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AREA 3 SUBJECT 3
Contributed by: gutierrez
  • 1. An investigator interviews a witness in a friendly, non-accusatory manner to gather facts about a crime. This process best exemplifies which technique?
A) Interview
B) Cross-examination
C) Elicitation
D) Interrogation
  • 2. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Both are the same under Philippine law.
B) An interrogation seeks to obtain admissions or confessions; an interview gathers information.
C) An interview is accusatory, while interrogation is neutral
D) An interrogation is done before arrest; interview after arrest.
  • 3. When an investigator uses empathy and understanding to encourage a suspect to talk, which method of interrogation is being applied?
A) Logical approach
B) Direct approach
C) Emotional appeal
D) Coercive technique
  • 4. The legal requirement that a confession must be made voluntarily ensures the observance of which constitutional right?
A) Right to bail
B) Right against self-incrimination
C) Right against unreasonable search
D) Right to privacy
  • 5. The admissibility of a confession depends on its being made:
A) In writing and in the presence of a police officer
B) Under oath and notarized
C) Voluntarily, intelligently, and with counsel
D) Before the barangay captain
  • 6. A confession made without the presence of counsel is inadmissible because it violates which rule of law?
A) Miranda Doctrine
B) Fruit of the poisonous tree doctrine
C) Rule on res gestae
D) Chain of custody rule
  • 7. What is the primary purpose of the Miranda warning in police interrogation?
A) To protect the investigator from liability
B) To ensure that confessions are voluntary and informed
C) To make the suspect feel guilty
D) To shorten the process of interrogation
  • 8. A statement made by a dying person regarding the cause of his death is called:
A) Admission
B) Res gestae
C) Confession
D) Dying declaration
  • 9. For a dying declaration to be admissible, it must be shown that:
A) The declaration was made before a lawyer
B) The declarant believed death was imminent.
C) The declarant was under police custody
D) The statement was in writing.
  • 10. The principle that a dying person would not meet death with a lie is known as:
A) Rule of Res Gestae
B) Doctrine of finality
C) Principle of truthfulness
D) Doctrine of dying declaration
  • 11. Statements made immediately after a startling event, without time to fabricate, are known as:
A) Independent relevant statements
B) Admissions
C) Confessions
D) Res gestae
  • 12. Which of the following is an example of an independent relevant statement?
A) A suspect’s confession to police
B) . A bystander’s remark identifying the victim’s assailant
C) A witness’ excited utterance during the crime
D) A doctor’s report describing injuries
  • 13. During interrogation, a suspect breaks down and admits the crime. The confession will be inadmissible if:
A) It was made after prolonged questioning
B) It was made in private
C) It was made without counsel
D) It was written in English
  • 14. Which of the following is NOT a type of interview used in criminal investigation?
A) Structured interview
B) Investigative interview
C) Cognitive interview
D) Coercive interview
  • 15. In the cognitive interview technique, the investigator encourages the witness to:
A) Confess guilt
B) Create a timeline
C) Recall events from different perspectives
D) Guess what happened
  • 16. Which of the following makes a confession valid and admissible?
A) Taken under oath in a barangay hearing
B) Made before a prosecutor without counsel
C) Signed before an ordinary witness
D) Made voluntarily, knowingly, and intelligently with counsel present
  • 17. A suspect confesses under threat of harm from the police. Under the Rules of Evidence, the confession is
A) Partially admissible
B) Conditional
C) Inadmissible
D) Admissible
  • 18. What distinguishes an admission from a confession?
A) A confession is made before arrest; an admission after.
B) They are synonymous in criminal law
C) An admission relates to the whole offense; a confession only to parts.
D) An admission is an acknowledgment of fact; a confession is acknowledgment of guilt.
  • 19. In evaluating a suspect’s confession, the court will primarily consider:
A) The presence of counsel and voluntariness
B) The number of witnesses
C) The seriousness of the crime
D) The investigator’s experience
  • 20. When the suspect exercises the right to remain silent, the investigator must:
A) Detain the suspect longer
B) Continue the questioning
C) Use persuasion
D) Stop the interrogation immediately
  • 21. During a police interview, the investigator allows the suspect to narrate freely without interruption. Which method of questioning is being applied?
A) Structured Interview
B) Cognitive Interview
C) Cross-Examination Approach
D) Narrative Method
  • 22. In an interrogation, the investigator deliberately pauses after the suspect gives an incomplete answer to encourage further disclosure. This technique is known as:
A) Silence technique
B) Repetition technique
C) Theme development
D) Emotional appeal
  • 23. Which of the following best distinguishes an interview from an interrogation?
A) Interview is for witnesses; interrogation for complainants
B) Interview is conducted before arrest; interrogation after arrest
C) Interview is accusatory; interrogation is non-accusatory
D) Interview is conducted privately; interrogation publicly
  • 24. A police investigator fails to inform a suspect of his constitutional rights before taking a confession. Which is the legal consequence?
A) The confession remains admissible
B) The confession may be admitted if written and signed
C) The confession is considered involuntary and inadmissible
D) The confession can still be admitted with corroboration
  • 25. Which of the following elements is NOT essential for a confession to be admissible?
A) It must be expressed and categorical
B) It must be in writing
C) It must be voluntary
D) It must be made with the assistance of counsel
  • 26. A dying person tells a nurse that “Juan stabbed me because I refused to give him money.” Which statement is legally valid as a dying declaration?
A) The entire statement is admissible if made under a belief of impending death
B) Only the part identifying the assailant is admissible
C) It is inadmissible unless recorded by a police officer
D) The whole statement is inadmissible for lack of formality
  • 27. A confession made without counsel but later affirmed in open court with counsel present is:
A) Admissible because it was later confirmed
B) Admissible if the suspect signed a waiver
C) Inadmissible for being originally obtained in violation of constitutional rights
D) Admissible only if corroborated by physical evidence
  • 28. A statement made by a victim who later dies, but who did not believe death was imminent, may be admitted as:
A) Independent relevant statement
B) Dying declaration
C) Part of res gestae
D) Admission
  • 29. Which principle guides the admissibility of a dying declaration under Rule 130 of the Rules on Evidence?
A) Necessity and trustworthiness
B) Voluntariness and legality
C) Materiality and spontaneity
D) Opportunity and impartiality
  • 30. A suspect admits that he “might have hit the victim by accident.” What type of admission is this?
A) Qualified admission
B) Judicial admission
C) Tacit confession
D) Extrajudicial confession
  • 31. During an interrogation, the investigator uses deception to make the suspect believe evidence exists. Which statement is correct?
A) Deception invalidates all statements
B) Deception requires approval from a prosecutor
C) Deception may be used if it does not induce false confession
D) Deception is prohibited under all circumstances
  • 32. A witness spontaneously blurts out, “He ran that way after shooting the man!” immediately after the crime. This statement is classified as
A) Confession
B) Dying declaration
C) Admission against interest
D) Res gestae statement
  • 33. A police officer questions a suspect for six hours without counsel and without informing him of his rights. The resulting statement is:
A) Coerced confession
B) Valid under implied waiver doctrine
C) Voluntary admission
D) Admissible due to continuous questioning
  • 34. Which of the following is not a proper objective of interrogation?
A) To intimidate the suspect into cooperating
B) test the validity of gathered evidence
C) To elicit truth about participation in a crime
D) To obtain a confession
  • 35. When the declarant’s statement is offered only to prove that the statement was made, not for its truth, it falls under:
A) Admission
B) Hearsay
C) Confession
D) Independent relevant statement
  • 36. Which of the following situations best fits the rule on dying declaration?
A) The declarant must die immediately after the statement
B) The declarant must identify the killer in the statement
C) The declaration must be in written form
D) The declarant must believe death is inevitable
  • 37. When a suspect’s statement is taken with counsel but through threat and intimidation, the statement is:
A) Admissible because counsel was present
B) Admissible only as corroborative evidence
C) Valid if re-affirmed later
D) Inadmissible for being involuntary
  • 38. An investigator allows the witness to reconstruct the crime scene mentally to enhance recall. This method refers to
A) Investigative visualization
B) Cognitive interviewing
C) Hypnosis technique
D) Narrative reconstruction
  • 39. A confession obtained during custodial investigation without the presence of counsel but repeated voluntarily in court with counsel is:
A) Inadmissible due to constitutional violation
B) Admissible only in part
C) Admissible in full
D) Admissible as corroborative evidence
  • 40. A victim tells his neighbor before dying, “Tell my mother that Pedro stabbed me.” The victim clearly thought he was dying. This statement is:
A) Admission against interest
B) Inadmissible hearsay
C) Dying declaration
D) Confession
  • 41. A confession made after the suspect was informed of his rights but before counsel arrived is:
A) Valid if the suspect signed a waiver before a barangay official
B) Admissible if the suspect voluntarily talked
C) Admissible if reduced into writing and signed freely
D) Inadmissible for lack of counsel during questioning
  • 42. During an interrogation, the investigator builds rapport and gradually shifts to direct questioning about the crime. This process is part of which interrogation phase?
A) Termination phase
B) Question-and-answer phase
C) Approach phase
D) Preparation phase
  • 43. The “PEACE” model (Preparation, Engage, Account, Closure, Evaluation) commonly used in investigative interviewing focuses on:
A) Rapid confessional tactics
B) Use of psychological manipulation
C) Extracting confession through pressure
D) Structured, ethical, and non-coercive questioning
  • 44. Which of the following is NOT an acceptable method of interrogation under Philippine law?
A) Presenting evidence to elicit a truthful reaction
B) Allowing the suspect to narrate his version freely
C) Encouraging voluntary cooperation
D) Using intimidation or threat to induce confession
  • 45. In applying the “logical approach” to interrogation, the investigator primarily relies on:
A) Deception and bluffing
B) Logical reasoning and factual inconsistencies
C) Emotional appeal and sympathy
D) Physical pressure
  • 46. When a witness’s statement is taken immediately after the incident to preserve accuracy of recollection, it is called:
A) Preliminary interview
B) Cross-examination
C) Cognitive interrogation
D) Investigative debriefing
  • 47. A suspect, after consulting with his lawyer, voluntarily admits his role in the crime without coercion. The confession is
A) Considered res gestae
B) Inadmissible unless signed by two witnesses
C) Inadmissible for being post-consultation
D) Admissible in evidence
  • 48. The main purpose of conducting an interview before an interrogation is to:
A) Determine guilt beyond reasonable doubt
B) Obtain physical evidence
C) Gather information without accusation
D) Intimidate the suspect to confess
  • 49. Under the Rules on Evidence, which of the following is required for a dying declaration to be valid?
A) The declarant must be under oath
B) The declaration must concern the cause or circumstances of death
C) The declarant must identify the killer
D) The statement must be recorded by a police investigator
  • 50. A statement made by a witness out of court to explain his subsequent actions, not to prove the truth of the statement, is an example of:
A) Admission
B) Independent relevant statement
C) Confession
D) Res gestae
  • 51. The key distinguishing element between theft and robbery under the Revised Penal Code is:
A) The value of the property stolen
B) The intent to gain
C) The number of offenders
D) The use or threat of violence or intimidation
  • 52. Which of the following is a crucial initial step in investigating a robbery incident?
A) Tracing the stolen property
B) Securing the crime scene and interviewing witnesses
C) Filing the case immediately
D) Conducting a background check on the victim
  • 53. The modus operandi of the suspect and the means of entry and escape are primarily analyzed during which phase of property crime investigation?
A) Suspect profiling
B) Intelligence gathering
C) Crime scene reconstruction
D) Evidence collection
  • 54. The main difference between estafa and theft is:
A) Estafa occurs only in corporate settings.
B) Theft requires a written contract; estafa does not
C) Estafa involves deceit or abuse of confidence; theft does not.
D) Theft requires intent to gain; estafa does not.
  • 55. In investigating estafa cases, the most vital documentary evidence is:
A) Property inventory
B) CCTV footage
C) Confession of the accused
D) Written or electronic proof of deceit or fraudulent transaction
  • 56. A car is taken without the owner’s consent with intent to gain. This act falls under:
A) Qualified theft
B) Robbery
C) Estafa
D) Carnapping
  • 57. The Anti-Carnapping Law (R.A. 10883) defines carnapping as the taking of a motor vehicle:
A) With or without the owner’s consent, with intent to gain
B) Only when the vehicle is sold illegally
C) With violence or intimidation only
D) Without violence but with intent to gain
  • 58. Under R.A. 10883, when carnapping results in the death of a person, the penalty is:
A) Life imprisonment
B) Reclusion temporal
C) Reclusion perpetua to death
D) Death by lethal injection
  • 59. In the investigation of carnapping cases, the Vehicle Identification Number (VIN) is primarily used to:
A) Determine insurance status
B) Locate the driver
C) Identify the manufacturer
D) Trace ownership and vehicle identity
  • 60. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) penalizes
A) Only those who steal cars
B) Those who deal in stolen property knowing it was stolen
C) Those who physically steal property
D) Those who report stolen property
  • 61. The essential element that distinguishes a fencer from a thief is:
A) The act of possession rather than the act of taking
B) The ownership of the property
C) The act of concealing the property
D) The absence of intent to gain
  • 62. Which document serves as the primary reference in proving ownership of a motor vehicle in carnapping cases?
A) Certificate of Registration and Official Receipt (CR/OR)
B) Insurance policy
C) Driver’s license
D) Sales invoice
  • 63. The presumption of fencing arises when:
A) The accused was seen near the crime scene
B) The property is found hidden
C) The accused buys property from a store
D) The accused possesses stolen property without satisfactory explanation
  • 64. The Anti-Fencing Law (P.D. 1612) was enacted primarily to:
A) Penalize accessory crimes of selling stolen goods
B) Reduce robbery incidents
C) Punish the original thief
D) Prevent the circulation of stolen property in commerce
  • 65. In human trafficking under R.A. 9208, the core element is:
A) Recruitment for legal overseas work
B) Exploitation through force, fraud, or coercion
C) Payment of recruitment fees
D) Use of minors in employment
  • 66. R.A. 10364 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking Act) strengthened R.A. 9208 by:
A) Limiting jurisdiction to the Philippines only
B) Decriminalizing illegal recruitment
C) Allowing voluntary prostitution
D) Including internet-facilitated trafficking and accessory liability
  • 67. The latest amendment, R.A. 11862 (Expanded Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act of 2022), focuses on:
A) Limiting law enforcement authority
B) Reducing penalties for traffickers
C) Strengthening prosecution and extraterritorial jurisdiction
D) Increasing fines
  • 68. The victim-centered approach in human trafficking investigations emphasizes:
A) Protection and rehabilitation of victims
B) Immediate deportation
C) Media exposure
D) Aggressive interrogation
  • 69. Under R.A. 9208, the following is NOT considered trafficking:
A) Exploitation of prostitution
B) Forced labor
C) Debt bondage
D) Adoption following legal procedures
  • 70. One of the stages of money laundering where illegal money enters the financial system is called:
A) Layering
B) Placement
C) Structuring
D) Integration
  • 71. The layering stage of money laundering involves:
A) Depositing the proceeds
B) Moving funds through various accounts to hide origin
C) Reporting suspicious transactions
D) Investing clean money
  • 72. The integration stage occurs when:
A) The launderer mixes illicit funds with legitimate businesses
B) Authorities freeze the assets
C) The launderer hides the funds abroad
D) The launderer deposits cash in small amounts
  • 73. The Anti-Money Laundering Act (R.A. 9160) aims to:
A) Prevent the financial system from being used for criminal proceeds
B) Regulate pawnshops
C) Encourage secret banking
D) Allow anonymous foreign accounts
  • 74. Under R.A. 10927, casinos are included as:
A) Charitable organizations
B) Covered persons under AMLA
C) Exempt institutions
D) Non-reporting entities
  • 75. Under AMLA, a transaction exceeding ₱500,000 within one banking day must be reported as:
A) Suspicious transaction
B) Threshold transaction
C) Covered transaction
D) Layered transaction
  • 76. Failure of a covered institution to report suspicious transactions constitutes:
A) Gross negligence
B) A criminal violation under AMLA
C) Administrative offense only
D) No liability if unintentional
  • 77. The body primarily responsible for enforcing AMLA is:
A) Anti-Money Laundering Council (AMLC)
B) Bangko Sentral ng Pilipinas
C) Department of Justice
D) Securities and Exchange Commission
  • 78. The approach in investigating theft focuses on:
A) Checking bank accounts
B) Locating stolen property and proving intent to gain
C) Identifying the victim’s negligence
D) Establishing the suspect’s income
  • 79. The investigative approach in robbery emphasizes:
A) Identifying use of force or intimidation and weapon evidence
B) Studying the suspect’s financial background
C) Recovery of stolen property only
D) Conducting digital forensics
  • 80. In estafa investigations, one must primarily analyze:
A) Place of transaction only
B) The victim’s wealth
C) Modus operandi and deceit pattern
D) Suspect’s criminal record
  • 81. Under R.A. 10883, the registered owner’s failure to report a stolen vehicle within 24 hours may result in:
A) No consequence
B) Presumption of involvement in the crime
C) Forfeiture of insurance claims
D) Administrative sanction
  • 82. A person who buys a motorcycle at a suspiciously low price without verifying ownership documents may be liable for:
A) Fencing
B) Estafa
C) Theft
D) Carnapping
  • 83. Under AMLA, a Suspicious Transaction Report (STR) is required when:
A) The depositor is a senior citizen
B) The account is new
C) The transaction is legal but complex or unusual
D) The account balance is low
  • 84. In investigating money laundering, the financial trail is reconstructed mainly through:
A) Paper and digital transaction audit
B) News reports
C) Bank advertisements
D) Witness interviews
  • 85. The common investigative challenge across property, financial, and trafficking crimes is:
A) Political influence
B) Lack of police equipment
C) Media pressure
D) International cooperation and evidence tracing
  • 86. A police investigator observes that a crime scene has no signs of forced entry, yet valuable items are missing. Which crime is most likely being investigated?
A) Robbery
B) Carnapping
C) Theft
D) Estafa
  • 87. In distinguishing theft from robbery, which investigative focus is most critical?
A) Use of deception or false pretenses
B) Presence or absence of violence or intimidation
C) The monetary value of the property stolen
D) Relationship between victim and offender
  • 88. A businessman convinces several investors to give money for a fake project. Which investigative approach should be applied?
A) Physical evidence collection at the scene
B) Vehicle tracing system
C) Property recovery operation
D) Financial and documentary audit
  • 89. In robbery cases, an investigator should prioritize the collection of which type of evidence?
A) Physical evidence like weapons or fingerprints
B) Computer logs and online records
C) Vehicle registration documents
D) Documentary and bank receipts
  • 90. In a case of estafa, what kind of evidence is most crucial for conviction?
A) Documentary evidence proving deceit and damage
B) DNA evidence
C) Eyewitness testimony
D) Physical evidence at the crime scene
  • 91. Under R.A. 10883 (New Anti-Carnapping Law), when is the crime of carnapping considered consummated?
A) When the vehicle is sold to another person
B) When the offender takes possession without consent of the owner
C) When the vehicle leaves the city or province
D) When the owner reports the loss
  • 92. A vehicle is stolen and immediately disassembled for sale of parts. Under R.A. 10883, this is classified as:
A) Theft
B) Qualified carnapping
C) Robbery
D) Simple carnapping
  • 93. Under P.D. 1612 (Anti-Fencing Law), which of the following elements must be proven to establish guilt?
A) Amount of profit derived from the property
B) Knowledge or reasonable presumption that the item was stolen
C) Ownership of stolen property by the fence
D) Personal relationship between the thief and the fence
  • 94. A buyer purchased a secondhand motorcycle at a suspiciously low price and failed to verify its origin. Under P.D. 1612, this constitutes:
A) Estafa
B) Theft by negligence
C) Fencing
D) Innocent purchase
  • 95. Which of the following is a distinguishing investigative step in human trafficking cases compared to other crimes against property?
A) Collection of firearms evidence
B) Surveillance of illegal recruitment activities
C) Vehicle tracing through LTO database
D) Accounting audit of business operations
  • 96. Under R.A. 9208 (Anti-Trafficking in Persons Act), what element distinguishes trafficking from illegal recruitment?
A) Recruitment of minors under 18 years old
B) Employment abroad
C) The use of force, coercion, or deception for exploitation
D) Violation of labor regulations
  • 97. Which law expanded the coverage of human trafficking to include “online sexual exploitation and cyber trafficking”?
A) R.A. 9208
B) R.A. 10883
C) R.A. 10364
D) P.D. 1612
  • 98. Under R.A. 11862, what new provision strengthened the protection of trafficking victims?
A) Non-deportation of foreign victims
B) Repatriation without consent
C) Immunity of recruiters
D) Reclassification of all victims as offenders
  • 99. In money laundering, which of the following stages involves depositing illegally obtained funds into the financial system?
A) Placement
B) Integration
C) Layering
D) Concealment
  • 100. An investigator detects multiple fund transfers among shell companies to obscure the origin of money. Which stage of money laundering is this?
A) Structuring
B) Integration
C) Layering
D) Placement
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