be under oath D) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death
A) Res gestae B) Independent relevant statement C) Confession D) Admission
A) The number of offenders B) The intent to gain C) The value of the property stolen D) The use or threat of violence or intimidation
A) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses B) Conducting a background check on the victim C) Filing the case immediately D) Tracing the stolen property
A) Intelligence gathering B) Suspect profiling C) Evidence collection D) Crime scene reconstruction
A) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings. B) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not. C) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not D) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not.
A) CCTV footage B) Confession of the accused C) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction D) Property inventory
A) Estafa B) Carnapping C) Robbery D) Qualified theft
A) Without violence but with intent to gain B) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain C) With violence or intimidation only D) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally
A) Life imprisonment B) Reclusion temporal C) Death by lethal injection D) Reclusion perpetua to death
A) Locate the driver B) Trace ownership and vehicle identity C) Identify the manufacturer D) Determine insurance status
A) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen B) Those who report stolen property C) Only those who steal cars D) Those who physically steal property
A) The act of concealing the property B) The ownership of the property C) The act of possession rather than the act of taking D) The absence of intent to gain
A) Sales invoice B) Driver’s license C) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR) D) Insurance policy
A) The property is found hidden B) The accused was seen near the crime scene C) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation D) The accused buys property from a store
A) Punish the original thief B) Reduce robbery incidents C) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods D) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce
A) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion B) Use of minors in employment C) Recruitment for legal overseas work D) Payment of recruitment fees
A) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability B) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment C) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only D) Allowing voluntary prostitution
A) Reducing penalties for traffickers B) Increasing fines C) Limiting law enforcement authority D) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction
A) Protection and rehabilitation of victims B) Aggressive interrogation C) Media exposure D) Immediate deportation
A) Adoption following legal procedures B) Debt bondage C) Exploitation of prostitution D) Forced labor
A) Placement B) Structuring C) Integration D) Layering
A) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin B) Depositing the proceeds C) Investing clean money D) Reporting suspicious transactions
A) The launderer hides the funds abroad B) Authorities freeze the assets C) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses D) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts
A) Encourage secret banking B) Regulate pawnshops C) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds D) Allow anonymous foreign accounts
A) Charitable organizations B) Non-reporting entities C) Exempt institutions D) Covered persons under AMLA
A) Layered transaction B) Threshold transaction C) Covered transaction D) Suspicious transaction
A) Gross negligence B) No liability if unintentional C) Administrative offense only D) A criminal violation under AMLA
A) Department of Justice B) Securities and Exchange Commission C) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas D) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)
A) Establishing the suspect’s income B) Identifying the victim’s negligence C) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain D) Checking bank accounts
A) Recovery of stolen property only B) Conducting digital forensics C) Studying the suspect’s financial background D) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence
A) The victim’s wealth B) Suspect’s criminal record C) Modus operandi and deceit pattern D) Place of transaction only
A) Presumption of involvement in the crime B) Forfeiture of insurance claims C) No consequence D) Administrative sanction
A) Carnapping B) Theft C) Fencing D) Estafa
A) The account balance is low B) The account is new C) The depositor is a senior citizen D) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual
A) News reports B) Bank advertisements C) Paper and digital transaction audit D) Witness interviews
A) Media pressure B) Lack of police equipment C) Political influence D) International cooperation and evidence tracing
A) Carnapping B) Estafa C) Robbery D) Theft
A) Relationship between victim and offender B) Use of deception or false pretenses C) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation D) The monetary value of the property stolen
A) Physical evidence collection at the scene B) Vehicle tracing system C) Property recovery operation D) Financial and documentary audit
A) Computer logs and online records B) Documentary and bank receipts C) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints D) Vehicle registration documents
A) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage B) Physical evidence at the crime scene C) DNA evidence D) Eyewitness testimony
A) When the vehicle leaves the city or province B) When the owner reports the loss C) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner D) When the vehicle is sold to another person
A) Robbery B) Simple carnapping C) Qualified carnapping D) Theft
A) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen B) Ownership of stolen property by the fence C) Amount of profit derived from the property D) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence
A) Estafa B) Innocent purchase C) Theft by negligence D) Fencing
A) Accounting audit of business operations B) Vehicle tracing through LTO database C) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities D) Collection of firearms evidence
A) Violation of labor regulations B) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation C) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old D) Employment abroad
A) R.A. 10883 B) R.A. 9208 C) P.D. 1612 D) R.A. 10364
A) Non-deportation of foreign victims B) Immunity of recruiters C) Repatriation without consent D) Reclassification of all victims as offenders
A) Integration B) Placement C) Concealment D) Layering
A) Placement B) Integration C) Structuring D) Layering |