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AREA 3 SUBJECT 3
Contributed by: gutierrez
  • 1. An investigator interviews a witness in a friendly, non-accusatory manner to gather facts about a crime. This process best exemplifies which technique?
A) Interview
B) Cross-examination
C) Interrogation
D) Elicitation
  • 2. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral
B) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest.
C) Both are the same under Philippine law.
D) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information.
  • 3. When an investigator uses empathy and understanding to encourage a suspect to talk, which method of interrogation is being applied?
A) Coercive technique
B) Emotional appeal
C) Logical approach
D) Direct approach
  • 4. The legal requirement that a confession must be made voluntarily ensures the observance of which constitutional right?
A) Right to privacy
B) Right against self-incrimination
C) Right against unreasonable search
D) Right to bail
  • 5. The admissibility of a confession depends on its being made:
A) Before the barangay captain
B) In writing and in the presence of a police officer
C) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
D) Under oath and notarized
  • 6. A confession made without the presence of counsel is inadmissible because it violates which rule of law?
A) Rule on res gestae
B) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
C) Miranda Doctrine
D) Chain of custody rule
  • 7. What is the primary purpose of the Miranda warning in police interrogation?
A) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed
B) To make the suspect feel guilty
C) To shorten the process of interrogation
D) To protect the investigator from liability
  • 8. A statement made by a dying person regarding the cause of his death is called:
A) Admission
B) Res gestae
C) Dying declaration
D) Confession
  • 9. For a dying declaration to be admissible, it must be shown that:
A) The declarant believed death was imminent.
B) The declaration was made before a lawyer
C) The statement was in writing.
D) The declarant was under police custody
  • 10. The principle that a dying person would not meet death with a lie is known as:
A) Doctrine of dying declaration
B) Doctrine of finality
C) Principle of truthfulness
D) Rule of Res Gestae
  • 11. Statements made immediately after a startling event, without time to fabricate, are known as:
A) Res gestae
B) Independent relevant statements
C) Admissions
D) Confessions
  • 12. Which of the following is an example of an independent relevant statement?
A) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant
B) A doctor’s report describing injuries
C) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime
D) A suspect’s confession to police
  • 13. During interrogation, a suspect breaks down and admits the crime. The confession will be inadmissible if:
A) It was made after prolonged questioning
B) It was made in private
C) It was written in English
D) It was made without counsel
  • 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of interview used in criminal investigation?
A) Coercive interview
B) Structured interview
C) Cognitive interview
D) Investigative interview
  • 15. In the cognitive interview technique, the investigator encourages the witness to:
A) Recall events from different perspectives
B) Guess what happened
C) Create a timeline
D) Confess guilt
  • 16. Which of the following makes a confession valid and admissible?
A) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present
B) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing
C) Signed before an ordinary witness
D) Made before a prosecutor without counsel
  • 17. A suspect confesses under threat of harm from the police. Under the Rules of Evidence, the confession is
A) Partially admissible
B) Admissible
C) Inadmissible
D) Conditional
  • 18. What distinguishes an admission from a confession?
A) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt.
B) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts.
C) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after.
D) They are synonymous in criminal law
  • 19. In evaluating a suspect’s confession, the court will primarily consider:
A) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
B) The seriousness of the crime
C) The number of witnesses
D) The investigator’s experience
  • 20. When the suspect exercises the right to remain silent, the investigator must:
A) Continue the questioning
B) Detain the suspect longer
C) Use persuasion
D) Stop the interrogation immediately
  • 21. During a police interview, the investigator allows the suspect to narrate freely without interruption. Which method of questioning is being applied?
A) Cross-Examination Approach
B) Cognitive Interview
C) Structured Interview
D) Narrative Method
  • 22. In an interrogation, the investigator deliberately pauses after the suspect gives an incomplete answer to encourage further disclosure. This technique is known as:
A) Emotional appeal
B) Repetition technique
C) Theme development
D) Silence technique
  • 23. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly
B) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest
C) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants
D) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory
  • 24. A police investigator fails to inform a suspect of his constitutional rights before taking a confession. Which is the legal consequence?
A) The confession remains admissible
B) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible
C) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration
D) The confession may be admitted if written and signed
  • 25. Which of the following elements is NOT essential for a confession to be admissible?
A) It must be made with the assistance of counsel
B) It must be voluntary
C) It must be in writing
D) It must be expressed and categorical
  • 26. A dying person tells a nurse that “Juan stabbed me because I refused to give him money.” Which statement is legally valid as a dying declaration?
A) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death
B) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible
C) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer
D) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
  • 27. A confession made without counsel but later affirmed in open court with counsel present is:
A) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence
B) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver
C) Admissible because it was later confirmed
D) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights
  • 28. A statement made by a victim who later dies, but who did not believe death was imminent, may be admitted as:
A) Independent relevant statement
B) Dying declaration
C) Part of res gestae
D) Admission
  • 29. Which principle guides the admissibility of a dying declaration under Rule 130 of the Rules on Evidence?
A) Necessity and trustworthiness
B) Voluntariness and legality
C) Opportunity and impartiality
D) Materiality and spontaneity
  • 30. A suspect admits that he “might have hit the victim by accident.” What type of admission is this?
A) Tacit confession
B) Qualified admission
C) Judicial admission
D) Extrajudicial confession
  • 31. During an interrogation, the investigator uses deception to make the suspect believe evidence exists. Which statement is correct?
A) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
B) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor
C) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances
D) Deception invalidates all statements
  • 32. A witness spontaneously blurts out, “He ran that way after shooting the man!” immediately after the crime. This statement is classified as
A) Res gestae statement
B) Confession
C) Admission against interest
D) Dying declaration
  • 33. A police officer questions a suspect for six hours without counsel and without informing him of his rights. The resulting statement is:
A) Coerced confession
B) Voluntary admission
C) Admissible due to continuous questioning
D) Valid under implied waiver doctrine
  • 34. Which of the following is not a proper objective of interrogation?
A) To elicit truth about participation in a crime
B) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
C) To obtain a confession
D) test the validity of gathered evidence
  • 35. When the declarant’s statement is offered only to prove that the statement was made, not for its truth, it falls under:
A) Independent relevant statement
B) Confession
C) Hearsay
D) Admission
  • 36. Which of the following situations best fits the rule on dying declaration?
A) The declarant must believe death is inevitable
B) The declaration must be in written form
C) The declarant must die immediately after the statement
D) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement
  • 37. When a suspect’s statement is taken with counsel but through threat and intimidation, the statement is:
A) Valid if re-affirmed later
B) Admissible only as corroborative evidence
C) Admissible because counsel was present
D) Inadmissible for being involuntary
  • 38. An investigator allows the witness to reconstruct the crime scene mentally to enhance recall. This method refers to
A) Narrative reconstruction
B) Investigative visualization
C) Hypnosis technique
D) Cognitive interviewing
  • 39. A confession obtained during custodial investigation without the presence of counsel but repeated voluntarily in court with counsel is:
A) Admissible as corroborative evidence
B) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation
C) Admissible only in part
D) Admissible in full
  • 40. A victim tells his neighbor before dying, “Tell my mother that Pedro stabbed me.” The victim clearly thought he was dying. This statement is:
A) Confession
B) Inadmissible hearsay
C) Admission against interest
D) Dying declaration
  • 41. A confession made after the suspect was informed of his rights but before counsel arrived is:
A) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
B) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official
C) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked
D) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning
  • 42. During an interrogation, the investigator builds rapport and gradually shifts to direct questioning about the crime. This process is part of which interrogation phase?
A) Question-and-answer phase
B) Termination phase
C) Preparation phase
D) Approach phase
  • 43. The “PEACE” model (Preparation, Engage, Account, Closure, Evaluation) commonly used in investigative interviewing focuses on:
A) Use of psychological manipulation
B) Rapid confessional tactics
C) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning
D) Extracting confession through pressure
  • 44. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of interrogation under Philippine law?
A) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction
B) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely
C) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession
D) Encouraging voluntary cooperation
  • 45. In applying the “logical approach” to interrogation, the investigator primarily relies on:
A) Emotional appeal and sympathy
B) Physical pressure
C) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies
D) Deception and bluffing
  • 46. When a witness’s statement is taken immediately after the incident to preserve accuracy of recollection, it is called:
A) Investigative debriefing
B) Cross-examination
C) Cognitive interrogation
D) Preliminary interview
  • 47. A suspect, after consulting with his lawyer, voluntarily admits his role in the crime without coercion. The confession is
A) Inadmissible for being post-consultation
B) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses
C) Considered res gestae
D) Admissible in evidence
  • 48. The main purpose of conducting an interview before an interrogation is to:
A) Gather information without accusation
B) Intimidate the suspect to confess
C) Obtain physical evidence
D) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
  • 49. Under the Rules on Evidence, which of the following is required for a dying declaration to be valid?
A) The declarant must be under oath
B) The declarant must identify the killer
C) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death
D) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator
  • 50. A statement made by a witness out of court to explain his subsequent actions, not to prove the truth of the statement, is an example of:
A) Res gestae
B) Admission
C) Independent relevant statement
D) Confession
  • 51. The key distinguishing element between theft and robbery under the Revised Penal Code is:
A) The intent to gain
B) The value of the property stolen
C) The number of offenders
D) The use or threat of violence or intimidation
  • 52. Which of the following is a crucial initial step in investigating a robbery incident?
A) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
B) Conducting a background check on the victim
C) Filing the case immediately
D) Tracing the stolen property
  • 53. The modus operandi of the suspect and the means of entry and escape are primarily analyzed during which phase of property crime investigation?
A) Crime scene reconstruction
B) Intelligence gathering
C) Suspect profiling
D) Evidence collection
  • 54. The main difference between estafa and theft is:
A) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not
B) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings.
C) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not.
D) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not.
  • 55. In investigating estafa cases, the most vital documentary evidence is:
A) Confession of the accused
B) Property inventory
C) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction
D) CCTV footage
  • 56. A car is taken without the owner’s consent with intent to gain. This act falls under:
A) Qualified theft
B) Carnapping
C) Robbery
D) Estafa
  • 57. The Anti-Carnapping Law (R.A. 10883) defines carnapping as the taking of a motor vehicle:
A) Without violence but with intent to gain
B) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain
C) With violence or intimidation only
D) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally
  • 58. Under R.A. 10883, when carnapping results in the death of a person, the penalty is:
A) Death by lethal injection
B) Life imprisonment
C) Reclusion perpetua to death
D) Reclusion temporal
  • 59. In the investigation of carnapping cases, the Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) is primarily used to:
A) Determine insurance status
B) Identify the manufacturer
C) Locate the driver
D) Trace ownership and vehicle identity
  • 60. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) penalizes
A) Only those who steal cars
B) Those who physically steal property
C) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen
D) Those who report stolen property
  • 61. The essential element that distinguishes a fencer from a thief is:
A) The act of concealing the property
B) The absence of intent to gain
C) The ownership of the property
D) The act of possession rather than the act of taking
  • 62. Which document serves as the primary reference in proving ownership of a motor vehicle in carnapping cases?
A) Sales invoice
B) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR)
C) Insurance policy
D) Driver’s license
  • 63. The presumption of fencing arises when:
A) The property is found hidden
B) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation
C) The accused buys property from a store
D) The accused was seen near the crime scene
  • 64. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) was enacted primarily to:
A) Reduce robbery incidents
B) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods
C) Punish the original thief
D) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce
  • 65. In human trafficking under R.A. 9208, the core element is:
A) Payment of recruitment fees
B) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion
C) Use of minors in employment
D) Recruitment for legal overseas work
  • 66. R.A. 10364 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking Act) strengthened R.A. 9208 by:
A) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment
B) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability
C) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only
D) Allowing voluntary prostitution
  • 67. The latest amendment, R.A. 11862 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2022), focuses on:
A) Increasing fines
B) Reducing penalties for traffickers
C) Limiting law enforcement authority
D) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction
  • 68. The victim-centered approach in human trafficking investigations emphasizes:
A) Immediate deportation
B) Aggressive interrogation
C) Media exposure
D) Protection and rehabilitation of victims
  • 69. Under R.A. 9208, the following is NOT considered trafficking:
A) Adoption following legal procedures
B) Debt bondage
C) Forced labor
D) Exploitation of prostitution
  • 70. One of the stages of money laundering where illegal money enters the financial system is called:
A) Structuring
B) Placement
C) Integration
D) Layering
  • 71. The layering stage of money laundering involves:
A) Depositing the proceeds
B) Reporting suspicious transactions
C) Investing clean money
D) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin
  • 72. The integration stage occurs when:
A) Authorities freeze the assets
B) The launderer hides the funds abroad
C) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts
D) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses
  • 73. The Anti-Money Laundering Act (R.A. 9160) aims to:
A) Regulate pawnshops
B) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds
C) Encourage secret banking
D) Allow anonymous foreign accounts
  • 74. Under R.A. 10927, casinos are included as:
A) Covered persons under AMLA
B) Charitable organizations
C) Exempt institutions
D) Non-reporting entities
  • 75. Under AMLA, a transaction exceeding ₱500,000 within one banking day must be reported as:
A) Suspicious transaction
B) Covered transaction
C) Threshold transaction
D) Layered transaction
  • 76. Failure of a covered institution to report suspicious transactions constitutes:
A) Gross negligence
B) No liability if unintentional
C) Administrative offense only
D) A criminal violation under AMLA
  • 77. The body primarily responsible for enforcing AMLA is:
A) Department of Justice
B) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
C) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)
D) Securities and Exchange Commission
  • 78. The approach in investigating theft focuses on:
A) Identifying the victim’s negligence
B) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain
C) Checking bank accounts
D) Establishing the suspect’s income
  • 79. The investigative approach in robbery emphasizes:
A) Studying the suspect’s financial background
B) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence
C) Conducting digital forensics
D) Recovery of stolen property only
  • 80. In estafa investigations, one must primarily analyze:
A) Modus operandi and deceit pattern
B) Place of transaction only
C) Suspect’s criminal record
D) The victim’s wealth
  • 81. Under R.A. 10883, the registered owner’s failure to report a stolen vehicle within 24 hours may result in:
A) Forfeiture of insurance claims
B) Administrative sanction
C) No consequence
D) Presumption of involvement in the crime
  • 82. A person who buys a motorcycle at a suspiciously low price without verifying ownership documents may be liable for:
A) Fencing
B) Theft
C) Estafa
D) Carnapping
  • 83. Under AMLA, a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is required when:
A) The depositor is a senior citizen
B) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual
C) The account balance is low
D) The account is new
  • 84. In investigating money laundering, the financial trail is reconstructed mainly through:
A) Bank advertisements
B) Witness interviews
C) News reports
D) Paper and digital transaction audit
  • 85. The common investigative challenge across property, financial, and trafficking crimes is:
A) International cooperation and evidence tracing
B) Lack of police equipment
C) Media pressure
D) Political influence
  • 86. A police investigator observes that a crime scene has no signs of forced entry, yet valuable items are missing. Which crime is most likely being investigated?
A) Carnapping
B) Estafa
C) Theft
D) Robbery
  • 87. In distinguishing theft from robbery, which investigative focus is most critical?
A) Relationship between victim and offender
B) The monetary value of the property stolen
C) Use of deception or false pretenses
D) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation
  • 88. A businessman convinces several investors to give money for a fake project. Which investigative approach should be applied?
A) Physical evidence collection at the scene
B) Property recovery operation
C) Financial and documentary audit
D) Vehicle tracing system
  • 89. In robbery cases, an investigator should prioritize the collection of which type of evidence?
A) Vehicle registration documents
B) Documentary and bank receipts
C) Computer logs and online records
D) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints
  • 90. In a case of estafa, what kind of evidence is most crucial for conviction?
A) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage
B) Physical evidence at the crime scene
C) Eyewitness testimony
D) DNA evidence
  • 91. Under R.A. 10883 (New Anti-Carnapping Law), when is the crime of carnapping considered consummated?
A) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner
B) When the vehicle leaves the city or province
C) When the owner reports the loss
D) When the vehicle is sold to another person
  • 92. A vehicle is stolen and immediately disassembled for sale of parts. Under R.A. 10883, this is classified as:
A) Simple carnapping
B) Qualified carnapping
C) Robbery
D) Theft
  • 93. Under P.D. 1612 (Anti-Fencing Law), which of the following elements must be proven to establish guilt?
A) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen
B) Ownership of stolen property by the fence
C) Amount of profit derived from the property
D) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence
  • 94. A buyer purchased a secondhand motorcycle at a suspiciously low price and failed to verify its origin. Under P.D. 1612, this constitutes:
A) Fencing
B) Theft by negligence
C) Estafa
D) Innocent purchase
  • 95. Which of the following is a distinguishing investigative step in human trafficking cases compared to other crimes against property?
A) Collection of firearms evidence
B) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities
C) Accounting audit of business operations
D) Vehicle tracing through LTO database
  • 96. Under R.A. 9208 (Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act), what element distinguishes trafficking from illegal recruitment?
A) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old
B) Violation of labor regulations
C) Employment abroad
D) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation
  • 97. Which law expanded the coverage of human trafficking to include “online sexual exploitation and cyber trafficking”?
A) R.A. 9208
B) R.A. 10883
C) R.A. 10364
D) P.D. 1612
  • 98. Under R.A. 11862, what new provision strengthened the protection of trafficking victims?
A) Non-deportation of foreign victims
B) Reclassification of all victims as offenders
C) Immunity of recruiters
D) Repatriation without consent
  • 99. In money laundering, which of the following stages involves depositing illegally obtained funds into the financial system?
A) Layering
B) Integration
C) Placement
D) Concealment
  • 100. An investigator detects multiple fund transfers among shell companies to obscure the origin of money. Which stage of money laundering is this?
A) Integration
B) Placement
C) Structuring
D) Layering
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