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AREA 3 SUBJECT 3
Contributed by: gutierrez
  • 1. An investigator interviews a witness in a friendly, non-accusatory manner to gather facts about a crime. This process best exemplifies which technique?
A) Cross-examination
B) Interview
C) Interrogation
D) Elicitation
  • 2. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Both are the same under Philippine law.
B) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest.
C) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral
D) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information.
  • 3. When an investigator uses empathy and understanding to encourage a suspect to talk, which method of interrogation is being applied?
A) Direct approach
B) Coercive technique
C) Logical approach
D) Emotional appeal
  • 4. The legal requirement that a confession must be made voluntarily ensures the observance of which constitutional right?
A) Right against self-incrimination
B) Right against unreasonable search
C) Right to privacy
D) Right to bail
  • 5. The admissibility of a confession depends on its being made:
A) In writing and in the presence of a police officer
B) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
C) Before the barangay captain
D) Under oath and notarized
  • 6. A confession made without the presence of counsel is inadmissible because it violates which rule of law?
A) Chain of custody rule
B) Miranda Doctrine
C) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
D) Rule on res gestae
  • 7. What is the primary purpose of the Miranda warning in police interrogation?
A) To make the suspect feel guilty
B) To shorten the process of interrogation
C) To protect the investigator from liability
D) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed
  • 8. A statement made by a dying person regarding the cause of his death is called:
A) Res gestae
B) Admission
C) Dying declaration
D) Confession
  • 9. For a dying declaration to be admissible, it must be shown that:
A) The declaration was made before a lawyer
B) The declarant was under police custody
C) The statement was in writing.
D) The declarant believed death was imminent.
  • 10. The principle that a dying person would not meet death with a lie is known as:
A) Doctrine of finality
B) Doctrine of dying declaration
C) Rule of Res Gestae
D) Principle of truthfulness
  • 11. Statements made immediately after a startling event, without time to fabricate, are known as:
A) Confessions
B) Admissions
C) Res gestae
D) Independent relevant statements
  • 12. Which of the following is an example of an independent relevant statement?
A) A doctor’s report describing injuries
B) A suspect’s confession to police
C) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime
D) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant
  • 13. During interrogation, a suspect breaks down and admits the crime. The confession will be inadmissible if:
A) It was made in private
B) It was written in English
C) It was made without counsel
D) It was made after prolonged questioning
  • 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of interview used in criminal investigation?
A) Coercive interview
B) Investigative interview
C) Structured interview
D) Cognitive interview
  • 15. In the cognitive interview technique, the investigator encourages the witness to:
A) Confess guilt
B) Guess what happened
C) Create a timeline
D) Recall events from different perspectives
  • 16. Which of the following makes a confession valid and admissible?
A) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing
B) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present
C) Signed before an ordinary witness
D) Made before a prosecutor without counsel
  • 17. A suspect confesses under threat of harm from the police. Under the Rules of Evidence, the confession is
A) Inadmissible
B) Partially admissible
C) Conditional
D) Admissible
  • 18. What distinguishes an admission from a confession?
A) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after.
B) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt.
C) They are synonymous in criminal law
D) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts.
  • 19. In evaluating a suspect’s confession, the court will primarily consider:
A) The seriousness of the crime
B) The investigator’s experience
C) The number of witnesses
D) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
  • 20. When the suspect exercises the right to remain silent, the investigator must:
A) Stop the interrogation immediately
B) Detain the suspect longer
C) Use persuasion
D) Continue the questioning
  • 21. During a police interview, the investigator allows the suspect to narrate freely without interruption. Which method of questioning is being applied?
A) Structured Interview
B) Cognitive Interview
C) Cross-Examination Approach
D) Narrative Method
  • 22. In an interrogation, the investigator deliberately pauses after the suspect gives an incomplete answer to encourage further disclosure. This technique is known as:
A) Emotional appeal
B) Silence technique
C) Repetition technique
D) Theme development
  • 23. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest
B) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly
C) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory
D) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants
  • 24. A police investigator fails to inform a suspect of his constitutional rights before taking a confession. Which is the legal consequence?
A) The confession may be admitted if written and signed
B) The confession remains admissible
C) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible
D) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration
  • 25. Which of the following elements is NOT essential for a confession to be admissible?
A) It must be voluntary
B) It must be made with the assistance of counsel
C) It must be in writing
D) It must be expressed and categorical
  • 26. A dying person tells a nurse that “Juan stabbed me because I refused to give him money.” Which statement is legally valid as a dying declaration?
A) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible
B) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death
C) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
D) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer
  • 27. A confession made without counsel but later affirmed in open court with counsel present is:
A) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights
B) Admissible because it was later confirmed
C) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver
D) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence
  • 28. A statement made by a victim who later dies, but who did not believe death was imminent, may be admitted as:
A) Part of res gestae
B) Admission
C) Dying declaration
D) Independent relevant statement
  • 29. Which principle guides the admissibility of a dying declaration under Rule 130 of the Rules on Evidence?
A) Materiality and spontaneity
B) Opportunity and impartiality
C) Voluntariness and legality
D) Necessity and trustworthiness
  • 30. A suspect admits that he “might have hit the victim by accident.” What type of admission is this?
A) Extrajudicial confession
B) Judicial admission
C) Tacit confession
D) Qualified admission
  • 31. During an interrogation, the investigator uses deception to make the suspect believe evidence exists. Which statement is correct?
A) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
B) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor
C) Deception invalidates all statements
D) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances
  • 32. A witness spontaneously blurts out, “He ran that way after shooting the man!” immediately after the crime. This statement is classified as
A) Dying declaration
B) Confession
C) Res gestae statement
D) Admission against interest
  • 33. A police officer questions a suspect for six hours without counsel and without informing him of his rights. The resulting statement is:
A) Coerced confession
B) Admissible due to continuous questioning
C) Valid under implied waiver doctrine
D) Voluntary admission
  • 34. Which of the following is not a proper objective of interrogation?
A) To obtain a confession
B) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
C) To elicit truth about participation in a crime
D) test the validity of gathered evidence
  • 35. When the declarant’s statement is offered only to prove that the statement was made, not for its truth, it falls under:
A) Hearsay
B) Confession
C) Independent relevant statement
D) Admission
  • 36. Which of the following situations best fits the rule on dying declaration?
A) The declarant must believe death is inevitable
B) The declarant must die immediately after the statement
C) The declaration must be in written form
D) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement
  • 37. When a suspect’s statement is taken with counsel but through threat and intimidation, the statement is:
A) Admissible only as corroborative evidence
B) Inadmissible for being involuntary
C) Valid if re-affirmed later
D) Admissible because counsel was present
  • 38. An investigator allows the witness to reconstruct the crime scene mentally to enhance recall. This method refers to
A) Hypnosis technique
B) Narrative reconstruction
C) Investigative visualization
D) Cognitive interviewing
  • 39. A confession obtained during custodial investigation without the presence of counsel but repeated voluntarily in court with counsel is:
A) Admissible only in part
B) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation
C) Admissible as corroborative evidence
D) Admissible in full
  • 40. A victim tells his neighbor before dying, “Tell my mother that Pedro stabbed me.” The victim clearly thought he was dying. This statement is:
A) Dying declaration
B) Admission against interest
C) Confession
D) Inadmissible hearsay
  • 41. A confession made after the suspect was informed of his rights but before counsel arrived is:
A) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official
B) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning
C) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
D) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked
  • 42. During an interrogation, the investigator builds rapport and gradually shifts to direct questioning about the crime. This process is part of which interrogation phase?
A) Question-and-answer phase
B) Termination phase
C) Approach phase
D) Preparation phase
  • 43. The “PEACE” model (Preparation, Engage, Account, Closure, Evaluation) commonly used in investigative interviewing focuses on:
A) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning
B) Extracting confession through pressure
C) Use of psychological manipulation
D) Rapid confessional tactics
  • 44. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of interrogation under Philippine law?
A) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely
B) Encouraging voluntary cooperation
C) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession
D) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction
  • 45. In applying the “logical approach” to interrogation, the investigator primarily relies on:
A) Emotional appeal and sympathy
B) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies
C) Deception and bluffing
D) Physical pressure
  • 46. When a witness’s statement is taken immediately after the incident to preserve accuracy of recollection, it is called:
A) Cross-examination
B) Cognitive interrogation
C) Investigative debriefing
D) Preliminary interview
  • 47. A suspect, after consulting with his lawyer, voluntarily admits his role in the crime without coercion. The confession is
A) Inadmissible for being post-consultation
B) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses
C) Considered res gestae
D) Admissible in evidence
  • 48. The main purpose of conducting an interview before an interrogation is to:
A) Gather information without accusation
B) Intimidate the suspect to confess
C) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
D) Obtain physical evidence
  • 49. Under the Rules on Evidence, which of the following is required for a dying declaration to be valid?
A) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator
B) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death
C) The declarant must be under oath
D) The declarant must identify the killer
  • 50. A statement made by a witness out of court to explain his subsequent actions, not to prove the truth of the statement, is an example of:
A) Independent relevant statement
B) Confession
C) Res gestae
D) Admission
  • 51. The key distinguishing element between theft and robbery under the Revised Penal Code is:
A) The use or threat of violence or intimidation
B) The value of the property stolen
C) The intent to gain
D) The number of offenders
  • 52. Which of the following is a crucial initial step in investigating a robbery incident?
A) Conducting a background check on the victim
B) Tracing the stolen property
C) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
D) Filing the case immediately
  • 53. The modus operandi of the suspect and the means of entry and escape are primarily analyzed during which phase of property crime investigation?
A) Evidence collection
B) Crime scene reconstruction
C) Intelligence gathering
D) Suspect profiling
  • 54. The main difference between estafa and theft is:
A) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not
B) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not.
C) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings.
D) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not.
  • 55. In investigating estafa cases, the most vital documentary evidence is:
A) Property inventory
B) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction
C) CCTV footage
D) Confession of the accused
  • 56. A car is taken without the owner’s consent with intent to gain. This act falls under:
A) Qualified theft
B) Estafa
C) Carnapping
D) Robbery
  • 57. The Anti-Carnapping Law (R.A. 10883) defines carnapping as the taking of a motor vehicle:
A) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally
B) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain
C) Without violence but with intent to gain
D) With violence or intimidation only
  • 58. Under R.A. 10883, when carnapping results in the death of a person, the penalty is:
A) Reclusion temporal
B) Reclusion perpetua to death
C) Life imprisonment
D) Death by lethal injection
  • 59. In the investigation of carnapping cases, the Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) is primarily used to:
A) Locate the driver
B) Trace ownership and vehicle identity
C) Identify the manufacturer
D) Determine insurance status
  • 60. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) penalizes
A) Only those who steal cars
B) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen
C) Those who report stolen property
D) Those who physically steal property
  • 61. The essential element that distinguishes a fencer from a thief is:
A) The ownership of the property
B) The act of possession rather than the act of taking
C) The act of concealing the property
D) The absence of intent to gain
  • 62. Which document serves as the primary reference in proving ownership of a motor vehicle in carnapping cases?
A) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR)
B) Sales invoice
C) Driver’s license
D) Insurance policy
  • 63. The presumption of fencing arises when:
A) The accused buys property from a store
B) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation
C) The property is found hidden
D) The accused was seen near the crime scene
  • 64. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) was enacted primarily to:
A) Punish the original thief
B) Reduce robbery incidents
C) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods
D) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce
  • 65. In human trafficking under R.A. 9208, the core element is:
A) Payment of recruitment fees
B) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion
C) Recruitment for legal overseas work
D) Use of minors in employment
  • 66. R.A. 10364 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking Act) strengthened R.A. 9208 by:
A) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only
B) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment
C) Allowing voluntary prostitution
D) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability
  • 67. The latest amendment, R.A. 11862 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2022), focuses on:
A) Reducing penalties for traffickers
B) Limiting law enforcement authority
C) Increasing fines
D) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction
  • 68. The victim-centered approach in human trafficking investigations emphasizes:
A) Aggressive interrogation
B) Protection and rehabilitation of victims
C) Media exposure
D) Immediate deportation
  • 69. Under R.A. 9208, the following is NOT considered trafficking:
A) Adoption following legal procedures
B) Exploitation of prostitution
C) Debt bondage
D) Forced labor
  • 70. One of the stages of money laundering where illegal money enters the financial system is called:
A) Placement
B) Layering
C) Integration
D) Structuring
  • 71. The layering stage of money laundering involves:
A) Reporting suspicious transactions
B) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin
C) Depositing the proceeds
D) Investing clean money
  • 72. The integration stage occurs when:
A) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses
B) The launderer hides the funds abroad
C) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts
D) Authorities freeze the assets
  • 73. The Anti-Money Laundering Act (R.A. 9160) aims to:
A) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds
B) Allow anonymous foreign accounts
C) Regulate pawnshops
D) Encourage secret banking
  • 74. Under R.A. 10927, casinos are included as:
A) Non-reporting entities
B) Exempt institutions
C) Covered persons under AMLA
D) Charitable organizations
  • 75. Under AMLA, a transaction exceeding ₱500,000 within one banking day must be reported as:
A) Layered transaction
B) Suspicious transaction
C) Threshold transaction
D) Covered transaction
  • 76. Failure of a covered institution to report suspicious transactions constitutes:
A) A criminal violation under AMLA
B) No liability if unintentional
C) Gross negligence
D) Administrative offense only
  • 77. The body primarily responsible for enforcing AMLA is:
A) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)
B) Securities and Exchange Commission
C) Department of Justice
D) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
  • 78. The approach in investigating theft focuses on:
A) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain
B) Checking bank accounts
C) Identifying the victim’s negligence
D) Establishing the suspect’s income
  • 79. The investigative approach in robbery emphasizes:
A) Conducting digital forensics
B) Recovery of stolen property only
C) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence
D) Studying the suspect’s financial background
  • 80. In estafa investigations, one must primarily analyze:
A) Suspect’s criminal record
B) The victim’s wealth
C) Modus operandi and deceit pattern
D) Place of transaction only
  • 81. Under R.A. 10883, the registered owner’s failure to report a stolen vehicle within 24 hours may result in:
A) Presumption of involvement in the crime
B) No consequence
C) Administrative sanction
D) Forfeiture of insurance claims
  • 82. A person who buys a motorcycle at a suspiciously low price without verifying ownership documents may be liable for:
A) Fencing
B) Theft
C) Carnapping
D) Estafa
  • 83. Under AMLA, a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is required when:
A) The depositor is a senior citizen
B) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual
C) The account balance is low
D) The account is new
  • 84. In investigating money laundering, the financial trail is reconstructed mainly through:
A) Bank advertisements
B) Witness interviews
C) News reports
D) Paper and digital transaction audit
  • 85. The common investigative challenge across property, financial, and trafficking crimes is:
A) Political influence
B) International cooperation and evidence tracing
C) Media pressure
D) Lack of police equipment
  • 86. A police investigator observes that a crime scene has no signs of forced entry, yet valuable items are missing. Which crime is most likely being investigated?
A) Carnapping
B) Theft
C) Estafa
D) Robbery
  • 87. In distinguishing theft from robbery, which investigative focus is most critical?
A) Use of deception or false pretenses
B) The monetary value of the property stolen
C) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation
D) Relationship between victim and offender
  • 88. A businessman convinces several investors to give money for a fake project. Which investigative approach should be applied?
A) Financial and documentary audit
B) Vehicle tracing system
C) Physical evidence collection at the scene
D) Property recovery operation
  • 89. In robbery cases, an investigator should prioritize the collection of which type of evidence?
A) Documentary and bank receipts
B) Computer logs and online records
C) Vehicle registration documents
D) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints
  • 90. In a case of estafa, what kind of evidence is most crucial for conviction?
A) Eyewitness testimony
B) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage
C) DNA evidence
D) Physical evidence at the crime scene
  • 91. Under R.A. 10883 (New Anti-Carnapping Law), when is the crime of carnapping considered consummated?
A) When the vehicle leaves the city or province
B) When the owner reports the loss
C) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner
D) When the vehicle is sold to another person
  • 92. A vehicle is stolen and immediately disassembled for sale of parts. Under R.A. 10883, this is classified as:
A) Robbery
B) Theft
C) Simple carnapping
D) Qualified carnapping
  • 93. Under P.D. 1612 (Anti-Fencing Law), which of the following elements must be proven to establish guilt?
A) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence
B) Ownership of stolen property by the fence
C) Amount of profit derived from the property
D) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen
  • 94. A buyer purchased a secondhand motorcycle at a suspiciously low price and failed to verify its origin. Under P.D. 1612, this constitutes:
A) Theft by negligence
B) Estafa
C) Fencing
D) Innocent purchase
  • 95. Which of the following is a distinguishing investigative step in human trafficking cases compared to other crimes against property?
A) Accounting audit of business operations
B) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities
C) Vehicle tracing through LTO database
D) Collection of firearms evidence
  • 96. Under R.A. 9208 (Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act), what element distinguishes trafficking from illegal recruitment?
A) Violation of labor regulations
B) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation
C) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old
D) Employment abroad
  • 97. Which law expanded the coverage of human trafficking to include “online sexual exploitation and cyber trafficking”?
A) R.A. 9208
B) R.A. 10364
C) P.D. 1612
D) R.A. 10883
  • 98. Under R.A. 11862, what new provision strengthened the protection of trafficking victims?
A) Immunity of recruiters
B) Reclassification of all victims as offenders
C) Repatriation without consent
D) Non-deportation of foreign victims
  • 99. In money laundering, which of the following stages involves depositing illegally obtained funds into the financial system?
A) Layering
B) Placement
C) Integration
D) Concealment
  • 100. An investigator detects multiple fund transfers among shell companies to obscure the origin of money. Which stage of money laundering is this?
A) Integration
B) Structuring
C) Layering
D) Placement
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